Foundation of Professional Nursing Practice

1. Which element in the circular chain of infection can be eliminated by preserving skin integrity?

A. Host
B. Reservoir
C. Mode of transmission
D. Portal of entry

2. Which of the following will probably result in a break in sterile technique for respiratory isolation?

A. Opening the patient’s window to the outside environment

B. Turning on the patient’s room ventilator
C. Opening the door of the patient’s room leading into the hospital corridor
D. Failing to wear gloves when administering a bed bath

3. Which of the following patients is at greater risk for contracting an infection?

A. A patient with leukopenia

B. A patient receiving broad-spectrum antibiotics
C. A postoperative patient who has undergone orthopedic surgery
D. A newly diagnosed diabetic patient

4. Effective hand washing requires the use of:

A. Soap or detergent to promote emulsification

B. Hot water to destroy bacteria
C. A disinfectant to increase surface tension
D. All of the above

5. After routine patient contact, hand washing should last at least:

A. 30 seconds
B. 1 minute
C. 2 minutes
D. 3 minutes

6. Which of the following procedures always requires surgical asepsis?

A. Vaginal instillation of conjugated estrogen

B. Urinary catheterization
C. Nasogastric tube insertion
D. Colostomy irrigation

7. Sterile technique is used whenever:

A. Strict isolation is required

B. Terminal disinfection is performed
C. Invasive procedures are performed
D. Protective isolation is necessary
8. Which of the following constitutes a break in sterile technique while preparing a sterile field for a
dressing change?

A. Using sterile forceps, rather than sterile gloves, to handle a sterile item
B. Touching the outside wrapper of sterilized material without sterile gloves
C. Placing a sterile object on the edge of the sterile field
D. Pouring out a small amount of solution (15 to 30 ml) before pouring the solution into a sterile
container
9. A natural body defense that plays an active role in preventing infection is:

A. Yawning
B. Body hair
C. Hiccupping
D. Rapid eye movements

10. All of the following statement are true about donning sterile gloves except:

A. The first glove should be picked up by grasping the inside of the cuff.
B. The second glove should be picked up by inserting the gloved fingers under the cuff outside the glove.
C. The gloves should be adjusted by sliding the gloved fingers under the sterile cuff and pulling the glove
over the wrist
D. The inside of the glove is considered sterile

11. When removing a contaminated gown, the nurse should be careful that the first thing she touches is
the:

A. Waist tie and neck tie at the back of the gown

B. Waist tie in front of the gown
C. Cuffs of the gown
D. Inside of the gown

12. Which of the following nursing interventions is considered the most effective form or universal
precautions?

A. Cap all used needles before removing them from their syringes
B. Discard all used uncapped needles and syringes in an impenetrable protective container
C. Wear gloves when administering IM injections
D. Follow enteric precautions

13. All of the following measures are recommended to prevent pressure ulcers except:

A. Massaging the reddened area with lotion

B. Using a water or air mattress
C. Adhering to a schedule for positioning and turning
D. Providing meticulous skin care

14. Which of the following blood tests should be performed before a blood transfusion?

A. Prothrombin and coagulation time

B. Blood typing and cross-matching
C. Bleeding and clotting time
D. Complete blood count (CBC) and electrolyte levels.

15. The primary purpose of a platelet count is to evaluate the:

A. Potential for clot formation

B. Potential for bleeding
C. Presence of an antigen-antibody response
D. Presence of cardiac enzymes
16. Which of the following white blood cell (WBC) counts clearly indicates leukocytosis?

A. 4,500/mm³
B. 7,000/mm³
C. 10,000/mm³
D. 25,000/mm³

17. After 5 days of diuretic therapy with 20mg of furosemide (Lasix) daily, a patient begins to exhibit
fatigue, muscle cramping and muscle weakness. These symptoms probably indicate that the patient is
experiencing:

A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Anorexia
D. Dysphagia

18. Which of the following statements about chest X-ray is false?

A. No contradictions exist for this test

B. Before the procedure, the patient should remove all jewelry, metallic objects, and buttons above the
waist
C. A signed consent is not required
D. Eating, drinking, and medications are allowed before this test

19. The most appropriate time for the nurse to obtain a sputum specimen for culture is:

A. Early in the morning

B. After the patient eats a light breakfast
C. After aerosol therapy
D. After chest physiotherapy

20. A patient with no known allergies is to receive penicillin every 6 hours. When administering the
medication, the nurse observes a fine rash on the patient’s skin. The most appropriate nursing action
would be to:

A. Withhold the moderation and notify the physician

B. Administer the medication and notify the physician
C. Administer the medication with an antihistamine
D. Apply cornstarch soaks to the rash

21. All of the following nursing interventions are correct when using the Z-track method of drug injection
except:

A. Prepare the injection site with alcohol

B. Use a needle that’s a least 1” long
C. Aspirate for blood before injection
D. Rub the site vigorously after the injection to promote absorption

22. The correct method for determining the vastus lateralis site for I.M. injection is to:

A. Locate the upper aspect of the upper outer quadrant of the buttock about 5 to 8 cm below the iliac
crest
B. Palpate the lower edge of the acromion process and the midpoint lateral aspect of the arm
C. Palpate a 1” circular area anterior to the umbilicus
D. Divide the area between the greater femoral trochanter and the lateral femoral condyle into thirds,
and select the middle third on the anterior of the thigh
23. The mid-deltoid injection site is seldom used for I.M. injections because it:

A. Can accommodate only 1 ml or less of medication

B. Bruises too easily
C. Can be used only when the patient is lying down
D. Does not readily parenteral medication

24. The appropriate needle size for insulin injection is:

A. 18G, 1 ½” long
B. 22G, 1” long
C. 22G, 1 ½” long
D. 25G, 5/8” long

25. The appropriate needle gauge for intradermal injection is:

A. 20G
B. 22G
C. 25G
D. 26G

26. The most important nursing intervention to correct skin dryness is:

A. Avoid bathing the patient until the condition is remedied, and notify the physician
B. Ask the physician to refer the patient to a dermatologist, and suggest that the patient wear home-
laundered sleepwear
C. Consult the dietitian about increasing the patient’s fat intake, and take necessary measures to
prevent infection
D. Encourage the patient to increase his fluid intake, use non-irritating soap when bathing the patient,
and apply lotion to the involved areas

27. When bathing a patient’s extremities, the nurse should use long, firm strokes from the distal to the
proximal areas. This technique:

A. Provides an opportunity for skin assessment

B. Avoids undue strain on the nurse
C. Increases venous blood return
D. Causes vasoconstriction and increases circulation

28. Vivid dreaming occurs in which stage of sleep?

A. Stage I non-REM
B. Rapid eye movement (REM) stage
C. Stage II non-REM
D. Delta stage

29. The natural sedative in meat and milk products (especially warm milk) that can help induce sleep is:

A. Flurazepam
B. Temazepam
C. Tryptophan
D. Methotrimeprazine

30. Nursing interventions that can help the patient to relax and sleep restfully include all of the following
except:

A. Have the patient take a 30- to 60-minute nap in the afternoon

B. Turn on the television in the patient’s room
C. Provide quiet music and interesting reading material
D. Massage the patient’s back with long strokes
31. Restraints can be used for all of the following purposes except to:

A. Prevent a confused patient from removing tubes, such as feeding tubes, I.V. lines, and urinary
catheters
B. Prevent a patient from falling out of bed or a chair
C. Discourage a patient from attempting to ambulate alone when he requires assistance for his safety
D. Prevent a patient from becoming confused or disoriented

32. Which of the following is the nurse’s legal responsibility when applying restraints?

A. Document the patient’s behavior

B. Document the type of restraint used
C. Obtain a written order from the physician except in an emergency, when the patient must be
protected from injury to himself or others
D. All of the above

33. Kubler-Ross’s five successive stages of death and dying are:

A. Anger, bargaining, denial, depression, acceptance

B. Denial, anger, depression, bargaining, acceptance
C. Denial, anger, bargaining, depression acceptance
D. Bargaining, denial, anger, depression, acceptance

34. A terminally ill patient usually experiences all of the following feelings during the anger stage except:

A. Rage
B. Envy
C. Numbness
D. Resentment

35. Nurses and other health care provides often have difficulty helping a terminally ill patient through
the necessary stages leading to acceptance of death. Which of the following strategies is most helpful to
the nurse in achieving this goal?

A. Taking psychology courses related to gerontology

B. Reading books and other literature on the subject of thanatology
C. Reflecting on the significance of death
D. Reviewing varying cultural beliefs and practices related to death

36. Which of the following symptoms is the best indicator of imminent death?

A. A weak, slow pulse

B. Increased muscle tone
C. Fixed, dilated pupils
D. Slow, shallow respirations

37. A nurse caring for a patient with an infectious disease who requires isolation should refers to
guidelines published by the:

A. National League for Nursing (NLN)

B. Centers for Disease Control (CDC)
C. American Medical Association (AMA)
D. American Nurses Association (ANA)

38. To institute appropriate isolation precautions, the nurse must first know the:

A. Organism’s mode of transmission

B. Organism’s Gram-staining characteristics
C. Organism’s susceptibility to antibiotics
D. Patient’s susceptibility to the organism
39. Which is the correct procedure for collecting a sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity testing?

A. Have the patient place the specimen in a container and enclose the container in a plastic bag
B. Have the patient expectorate the sputum while the nurse holds the container
C. Have the patient expectorate the sputum into a sterile container
D. Offer the patient an antiseptic mouthwash just before he expectorate the sputum

40. An autoclave is used to sterilize hospital supplies because:

A. More articles can be sterilized at a time

B. Steam causes less damage to the materials
C. A lower temperature can be obtained
D. Pressurized steam penetrates the supplies better

41. The best way to decrease the risk of transferring pathogens to a patient when removing
contaminated gloves is to:

A. Wash the gloves before removing them

B. Gently pull on the fingers of the gloves when removing them
C. Gently pull just below the cuff and invert the gloves when removing them
D. Remove the gloves and then turn them inside out

42. After having an I.V. line in place for 72 hours, a patient complains of tenderness, burning, and
swelling. Assessment of the I.V. site reveals that it is warm and erythematous. This usually indicates:

A. Infection
B. Infiltration
C. Phlebitis
D. Bleeding

43. To ensure homogenization when diluting powdered medication in a vial, the nurse should:

A. Shake the vial vigorously

B. Roll the vial gently between the palms
C. Invert the vial and let it stand for 1 minute
D. Do nothing after adding the solution to the vial

44. The nurse is teaching a patient to prepare a syringe with 40 units of U-100 NPH insulin for self-
injection. The patient’s first priority concerning self-injection in this situation is to:

A. Assess the injection site

B. Select the appropriate injection site
C. Check the syringe to verify that the nurse has removed the prescribed insulin dose
D. Clean the injection site in a circular manner with alcohol sponge

45. The physician’s order reads “Administer 1 g cefazolin sodium (Ancef) in 150 ml of normal saline
solution in 60 minutes.” What is the flow rate if the drop factor is 10 gtt = 1 ml?

A. 25 gtt/minute
B. 37 gtt/minute
C. 50 gtt/minute
D. 60 gtt/minute
46. A patient must receive 50 units of Humulin regular insulin. The label reads 100 units = 1 ml. How
many milliliters should the nurse administer?

A. 0.5 ml
B. 0.75 ml
C. 1 ml
D. 2 ml

47. How should the nurse prepare an injection for a patient who takes both regular and NPH insulin?

A. Draw up the NPH insulin, then the regular insulin, in the same syringe
B. Draw up the regular insulin, then the NPH insulin, in the same syringe
C. Use two separate syringe
D. Check with the physician

48. A patient has just received 30 mg of codeine by mouth for pain. Five minutes later he vomits. What
should the nurse do first?

A. Call the physician

B. Remedicate the patient
C. Observe the emesis
D. Explain to the patient that she can do nothing to help him

49. A patient is characterized with a #16 indwelling urinary (Foley) catheter to determine if:

A. Trauma has occurred

B. His 24-hour output is adequate
C. He has a urinary tract infection
D. Residual urine remains in the bladder after voiding

50. A staff nurse who is promoted to assistant nurse manager may feel uncomfortable initially when
supervising her former peers. She can best decrease this discomfort by:

A. Writing down all assignments

B. Making changes after evaluating the situation and having discussions with the staff.
C. Telling the staff nurses that she is making changes to benefit their performance
D. Evaluating the clinical performance of each staff nurse in a private conference

“The difference between a successful person and others is not a lack of strength, not a lack of knowledge, but rather a lack in will.”
~Vince Lombardi

PREPARED BY:
ARNIE JUDE CARIDO, RN, MD, MPH
 Foundation of Professional Nursing Practice

51. Which intervention is an example of primary prevention?

A. Administering digoxin (Lanoxicaps) to a patient with heart failure

B. Administering a measles, mumps, and rubella immunization to an infant
C. Obtaining a Papanicolaou smear to screen for cervical cancer
D. Using occupational therapy to help a patient cope with arthritis

52. The nurse in charge is assessing a patient’s abdomen. Which examination technique should the
nurse use first?

A. Auscultation
B. Inspection
C. Percussion
D. Palpation

53. Which statement regarding heart sounds is correct?

A. S1 and S2 sound equally loud over the entire cardiac area.

B. S1 and S2 sound fainter at the apex
C. S1 and S2 sound fainter at the base
D. S1 is loudest at the apex, and S2 is loudest at the base

54. The nurse in charge identifies a patient’s responses to actual or potential health problems during
which step of the nursing process?

A. Assessment
B. Nursing diagnosis
C. Planning
D. Evaluation

55. A female patient is receiving furosemide (Lasix), 40 mg P.O. b.i.D. in the plan of care, the nurse
should emphasize teaching the patient about the importance of consuming:

A. Fresh, green vegetables

B. Bananas and oranges
C. Lean red meat
D. Creamed corn

56. The nurse in charge must monitor a patient receiving chloramphenicol for adverse drug reaction.
What is the most toxic reaction to chloramphenicol?

A. Lethal arrhythmias
B. Malignant hypertension
C. Status epilepticus
D. Bone marrow suppression
57. A female patient is diagnosed with deep-vein thrombosis. Which nursing diagnosis should receive
highest priority at this time?

A. Impaired gas exchanges related to increased blood flow

B. Fluid volume excess related to peripheral vascular disease
C. Risk for injury related to edema
D. Altered peripheral tissue perfusion related to venous congestion

58. When positioned properly, the tip of a central venous catheter should lie in the:

A. Superior vena cava

B. Basilica vein
C. Jugular vein
D. Subclavian vein

59. Nurse Nikki is revising a client’s care plan. During which step of the nursing process does such
revision take place?

A. Assessment
B. Planning
C. Implementation
D. Evaluation

60. A 65-year-old female who has diabetes mellitus and has sustained a large laceration on her left wrist
asks the nurse, “How long will it take for my scars to disappear?” which statement would be the nurse’s
best response?

A. “The contraction phase of wound healing can take 2 to 3 years.”

B. “Wound healing is very individual but within 4 months the scar should fade.”
C. “With your history and the type of location of the injury, it’s hard to say.”
D. “If you don’t develop an infection, the wound should heal any time between 1 and 3 years from
now.”

61. One aspect of implementation related to drug therapy is:

A. Developing a content outline

B. Documenting drugs given
C. Establishing outcome criteria
D. Setting realistic client goals

62. A female client is readmitted to the facility with a warm, tender, reddened area on her right calf.
Which contributing factor would the nurse recognize as most important?

A. A history of increased aspirin use

B. Recent pelvic surgery
C. An active daily walking program
D. A history of diabetes

63. Which intervention should the nurse in charge try first for a client that exhibits signs of sleep
disturbance?

A. Administer sleeping medication before bedtime

B. Ask the client each morning to describe the quantity of sleep during the previous night
C. Teach the client relaxation techniques, such as guided imagery, medication, and progressive muscle
relaxation
D. Provide the client with normal sleep aids, such as pillows, back rubs, and snacks
64. While examining a client’s leg, the nurse notes an open ulceration with visible granulation tissue in
the wound. Until a wound specialist can be contacted, which type of dressings is most appropriate for
the nurse in charge to apply?

A. Dry sterile dressing

B. Sterile petroleum gauze
C. Moist, sterile saline gauze
D. Povidone-iodine-soaked gauze

65. A male client in a behavioral-health facility receives a 30-minute psychotherapy session, and
provider uses a current procedure terminology (CPT) code that bills for a 50-minute session. Under the
False Claims Act, such illegal behavior is known as:

A. Unbundling
B. Overbilling
C. Upcoding
D. Misrepresentation

66. A nurse assigned to care for a postoperative male client who has diabetes mellitus. During the
assessment interview, the client reports that he’s impotent and says that he’s concerned about its effect
on his marriage. In planning this client’s care, the most appropriate intervention would be to:

A. Encourage the client to ask questions about personal sexuality

B. Provide time for privacy
C. Provide support for the spouse or significant other
D. Suggest referral to a sex counselor or other appropriate professional

67. Using Abraham Maslow’s hierarchy of human needs, a nurse assigns highest priority to which client
need?

A. Security
B. Elimination
C. Safety
D. Belonging

68. A male client is on prolonged bed rest has developed a pressure ulcer. The wound shows no signs of
healing even though the client has received skin care and has been turned every 2 hours. Which factor is
most likely responsible for the failure to heal?

A. Inadequate vitamin D intake

B. Inadequate protein intake
C. Inadequate massaging of the affected area
D. Low calcium level

69. A female client who received general anesthesia returns from surgery. Postoperatively, which
nursing diagnosis takes highest priority for this client?

A. Acute pain related to surgery

B. Deficient fluid volume related to blood and fluid loss from surgery
C. Impaired physical mobility related to surgery
D. Risk for aspiration related to anesthesia

70. The nurse inspects a client’s back and notices small hemorrhagic spots. The nurse documents that
the client has:

A. Extravasation
B. Osteomalacia
C. Petechiae
D. Uremia
71. Which document addresses the client’s right to information, informed consent, and treatment
refusal?

A. Standard of Nursing Practice

B. Patient’s Bill of Rights
C. Nurse Practice Act
D. Code for Nurses

72. If a blood pressure cuff is too small for a client, blood pressure readings taken with such a cuff may
do which of the following?

A. Fail to show changes in blood pressure

B. Produce a false-high measurement
C. Cause sciatic nerve damage
D. Produce a false-low measurement

73. Nurse Elijah has been teaching a client about a high-protein diet. The teaching is successful if the
client identifies which meal as high in protein?

A. Baked beans, hamburger, and milk

B. Spaghetti with cream sauce, broccoli, and tea
C. Bouillon, spinach, and soda
D. Chicken cutlet, spinach, and soda

74. A male client is admitted to the hospital with blunt chest trauma after a motor vehicle accident. The
first nursing priority for this client would be to:

A. Assess the client’s airway

B. Provide pain relief
C. Encourage deep breathing and coughing
D. Splint the chest wall with a pillow

75. A newly hired charge nurse assesses the staff nurses as competent individually but ineffective and
nonproductive as a team. In addressing her concern, the charge nurse should understand that the usual
reason for such a situation is:

A. Unhappiness about the charge in leadership

B. Unexpected feeling and emotions among the staff
C. Fatigue from overwork and understaffing
D. Failure to incorporate staff in decision making

76. A male client blood test results are as follows: white blood cell (WBC) count, 100ul; hemoglobin (Hb)
level, 14 g/dl; hematocrit (HCT), 40%. Which goal would be most important for this client?

A. Promote fluid balance

B. Prevent infection
C. Promote rest
D. Prevent injury

77. Following a tonsillectomy, a female client returns to the medical-surgical unit. The client is lethargic
and reports having a sore throat. Which position would be most therapeutic for this client?

A. Semi-Fowler’s
B. Supine
C. High-Fowler’s
D. Side-lying
78. The nurse inspects a client’s pupil size and determines that it’s 2 mm in the left eye and 3 mm in the
right eye. Unequal pupils are known as:

A. Anisocoria
B. Ataxia
C. Cataract
D. Diplopia

79. The nurse in charge is caring for an Italian client. He’s complaining of pain, but he falls asleep right
after his complaint and before the nurse can assess his pain. The nurse concludes that:

A. He may have a low threshold for pain

B. He was faking pain
C. Someone else gave him medication
D. The pain went away

80. A female client is admitted to the emergency department with complaints of chest pain shortness of
breath. The nurse’s assessment reveals jugular vein distention. The nurse knows that when a client has
jugular vein distension, it’s typically due to:

A. A neck tumor
B. An electrolyte imbalance
C. Dehydration
D. Fluid overload

81. Critical thinking and the nursing process have which of the following in common? Both:

A. Are important to use in nursing practice

B. Use an ordered series of steps
C. Are patient-specific processes
D. Were developed specifically for nursing

82. In which step of the nursing process does the nurse analyze data and identify client problems?

A. Assessment
B. Diagnosis
C. Planning outcomes
D. Evaluation

83. In which phase of the nursing process does the nurse decide whether her actions have successfully
treated the client’s health problem?

A. Assessment
B. Diagnosis
C. Planning outcomes
D. Evaluation

84. What is the most basic reason that self-knowledge is important for nurses? Because it helps the
nurse to:

A. Identify personal biases that may affect his thinking and actions
B. Identify the most effective interventions for a patient
C. Communicate more efficiently with colleagues, patients, and families
D. Learn and remember new procedures and techniques
85. Arrange the steps of the nursing process in the sequence in which they generally occur.

A. Assessment
B. Evaluation
C. Planning outcomes
D. Planning interventions
E. Diagnosis

A. E, B, A, D, C
B. A, B, C, D, E
C. A, E, C, D, B
D. D, A, B, E, C

86. How are critical thinking skills and critical thinking attitudes similar? Both are:

A. Influences on the nurse’s problem solving and decision making

B. Like feelings rather than cognitive activities
C. Cognitive activities rather than feelings
D. Applicable in all aspects of a person’s life

87. The nurse is preparing to admit a patient from the emergency department. The transferring nurse
reports that the patient with chronic lung disease has a 30+ year history of tobacco use. The nurse used
to smoke a pack of cigarettes a day at one time and worked very hard to quit smoking. She immediately
thinks to herself, “I know I tend to feel negatively about people who use tobacco, especially when they
have a serious lung condition; I figure if I can stop smoking, they should be able to. I must remember
how physically and psychologically difficult that is, and be very careful not to let be judgmental of this
patient.” This best illustrates:

A. Theoretical knowledge
B. Self-knowledge
C. Using reliable resources
D. Use of the nursing process

88. Which organization’s standards require that all patients be assessed specifically for pain?

A. American Nurses Association (ANA)

B. State nurse practice acts
C. National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN)
D. The Joint Commission

89. Which of the following is an example of data that should be validated?

A. The urinalysis report indicates there are white blood cells in the urine.
B. The client states she feels feverish; you measure the oral temperature at 98°F.
C. The client has clear breath sounds; you count a respiratory rate of 18.
D. The chest x-ray report indicates the client has pneumonia in the right lower lobe.

90. Which of the following is an example of appropriate behavior when conducting a client interview?

A. Recording all the information on the agency-approved form during the interview
B. Asking the client, “Why did you think it was necessary to seek health care at this time?”
C. Using precise medical terminology when asking the client questions
D. Sitting, facing the client in a chair at the client’s bedside, using active listening

91. The nurse wishes to identify nursing diagnoses for a patient. She can best do this by using a data
collection form organized according to: Select all that apply.

A. A body systems model

B. A head-to-toe framework
C. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs
D. Gordon’s functional health patterns
92. The nurse is recording assessment data. She writes, “The patient seems worried about his surgery.
Other than that, he had a good night.” Which errors did the nurse make? Select all that apply.

A. Used a vague generality

B. Did not use the patient’s exact words
C. Used a “waffle” word (e.g., appears)
D. Recorded an inference rather than a cue

93. A patient is admitted with shortness of breath, so the nurse immediately listens to his breath sounds.
Which type of assessment is the nurse performing?

A. Ongoing assessment
B. Comprehensive physical assessment
C. Focused physical assessment
D. Psychosocial assessment

94. The nurse is assessing vital signs for a patient just admitted to the hospital. Ideally, and if there are
no contraindications, how should the nurse position the patient for this portion of the admission
assessment?

A. Sitting upright
B. Lying flat on the back with knees flexed
C. Lying flat on the back with arms and legs fully extended
D. Side-lying with the knees flexed

95. For all body systems except the abdomen, what is the preferred order for the nurse to perform the
following examination techniques?

A. Palpation
B. Auscultation
C. Inspection
D. Percussion

A. D, B, A, C
B. C, A, D, B
C. B, C, D, A
D. A, B, C, D

96. The nurse is assessing a patient admitted to the hospital with rectal bleeding. The patient had a hip
replacement 2 weeks ago. Which position should the nurse avoid when examining this patient’s rectal
area?

A. Sims’
B. Supine
C. Dorsal recumbent
D. Semi-Fowler’s

97. How should the nurse modify the examination for a 7-year-old child?

A. Ask the parents to leave the room before the examination.

B. Demonstrate equipment before using it.
C. Allow the child to help with the examination.
D. Perform invasive procedures (e.g., otoscopic) last.
98. The nurse must examine a patient who is weak and unable to sit unaided or to get out of bed. How
should she position the patient to begin and perform most of the physical examination?

A. Dorsal recumbent
B. Semi-Fowler’s
C. Lithotomy
D. Sims’

99. The nurse should use the diaphragm of the stethoscope to auscultate which of the following?

A. Heart murmurs
B. Jugular venous hums
C. Bowel sounds
D. Carotid bruits

100. The nurse calculates a body mass index (BMI) of 18 for a young adult woman who comes to the
physician’s office for a college physical. This patient is considered:

A. Obese
B. Overweight
C. Average
D. Underweight

“The difference between a successful person and others is not a lack of strength, not a lack of knowledge, but rather a lack in will.”
~Vince Lombardi

PREPARED BY:
ARNIE JUDE CARIDO, RN, MD, MPH