Griffiths Quantum Mechanics 3e: Problem 1.

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Problem 1.15
Show that ˆ ∞
d
Ψ∗1 Ψ2 dx = 0
dt −∞

for any two (normalizable) solutions to the Schrödinger equation (with the same V (x)), Ψ1 and
Ψ2 .

Solution

The governing equation for the wave function Ψ(x, t) is Schrödinger’s equation.

∂Ψ i~ ∂ 2 Ψ i
= 2
− V (x, t)Ψ(x, t)
∂t 2m ∂x ~
Take the complex conjugate of both sides to get the corresponding equation for Ψ∗ .

∂Ψ∗ i~ ∂ 2 Ψ∗ i
=− 2
+ V (x, t)Ψ∗ (x, t)
∂t 2m ∂x ~
Suppose that Ψ1 and Ψ2 are two solutions to the Schrödinger equation.

∂Ψ1 i~ ∂ 2 Ψ1 i ∂Ψ2 i~ ∂ 2 Ψ2 i
= − V (x, t)Ψ1 (x, t) = − V (x, t)Ψ2 (x, t)
∂t 2m ∂x2 ~ ∂t 2m ∂x2 ~
∂Ψ∗1 i~ ∂ 2 Ψ∗1 i ∂Ψ∗2 i~ ∂ 2 Ψ∗2 i
=− 2
+ V (x, t)Ψ∗1 (x, t) =− 2
+ V (x, t)Ψ∗2 (x, t)
∂t 2m ∂x ~ ∂t 2m ∂x ~
Now consider the derivative of the integral in question.
ˆ ˆ ∞
d ∞ ∗ ∂
Ψ1 Ψ2 dx = (Ψ∗1 Ψ2 ) dx
dt −∞ −∞ ∂t
ˆ ∞ ∗ 
∂Ψ1 ∗ ∂Ψ2
= Ψ2 + Ψ1 dx
−∞ ∂t ∂t
ˆ ∞ 
i~ ∂ 2 Ψ∗1 i~ ∂ 2 Ψ2
  
i ∗ ∗ i
= − + V Ψ1 Ψ2 + Ψ1 − V Ψ2 dx
−∞ 2m ∂x2 ~ 2m ∂x2 ~
ˆ ∞ 2 ∗ 2

i~ ∂ Ψ1 i ∗  i~ ∗ ∂ Ψ2 i ∗
= − Ψ2 + V Ψ Ψ2 + Ψ − V Ψ Ψ2 dx
−∞ 2m ∂x2 ~ 1 2m 1 ∂x2 ~ 1
ˆ ∞
 
2 ∂ 2 Ψ∗1

i~ ∗ ∂ Ψ2
= Ψ1 − Ψ2 dx
2m −∞ ∂x2 ∂x2
ˆ ∞ ˆ ∞ 2 ∗
∂ 2 Ψ2

i~ ∂ Ψ1
= Ψ∗1 dx − Ψ 2 dx
2m −∞ ∂x2 −∞ ∂x
2
∞ ˆ ∞ ˆ ∞
∂Ψ∗1 ∂Ψ2 ∂Ψ∗1 ∞ ∂Ψ∗1 ∂Ψ2
    
i~ ∗ ∂Ψ2 

= Ψ1 − dx − Ψ2  − dx
2m ∂x −∞ −∞ ∂x ∂x ∂x −∞ −∞ ∂x ∂x
| {z } | {z }
=0 =0
 ˆ ∞  ˆ ∞ ∂Ψ∗ ∂Ψ
∂Ψ∗1 ∂Ψ

i~ 2
 1 2

= −    dx +   dx
2m −∞∂x ∂x ∂x
−∞ ∂x
=0

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