St.

Therese College Foundation

Department of Criminology
M. Soriano St., San Carlos City, Pangasinan (2420)

Diagnostic Test

Name: _________________________________ Score: _________

Facilatator: ______________________________

Direction: Read carefully each question provided below and select the best answer.
Encircle the correct letter.

1. Pardon cannot be extended to:

a. Murder c. impeachment
b. Rape d. Plunder
2. What do you call the commission of another crime during service of penalty for a
previous offense committed by the offender?
a. recidivism c. quasi recidivism
b. habitual delinquency d. reiteracion
3. A person who is arrested and legally placed in jail but is not yet convicted by the court
is a:
a. Criminal c. Jail Prisoner
b. Detained Prisoner d. Suspect
4. A detention prisoner escaped from custody while being transported from the
courtroom back to the city jail. What crime did he commit?
a. evasion of service of sentence c. escaped artist
b. disloyalty of prisoner d. no crime
5. The justifications for punishment are the following EXCEPT:
a. happiness c. deterrence
b. retribution d. expiation
6. Pardon by the President is only exercised when the accused is _____
a. already convicted c. about to be convicted
b. before conviction d. a former President
7. Which among the following information shall the court consider in determining
whether one may be placed on probation?
a. character of the applicant c. his mental and physical condition
b. antecedents and environment d. all of the above
8. Amnesty can be granted only if there is:
a. Concurrence of Congress b. Supreme Court sanction
c. People’s approval d. approval of world opinion
9. Probation is a form of:
a. treatment c. reward
b. leniency d. punishment
10. This is given to the offender by showing to others what would happen if they
commit a crime.1
a. protection c. deterrence
b. lethal injection d. stoning
11. What penalty prohibits you from entering a designated place normally within a
radius of not more than 250 and not less than 25 kilometers therein?
a. fine c. curfew
b. bond to keep the peace d. destierro
12. What is the fraction of deducted sentence that is granted to one who escaped on the
occasion of a disorder if he surrendered himself within 48 hours after the issuance of
the proclamation announcing the termination of such calamity?
a. 1/4 c. 1/5
b. 1/3 d. 2/5
13. What do you call the postponement or temporary stay of the execution of the
sentence?
a. amnesty c. commutation
b. reprieve d. bail
14. Who advocated the free will theory of crime causation?
a. Cesare Lombroso c. Julius Cesare
b. Cesar Bentham d. Cesare Beccaria
15. X was convicted of crime with less than 6 years imprisonment. X will be denied
probation if:
a. he is convicted of any crime against national security or public order
b. he has been once under probation
c. he was previously convicted of offense punished by not less than one month and one
day imprisonment
d. all of the above
16. These refer to the written allegations of the parties of their respective claims and
defenses submitted to the court for trial and judgment. Examples of these are complaint,
information, affidavit, motion dismiss etc.
a. court papers c. pleadings
b. motions d. mere scraps of paper
17. A process in the criminal justice which means the questioning initiated by law
enforcers after a person has been taken into custody or deprived of his freedom of
action in any significant way. It is defined by RA 7438.
a. preliminary investigation c. credit investigation
b. background investigation d. custodial investigation.
18. X is frustrated because he lost his wallet containing twenty pesos. He therefore has
no more money to buy food and medicine. While walking along the street, he saw a lady
counting her money she had just withdrawn from an Automated Teller Machine. X
thought of taking the money from the lady by force. What crime is committed by X?
a. robbery c. impossible crime
b. theft d. no crime

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19. When an offender has performed all the felonious acts but he failed to produce the
felony for some reason or another, the crime is:
a. attempted c. consummated
b. frustrated d. impossible
20. It has endeavored to establish a mechanical and direct proportion between crime
and penalty and there is scant regard to the human element.
a. classical theory c. strain theory
b. positivist theory d. none of the above
21. The maximum tenure of office of the Chief of PNP or the Director General of the
PNP is;
a. 4 years c. 6 years
b. 5 years d. 7 years
22. In the Attrition System of the PNP, the maximum tenure of the PNP Regional
Director is;
a. 4 years c. 6 years
b. 5 years d. 9 years
23. The end product resulting from evaluation analysis, integration and interpretation of
information is called
a. Police Intelligence c. Intelligence
b. Military Intelligence d. Undercover Intelligence
24. What should be conducted in order to determine whether a case falls under the
jurisdiction of the regional Trial Court?
a. Inquest proceeding c. Preliminary conference
b. Preliminary investigation d. Search and Seizure
25. When does the court acquire jurisdiction over a case filed by the law enforcement
agencies?
a. the moment the case is filed with the fiscal office
b. the moment that it is filed with the court
c. the moment that the trial or the case begins
d. the moment that the parties presents their evidence
26. What rule or doctrine in criminal jurisprudence requires mandatory pre-interrogation
warnings concerning self-incrimination and the right to counsel of the suspect.
a. Doctrine of the First of the Poisonous Tree
b. Doctrine on the Presumption of Innocence
c. Due Process of Law
d. Miranda Doctrine
27. Miranda Law is a law that is applied to every citizen. This is otherwise known also
as;
a. RA 6975 c. RA 7438
b. RA 8551 d. The Rules of Court
28. In simple sense, it is an act of deciding in advance on what is to be done and how it
is to be accomplished; it is in essence, preparations for action.
a. operations c. management
b. planning d. administration
29. A standard operating procedures that is intended to be used in all situations of all
kinds, and shall be outlines as a guide to officers and men in the field.
a. headquarters procedures c. special operating procedures
b. field procedures d. characteristics of plans
30. A standard operating procedures, that is includes the procedures and the duties of
dispatcher, jailer, matron and other personnel concerned which may be reflected in the
duty manual.
a. headquarters procedures c. special operating procedures
b. field procedures d. operational plans
31. A type of plans, that considers plans for the operations of special divisions like,
patrol, traffic, vice, and juvenile delinquency control.
a. Policies or procedures c. tactical plans
b. Operational plans d. extra-office plans
32. A steps in planning, that states that no attempt shall be made to develop a plan until
all facts relating to it have been gathered.
a. collecting all pertinent facts c. developing alternative plans
b. analyzing the facts d. selecting the most appropriate alternative
33. Of the following steps in planning, one which after all the data have been gathered,
a careful study and evaluation shall be made; this provides the basis from which a plan
or plans are evolved.
a. developing alternative plans c. selecting the most appropriate alternative
b. developing the facts d. selling the plan
34. One of the following statements that best indicates the main purpose of traffic law
enforcement is;
a. reduce traffic by punishing violators of traffic rules
b. keep traffic moving at a steady rate to avoid bottlenecks
c. control the speed limited in densely populated areas
d. prevent traffic accidents and expedite the flow of traffic
35. The general principle of traffic accident investigation is to;
a. consider road conditions as limiting conditions rather than as causes
b. consider violation as primary causes and any other factors as secondary causes
c. regard any unfavorable factor existing immediately prior to the accident as a cause
d. look for the “key event” that cause the accident
36. The principle of organization suggesting that communication should ordinarily go
upward and downward through establish channels in the hierarchy is;
a. Chain of Command c. Unity of Command
b. Span of Control d. Delegation of Authority
37. The principle of organization that results from the division of force into separate
units to perform individual task is called:
a. Specialization c. Chain of Command
b. Organizational Structure d. All of the above
38. The NAPOLCOM shall be composed of the offices of Chairperson, Commissioners
and one –
a. Ex-officio Chairman c. Secretary
b. Ex-officio Commissioner d. Ex- officio Chairperson
39. The agency of the government responsible for the administration of police entrance
and promotional examination is the:
a. Civil Service Commission c. NAPOLCOM
b. PNPA d. Qualifications Upgrading Program
40. Complaints against personnel of the Internal Affairs Office shall be brought to the:
a. NAPOLCOM c. Internal Affairs Service
b. PLEB d. Inspector’s Office
41. The required age for the grant of waiver of age requirement for initial appointment in
the PNP is:
a. not below 25 nor over 35 years of age
b. not below 20 nor over 35 years of age
c. less than 25 but not more than 32 years of age
d. more than 22 but less than 32 years of age
42. Under RA 8551 any PNP personnel who has not been promoted for a continuous
service shall be retired or separated if the said period of non-promotion gained with in:
a. 20 yrs c. 18 months
b. 10 yrs d. none of these
43. The body within the PNP organization tasked to take charge on investigation of
complaints filed against a PNP member is the:
a. IAS c. NAB
b. PLEB d. RAB
44. A PNP member may also be dismiss from service if he/she will go on absence with
out official leave for a continuous period of:
a. 30 days or more c. 60 days
b. 90 days d. 6 months
45. Governors and mayors, upon having been elected and having qualified as such, are
automatically deputized as representatives of the:
a. NAPOLCOM c. DND
b. PLEB d. None of the above
46. The rank of a Senior Police Officer IV is equivalent to:
a. Master Sergeant in the Military rank c. Lieutenant in the Military rank
b. Captain in the Military rank d. None of the above
47. The sets of crimes that are considered by the police as so serious in nature and
which occur with sufficient frequency and regularity such that they can serve as an
index to the crime situation are called -
a. Uniformed crimes c. Non-index crimes
b. Index crimes d. Heinous crimes
48. The so-called "neoclassical school" of thought emerged between 1880 and 1920
and still felt at the present time. The leading proponents were figures such as –
a. Rafaele Garofalo and Enrico Ferri
b. Gabriel Tarde and Raymond Saleilles
c. Charles Darwin and Charles Goring
d. Manuel Montesimos and Edwin Sutherland
49. A human conduct which results to bodily harm or damage, whether external or
internal. Which one of the following is defined?
a. Abuse c. Cruelty
b. Psychological injury d. Physical injury
50. Who wrote the book Introduction to the Principles of Morals and Legislation during
the enlightened era which popularized the idea that people being equally possessed of
free will and the capacity for rational thought should be treated equally and that
utilitarianism should be the basis of social governance as it is for most human behavior?
a. John Howard c. Jeremy Bentham
b. Cesare Beccaria d. John Locke
51. Which school of thought in criminology states that character, not free will nor
determinism is the source of criminality?
a. Classical school c. Positivist school
b. Neo-classical school d. Latino School
52. An astronomer in Belgium during the 1820s who mixed meteorology, mathematics,
biology, and early sociology into what was called social physics or the social mechanics
of crime. Who was he?
a. August Comte c. Glenn Armstrong
b. Adolphe Quetelet d. Charles Darwin
53. The special responsibility to adhere to moral duty and obligation that is inherent in
police work is called –
a. Police Ethics c. Police Morals
b. Police Management d. Police Responsibility
54. The study of the shape of the head to determine anatomical correlates of human
behavior is called –
a. Skullogy c. Palmistry
b. Phrenology d. Serology
55. Absence without cause for more than 20 school days may be considered as –
a. Vices c. Undesirable behavior
b. Truancy d. Attractive nuisance
56. The Juvenile Justice Welfare Council (JJWC) is an attached agency of the -
a. Department of Justice
b. Department of Social Welfare and Development
c. Department of the Interior and Local Government
d. Department of Education
57. Which among the following is not part of the rights of a child in conflict with law?
a. Right not to be subjected to torture or other cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment or
punishment;
b. To be imposed a sentence of capital punishment or life imprisonment, without the
possibility of release;
c. Not to be deprived, unlawfully or arbitrarily, of his/her liberty; detention or
imprisonment being a disposition of last resort, and which shall be for the shortest
appropriate period of time;
d. Right to bail and recognizance, in appropriate cases.
58. What doctrine or philosophy behind the view that a juvenile offender is the victim of
improper care and that the state is duty bound to provide protection?
a. Positivism c. Loco parentis
b. Parens’ pateriae d. Classicism
59. A person who studies criminology; not to be confused with a "criminalist" who
reconstructs a crime scene or works with crime scene evidence for forensic purposes is
properly called –
a. Social worker c. Sociologist
b. Criminologist d. Forensic Scientist
60. Crime prevention through limiting social shaming reaction in others and replacing
moral indignation with tolerance. Some rehabilitation emphasis in helping offenders
rehabilitated from the kind of brand perceived of them. Such idea is link with applying –
a. Labelling Theories c. Feminism
b. Radical Conflict Theories d. Classism
61. The general rule is that a member of the PNP cannot draw his firearms, except for-
a. Necessary apprehension of criminal’s c. Necessary inspection or lawful use
b. Necessary target practice d. All of the foregoing
62. A member of the PNP while on duty, whether in uniform or not should avoid
unpleasant habits which affect not only himself as an individual member, but also the
whole organization where he belongs.
a. Sleeping on duty
b. Intoxication and use of prohibited drugs
c. Partisan police activities
d. All of the foregoing
63. Which of the following does not belong to the group?
a. Assassination c. Sabotage
b. Bombing d. Prostitution
64. Before the development of scientist theorist, this theory involved believing that
criminal behavior is caused by the possession of evil spirits.
a. Demonological c. Italian
b. Classical d. Neo-classical
65. A statue enacted by Congress, penal in character, which is not amendment to the
Revise Penal Code such as Republic Acts, Presidential Decrees and Memorandum
Circulars.
a. Special Law c. Revised Penal Code
b. Constitution d. Common Law
66. It is a kind of early form of punishment where prisoners are shipped or moved from
one place to another for the purpose of cheap labor.
a. Slavery c. Transportation
b. Banishment d. Penal colony
67. Which agency is responsible for the custody and rehabilitation of youthful offenders?
a. Boards of Pardons and Parole
b. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
c. Department of Social Welfare and Development
d. Bureau of Corrections
68. Are those who commit crime due to abnormalities or psychological disorders. They
should be exempted from criminal liability.
a. Born criminals c. Criminaloids
b. Insane criminal’s d. Criminal by passion
69. It is defined as the wise use of one’s judgment, common sense and personal
experience in deciding.
a. Discretion c. Problem solving
b. Decision making d. None of the above

70. Are all bullets made up of metals?

a. Yes c. Maybe
b. No d. Sometimes
71. If the smallest caliber of a gun is 22 caliber, what is the biggest caliber?
a. Caliber 60 c. Caliber 50
b. Caliber 45 d. Caliber 40
72. It refers to a projectile propelled from a firearm by means of expensive force of
gasses coming from burning gun powder.
a. Cartridge c. Gun powder
b. Bullet d. Printer
73. It refers to a point on the ridge formation location at the center as heart of the
pattern.
a. Delta c. Radial loop
b. Core d. Ulnar loop
74. It refers to a complete unfired unit consisting of bullet, cartridge case propellant
powder and primary.
a. Ammunition c. Primer
b. Bullet d. Segment
75. What is the symbol of center pocket loop whorl?
a. c c. x
b. d d. w
76. Can latent footprints be seen by naked eye?
a. No c. Yes but not at all times
b. Yes, at all times d. Once in a while
77. One is considered “dead drunk” if the level of alcohol in his body is approximately:
a. 0.5% c. 0.02%
b. 0.3% d. 0.1%
78. The other name of cordage is:
a. rope c. textile
b. metal d. poison
79. What do you call this complete unfired unit consisting of a bullet cartridge case,
gunpowder and primer?
a. slug c. bread
b. cartridge d. round
80. What is the most popular and traditional mode of removing powder residue?
a. Swabbing cotton moistened with 5% nitric acid
b. Washing hands with vinegar
c. Washing both hands with hot water
d. Spraying hands with sodium rhodizonate
81. What metallic object is attached to the free end of the cylindrical tip of the cartridge
case, propelled by the expansive force of the propellant and is responsible in damaging
the target.
a. Bullet c. All of these
b. Missile or projectile d. Slug

82. Are the tiny portions or is a hill-like structure found on the epidermis of friction skin
containing sweat, with pores appearing as black lines in a fingerprint impression.
a. Imaginary lines c. Black lines
b. Furrows d. Ridges
83. What kind of legal death is that where a person is enclosed in an apartment and
asphyxiating gas is introduced?
a. Hanging c. Musketry
b. Electrocution d. Chamber
84. What do you call the inner terminus or focal point located at the center or the
approximate?
a. Center c. Core
b. Delta d. Open delta
85. Which among the following is among the three major sections of the polygraph
machine?
a. Spygmograph c. Pump bulb assembly
b. Pneumograph d. Dermatogram
86. What fingerprint pattern does not have ridge count?
a. Whorls c. Radial loops
b. Arches d. Ulnar loops
87. Which of the following is also called “delta” in fingerprint identification?
a. Lower ridge c. Outer terminus
b. Inner terminus d. Enclosures
88. What is done, when one retouches or goes back over a defective portion of a writing
stroke?
a. Pressuring c. Shading
b. Retracing d. Patching
89. What type of forgery involves fraudulent signature executed by actually following the
outline of a genuine signature with a writing instrument.
a. Carbonized c. Shaded
b. Lasered d. Traced
90. What type of forgery is when the writer exerts no effort to effect resemblance
between the forged and the genuine signature?
a. Multiple c. Simple
b. Traced d. Simulated
91. What is death due to the mercy killing of a sick person?
a. Natural death c. Negligent death
b. Euthanasia d. Violent death
92. What are the little openings on the skin from where sweat is excreted?
a. Ridges c. Pore
b. Whorl d. Loop
93. What kind of ridge resembles a dot, fragment or period?
a. Ending ridge c. Ridge of tranquility
b. Lake ridge d. Island ridge
94. What kind of pattern has two deltas in which at least one ridge makes a turn through
one complete circuit?
a. Loop c. Arch
b. Accidental whorl d. Plain whorl
95. Spiral grooves in the bore designed to give a spin to the projectile for greater
accuracy and carrying power.
a. Rifling c. Caliber
b. Gauge d. Bore
96. Stiffening of the body after death.
a. Livor mortis c. Cadaveric spasm
b. Rigor mortis d. Fracture
97. Sexual pervert who resorts to voyeurism is commonly called.
a. Nympho c. Exhibisionist
b. Peepingtom d. Sadist
98. A specimen of a person’s writing or handwriting executed upon request.
a. Requested standard c. Questioned document
b. Collected standard d. Holograph document
99. Stroke interruption caused by moving the writing instrument from the paper.
a. Pen lift c. Flying start
b. Pen movement d. Pen pressure
100. Test used to confirm blood is of human origin.
a. Benzidine c. Precipitin
b. Diphenylamine d. Marquis regent
101. Where 2 or more emergency vehicles, operating as such approach the same
intersection from different directions, creating a probability conflict, an officer directing
traffic at the intersection must give preference to one and cause the others to yield the
right of way. Of the following, the type of vehicle which should generally be given
preferences over any of the vehicle is the-
a. Ambulance c. Fire truck
b. Police car d. Wrecker
102. One of the qualities of a good investigation report states that it must short but
concise, meaning, the report must be –
a. Fair c. Clear
b. Brief d. Impartial
103. This is classification of the investigative report which is used as a way of
determining if the officer is working on his case or not.
a. Spot report c. Basic report
b. Progress report d. Final report
104. It is the transfer of heat which requires physical contact between the bodies or
portions of bodies exchanging heat.
a. Conduction c. Radiation
b. Convection d. Heat transfer
105. The primary purpose of statutory requirements for fire protection is-
a. to see to it that the buildings are insured
b. to safeguard life
c. to see to it that the buildings are fire hazard free.
d. to generate income for the government.
106. Physical evidence is generally given weight the courts because -
a. it speaks for its self c. not affected by emotion
b. it cannot lie d. all of the forgoing
107. His methods made popular the logic of employing a thief to catch a thief
a. Henry Fielding c. John Fielding
b. Jonathan Wild d. Robert Peel
108. It is considered as a patient, step by step inquiry or observation, a careful
examination, a recording of evidence or legal inquiry
a. recording c. collection
b. investigation d. examination
109. It is the art of suspect’s surveillance, and this was pioneered by Allan Pinkerton.
a. role c. modus operandi
b. shadowing d. casing
110. Being an investigator able to solve cases, he must possess the ability to be patient
to obtain accurate and complete information, especially with uncooperative subjects is-
a. integrity c. alertness
b. perseverance d. logical mind
112. The term describes the transfer of heat through a gas or vacuum in a similar way
to light is-
a. conduction c. radiation
b. convection d. fire
113. An English man who wrote a novel entitled “Tom Jones”, was appointed as
Magistrate for the areas of Westminster and Middlesex in London.
a. Patrick Colquhoun c. Henry Fielding
b. Charles Dickens d. Robert Peel
114. Known as the simplest and the most effective way of showing actual measurement
and of identifying significant items of evidence in their location at the scene is-
a. photograph c. graphing
b. sketch d. all of the above
115. Illegal acts committed by business and professional people while earning their
living are classified as-
a. Blue-collar crimes c. white-collar crimes
b. crime mala in se d. crime mala prohibita
116. The collection of photographs of criminals taken by the police for identification
purposes is technically called?
a. Cartographic files c. Mug File
b. Identification kit d. Criminal Record
117. Julia Roberts gives information to the police without waiting for reward or payment
because she considered herself as –
a. Ex-convict c. Defendant
b. Informant d. Accused
118. This may be applicable to a crime scene which approximately circular or oval. The
searchers gather at the center and proceed outward along a radii or spokes.
a. Wheel method c. Spiral method
b. Zone method d. Strip method
119. This signifies the ways and means device by a peace officer to apprehend a
person who has committed a crime; with or without the said device or means, the crime
has already been committed –
a. Entrapment c. Instigation
b. Treachery d. None of the foregoing
120. Berto, with evident premeditation and treachery killed his father. What was the
crime committed?
a. Murder c. Homicide
b. Parricide d. Qualified Homicide
121. PO3 Bagsik entered the dwelling of Totoy against the latter’s will on suspicion that
Bitoy keep unlicensed firearms in his home. What was the crime committed by PO3
Bagsik?
a. Trespass to Dwelling c. Usurpation of Authority
b. Violation of Domicile d. Forcible Trespassing
122. Charlie and Lea had been married for more than six months. They live together
with the children of Lea from her first husband. Charlie had sexual relationship with
Jane, the 14 year old daughter of Lea. Jane loves Charlie very much. What was the
crime committed by Charlie, if any?
a. Simple Seduction c. Consented Abduction
b. Qualified Seduction d. Rape
123. Prof. Jose gave a failing grade to one of his students, Lito. When the two met the
following day, Lito slapped Prof. Jose on the face. What was the crime committed by
Lito?
a. Corruption of Public Officials c. Slight Physical Injuries
b. Direct Assault d. Grave Coercion
124. A warrant of arrest was issued against Fred for the killing of his parents. When
PO2 Tapang tried to arrest him, Fred gave him 1 million pesos to set him free. PO2
Tapang refrained in arresting Fred. What was the crime committed by PO2 Tapang?
a. Indirect Bribery c. Corruption of Public Officials
b. Direct Bribery d. Qualified Bribery
125. Which of the following is the exemption to the hearsay rule made under the
consciousness of an impending death?
a. parol evidence c. suicide note
b. ante mortem statement d. dead man statute
126. Factum probans means __.
a. preponderance of evidence c. evidentiary fact
b. ultimate fact d. sufficiency of evidence
127. It refers to family history or descent transmitted from one generation to another.
a. inheritance c. pedigree
b. heritage d. culture
128. The authority of the court to take cognizance of the case in the first instance.
a. Appellate Jurisdiction c. Original Jurisdiction
b. General Jurisdiction d. Exclusive Jurisdiction
129. Felony committed when a person compels another by means of force, violence or
intimidation to do something against his will, whether right or wrong.
a. grave threat c. direct assault
b. grave coercion d. slander by deed

130. The unauthorized act of a public officer who compels another person to change his
residence.
a. violation of domicile c. expulsion
b. arbitrary detention d. direct assault
131. The deprivation of a private person of the liberty of another person without legal
grounds.
a. illegal detention c. forcible abduction
b. arbitrary detention d. forcible detention
132. An offense committed by a married woman through carnal knowledge with a man
not her husband who knows her to be married, although the marriage can be later
declared void.
a. concubinage c. adultery
b. bigamy d. immorality
133. Those who, not being principals cooperate in the execution of the offense by
previous or simultaneous acts.
a. Accomplices c. principal actors
b. Suspects d. accessories
134. The loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to execute the final sentence
after the lapse of a certain time fixed by law.
a. prescription of crime c. prescription of judgement
b. prescription of prosecution d. prescription of penalty
135. A kind of executive clemency whereby the execution of penalty is suspended.
a. Pardon c. amnesty
b. commutation d. reprieve
136. The failure to perform a positive duty which one is bound to.
a. Negligence c. omission
b. imprudence d. act
137. Which agency performs the evaluation of prisoner’s fitness and qualifications for
the grant of Pardon or parole?
a. Board of Pardon and Parole
b. National Police Commission
c. Department of Social Welfare and Development
d. National Bureau of Investigation
138. What is the legal process that results in the removal of conviction from the official
records?
a. Mitigation c. Exoneration
b. Expungement d. Restriction
139. The judge’s bases of the grant of probation relies on the report of,
a. Prosecutor c. Probation officer
b. Police officer d. Social worker
140. _______program employs prisoners in various product or good-producing tasks.
a. Agricultural c. Operational
b. Industrial d. Administrative
141. Rooms or cells where prisoners are held, especially underground, are called –
a. Gaols c. Fox holes
b. Dungeons d. Hulks
142. Detention prisoners who are awaiting judgment or trial of their case are under the
supervision and control of,
a. Bureau of Corrections c. Davao penal colony
b. Provincial jails d. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
143. A minimum and maximum amount of time to be served in prison is referred to as
________.
a. determinate sentence c. Indeterminate sentence
b. corporal punishment d. capital punishment
144. Who said that “criminal acts are signs of distress, signals of failures, and the
spasm of struggles and convulsions of a sub marginal human being trying to make it in
the complex society with inadequate equipment and preparation”?
a. John Howard c. Jeremy Bentham
b. James Wilson d. Karl Menninger
145. The parole and probation administration administers a _____________ corrections
program.
a. Integrated c. Traditional
b. Community-based d. Institutional
146. Presidential Decree No. 968 established the ________ system.
a. Adult probation c. Family Welfare
b. Juvenile Justice d. Civilian Police
147. A prison system which includes confinement of prisoners in single cells at night
and congregate work in shops during the day.
a. Pennsylvania system c. Elmira reformatory
b. Auburn system d. Irish system
148. Granted by the Chief Executive without any conditions attached which serves to
wipe away the guilt of pardonee and makes him innocent as if he has not committed a
crime.
a. Pardon c. Conditional Pardon
b. Absolute Pardon d. Parole
149. It is extended to a group/class of persons generally exercised by the Chief
Executive with the concurrence of Congress.
a. Pardon c. Parole
b. Commutation of sentence d. Amnesty
150. Also known as the Juvenile and Youth Welfare Code.
a. BP 603 c. PD 603
b. RA 9344 d. RA 603