Physics cup problem 1

Trang Dao Cong Minh

January 2021

First, we assume that the charges distributed like 2 dipole and 2 point charges Q and −Q place at center
of two spheres. Because p1 , p2 ∝ R3  Q.L ∝ L3 so we can neglect the effect of dipole.

We noticed that the velocity vector of center of mass is always in the plane perpendicular to magnetic
~ (let B
field and the angular velocity is parallel to B ~ be oriented parallel to zb)
Newton’s second law of motion: Z Z
dv~G
m = ~v × BdQ + J~ × Bdτ
~ ~
dt
Z Z Z Z
dv~G ~ = − (v~G + ω 2 ~ dτ = − ω
2 2 ~ 2 dτ
=⇒ m ×B ~ × ~r)B dQ − JB ~ × ~rB dQ − JB
dt
Z Z
Here we used dQ = 0. Let p~ = ~rdQ be the dipole vector and assume that the charges Q are only
distributed among the two spheres and the current I only flows in the rod.
~ ~
Using Maxwell equation: ∇ ~ ×H ~ = ∂ D = 0 ∂ E + J. ~ Neglect the displacement current, and substitute
∂t ∂t
~ , we have: J~ = dp rb (with rb = p~ ). In that case:
p~ = DV
V dt p
dv~G ~ = −~ω × p~B 2 − dp rbB 2
m ×B
dt dt
~
dp dp p~
Further more, we have : ~ × p~ +
=ω . Substitute to above equation:
dt dt p
~ ~ 2
m
dv~G ~ = − dp B 2 =⇒ d(mv~G × B + p~B ) = 0 or mv~G × B
×B ~ + p~B 2 = const(∗)
~
dt dt dt
It can easily be seen that after long time, the terminal velocity will perpendicular to the rod and the dumbell
Q 1 1
is equipotential. That can be rewritten into: ( − ) + uB(L + 2R) = 0 =⇒ p = Q(L + 2R) =
2π0 L + 2R R
(L + 2R)2 κB 2
2π0 uB 1 1 = κu. Substitute to (*): vB = uB + u
R
− L+2R
m
v
u= κB
≈ 4.27 × 10−3 (m/s)
1+ m