CLS Aipmt 15 16 XIII Bot Study Package 4 Set 1 Chapter 16 PDF

Chapter 16
Molecular Basis of Inheritance
Solutions
SECTION - A
Objective Type Questions
1. Haploid content of human DNA contains
(1) 4.6 × 106 bp (2) 3.3 × 108 bp (3) 6.6 × 109 bp (4) 3.3 × 109 bp
Sol. Answer (4)
3.3 × 109  Genome
2. Which of the following nitrogenous bases are common for both RNA and DNA?
(1) C, G, A (2) G, A, U (3) T, A, C (4) U, A, C
Sol. Answer (1)
Pu  A, G Common
Py  C
3. Adjacent nucleotides in a polynucleotide chain are joined by

(1) N-glycosidic bond (2) Phosphodiester bond (3) O-glycosidic bond (4) Hydrogen bond
Sol. Answer (2)
S–P–S
Phosphodiester
bond
4. Sugars are attached to the pyrimidines by the formation of

(1) Hydrogen bond (2) N-glycosidic bond (3) Phosphoester bond (4) O-glycosidic bond
Sol. Answer (2)
C–N–C
5. Cytidine is a
(1) Nucleoside (2) Nitrogen base
(3) Nucleotide (4) Common dinucleotide in DNA and RNA
Sol. Answer (1)
C + S  Cytidine
Nitrogenus Sugar
Base
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84 Molecular Basis of Inheritance Solution of Assignment
6. Which of the following process is related to reverse transcription?

(1) DNA dependent DNA synthesis (2) RNA dependent DNA synthesis
(3) DNA dependent RNA synthesis (4) RNA dependent polypeptide synthesis
Sol. Answer (2)
RNA
RNA
Reverse DNA
Transcriptase
 RNA dependent DNA polymerase
7. Which of the following structures are present in core particle of nucleosome?

(1) Octamer of histone proteins (2) 200 bp of DNA
(3) Non-histone proteins (4) Linker DNA
Sol. Answer (1)
H2A H2B
8 mole of histones
H3 H4
8. Packaging of DNA helix

(1) Involves polyamines in eukaryotes
(2) Occurs with the help of NHC proteins only
(3) Requires acidic proteins that help in coiling of DNA in prokaryotes
(4) Is more complex in eukaryotes than prokaryotes
Sol. Answer (4)
Nucleosome model
9. Length of DNA in E. coli is

(1) 2.2 m (2) 1.36 mm (3) 1.36 m (4) 3.4 m
Sol. Answer (2)
4.6 × 106 × 0.34 mm = 1.36 mm
10. Which of the following radioactive isotopes were utilised for labelling protein and DNA in transduction experiment
respectively?
(1) 32P, 35P (2) 35S, 35P (3) 35S, 32P (4) 32S, 35P
Sol. Answer (3)

S35  Protein coat
P32  DNA
11. Dominance of RNA world is proved by

(1) Capping (2) Splicing (3) Polyadenylation (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (2)
12. Which plant was used by Taylor to prove semiconservative replication at chromosomal level?
(1) Haematoxylon (2) Vicia faba (3) Trillium (4) Ophioglossum
Sol. Answer (2)
Solution of Assignment Molecular Basis of Inheritance 85
13. Unwinding of DNA creates tension which is released by enzyme
(1) Helicase (2) Topoisomerase (3) Primase (4) Ligase
Sol. Answer (2)
Topoisomerase remove twisting stress
14. During polymerisation of deoxyribonucleosides triphosphates in bacteria which of the following enzyme is mainly
required?
(1) DNA dependent RNA polymerase (2) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(3) RNA dependent DNA polymerase (4) DNA gyrase
Sol. Answer (2)
DNA pol III  Read DNA segment and add nucleotide of DNA
15. DNA polymerases catalyse polymerisation of / in

(1) Ribonucleotides (2) 5  3 direction
(3) 3  5 direction (4) Deoxyribonucleosides
Sol. Answer (2)
5'  3 Polymerisation direction
16. During DNA replication which of the following does not act as substrates?
(1) dATP (2) dCTP (3) dUTP (4) dGTP
Sol. Answer (3)
dUTP  Does not exist
17. Out of the two strands of DNA one is carrying genetic information for transcription and it is called
(1) Coding strand (2) Non template strand (3) Sense strand (4) Template strand
Sol. Answer (4)
Antisense or template strank
18. When a mature mRNA was hybridised to its gene certain loops were observed. These loops represent
(1) Introns in DNA (2) Introns in rRNA (3) Exons in tRNA (4) Exons in DNA
Sol. Answer (1)
Intro  Intervening sequence
19. Poly A tail is present in

(1) mRNA of bacteria (2) tRNA of eukaryotes (3) Promotor of bacteria (4) mRNA of eukaryotes
Sol. Answer (4)
mRNA of eukaryotes carry poly during post-transcription change.
20. Find out the incorrect match.

(1) UUU – Phenylalanine (2) UAG – Sense codon
(3) GUG – Valine (4) UGG – Tryptophan
Sol. Answer (2)
UAG  Nonsence codon on stop codon
21. One codon codes for only one amino acid, hence the code is
(1) Ambiguous and non-specific (2) Unambiguous and specific
(3) Ambiguous and specific (4) Unambiguous and non-specific
Sol. Answer (2)
Unambiguous  Like AUG  Methione not for any other AA.
22. What is incorrect for UTR?

(1) Present in between the translational unit in mRNA (2) Not recognised by any tRNA
(3) Required for efficient translation process (4) Provide stability to mRNA
Sol. Answer (1)
Present between Cap and Start and stop codon and poly A tail.
23. In bacteria, catalytic RNA is found in

(1) 60S subunit of ribosome (2) 50S subunit of ribosome
(3) 30S subunit of ribosome (4) 40S subunit of ribosome
Sol. Answer (2)
24. In lac operon, the regulator gene codes for

(1) Aporepressor (2) Corepressor (3) Inactive repressor (4) Active repressor
Sol. Answer (4)
25. Mark the incorrect option w.r.t. lac operon

(1) Is under positive as well as negative control (2) Controls catabolic pathway
(3) Shows feed back repression (4) Discovered by Jacob and Monod
Sol. Answer (3)
26. In lac operon, the lac mRNA

(1) Has several initiation and termination codons (2) Forms four different enzymes
(3) Is not transcribed in the presence of lactose (4) Is involved in an anabolic reaction
Sol. Answer (1)
In lac operon model have 4 different RNA so it have several initiation and termination codon.
27. How many locations have been identified in human genome where single base differences occur?
(1) 1.4 million (2) 14 million (3) 1.4 billion (4) 14 billion
Sol. Answer (1)
28. What is incorrect for human chromosome 1?

(1) It is one of the largest chromosome (2) Its sequence was completed in May 2007
(3) It has maximum number of genes (4) It was the last chromosome to be sequenced
Sol. Answer (2)
Sequence completed in the year 2006
29. The non-human model organisms sequenced in Human Genome project were
(1) A nematode and fruit fly (2) Wheat and rice
(3) Fish and birds (4) Garden pea and fruit fly
Sol. Answer (1)
Caenorhabiditis elegna, Drosophila
30. Mark the correct one (w.r.t. application of DNA fingerprinting)

(1) Forensic science (2) Determining the population diversity
(3) Determining the genetic diversity (4) More than one option is correct
Sol. Answer (4)
(1) and (3)
31. In the technique of DNA fingerprinting digestion of DNA is followed by

(1) Electrophoresis (2) Hybridisation (3) Denaturation (4) Southern blotting
Sol. Answer (1)
Grel electrophoresis will separate the DNA segment.
32. In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase III catalyses the synthesis of

(1) 5 S rRNA, tRNA & SnRNA (2) mRNA, HnRNA & SnRNA
(3) 28 S rRNA, 18 S rRNA & 5 S rRNA (4) All types of rRNA & tRNA
Sol. Answer (1)
5S rRNA, tRNA and SnRNA
33. Read the following statements:

A. Variation at genetic level arises due to mutations.
B. Technique of DNA fingerprinting was initially developed by Alec Jeffreys
(1) Only (B) is correct (2) Both (A) and (B) are correct
(3) Only (A) is correct (4) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect
Sol. Answer (2)
34. In DNA fingerprinting, detection of hybridised DNA fragments is possible by

(1) Electrophoresis (2) Blotting (3) Autoradiography (4) Centrifugation
Sol. Answer (3)
By taking radioactive isotops.
35. Mark the correct match.

(1) Catalytic RNA – 16 S rRNA and 23 S
in bacteria rRNA- as ribozyme.
(2) Val operon – Found in eukaryotes
(3) Sanger method – Determination of amino acid sequences in proteins only
(4) VNTR – Intron
Sol. Answer (4)
VNTR  Variable number Tanden repeat.
SECTION - B
Objective Type Questions
1. If the sequence of one strand of DNA is 5 A T G C A T C G 3, find the sequence of complementary strand
in 5 3 direction
(1) T A C G T A G C (2) C G A T G C A T (3) A T G C A T C G (4) A T C G T A C G
Sol. Answer (2)
3' 5'
TA C G TA G C
AT G C AT C G
5 3'
2. NHC structural proteins are

(1) Basic proteins rich in lysine, arginine
(2) Regulatory proteins
(3) Catalytic proteins rich in tryptophan and arginine
(4) Required for packaging of chromatin at higher levels
Sol. Answer (4)
3. How many types of DNA polymerases are present in bacteria?

(1) Five (2) Three (3) Two (4) One
Sol. Answer (2)
DNA Pol I
Pol II
Pol III
4. Synthesis of leading and lagging strand require

(1) Single primer (2) Single and many primers respectively
(3) Many and single primers respectively (4) Many primers
Sol. Answer (2)
Leading  Continuous strand have polarity 3'  5' end it need single primer
Lagging  Discontinuous strand have polarity 5'  3' end it need multiple primer
5. For the strand separation and stabilisation during DNA replication which of the following set of enzymes and
proteins are required?
(1) SSBP, gyrase, primase (2) Topoisomerase, helicase, ligase
(3) Gyrase, ligase, primase (4) Topoisomerase, helicase, SSBP
Sol. Answer (4)
Topoisomerase – Remove twisting stress
Helicase – Unwind DNA
SSBP – Single strand binding protein
6. In eukaryotes, the RNA polymerase that synthesises tRNA is RNA polymerase ______ and is also responsible
for formation of ______ rRNA.
(1) II, 5.8 S (2) I, 5 S (3) III, 5 S (4) II, 18 S
Sol. Answer (3)
7. What is correct for bacterial transcription?

(1) mRNA requires processing to become active
(2) Translation can begin when mRNA is fully transcribed
(3) Transcription and translation takes place in the same compartment
(4) Rho factor initiates the process
Sol. Answer (3)
Transcription and translation take place in cytoplasm.
8. Which of the following is not required during post transcriptional processing in eukaryotes?
(1) Methyl guanosine triphosphate (2) Ligase
(3) ScRNA (4) SnRNA
Sol. Answer (3)
Small cytoplasmic RNA  ScRNA
9. Which of the following feature is correct for bacteria?

(1) Presence of intervening sequences in DNA
(2) DNA does not show coiling
(3) Linear ss-DNA representing single chromosome
(4) DNA can be chromosomal as well as extrachromosomal
Sol. Answer (4)
Nuclear DNA  Nucleoid
Extra chromosome  Plasmid
10. In-vitro template independent RNA synthesis is a feature of

(1) RNA polymerase (2) Reverse transcriptase (3) Ochoa enzyme (4) DNA polymerase
Sol. Answer (3)
Ochoa  Polynucleotide phosphorylase enzyme was synthesized.
11. In protein synthesis, which of the following are required for the synthesis of charged tRNA?
(1) Amino acid, GTP, initiation codon, ribosome
(2) Amino acid, ATP, Mg++, enzyme, tRNA
(3) Amino acid, ATP, K+, enzyme, mRNA
(4) Aminoacyl tRNA, ribosome, initiation codon, release factor
Sol. Answer (2)
12. Termination of polypeptide synthesis in bacteria differs from eukaryotes in

(1) Having different termination codons (2) Being GTP dependent
(3) Involving more than one type of release factors (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (3)
13. The accessibility of promoter regions of bacterial DNA in many cases regulated by the interaction of proteins
with sequences termed
(1) Regulators (2) Structural genes (3) Inhibitor genes (4) Operators
Sol. Answer (4)
If repressor is attached at operator their is no synthesis of mRNA.
14. When the genomes of two people are cut using the same restriction enzyme, the length and number of fragments
obtained are different, this is called
(1) PCR (2) RFLP (3) EST (4) Northern blotting
Sol. Answer (2)
RFLP  Restricted fragment length polymorphisom.
15. Which of the following does not code for any proteins?
(1) Micro-satellites (2) Exons
(3) Mini-satellites (4) More than one option is correct.
Sol. Answer (4)
(1) and (3)
16. Which statement is correct for homeotic genes?

(1) Control is exerted through homeodomain proteins
(2) Mutation in these genes not results in conversion of one body part into another
(3) Such genes have been studied extensively in humans
(4) Control oncogenesis process
Sol. Answer (1)
17. In which step of DNA profiling, nitrocellulose membrane is used?

(1) Denaturation (2) Autoradiography (3) Blotting (4) DNA amplification
Sol. Answer (3)
Southern Blotting
18. Repressor of lac-operon

(1) Is a tetrameric protein (2) Having a molecular weight of 16,000
(3) Has only one side (4) Is made by operator gene
Sol. Answer (1)
19. Select the correct one (w.r.t. Wobble hypothesis)

(1) Third base of a codon lacks vibrating capacity
(2) Third base can establish H-bonds even with the non complementary anticodon
(3) Specificity of a anticodon is particularly determined by first two codon
(4) Major cause of degeneracy is the first two N-bases of codon
Sol. Answer (2)
GUG  3rd position can establish H - bond even with the non-complementary anticodon.
20. A set of genes or cDNA is immobilized on a glass slide and used in transcriptome studies is called
(1) Proteome (2) Microarray (3) DNA chip (4) Genome
Sol. Answer (2)
21. Which of the following bond is not present in DNA?
(1) – 1– 9–N–glycosidic bond (2) 3– 5 phosphodiester bond
(3) – 1–1–N–glycosidic bond (4) – 1– 2–N–glycosidic bond
Sol. Answer (4)
 – 1' – 9'  Glycosidic bond  Sugar and Purines
 – 1' – 1'  Glycosidic bond  Sugar and Pyrimidine
3' – 5'  Phosphodiester bond  Sugar and Phosphate
22. If there are 81 million bases in RNA of human cell, then calculate the total number of introns present in cDNA
(1) 27 millions (2) Zero
(3) Equal to ribonucleotides (4) Half the number of ribonucleotides
Sol. Answer (2)
Human RNA is processed RNA. So no intron in cDNA.
23. Splicing is necessary for preparing a mature transcript and its movement to cytoplasm. It requires
(1) scRNA and proteins (2) snRNA and proteins (3) scRNA and snRNA (4) scRNA only
Sol. Answer (2)
24. Majority of unusual bases are found in tRNA, TC loop is

(1) First loop from 5-end of tRNA (2) AA - tRNA synthetase binding loop
(3) Ribosomal binding loop (4) Nodoc site
Sol. Answer (3)
TC  Ribosomal binding loop
25. How many amino acids will be coded by the mRNA sequence – 5CCCUCAUAGUCAUAC3 if a adenosine
residue is inserted after 12th nucleotide?
(1) Five amino acids (2) Six amino acids (3) Two amino acids (4) Three amino acids
Sol. Answer (3)
5' CCC UCA UAG UCA UAC
AA AA Stop
codon
So only two A.A will be formed.
26. Identification and binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter sequence is a function of
(1) Rho factor (2) Sigma factor (3) Beta factor (4) Omega factor
Sol. Answer (2)
27. Repetitive sequences are stretches of DNA with repeated bases many times in a genome, but
(a) These sequences are of no transcriptional function
(b) These are associated with euchromatin region
(c) These helps to identify a person on the basis of its DNA specificity
(1) All are correct (2) Only (b) is incorrect
(3) Both (a) & (b) are correct (4) Both (b) & (c) are incorrect
Sol. Answer (2)
28. The microsatellites have simple sequences of repeated

(1) 11-60 bp (2) 1-6 bp (3) 10 bp (4) 50 bp
Sol. Answer (2)
Microsatellite  1 – 6 bp
29. The DNA strand showing replication using Okazaki fragments also shows
(1) Continuous growth in 5  3 direction (2) Discontinuous growth on 5  3 parental strand
(3) Discontinuous growth on 3  5 parental strand (4) Involvement of one primer only
Sol. Answer (3)
30. Prokaryotic transcription mechanism requires involvement of only one polymerase type and
(a) It occurs in cytoplasm only
(b) It is often coupled with translation
(c) It does not require splicing but capping is essential
(1) All are correct (2) Both (b) & (c) are incorrect
(3) Both (a) & (c) are correct (4) Only (c) is incorrect
Sol. Answer (4)
Their is no capping and tailing in prokaryotes.
31. Pribnow box is a consensus of ________ bases, forming a binding site for E. coli RNA polymerase at promotor.
(1) TATAAT (2) AGGAGG (3) CAAT (4) GC
Sol. Answer (1)
32. In tryptophan operon

(1) Non-proteinaceous aporepressor is synthesised by R-gene
(2) Normally chorismic acid is not converted into tryptophan
(3) Repression is mostly connected with a catabolic pathway
(4) Enzymes produced by structural genes normally present in the cell
Sol. Answer (4)
33. In tailing, adenylate residues are added at 3′ end

(1) With the help of gyanyl transferase (2) In a template independent manner
(3) With the help of methyl transferase (4) Of hn-RNA of E.coli
Sol. Answer (2)
Poly a tail formed at 3' end to stabilize RNA.
34. For every single amino acid incorporated in peptide chain _____ ATP and _____ GTP molecules are used.
(1) 1, 4 (2) 1, 6 (3) 1, 2 (4) 1, 3
Sol. Answer (3)
ATP  1  Activation of fRNA
GTP  2  Peptide of bond formation translocation.
35. In t-RNA
(1) CCA – OH is present at 5-end (2) TC loop for attaching the amino acid
(3) DHU loop for binding with AA - activating enzyme (4) There are three recognition sites
Sol. Answer (3)
SECTION - C
Previous Years Questions
1. Identify the correct order of organisation of genetic material from largest to smallest [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Chromosome, genome, nucleotide, gene (2) Chromosome, gene, genome, nucleotide
(3) Genome, chromosome, nucleotide, gene (4) Genome, chromosome, gene, nucleotide
Sol. Answer (4)
Order of organisation of genetic material
Largest Genome (haploid set of chromosome)
Chromosome (Condensed chromatin)
Gene (Segment of DNA; unit

of inheritance)
Smallest
Nucleotide (Made up of pentose
sugar, nitrogen base
and phosphate)
2. Satellite DNA is important because it [Re-AIPMT-2015]

(1) Code for enzymes needed for DNA replication
(2) Codes for proteins needed in cell cycle
(3) Shows high degree of polymorphism in population and also the same degree of polymorphism in an
individual, which is heritable from parents to children
(4) Does not code for proteins and is same in all members of the population
Sol. Answer (3)
Satellite DNA are the repetitive DNA which do not code for any protein. They show high degree of polymorphism
and form basis of DNA fingerprinting. Since DNA from every tissue from an individual show the same degree
of polymorphism, they become very useful identification tool in forensic applications.
3. Gene regulation governing lactose operon of E.coli that involves the lac I gene product is [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Feedback inhibition because excess of -galactosidase can switch off transcription
(2) Positive and inducible because it can be induced by lactose
(3) Negative and inducible because repressor protein prevents transcription
(4) Negative and repressible because repressor protein prevents transcription
Sol. Answer (3)
Lac operon under control of repressor is a negative regulation. The nature of operon is inducible.
4. Which one of the followings is wrongly matched? [AIPMT-2014]

(1) Transcription- Writing information from DNA to t-RNA
(2) Translation-Using information in m-RNA to make protein
(3) Repressor protein-Binds to operator to stop enzyme synthesis
(4) Operon-Structural genes, operator and promoter
Sol. Answer (4)
Operon  Structural, Operator, Promoter and Regulator genes.
5. Select the correct option [AIPMT-2014]

Direction of Direction of reading
RNA synthesis of the template DNA
strand
(1) 5 – 3 3 – 5
(2) 3 – 5 5 – 3
(3) 5 – 3 5 – 3
(4) 3 – 5 3 – 5
Sol. Answer (1)
6. Transformation was discovered by [AIPMT-2014]

(1) Meselson and Stahl (2) Hershey and Chase
(3) Griffith (4) Watson and Crick
Sol. Answer (3)
On Diplococcus pneumoniae
7. The diagram shows an important concept in the genetic implication of DNA. Fill in the blanks A to C.
A
DNA mRNA B Protein Proposed by [NEET-2013]
C
(1) A-translation, B-transcription, C-Erevin Chargaff (2) A-transcription, B-translation, C-Francis Crick
(3) A-translation, B-extension, C-Rosalind Franklin (4) A-transcription, B-replication, C-James Watson
Sol. Answer (2)
A B Proposed by
Replication DNA mRNA Protein
Transcription Translation C
Francis Crick
Central Diagram
8. Which enzyme/s will be produced in a cell in which there is a nonsense mutation in the lac Y gene?
[NEET-2013]
(1) Lactose permease (2) Transacetylase
(3) Lactose permease and transacetylase (4)  -galactosidase
Sol. Answer (4)
Z Y A Transacetylase
Permease
Z  –Galactosidase
Y is mutated so Z gene will give its effects.
9. Removal of RNA polymerase III from nucleoplasm will affect the synthesis of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) mRNA (2) rRNA (3) tRNA (4) hnRNA
Sol. Answer (3)
Polymerage III  Synthesize tRNA
10. Removal of introns and joining of exons in a defined order during transcription is called [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Slicing (2) Splicing (3) Looping (4) Inducing
Sol. Answer (2)
11. Which one of the following is not a part of a transcription unit in DNA? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) A promoter (2) The structural gene (3) The inducer (4) A terminator
Sol. Answer (3)
Inducer  is a chemical which will trigger the DNA to switch on gene in its presence.
12. If one strand of DNA has the nitrogenous base sequence as ATCTG, what would be the complementary RNA
strand sequence? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) AACTG (2) ATCGU (3) TTAGU (4) UAGAC
Sol. Answer (4)
ATCTG
UAGAC
13. Read the following four statements (A-D)

(A) In transcription, adenosine pairs with uracil
(B) Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred to as positive regulation
(C) The human genome has approximately 50,000 genes
(D) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease
How many of the above statements are right? [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) One
Sol. Answer (1)
(A) and (D)
14. PCR and Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism are the methods for [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) DNA sequencing (2) Genetic fingerprinting
(3) Study of enzymes (4) Genetic transformation
Sol. Answer (2)
PCR and RFLP
15. What is it that forms the basis of DNA fingerprinting? [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
(1) Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated short DNA segments
(2) The relative proportions of purines and pyrimidines in DNA
(3) The relative difference in the DNA occurrence in blood, skin and saliva
(4) The relative amount of DNA in the ridges and grooves of the fingerprints
Sol. Answer (1)
Satellite DNA occur in highly repeated member.
16. Which one of the following also acts as a catalyst in a bacterial cell? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) 23 S rRNA (2) 5 S rRNA (3) sn RNA (4) hn RNA
Sol. Answer (1)
17. What are those structures that appear as 'beads – on – string' in the chromosomes when viewed under electron
microscope? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Base pairs (2) Genes (3) Nucleotides (4) Nucleosomes
Sol. Answer (4)
18. In history of biology, human genome project led to the development of [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
(1) Bioinformatics (2) Biosystematics (3) Biotechnology (4) Biomonitoring
Sol. Answer (1)
19. The unequivocal proof of DNA as the genetic material came from the studies on a [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
(1) Viroid (2) Bacterial virus (3) Bacterium (4) Fungus
Sol. Answer (2)
Hershy and Chase experiment on T2 Bacteriophase
20. Which one of the following does not follow the central dogma of molecular biology? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) HIV (2) Pea (3) Mucor (4) Chlamydomonas
Sol. Answer (1)
Reverse transcriptase enzyme is found in HIV
21. Select the two correct statements out of the four (a–d) given below about lac operon.
(a) Glucose or galactose may bind with the repressor and inactivate it.
(b) In the absence of lactose the repressor binds with the operator region.
(c) The z-gene codes for permease.
(d) This was elucidated by Francois Jacob and Jacque Monod.
The correct statements are [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c) (3) (a) and (c) (4) (b) and (d)
Sol. Answer (4)
Z - gene   - galactosidase
22. The one aspect which is not a salient feature of genetic code, is its being [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Specific (2) Degenerate (3) Ambiguous (4) Universal
Sol. Answer (3)
Non-ambiguous
23. In eukaryotic cell transcription, RNA splicing and RNA capping take place inside the [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
(1) Ribosomes (2) Nucleus (3) Dictyosomes (4) ER
Sol. Answer (2)
Posttranscription changes take place in nucleus.
24. The lac operon consists of [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]

(1) Four regulatory genes only (2) One regulatory gene and three structural genes
(3) Two regulatory genes and two structural genes (4) Three regulatory genes and three structural genes
Sol. Answer (2)
i P O Z Y A
Regulator 3 Structural genes
25. The 3 — 5 phosphodiester linkages inside a polynucleotide chain serve to join [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
(1) One DNA strand with the other DNA strand (2) One nucleoside with another nucleoside
(3) One nucleotide with another nucleotide (4) One nitrogenous base with pentose sugar
Sol. Answer (3)
26. Satellite DNA is useful tool in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]

(1) Genetic engineering (2) Organ transplantation
(3) Sex determination (4) Forensic science
Sol. Answer (4)
DNA fingerprinting
27. Removal of introns and joining the exons in a defined order in a transcription unit is called:
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Tailing (2) Transformation (3) Capping (4) Splicing
Sol. Answer (4)
Take place while posttranscriptional change in RNA.
28. Semiconservative replication of DNA was first demonstrated in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]

(1) Escherichia coli (2) Streptococcus pneumoniae
(3) Salmonella typhimurium (4) Drosophila melanogaster
Sol. Answer (1)
29. What is not true for genetic code? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) It is nearly universal
(2) It is degenerate
(3) It is unambiguous
(4) A codon in mRNA is read in a noncontiguous fashion
Sol. Answer (4)
30. Whose experiments cracked the DNA and discovered unequivocally that a genetic code is a "triplet"?
(1) Hershey and Chase (2) Morgan and Sturtevant
(3) Beadle and Tatum (4) Nirenberg and Mathaei
Sol. Answer (4)
31. Which one of the following pairs of nitrogenous bases of nucleic acids, is wrongly matched with the category
mentioned against it? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) Adenine, Thymine - Purines (2) Thymine, Uracil - Pyrimidines
(3) Uracil, Cytosine - Pyrimidines (4) Guanine, Adenine - Purines
Sol. Answer (1)
32. In the DNA molecules [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]

(1) There are two strands which run antiparallel one in 53' direction and other in 35
(2) The total amount of purine nucleotides and pyrimidine nucleotides is not always equal
(3) There are two strands which run parallel in the 53' direction
(4) The proportion of adenine in relation to thymine varies with the organism
Sol. Answer (1)
33. Which one of the following pairs of codons is correctly matched with their function or the signal for the
particular amino acid? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) UUA, UCA - Leucine (2) GUU, GCU - Alanine
(3) UAG, UGA - Stop (4) AUG, ACG - Start / Methionine
Sol. Answer (3)
(i) UUA  Leucine
UCA  Serine
(ii) GUU  Valine
GCU  Alanine
(iii) AUG  Methionine
ACG  Threonine
34. One gene-one enzyme relationship was established for the first time in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Diploccus pneumoniae (2) Neurospora crassa
(3) Salmonella typhimurium (4) Escherichia coli
Sol. Answer (2)
35. A sequential expression of a set of human genes occurs when a steroid molecule binds to the:
(1) Ribosome (2) Transfer RNA (3) Messenger RNA (4) DNA sequence
Sol. Answer (4)
36. The Okazaki fragments in DNA chain growth: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]

(1) Polymerize in the 5  to  3 direction and explain 3  to  5 DNA replication
(2) Result in transcription
(3) Polymerize in the 3  to  5 direction and forms replication fork
(4) Proove semi-conservative nature of DNA replication
Sol. Answer (1)
37. Molecular basis of organ differentiation depends on the modulation in transcription by:
(1) Anticodon (2) RNA polymerase (3) Ribosome (4) Transcription factor
Sol. Answer (4)
38. Telomere repetitive DNA sequence control the function of eukaryote chromosomes because they:
(1) Prevent chromosome loss (2) Act as replicons
(3) Are RNA transcription initiator (4) Help chromosome pairing
Sol. Answer (1)
They prevent the loss of DNA from the terminal part of DNA.
39. During transcription, RNA polymerase holoenzyme binds to a gene promoter and assumes a saddle -like
structure. What is it's DNA-binding sequence? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) TATA (2) TTAA (3) AATT (4) CACC
Sol. Answer (1)
40. The two polynucleotide chains in DNA are [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Semiconservative (2) Parallel (3) Discontinuous (4) Antiparallel
Sol. Answer (4)
Antiparallel nature means
One strand have polarity  5'  3'
Another strand have polarity  3'  5'
41. The length of DNA molecule greatly exceeds the dimensions of the nucleus in eukaryotic cells. How is this
DNA accommodated? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Through elimination of repetitive DNA (2) Deletion of non-essential genes.
(3) Super-coiling in nucleosomes (4) DNAse digestion
Sol. Answer (3)
DNA is coiled to form a solanoid and supercoiled.
42. One turn of the helix in a B-form DNA is approximately: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) 20 nm (2) 0.34 nm (3) 3.4 nm (4) 2 nm
Sol. Answer (3)
3.4 nm or 34 Å
43. Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule means that: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]

(1) One strand turns anti-clockwise
(2) The phosphate groups of two DNA strands, at their ends, share the same position
(3) The phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands are in opposite position (pole)
(4) One strand turns clockwise
Sol. Answer (3)
One strand has polarity 5'  3'
Another strand has polarity 3'  5'
44. Amino acid sequence, in protein synthesis is decided by the sequence of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) t-RNA (2) m-RNA (3) c-DNA (4) r-RNA
Sol. Answer (2)
mRNA  is a cistron which carry information for synthesis of protein.
45. One gene – one enzyme hypothesis was postulated by [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) R. Franklin (2) Hershey and Chase (3) A. Garrod (4) Beadle and Tatum
Sol. Answer (4)
Beadle and Tatum on Nurospora crassa.
46. During transcription holoenzyme RNA polymerase binds to a DNA sequence and the DNA assumes a saddle
like structure at that point. What is that sequence called? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) CAAT box (2) GGTT box (3) AAAT box (4) TATA box
Sol. Answer (4)
47. E. coli cells with a mutated Z gene of the lac operon cannot grow in medium containing only lactose as the
source of energy because [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) In the presence of glucose, E. coli cells do not utilize lactose
(2) They cannot transport lactose from the medium into the cell
(3) The lac operon is constitutively active in these cells
(4) They cannot synthesize functional â-galactosidase
Sol. Answer (4)
48. Nucleotide are building blocks of nucleic acids, nucleotide is a composite molecule formed by :
(1) (Base-sugar-phosphate)n (2) Base-sugar-OH
(3) Base-sugar-phosphate (4) Sugar-phosphate
Sol. Answer (3)
49. Which one of the following makes use of RNA as a template to synthesize DNA? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Reverse transcriptase (2) DNA dependant RNA polymerase
(3) DNA polymerase (4) RNA polymerase
Sol. Answer (1)
It is RNA dependent DNA polymerase
50. Uridine, present only in RNA is a

(1) Pyrimidine (2) Nucleoside (3) Nucleotide (4) Purine
Sol. Answer (2)
51. Which of the following is not a property of the genetic code?

(1) Universal (2) Non-overlapping (3) Ambiguous (4) Degeneracy
Sol. Answer (3)
Genetic code is ambiguous.
52. One of the most frequently used techniques in DNA fingerprinting is

(1) AFLP (2) VNTR (3) SSCP (4) SCAR
Sol. Answer (2)
53. In an inducible operon, the genes are

(1) Always expressed
(2) Usually not expressed unless a signal turns them "on"
(3) Usually expressed unless a signal turns them "off"
(4) Never expressed
Sol. Answer (2)
It need a inducer to trigger and switch on gene.
54. A single strand of nucleic acid tagged with a radioactive molecule is called
(1) Plasmid (2) Probe (3) Vector (4) Selectable marker
Sol. Answer (2)
Probe  Radioactive DNA help to make out sequence of unknown DNA.
55. The reaction, Amino acid + ATP  Aminoacyl-AMP + P–P depicts
(1) Amino acid assimilation (2) Amino acid transformation
(3) Amino acid activation (4) Amino acid translocation
Sol. Answer (3)
Amino acid get activated to attach to tRNA.
56. The transcription of any gene is the indication of its

(1) Induction (2) Activity (3) Stimulation (4) Hypersensitivity
Sol. Answer (2)
57. mRNA directs the building of proteins through a sequence of

(1) Introns (2) Codons (3) Exons (4) Anticodons
Sol. Answer (2)
Codon will carry sequence in which A.A. will attach.
58. Beadle and Tatum showed that each kind of mutant bread mould they studied lacked a specific enzyme. Their
experiments demonstrated that
(1) Cells need specific enzymes in order to function
(2) Genes are made of DNA
(3) Genes carry information for making proteins
(4) Enzymes are required to repair damaged DNA information
Sol. Answer (3)
Beadle & Tatum experiment was done on
Nurospora Crassa. They propose one gene one enzyme hypothesis
59. Which of the following necleotide sequences contain 4 pyrimidine bases?

(1) GATCAATGC (2) GCUAGACAA (3) UAGCGGUAA (4) Both (2) & (3)
Sol. Answer (1)
G AT C A AT C G  4  Pyrimidine
12 34
GCUAGACAA 2
UAGCGG UAA  2
60. The 1992 Nobel Prize for medicine was awarded to Edmond H. Fischer and Edwin J. Krebs for their work
concerning
(1) Reversible protein phosphorylation as a biological regulation mechanism
(2) Isolation of the gene for a human disease
(3) Human genome project
(4) Drug designing involving inhibition of DNA synthesis of the pathogen
Sol. Answer (1)
61. Initiation codon in eukaryotes is

(1) GAU (2) AGU (3) AUG (4) UAG
Sol. Answer (3)
AUG  Methionine
62. ‘Lac operon’ in E. coli, is induced by

(1) “I” gene (2) Promoter gene (3) -galactosidase (4) Lactose
Sol. Answer (4)
63. There are special proteins that help to open up DNA double helix in front of the replication fork. These proteins
are
(1) DNA ligase (2) DNA topoisomerase I (3) DNA gyrase (4) DNA polymerase I
Sol. Answer (3)
DNA gyrase  Show helicase as well as topoisomerase activity.
64. In protein synthesis, the polymerization of amino acids involves three steps. Which one of the following is not
involved in the polymerization of protein?
(1) Termination (2) Initiation (3) Elongation (4) Transcription
Sol. Answer (4)
Transcription is the process.
65. Anticodon is an unpaired triplet of bases in an exposed position of

(1) t-RNA (2) m-RNA (3) r-RNA (4) Both (2) & (3)
Sol. Answer (1)
tRNA contain anticodon.
66. An environmental agent, which triggers transcription from an operon, is a

(1) Depressor (2) Controlling element (3) Regulator (4) Inducer
Sol. Answer (4)
67. In split genes, the coding sequences are called

(1) Exons (2) Cistrons (3) Introns (4) Operons
Sol. Answer (1)
Exon  Coding
Intron  Noncoding
68. The lac operon is an example of

(1) Repressible operon (2) Overlapping genes (3) Arabinose operon (4) Inducible operon
Sol. Answer (4)
69. If the DNA codons are ATG ATG ATG and a cytosine base is inserted at the beginning, then which of the
following will result?
(1) CAT GAT GATG (2) A non-sense mutation (3) C ATG ATG ATG (4) CA TGA TGA TG
Sol. Answer (1)
A T G AT G AT G
C Addition
C AT G AT G AT G
70. The wild type E.coli cells are growing in normal medium with glucose. They are transferred to a medium
containing only lactose as sugar. Which of the following changes take place?
(1) The lac operon is induced (2) E.coli cells stop dividing
(3) The lac operon is repressed (4) All operons are induced
Sol. Answer (1)
In the presence of lactose lac operone is induced.
71. If the sequence of bases in DNA is ATTCGATG, then the sequence of bases in its transcript will be
(1) GUAGCUUA (2) AUUCGAUG (3) CAUCGAAU (4) UAAGCUAC
Sol. Answer (4)
DNA AT T C G AT G
U A A G C TA C
72. Which of the following serves as an stop codon?

(1) UAG (2) AGA (3) AUG (4) GCG
Sol. Answer (1)
UAG  Stop codon
73. The codons causing chain termination are

(1) AGT, TAG, UGA (2) UAG, UGA, UAA (3) TAG, TAA, TGA (4) GAT, AAT, AGT
Sol. Answer (2)
UAG  Amber
UGA  Opal
UAA  Ocher
74. DNA synthesis can be specifically measured by estimating the incorporation of radio-labelled
(1) Thymidine (2) Deoxyribose sugar (3) Uracil (4) Adenine
Sol. Answer (1)
Thymidine in Vicia faba by Taylor.
75. Which of the following step of translation does not consume a high energy phosphate bond?
(1) Peptidyl transferase reaction (2) Aminoacyl t-RNA binding to A-site
(3) Translocation (4) Amino acid activation
Sol. Answer (1)
Peptide bond is independent.
76. DNA elements, which can switch their position, are called
(1) Cistrons (2) Transposons (3) Exons (4) Introns
Sol. Answer (2)
Transposon jumping genes
77. Sequence of which of the following is used to know the phylogeny?

(1) m-RNA (2) r-RNA (3) t-RNA (4) DNA
Sol. Answer (4)
78. Genes that are involved in turning on or off the transcription of a set of structural genes are called
(1) Redundant genes (2) Regulatory genes (3) Polymorphic genes (4) Operator genes
Sol. Answer (2)
Regulatory genes  Repressor
79. In operon concept, regulator gene functions as

(1) Inhibitor (2) Repressor (3) Regulator (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (2)
80. In DNA, when AGCT occurs, their association as per which of the following pair?
(1) AT-GC (2) AG-CT (3) AC-GT (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (1)
1AGCT
A–T
G– C
81. Irregularity is found in Drosophila during the organ differentiation. For example, in place of wing Iong legs are
formed. Which gene is responsible?
(1) Double dominant gene (2) Homeotic gene (3) Complimentary gene (4) Plastid gene
Sol. Answer (2)
82. Method of DNA replication in which two strands of DNA separate and synthesise new strands, is
(1) Dispersive (2) Conservative (3) Semi conservative (4) Non conservative
Sol. Answer (3)
Semi conservative half parental strand is retained half newly formed.

83. In negative operon
(1) Co-repressor binds with repressor (2) Co-repressor does not bind with repressor
(3) Co-repressor binds with inducer (4) cAMP have negative effect on lac operon
Sol. Answer (1)
Co-repressor bind with apo-repressor  Apo-corepressor complex which completely block the site of operator
gene.
84. Gene and cistron words are sometimes used synonymously because
(1) One cistron contains many genes (2) One gene contains many cistrons
(3) One gene contains one cistron (4) One gene contains no cistron
Sol. Answer (3)
Cistron is functional unit of DNA that produce or code for polypeptide.
85. m-RNA is synthesised on DNA template in which direction?

(1) 5  3 (2) 3  5 (3) Both (1) & (2) (4) Any of these
Sol. Answer (1)
5 3'  Polymerase activity.
86. At the time of organogenesis, genes regulate the process at different levels and at different time due to
(1) Promoter (2) Regulator (3) Intron (4) Exon
Sol. Answer (4)
87. A mutant strain of T 4 - bacteriophage, R-II, fails to lyse the E. coli but when two strains R-IIX and
R-IIY are mixed then they lyse the E. coli. What may be the possible reason?
(1) Bacteriophage transforms in wild (2) It is not mutated
(3) Both strains have similar cistrons (4) Both strains have different cistrons
Sol. Answer (4)
Both strain carry different strain so they complaint the function that leads to lysis.
88. In E. coli, during lactose metabolism repressor binds to

(1) Regulator gene (2) Operator gene (3) Structural gene (4) Promoter gene
Sol. Answer (2)
89. In a DNA, percentage of thymine is 20% then what will be percentage of guanine?
(1) 20% (2) 40% (3) 30% (4) 60%
Sol. Answer (3)
A+ G = C + T
20 + 30 = 30 + 20
90. Out of 64 codons, 61 codons code for 20 types of amino acid. It is called
(1) Degeneracy of genetic code (2) Overlapping of genes
(3) Wobbling of codons (4) Universality of codons
Sol. Answer (1)
More than one codon code for a amino acid.
91. Jacob and Monad studied lactose metabolism in E. coli and proposed operon concept. Operon concept is
applicable for
(1) All prokaryotes (2) All prokaryotes and some eukaryotes
(3) All prokaryotes and all eukaryotes (4) All prokaryotes and some protozoans
Sol. Answer (1)
92. Exon part of hn-RNA have code for

(1) Protein (2) Lipid (3) Carbohydrate (4) Phospholipid
Sol. Answer (1)
Hn – RNA Heterogeneous nuclear RNA.
93. Which form of RNA has a structure resembling with clover leaf?
(1) rRNA (2) hn-RNA (3) mRNA (4) tRNA
Sol. Answer (4)
Clover leaf
94. Which of the following reunites the exon segments after RNA splicing?
(1) RNA polymerase (2) RNA primase (3) RNA ligase (4) RNA proteoses
Sol. Answer (3)
RNA Ligase
95. During initiation of translation in prokaryotes, a GTP molecule is needed in

(1) Formation of formyl-met-tRNA
(2) Binding of 30 S subunit of ribosome with mRNA
(3) Association of 30 S mRNA with formyl-met-tRNA
(4) Association of 50 S subunit of ribosome with initiation complex
Sol. Answer (3)
GTP is needed
mRNA
30 S
96. In the genetic code dictionary, how many codons are used to code for all the 20 essential amino acids?
(1) 20 (2) 64 (3) 61 (4) 60
Sol. Answer (3)
61 codons specify 20 amino acids.
3 codons are strop codons i.e., UAA, UAG, UGA.
97. The telomeres of eukaryotic chromosomes consist of short sequences of

(1) Thymine rich repeats (2) Cytosine rich repeats
(3) Adenine rich repeats (4) Guanine rich repeats
Sol. Answer (4)
98. What does “lac” refer to in what we call the lac operon?
(1) Lactose (2) Lactase (3) Lac insect (4) The number 1,00,000
Sol. Answer (1)
Lactose operon
99. Degeneration of a genetic code is attributed to the

(1) First member of a codon (2) Second member of codon
(3) Entire codon (4) Third member of a codon
Sol. Answer (4)
GUG  Third position is Wooble position
100. During transcription, the DNA site at which RNA polymerase binds is called
(1) Promoter (2) Regulator (3) Receptor (4) Enhancer
Sol. Answer (1)
Promoter site  RNA bind
101. What would happen if in a gene encoding a polypeptide of 50 amino acids, 25th codon (UAU) is mutated to
UAA ?
(1) A polypeptide of 24 amino acids will be formed
(2) Two polypeptides of 24 and 25 amino acids will be formed
Sol. Answer (1)
UAA  Stopcodon
24 Codon 25 th Codon
Amino Acid
102. Which one of the following triplet codon, is correctly matched with its specificity for an amino acid in protein
synthesis or as ‘start’ or ‘stop’ codon ?
(1) UCG - start (2) UUU - stop (3) UGU – leucine (4) UAC - tyrosine
Sol. Answer (4)
UUU  Phenylalanine
UGU  Cystine
UCG
Serine
UCG
103. DNA fingerprinting refer to

(1) Molecular analysis of profiles of DNA samples
(2) Analysis of DNA samples using imprinting devices
(3) Techniques used for molecular analysis of different specimens of DNA
(4) Techniques used for identification of fingerprints of individuals
Sol. Answer (1)
104. During transcription, if the nucleotide sequence of the DNA strand that is being coded is ATACG then the
nucleotide sequence in the mRNA would be
(1) TATGC (2) TCTGG (3) UAUGC (4) UATGC
Sol. Answer (3)
A T A C G  DNA
U A U G C  RNA
105. After a mutation at a genetic locus the character of an organism changes due to change in
(1) Protein structure (2) DNA replication
(3) Protein synthesis pattern (4) RNA transcription pattern
Sol. Answer (1)
106. During replication of a bacterial chromosome DNA synthesis starts from a replication origin site and
(1) RNA primers are involved (2) Is facilitated by telomerase
(3) Moves in one direction of the site (4) Moves in bi-directional way
Sol. Answer (4)
107. The following ratio is generally constant for a given species

(1) A + G / C + T (2) T + C / G + A (3) G + C / A + T (4) A + C / T + G
Sol. Answer (3)
G+C
A+T
108. What is true for E. coli with inhibited lac-z gene?

(1) They cannot synthesize permease
(2) They cannot synthesize functional beta galactosidase
(3) They cannot synthesize transacetylase
(4) They cannot transport lactose from the medium into the cell
Sol. Answer (2)
Z - gene   - Galactosidase
109. Which antibiotic inhibits interaction between tRNA and mRNA during bacterial protein synthesis?
(1) Tetracycline (2) Erythromycin (3) Neomycin (4) Streptomycin
Sol. Answer (3)
Erythromycin  Inhibits translocation of mRNA along ribosomes.
Streptomycin  Inhibits initiation of translation and causes misreading.
Tetracycline  Inhibit binding of aminoacyl-tRNA to ribosome.
110. During transcription, RNA polymerase holoenzyme binds to a gene promoter and assumes a saddle - like
structure. What is it’s DNA-binding sequence?
(1) AATT (2) CACC (3) TATA (4) TTAA
Sol. Answer (3)
TATA box
111. Differentiation of organs and tissues in a developing organism, is associated with

(1) Differential expression of genes (2) Lethal mutations
(3) Deletion of genes (4) Developmental mutations
Sol. Answer (1)
112. The nuclease enzyme, which begins its attack from free end of a polynucleotide, is
(1) Polymerase (2) Endonuclease (3) Exonuclease (4) Kinase
Sol. Answer (3)
113. Radio-tracer technique shows that DNA is in

(1) Multi-helix stage (2) Single-helix stage (3) Double-helix stage (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (3)
114. Genes are packaged into a bacterial chromosome by

(1) Acidic protein (2) Actin (3) Histones (4) Basic protein
Sol. Answer (4)
115. The hereditary material present in the bacterium E.coli is
(1) Single-stranded DNA (2) Double-stranded DNA
(3) DNA and RNA (4) RNA
Sol. Answer (2)
Doble strand circular DNA
116. The Pneumococcus experiment proves that

(1) Bacteria do not reproduce sexually
(2) RNA sometime controls the production of DNA and proteins
(3) DNA is the genetic material
(4) Bacteria undergo binary fission
Sol. Answer (3)
Experiment was done by Griffta on Pneumococcus pneumoniae.
117. E.coli about to replicate was placed in a medium containing radio active thymidine for five minutes. Then it
was made to replicate in a normal medium. Which of the following observation shall be correct?
(1) Both the strands of DNA will be radioactive (2) One strand radioactive
(3) Each strand half radioactive (4) None is radioactive
Sol. Answer (2)
DNA is semiconservative in nature
118. Types of RNA polymerase required in nucleus of eukaryotes for RNA synthesis is/are
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
Sol. Answer (3)
RNA Polymerase I
RNA Polymerase II
RNA Polymerase III
119. Transformation experiment was first performed on which bacteria?

(1) E. coli (2) Diplococcus pneumoniae
(3) Salmonella (4) Pasteurella pestis
Sol. Answer (2)
Diplococcus pneumoniae by Griffth
120. Telomerase is an enzyme which is a

(1) Simple protein (2) RNA (3) Ribonucleoprotein (4) Repetitive DNA
Sol. Answer (3)
It synthesise the terminal or telomeric DNA.
121. In transgenics, expression of transgene in target tissue is determined by

(1) Enhancer (2) Transgene (3) Promoter (4) Reporter
Sol. Answer (3)
122. A nutritionally wild type organism, which does not require any additional growth supplement, is known as
(1) Osmotroph (2) Mixotroph (3) Auxotroph (4) Prototroph
Sol. Answer (4)
Used in Beadel and Tatum experiment.
123. What is not true for genetic code?

(1) It is unambiguous
(2) A codon in mRNA is read in a non-contiguous fashion
(3) It is nearly universal
(4) It is degenerate
Sol. Answer (2)
124. Semiconservative replication of DNA was first demonstrated in

(1) Salmonella typhimurium (2) Drosophila melanogaster
(3) Escherichia coli (4) Streptococcus pneumoniae
Sol. Answer (3)
By Meselson and Stahl
125. Which one of the following statements about the particular entity is true?
(1) Nucleosome is formed of nucleotides
(2) DNA consists of a core of eight histones
(3) Centromere is found in animal cells, which produces aster during cell division
(4) The gene for producing insulin is present in every body cell
Sol. Answer (4)
SECTION - D
Assertion-Reason Type Questions
1. A : RNA polymerase is of three types in eukaryotes for the synthesis of all types of RNAs.
R : RNA polymerase consists of six types of polypeptides alongwith rho factor which is involved in termination of
RNA synthesis.
Sol. Answer (3)
2. A : 5S rRNA and surrounding protein complex provides binding site of tRNA.

R : tRNA is soluble RNA with unusual bases.
Sol. Answer (2)
3. A : Operator gene is functional when it is not blocked by repressor.

R : Regulator gene produces active protein only which acts on operon system in E.coli.
Sol. Answer (3)
Regulator gene produce its product. It is inducer which will bind with repressor.
4. A : Peptidyl transfer site is contributed by larger sub-unit of ribosome.

R : The enzyme peptidyl transferase is contributed by both 23S and 16S ribosomal sub-units.
Sol. Answer (3)
5. A : Teminism is unidirectional flow of information.
R : It requires DNA dependent RNA polymerase enzyme.
Sol. Answer (4)
Teminisms is revese transcription so no unidirectional flow of information.
6. A : In bacterial translation mechanism, two tRNA are required by methionine.

R : AUG codes for methionine and it shows nonambiguity also.
Sol. Answer (2)
7. A : Nutritional mutant strain of pink mould is auxotroph.

R : It is not able to prepare its own metabolites from the raw materials obtained from outside.
Sol. Answer (1)
Auxotrops are mutants which have specific nutritional demand
8. A : In DNA fingerprinting, hybridization is done with molecular probe.

R : Molecular probe is small DNA segment synthesized in laboratory with known sequence that recognise
complementary sequence in RNA.
Sol. Answer (3)
Probe help in identification of unknown sequence of DNA.
9. A : c-DNA libraries are important to scientists in human genomics.

R : c-DNA is synthetic type of DNA generated from mRNA.
Sol. Answer (2)
10. A : SNPs-pronounced "snips" are common in human genome.

R : It is minute variations that occurs at a frequency of one in every 300 bases.
Sol. Answer (1)
Single nucleotide polymorphism.
11. A : Catalytic functions were assigned to RNA molecule during evolution.

R : The rate of mutation is quite fast in RNA.
Sol. Answer (2)
12. A : Kornberg enzyme is associated with the removal of primers and thyminedimer.
R : DNA polymersase I does exonuclease activity in 5 3 and 3 5 directions.
Sol. Answer (1)
13. A : Wobbling reduces the number of tRNAs required for polypeptide synthesis.
R : It increases the effect of code degeneracy.
Sol. Answer (3)
One tRNA can read non-complementary sequence by Wobble hypothesis.
14. A : Unknown DNA after hybridization with VNTR probe, the autoradiogram gives many bands of differing sizes
in DNA profiling.
R : These bands represents DNA fingerprint of organism.
Sol. Answer (2)
15. A : Polypeptide sequences are dictated by DNA and represented by mRNA.

R : Sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide can be predicted by the exact sequence of nucleotides on the
mRNA and template DNA.
Sol. Answer (3)
16. A : Triplet genetic code can be confirmed by frame shift mutations.

R : Frame shifting involves the change in protein product coded by triplet codons.
Sol. Answer (2)
By additio or deletion of one Nucleotide cause frame shift mutation.
17. A : Lac operon exerts negative control only.

R : The operator is occupied by aporepressor during regulation.
Sol. Answer (4)
Lac openon is +ve and –ve control.
18. A : Single DNA dependent RNA polymerase catalyses transcription of all types of RNA in all except bacteria.
R : Structural genes in bacteria are monocistronic.
Sol. Answer (4)
19. A : Sigma factor of RNA polymesase recognizes the start signal region in prokaryotes.
R : Promotor region lies at 5 of template strand.
Sol. Answer (3)
20. A : HGP was completed in 2003 by sequencing all genes of all chromosomes.
R : All coding and noncoding genes were sequenced by ESTs.
Sol. Answer (4)
HGP completed by 2006.


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Chapter 16

Molecular Basis of Inheritance

3. Adjacent nucleotides in a polynucleotide chain are joined by

4. Sugars are attached to the pyrimidines by the formation of

6. Which of the following process is related to reverse transcription?

7. Which of the following structures are present in core particle of nucleosome?

8. Packaging of DNA helix

9. Length of DNA in E. coli is

Sol. Answer (3)

11. Dominance of RNA world is proved by

15. DNA polymerases catalyse polymerisation of / in

19. Poly A tail is present in

20. Find out the incorrect match.

22. What is incorrect for UTR?

23. In bacteria, catalytic RNA is found in

24. In lac operon, the regulator gene codes for

25. Mark the incorrect option w.r.t. lac operon

26. In lac operon, the lac mRNA

28. What is incorrect for human chromosome 1?

30. Mark the correct one (w.r.t. application of DNA fingerprinting)

31. In the technique of DNA fingerprinting digestion of DNA is followed by

32. In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase III catalyses the synthesis of

33. Read the following statements:

34. In DNA fingerprinting, detection of hybridised DNA fragments is possible by

35. Mark the correct match.

2. NHC structural proteins are

3. How many types of DNA polymerases are present in bacteria?

4. Synthesis of leading and lagging strand require

7. What is correct for bacterial transcription?

9. Which of the following feature is correct for bacteria?

10. In-vitro template independent RNA synthesis is a feature of

12. Termination of polypeptide synthesis in bacteria differs from eukaryotes in

16. Which statement is correct for homeotic genes?

17. In which step of DNA profiling, nitrocellulose membrane is used?

18. Repressor of lac-operon

19. Select the correct one (w.r.t. Wobble hypothesis)

24. Majority of unusual bases are found in tRNA, TC loop is

28. The microsatellites have simple sequences of repeated

32. In tryptophan operon

33. In tailing, adenylate residues are added at 3′ end

Chromosome (Condensed chromatin)

Gene (Segment of DNA; unit

2. Satellite DNA is important because it [Re-AIPMT-2015]

4. Which one of the followings is wrongly matched? [AIPMT-2014]

5. Select the correct option [AIPMT-2014]

6. Transformation was discovered by [AIPMT-2014]

(3) Lactose permease and transacetylase (4)  -galactosidase

Sol. Answer (4)

Y is mutated so Z gene will give its effects.

13. Read the following four statements (A-D)

24. The lac operon consists of [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]

Regulator 3 Structural genes

26. Satellite DNA is useful tool in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]

28. Semiconservative replication of DNA was first demonstrated in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]

32. In the DNA molecules [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]

36. The Okazaki fragments in DNA chain growth: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]

43. Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule means that: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]