Questions compiled from PMBOK online.

Some answers are marked incorrectly, so

double check if in doubt. To see all of these questions as an Anki Deck, download the
package from the MECH3600 folder. I highly recommend studying the questions in
this way. 30mins a day for a week and a half before your exam and you will score very
highly.

More info about anki (free software): https://apps.ankiweb.net/

Following Questions from: https://sites.google.com/site/pmpbank/pmpquestions241-260

9. Which of the following is the example of a conflict of interest?

a. You are the fourth cousin of a vendor supplying parts to a project in your company
b. You are the owner of a company that is supplying parts to a project that you are managing
c. You receive a gift from a supplier of parts for your project
d. A supplier tells you sensitive information, in confidence, that allows you to select another supplier
for your project

12. Decomposing the major deliverables into smaller, more manageable components to
provide better control is called:
a. Scope planning
b. Scope definition
c. Scope baselining
d. Scope verification

14. A person who is involved in or may be affected by the activities or anyone who has
something to gain or lose by the activity of the project is called a:
a. Team member
b. Customer
c. Stakeholder
d. Supporter

18. A group of related projects that are managed in a coordinated way that usually include an
element of ongoing activity is called a:
a. Major project
b. Project office
c. Program
d. Group of projects

19. During the full life cycle of the project, a plot of the project’s expected expenditure will
usually follow a characteristic “S” shape. This indicates that:
a. There is a cyclic nature to all projects
b. Problems will always occur in the execution phase
c. There are high expenditure during closeout
d. The bulk of the project budget will be sp
nt in the execution phase

20. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a new product or service is called a:

a. New product development
b. Project
c. Program
d. Enterprise
22. An example of scope verification is:
a. Reviewing the performance of an installed software module
b. Managing changes to the project schedule
c. Decomposing the WBS to a work package level
d. Performing a benefit-cost analysis to determine if we should proceed

24. Configuration management is:

a. Used to ensure that the description of the project product is correct and complete
b. The creation of work breakdown structure
c. The set of procedures developed to ensure that a product’s attributes remain consistent
throughout its life.
d. A mechanism to track budget and schedule variances

26. A project manager is creating a work breakdown structure for her project. In the work
break down structure, the lowest level of the breakdown for the project manager is called:
a. Activity
b. Task
c. Work package
d. Cost account

29. A project manager is reviewing the work breakdown structure for her project. The WBS of
the project represents:
a. All the tangible items that must be delivered to the client
b. All the work that must be completed for the project
c. The work that must be performed by the project team
d. All the activities of the project

30. A manager who manages a group of related projects is called a:

a. Project manager
b. Project expediter
c. Program coordinator
d. Program manager

31. A new project has begun. The project charter has been written and the project manager
has been assigned. The project manager is preparing the work breakdown structure for the
project. The WBS is typically used for:
a. Explaining the scope of the project relevant to the client
b. The basis for organizing and defining the total scope of the project
c. Showing the resource conflicts that exist in the project
d. The logical relationship between tasks in the project

32. During the life of a project, the project will go through several phases – initiating, planning,
execution, and closeout. Which phase of the project is likely to have the greatest amount of its
funding spent?
a. Initiating
b. Planning
c. Executing
d. Closeout

34. The coordinated undertaking of interrelated activities directed toward a specific goal that
has finite period of performance is a:
a. Project charter
b. Project
c. Set of project objectives
d. Program

40. In a very large project having a budget of $5 million and a project team of over one hundred
persons, the project manager constructs a work breakdown structure. The project manager
will do the WBS to the detail level of which of the following?
a. Task
b. Activity
c. WBS element
d. Work package

41. A project manager is managing a project that has reached the end of planning phase. The
work scope has been agreed to and definitive cost estimates have been completed for the
project. The total estimated cost of the project is $100,000. It is reasonable to expect that the
project will not cost over which of the following value?
a. $100,000
b. $110,000
c. $125,000
d. $175,000

57. The project manager decided to improve the predicted completion date for the project by
doing in parallel several of the activities that were scheduled to be done in sequence. This is
called:
a. Crashing
b. Increasing priorities
c. Hurry up defense
d. Fast tracking
60. Schedules are used in many ways. In a project to build a bridge the project manager wants
to use a tool that will show the scheduled activities in such a way that it is easy to see when
each activity starts and finishes and which activities are taking place at the same time. Which
tool should be used?
a. PERT chart
b. Gantt chart
c. Precedence diagram
d. GERT chart
68. A project manager wants to make a trip to California by car. The project manager knows
how many miles it will be to drive to California, the current price of gasoline, and how many
miles the car will go on a gallon of gasoline. From this information he or she can calculate the
estimated cost of the gasoline for the trip. This is a form of what kind of estimating technique?
a. Definitive
b. Analogous
c. Parametric
d. Quantitative
69. A project manager wants to make a trip to California by car. The project manager knows
someone who has made this trip before. This person has a similar car to the one that the
project manager has, and the person has kept good records on the money spent for fuel on
the trip. The distance that the project manager will travel is 10% farther than the other person’s
trip. By multiplying the cost of fuel reported by the other person by 1.1, the project manager is
performing what kind of estimate?
a. Definitive
b. Analogous
c. Parametric
d. Quantitative
70. To distinguish top-down estimates from bottom-up estimates, it would be correct to say
that the bottom-up estimate would be:
a. Less accurate
b. About equal in accuracy to the top-down estimate
c. More accurate
d. No different to perform than the top-down estimate
76. The act of doing anything that will help to bring future project performance into line with
the project plan is called:
a. Budget update
b. Revised cost estimate
c. Corrective action
d. Contingency planning
78. In terms of earned value reporting, a project is considered complete when:
a. The BAC is equal to the PV
b. The EV is equal to the AC
c. The PV is equal to the AC
d. The BAC is equal to the EV
95. The process required to ensure that the project will satisfy the needs for which it was
undertaken include all activities of the overall management function that determines the
quality policy, objectives, and responsibilities and implements them by means such as quality
planning, quality control, quality assurance, and quality improvement, within the quality
system. This is called:
a. Quality assurance
b. Quality control
c. Quality planning
d. Quality management
101. The totality of characteristics of an entity that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or
implied needs is the definition for:
a. Modern quality management
b. Quality assurance
c. Quality
d. Quality control
103. One of the fundamental tenets of quality management is that quality:
a. Must exceed customer expectation
b. Is planned in and not inspected in
c. Will increase cost
d. Costs must all be passed onto the customer
109. Work results, quality checklists, operational definitions, and the management plan are:
a. Inputs to quality control
b. Outputs from quality control
c. Inputs to quality assurance
d. Outputs from quality assurance
119. Project quality assurance:
a. Includes policing the conformance of the project team to specs
b. Provides the project team and stakeholders with standards, by which the project performance is
measured
c. Is a managerial process that defines the organization, design, resources, and objectives of quality
management
d. Provide confidence that the project will satisfy relevant quality standards
156. Who is responsible for communications for the project team?
a. The human resources representative
b. The representative from the management information systems department
c. The project manager
d. The communications department
173. A project manager and her project team are analyzing risk in their project. One of the
things that they might do to help identify potential risks or opportunities would be to review:
a. The project budget
b. The goals and objectives of the project
c. Lessons learned from other similar projects
d. The monetary value of changes for similar projects
184. During the project lifecycle, in which part of the lifecycle will risk be the lowest?
a. Initiation
b. Planning
c. Execution
d. Closeout

189. The project manager is considering contracting some of the work of the project to a
service bureau. The service bureau has been used in the past by this project manager. The
manager has several choices of contracts that can be used to subcontract this work. Which of
the following is not a type of contract that the project manager might choose?
a. Firm fixed price
b. Make or buy
c. Cost plus incentive fee
d. Unit price
194. Which of the following would not be a part of the procurement management process?
a. Purchasing
b. Contract negotiations
c. Inspection
d. Marketing
204. Refer to the table. What is the critical path?
A . Start A B C I Finish
B. Start A B H I Finish
C. Start D E H I Finish
D. Start F G I Finish

207. Your team is hard at work on their assigned project tasks when one team member
discovers a risk that was not identified during risk planning. What is the FIRST thing to do?
A. Halt work on the project.
B. Update the risk management plan.
C. Look for ways to mitigate the risk.
D. Assess the risk.

211. The majority of the project budget is expended on:

A. Project plan development
B. Project plan execution
C. Integrated change control
D. Project communication.
212. Corrective action is:
A. Fixing past anomalies
B. Anything done to bring the project's future performance in like with the project management
plan.
C. The responsibility of the change control board
D. An output of project plan execution.

238. If the Earned Value is equal to Actual Cost, it means:

A. Project is on budget and on schedule
B. Schedule Variance Index is 1
C. There is no schedule variance
D. There is no cost variance

255. Which of the following is not true about error in project quality management?
A. It is an unavoidable component of all project work.
B. It is more costly than the design and planning work that would be necessary to prevent it.
C. It is a source of learning rather than a basis for disciplinary warnings or actions.
D. It is a reflection of inadequate project planning.

6 If earned value (EV) = 350, actual cost (AC) = 400, planned value (PV) = 325, what is cost
variance (CV)?
1. 350
2. -75
3. 400
4. -50
Hint: CV = EV – AC

32 Quality is:
1. meeting and exceeding the customer's expectations.
2. adding extras to make the customer happy.
3. the degree to which the inherent characteristics fulfill requirements.
4. conformance to management's objectives.

37 A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a new product or service is called a:

1. New product development.
2. Project.
3. Program.
4. Enterprise.

38 An example of scope validation is:

1. Reviewing the performance of an installed software module.
2. Managing changes to the project schedule.
3. Decomposing the WBS to a work package level.
4. Performing a benefit-cost analysis to determine if we should proceed.

39 What conflict resolution technique is a project manager using when he says, "I cannot deal
with this issue now!"
1. Problem solving
2. Forcing
 3. Withdrawal
4. Compromising
Hint: Avoidance or procrastination to deal with an issue comes under Withdrawal.

41 A group of related projects that are managed in a coordinated way that usually include an
element of ongoing activity is called a:
1. Major project.
2. Project office.
3. Program.
4. Group of projects.

42 To control the schedule, a project manager is reanalyzing the project to predict project
duration. She does this by analyzing the sequence of activities with the least amount of
scheduling flexibility. What technique is she using?
1. Critical path method
2. Flowchart
3. Precedence diagramming
4. Work breakdown structure

44 Configuration management plan is:

1. Used to ensure that the description of the project product is correct and complete.
2. The creation of the work breakdown structure.
3. The set of procedures developed to control changes.
4. A mechanism to track budget and schedule variances.

46The work defined at the lowest level of the breakdown structure to estimate as well as
manage time and cost is called the:
1. Activity.
2. Task.
3. Work package.
4. Cost account.

50 The WBS for the project represents:

1. All the tangible items that must be delivered to the client.
2. All the work that must be completed for the project.
3. The work that must be performed by the project team.
4. All the activities of the project.

67 Which of the following represents the estimated value of the work actually
accomplished?
1. Earned value (EV)
2. Planned value (PV)
3. Actual cost (AC',
4. Cost variance (CV)

76 Resource leveling will generally:

1. Reduce the time needed to do the project.
2. Increase the total time necessary to do all the tasks.
3. Reduce the overutilization of resources.
4. Reduce resources to the lowest skill that is possible.

80 Extensive use of ----- communication is most likely to aid in solving complex

problems.
1. verbal
2. written
3. formal
4. nonverbal

81 When checking the calendar of a team member to schedule a meeting, you see she
has scheduled a meeting with a key stakeholder that you were not informed of. The
best approach would be to:
1. avoid mentioning it to the team member but continue to watch her activities.
2. notify your boss about the problem.
3. address the concern with the team member's boss.
4. address the concern with the team member.

87 The lowest level at WBS is one of the following:

1. The task.
2. The activity.
3. The work package.
4. The element.

88 A project manager would like to manage his project in such a way that he will be
able to identify specific tasks that should be watched and managed more closely than
others. The project manager should use which method? 1. The PERT method
2. The critical path method
3. The GERT method
4. The PCDM method

91 A project manager has a problem with a team member's performance. What is best
form of communication for addressing this problem?
1. Formal written communication
2. Formal verbal communication
3. Informal written communication
4. Informal verbal communication

100 A project is considered complete when the :

1. BAC is equal to the PV.
2. The EV is equal to the AC.
3. The PV is equal to the AC.
4. The BAC is equal to the EV.

05. Which of the following statements is true about the work breakdown
structure (WBS)?
A. The WBS is a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the work to
be executed by the project team to accomplish the project objectives and
create the required deliverables.

B. The WBS is an unstructured list of project activities in chart form.

C. The WBS is the same as the organizational breakdown structure (OBS).

D. The WBS is the bill of materials (BOM) needed to accomplish the project objectives
and create the required deliverables.

08. What is the WBS typically used for?

A. To organize and define the total scope of the project.

B. To identify the logical person to be project sponsor.

C. To define the level of reporting that the seller provides the buyer.

D. As a record of when work elements are assigned to individuals.

09. The following is true about the WBS:

A. The WBS is another term for the bar (Gantt) chart.

B. Each descending level of the WBS represents an increasingly detailed

definition of the project work.

C. Work not in the WBS is usually defined in the scope statement of the project.

D. The WBS shows only the critical path activities.

11. Which of the following is true about the Verify Scope process?
A. It is the process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project
deliverables.

B. Is not necessary if the project completes on time and within budget.

C. Occurs primarily when revisions or changes are made to project scope.

D. Scope verification is primarily concerned with correctness of the deliverables, while

quality control is primarily concerned with acceptance of the deliverables and meeting
the quality requirements specified for the deliverables.

PMP Questions and Answers #2

During a team meeting, a team member asks about the measurements that will be used on the
project to judge performance. The team member feels that some of the measures related to
activities assigned him are not valid measurements. The project is BEST considered in what
part of the project management process?
A-) Initiating
B-) Executing
C-) Monitoring & Controlling
D-) Closing
Answer is B. Executing. Questions states that team member feels some of the measures on his
activities are not valid. Therefore, he must be working during the executing phase of the project where
project deliverables are produced and project members perform most of the work they should do.

PMP Questions and Answers #4

You are a new project manager who has never managed a project before. It would be BEST in
this situation to rely on _____ during planning in order to improve your chance of success.
A-) Your intuition and training
B-) Stakeholder analysis
C-) Historical information
D-) Configuration management
Answer is C. Historical information. First thing to explore before starting a new project is the historical
information about similar projects in the organizational process assets library of the organization.

PMP Questions and Answers #11

You are the program level manager with several project activities underway. In the
executing process group, you begin to become concerned about the accuracy of
progress reports from the projects. What would BEST support your opinion that there
is a problem?
A-) Quality Audits
B-) Risk Quantification Reports
C-) Regression Analysis
D-) Monte Carlo Analysis
Answer is A. quality audits. If you read the second sentence again, it says that you are
concerned about the accuracy of progress reports from the project. In order to check
whether the standards of your organization have been applied in the projects that you are
responsible of, you can conduct a quality audit and find out whether there is really a
problem. Therefore, here the best answer is A, Quality Audits.

PMP Questions and Answers #14

Conflict resolution techniques that may be used on a project include confronting,
smoothing, forcing, and:
A-) Withdrawing
B-) Directing
C-) Organizing
D-) Controlling
Which of the options is a conflict resolution technique? Answer is A, Withdrawing, or in other
words, avoiding. The other three are directing, organizing, and controlling, are not types of
conflict resolution techniques. Therefore, the answer is A.

PMP Questions and Answers #19

A project manager is in the middle of creating a request for proposal (RFP). What part
of the procurement process is she in?
A-) Conduct procurements
B-) Plan Procurements
C-) Control Procurements
D-) Close Procurements
Answer is B, she is in plan procurements process. Because procurement statement of work,
procurement documents are prepared in plan procurements management process. And RFP
is a procurement document as well. Therefore, it is prepared in plan procurements process.
RFP was defining what the buyer is requiring from the seller.
Following questions from: https://pmstudycircle.com/2016/11/free-pmp-exam-sample-
questions/#a1

7. Question:
Which of the following statement is true about a Program?
Answer:
1. A Program is a group of related projects
2. A Program is group of unrelated projects
3. A Program is a part of a big project
4. None of above

8. Question:
The project manager meets with the project team to review lessons learned from previous
projects. In what activity is the team involved?
Answer:
1. Performance management
2. Scope identification
3. Risk identification
4. Project team status meeting

18. Question:
Being assigned as a project manager, you noticed during project execution that conflicts
arise in the team on both technical and interpersonal levels. What is an appropriate way of
handling conflicts?
Answer:
1. Conflicts distract the team and disrupt the work rhythm. You should always
smooth them when they surface.
2. A conflict should be handled in a meeting so that the entire team can
participate in finding a solution.
3. Conflicts should be addressed early and usually in private, using a direct,
collaborative approach.
4. You should use your coercive power to quickly resolve conflicts and then focus
on goal achievement.

Question: 8
A person who is directly or indirectly involved with your project, or affected by your project or
its outcome, is known as:
(a) Customer
(b) Manager
(c) Team Member
(d) Stakeholder
this is the definition of the stakeholders.

Question: 10
Which of the following statement is true about a Program?
(a) A Program is a group of related projects
(b) A Program is group of unrelated projects
(c) A Program is a part of a big project
(d) None of the above
As per the definition, a program is a group of related projects; therefore option ‘a’ is the
correct answer.

Question: 12
Money spent during a specific time period is known as:
(a) Budgeted Cost
(b) Actual Cost
(c) Earned Value
(d) Planned Value
Actual Cost is the amount of money that has been spent during the specific time period.

Question: 14
Which of the following strategies is not used for negative risks?
(a) Exploit
(b) Transfer
(c) Avoid
(d) Mitigate
Exploit is the strategy where you do everything to realize the opportunity. This type of
strategy cannot be used with negative risks.

Question: 20
You have been given 100,000 USD to complete the project. 60,000 USD has been spent,
though as per the schedule, 55,000 USD should have been spent to complete the same
work. What is the Budget at Completion (BAC)?
(a) 55,000 USD
(b) 100,000 USD
(c) 60,000 USD
(d) 105,000 USD
BAC is the total budget assigned to your project

Question: 21
You have six team members working under you. How many lines of communication will you
have in your communication plan?
(a) 16
(b) 15
(c) 21
(d) 30
Explanation:
Communication lines = N*(N–1)/2
Where, N is the total number of member.
Here N = 7 (six team members plus you)
Hence, Communication lines = 7*(7–1)/2
=21

Question: 23
What should be your goal while negotiating with the seller?
(a) Press for lower price
(b) Press for early completion
(c) To arrive at a fair deal
(d) Give him extra benefits
While negotiating, your goal must be to arrive on a fair deal. If you squeeze the seller for a
lower price, it might affect the quality or other project objectives.

Question: 24
How will you deal with the stakeholders with High Interest but Low Power?
(a) Keep them informed
(b) Monitor them
(c) Manage them closely
(d) Try to satisfy them
You will deal with stakeholders as follows: high power and low interest category
stakeholders will be kept satisfied, high power and high interest category stakeholders will
be managed closely, low power and low interest category stakeholders will only be
monitored and high interest and low power category stakeholders will be kept informed.

Question: 27
You have been given 100,000 USD to complete the project. 60,000 USD has been spent,
though as per the schedule, 55,000 USD should have been spent to complete the same
work. What is the Actual Cost (AC)?
(a) 55,000 USD
(b) 100,000 USD
(c) 60,000 USD
(d) 105,000 USD
The Actual Cost is the amount of money that has been spent on the project to date.

Question: 30
You have been given 100,000 USD to complete the project. 60,000 USD has been spent,
though as per the schedule, 55,000 USD should have been spent to complete the same
work. What is the Planned Value (PV)?
(a) 55,000 USD
(b) 100,000 USD
(c) 60,000 USD
(d) 105,000 USD
The Planned Value is the authorized budget assigned to scheduled work

Question: 32
In which of the following phases of the project will most of the money be spent?
(a) Initiating
(b) Planning
(c) Executing
(d) Closing
In the execution phase, most of your budget will be spent, because here is where the actual
work is performed.
Question: 36
What do you do in the Close Procurement process?
(a) You close the project
(b) Final product is accepted and signed off
(c) Contracts belong to that phase or project are closed
(d) You release the project team
In Close Procurement process you close the procurement contract for the phase or project.

Question: 41
A project has more than one critical path. What does this mean to you?
(a) Risk increases
(b) Risk decreases
(c) The duration of the project reduces
(d) The project may cost less
If you have more than one critical path, the risk to your project will increase because now
you have more than one path to manage closely.

Question: 45
You have added a few extra features to the product with the intention to make the client
happy. This activity is known as:
(a) Buffer
(b) Scope Creep
(c) Gold Plating
(d) None of the above
Gold Plating is a phenomenon where you add some extra features to the product in order to
make the client happy. Gold Plating may increase the cost and risks.

Question: 50
Due to a miscommunication with the client, some features are added to the product. This
process is known as:
(a) Gold Plating
(b) Scope Creep
(c) Scope Management
(d) Buffer
The uncontrolled addition to the scope is known as Scope Creep. Scope Creep indicates
that you do not have adequate control over your project.

Question: 52
What is the goal of Quality Management?
(a) Customer Satisfaction
(b) Low cost product
(c) High grade product
(d) Low quality and high grade product
The goal of Quality Management is meeting or exceeding the customers’ satisfaction.
Question: 54
Which of the following represents the correct order of project management phases?
(a) Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring & Controlling, Closing
(b) Initiating, Executing, Planning, Monitoring & Controlling, Closing
(c) Initiating, Planning, Monitoring & Controlling, Executing, Closing
(d) Planning, Initiating, Executing, Monitoring & Controlling, Closing
he correct sequence of project management phases is as follows: Initiating, Planning,
Executing, Monitoring & Controlling, and Closing.

Question: 56
In risk management, you have many strategies to manage risks. Which strategy will you not
use with the negative risks?
(a) Mitigate
(b) Exploit
(c) Transfer
(d) Avoid
Exploit risk response strategy is used with positive risks.

Question: 57
Which document is created by breaking the project scope into smaller and manageable
elements?
(a) Scope Baseline
(b) WBS
(c) OBS
(d) None of the above
In Work Breakdown Structure (WBS), you break the work into smaller and more manageable
elements.

Question: 58
Rearranging resources to optimize their utilization is known as:
(a) Crashing
(b) Fast Tracking
(c) Resource Levelling
(d) Schedule Compression
In Resource levelling you arrange resources to maximize their utility.

Question: 62
While inspecting, you find a defective component and you repaired it. This act is known as:
(a) Preventive Action
(b) Corrective Action
(c) Defect Repair
(d) None of Above
Defect Repair is a process where you correct a defective component. Preventive Action is an
action that is taken to avoid any anticipated future defects that may appear in the
component. Corrective Action is a future response to the defect repair process or the
correction, so that the cause of error or non-conformity will not occur again.

Question: 63
You are managing a project with a budget of 500,000 USD, and 250,000 USD has been
spent. Upon review, you observe that only 40% of the work has been completed; though,
your schedule says that you should have completed 50% of the work. What is the Actual
Cost?
(a) 500,000 USD
(b) 200,000 USD
(c) 300,000 USD
(d) 250,000 USD
Actual Cost is the amount of money that has been spent on the project to date.

Question: 65
The client inspects the deliverables with you, and finds that it meets the acceptance criteria.
He signed off and formally approves the deliverables. Which process is this?
(a) Control Quality
(b) Control Scope
(c) Validate Scope
(d) Close Project
Accepted Deliverables is the output of the Validate Scope process.

Question: 66
Which is an example of Triple Constraint?
(a) Scope, Human Resource, Time
(b) Quality, Scope, Human Resource
(c) Cost, Human Resource, Time
(d) Scope, Cost, Time
Scope, Cost and Time are considered Triple Constraints.

Question: 69
What is a prototype?
(a) A working model of expected actual product
(b) A blueprint of the product
(c) A 3D model of the actual product
(d) None of the above
Prototype is a working model of an actual product which helps you get feedback from users.

Question: 70
Which of the following is the most accurate cost estimate method?
(a) Rough Order
(b) Three Point
(c) Parametric
(d) Bottom up
In bottom up estimating, you estimate the cost of activities to the greatest detail, add them
together, and round up to the higher level. This is the most accurate method of determining
the project budget.

Question: 72
What is a Project Scope?
(a) The work performed to deliver a product
(b) It is the features and functions that characterize a product
(c) Both A & B
(d) None of the above
As per the PMBOK Guide, the work performed to deliver a product, service, or result with the
specified features and functions. The term project scope is sometimes viewed as including
product scope.

Question: 74
In your project you identify a risk that, due to the possibility of the entrance of a new supplier,
may provide some components at a cheaper price. What kind of risk is this?
(a) Negative Risk
(b) Opportunity
(c) Known Risk
(d) Secondary Risk
In Positive Risk, there is a chance that you may gain some benefits, called Opportunities. A
Positive Risk brings a positive impact on the project objective.

Question: 76
In Six Sigma what percentage of accuracy is desired?
(a) 99.977
(b) 99.38
(c) 99.99966
(d) 93.3
In Six Sigma 99.99966% accuracy is desired, and in Fifth Sigma 99.977%, Four Sigma
99.38%, and in Three Sigma 93.3% accuracy are desired.

Question: 80
During which phase of the project will risks be the highest?
(a) Initiating
(b) Planning
(c) Execution
(d) Closing
During the Initiating phase the risks are highest and they decrease as the project
progresses.

Question: 83
What may happen if your project has more than one critical path?
(a) It will cost more
(b) The project completion date may be extended
(c) The quality may be reduced
(d) Risks will increase
If the project has more than one critical path, you will have to manage more than one path
and this means more risks.

Question: 86
Your management has asked you to provide them with the rough order estimate for a project
on an urgent basis. In this case, which of the following techniques will you use?
(a) Parametric
(b) Bottom Up
(c) Rough order
(d) Analogous
Rough order estimate is the lump-sum of the cost of the project; therefore, you will use the
analogous technique.
Please note that rough order estimate is an estimate, it is not a technique.

Question: 96
You have been given a task to accurately calculate the cost of a project. Which of the
following techniques will you use to get the most accurate cost of the project?
(a) Parametric
(b) Analogous
(c) Bottom Up
(d) Top Down
Bottom Up estimate techniques gives you the most accurate cost of the project.

Question: 98
Who should be involved in identifying the project risks?
(a) Project team members
(b) Sponsors and upper management
(c) All relevant project stakeholders
(d) Project manager and top management
For the risk identification purpose, all project stakeholders should be involved in the
identifying risk process.

4. A project manager is creating a work breakdown structure for her project. In

the work break down structure, the lowest level of the breakdown for the
project manager is called:
a. Activity
b. Task
c. Work package
d. Cost account

11. Which of the following is not an example of a technical risk?

a. Requirements creep
b. Use of unproven technology
c. Materials that do not meet specification
d. A new government removes subsidies, increasing cost of manufacture.

12. During a project, an earned value analysis gives the following numbers.
EV = 523,000; PV = 623,000; AC = 643,000. Which of the below conclusions is
correct?
a. CV: +120,000; SV = +100,000
b. CV: +100,000; SV = +120,000
c. CV = -100,000; SV = -120,000
d. CV = -120,000; SV = -100,000

13. A document called a ……… is created by decomposing the project scope

into smaller, more manageable elements.
a. Scope statement
b. Network logic diagram
c. Work breakdown structure
d. Requested change

14. Which of the following can be used to create a risk management plan
a. Risk planning meetings
b. Documentation reviews
c. Data precision rankings
d. Diagramming techniques

15. Which of the following should not be covered by a risk management plan?
a. Roles and responsibilities for handling project risks
b. Timing of project risk management activities
c. The methodological approach used for risk management
d. Individual risks and potential responses to them

16. What is true of prototypes?

a. Prototyping causes significant costs and should be avoided wherever possible.
b. They are tangible and allow for early feedback on requirements by stakeholders.
c. Prototypes are mostly developed toward the end of a design or build phase.
d. Prototypes increase the risk of misunderstandings between developers and users.

17. Specifications in your statement defining the scope of your project have
been criticized as not being SMART objectives. SMART objectives (including
KPI’s) are
a. Objectives specified in far more detail than necessary for execution of a successful
project.
b. Easily achievable objectives which help you reduce the pressure on yourself and the
team.
c. Objectives that should be achieved in order to attain formal recognition by both the
customer and
the project sponsor.
d. Objectives that are described using specific, measurable, achievable, realistic and
time-related
specifications.

18. Jean and Bob are reviewing the status of a project schedule and find a
variance on the critical path. This will have a direct impact on
a. the project end date.
b. the number of stakeholders
c. both a. and b.
d. neither a. or b.
19. Libby spots a small delay on an activity that is not on the critical path.
Most likely, this delay
a. is attributable to low quality materials.
b. may have a major effect on the project schedule.
c. may have little effect on the project schedule.
d. is attributable to communication problems.

20. A cost management plan is a component of a

a. scope management plan.
b. Project management plan.
c. communication management plan
d. risk management plan

21. Which is the incorrect statement about the “Capture” stage of the seven step
design process?
a. It is the final stage to be done after the other six stages.
b. It involves ongoing documentation of the design, for the design team as well as reporting
to the
client.
c. It involves protecting IP, possibly with a patent if warranted.
d. It includes description of the design process, drawings and design details, and fabrication
specifications.

22. As the project manager, you decided to arrange a team meeting to identify
and analyse lessons learned from quality control with stakeholders. What
should you do with them?
a. Document them and make them part of the historical database for the project and
the performing
organization.
b. Discuss them with management and make sure that they remain otherwise confidential
c. Publish them in the corporate newsletter.
d. Follow your strategic decisions, independent from lessons learned. These decisions have
been
made and should be implemented whatever the outcomes are.

23. Which of the following would not be used to validate the scope of a
project?
a. The project management plan, defining the scope and its work breakdown structure.
b. The validated deliverables.
c. A requirements traceability matrix, which links requirements to their origin, and tracks
them
throughout the life-cycle of the project.
d. A responsibility assignment matrix, which describes who does what work on the
project.

24. As a project manager, when should you especially consider cultural

differences?
a. When you break down scope to create a work breakdown structure (WBS).
b. When you assign human resources to do the work in a scheduled activity.
c. When you develop acceptance criteria for work results to be achieved by the team
members.
d. When you decide upon recognition and awards during team development.

25. You are in the process of planning a project and found that stakeholders often
have varying objectives and requirements. This makes it hard to come up with a plan
with which all objectives will be met. What is probably most helpful to ensure
common understanding?
a. Ask the project stakeholders to build focus groups in order to discuss and remedy
conflicting
interests.
b. Create an exhaustive document describing your point of view and ask stakeholders to
review it.
c. Let each stakeholder write a statement of work, merge the documents to a project scope
statement.
d. Use your authorization as the project manager to clearly prioritize the different objectives.

26. You are performing quality control on your project. How can a flow chart
describing a process help you?
a. It may help identify outliers.
b. It may help understand the cost of improving the quality of the process.
c. It may help spot accountable staff.
d. It may help react later.

27. Configuration management is:

a. Used to ensure that the description of the project product is correct and complete
b. The creation of work breakdown structure
c. The set of procedures developed to ensure that a product’s attributes remain
consistent throughout
its life.
d. A mechanism to track budget and schedule variances.

28. The …….. is a document which describes how the project management
team will implement the organization’s quality policy.
a. Quality assurance plan.
b. Quality management plan.
c. Quality commitment.
d. Quality audit.

29. A project manager reported the following earned value data:

PV = $12,400,000
EV = $14,500,000
AC = $14,500,000
a. The project is over budget and on schedule.
b. The project is under budget, and on schedule.
c. The project is on budget, but behind schedule.
d. The project is on budget and ahead of schedule.

30. Which statement is correct? A feature of the synthesis phase of the

seven step design process is to
a. to consider the manufacturability of proposed designs.
b. to evaluate the detailed design against its functional requirements.
c. to verify if the system delivers its design specifications.
d. to run acceptance tests of the prototype.

31. Which of the following are recognized stages of team development from
psychological studies?
a. Honeymoon, rejection, regression, acceptance, re-entry.
b. Forming, storming, norming, performing.
c. Tell, sell, consult, join.
d. Direct, support, coach, delegate.

32. Your team working on a complex project has developed problems. Team
members are focussing on solving problems of detail and are increasingly
unaware of the overall objectives, creating problems with interfacing the work
of different team members. How can you help your team in this situation?
a. Accompany your team members along a sequence of maturity levels from
dependence through
independence to interdependence.
b. Ignore the low-level issues and focus on achieving the overall requirements, sorting out
details
during test and handover
c. If everybody simply does their jobs, then there should be no problem. Make sure the team
members are fully aware of their accountability.
d. Problems of this type have their origin in fundamental personal incompatibilities between
team
members. You should replace them all.

33. You are managing a design project planned to take 3.5 months. There are
7 milestones. The first 6 have been met ahead of time, but the seventh is well
behind schedule due to the prototype being sent back several times due to
conflict between departments. You are now planning to have a meeting to
review design specifications and to resolve conflict between design and
manufacturing. Who is at fault?
a. The scheduler.
b. The project manager.
c. The manufacturer.
d. The design engineer.

34. Which of the following is an incorrect statement about intellectual

property?
a. MacDonald’s large M sign can be registered as a design, but not patented.
b. Copyright does apply to a radio broadcast.
c. To be patented, a design must pass a search of prior art.
d. You have to apply to obtain copyright.

35. Which answer is incorrect? For a project to be profitable the following need
to be true.
a. The internal rate of return needs to be higher than inflation.
b. The net present value needs to be positive.
c. The discount rate needs to be realistic.
d. The present value of a cash flow should be calculated as PV = CF * (1- r)^n.

36. Which of the following need to be kept in mind when using a checklist to
identify risks?
a. They are biased.
b. They are not exhaustive.
c. They are often inaccurate.
d. They are easy to prepare.

37. During the process of procurement, it is found that sellers differ greatly in
their prices. What is the best course of action in this situation?
a. Award the project to the supplier who is already on the organization’s preferred supplier
list.
b. Cancel the procurement activity.
c. Investigate whether the statement of work was defective or ambiguous.
d. Award the project to the highest bidder.

Which of the following is not an HR task required of an engineering project manager?

Identifying resources for a project
Determining what staff are needed to work on a project
Training the project team
Determining OH&S requirements for the project