1. Which of the following is part of the Durham-Humphrey amendment of 1952?

a) No refills scan be issued without a valid prescription

b) … a standard for the determination of product safely and efficacy
c) …drug products should be labeled according to NDC 4-4-2 digit
configuration

2. Which of the following factors resembles the NDC 4-4-2 digit configuration
a) NDC-0081-3442-33
b) NDC-0081-3434-42
c) NDC-0081-42-3434
d) A and B only
e) A and B and C only

3. What was the specific cause of the 1937 sulfanilamide tragedy killing many
people?
a) The ingestion of diethylene glycol

4. Which of the following factor can initiate a drug product recall?

a) MANUFACTURER
b) FDA
c) Patient
d) A and B only
e) A and B and C only

5. Which of the following factor is not an ideal characteristic of a pharmaceutical

product?
a) The pharmaceutical product must be stable and efficacious
b) The pharmaceutical product must exhibit controlled drug release
capabilities
c) The drug and dosage form must be compatible
d) A and B only
e) A and B and C only

6. This dosage form is applied to the skin for long-term use, and is melted and
cooled prior to application?
a) Cream
b) Gel
c) Pastes
d) Glycerogelatins

7. Which of the following factor statements regarding TDDS is correct?

a) Excess drug is used to assure continued drug saturation at the stratum
corneum
b) The temperature of the skin can influence percutaneous absorption
 c) Measurable levels of drug in blood can be used to evaluate percutaneous
absorption
d) A and B only
e) A and B and C only

8. The polymer matrix of this TDDS may be of two types, either with or without an
excess of drug
a) Sonophoresis
b) Lonotophoresis
c) Monolithic
d) Membrane-controlled transdermal systems
e) All the above

9. The TDD system is applied behind the ear. Simply remove one patch and apply
another:
a) Transderm Nitro
b) Transderm Scopolamine
c) Transderm Estradiol
d) Transderm Nicotine

10. The O/W emulsion is normally used for the incorporation of Solid substances
and softens with the addition of water
a) oleaginous bases ​(protecting against moisture escape, one application without drying out,
does not wash off easily)
b) Absorption bases​ (useful for incorporating small amts of aq. sol. into hydrocarbon bases)
c) Water soluble bases ​(used for incorporating SOLIDS and soften with add. of water)
d) Water removable bases (​Oil in Water O/W, however, absorb serious discharge)

11. For fine particles, all particles pass through No.___ sieve and NOT more than
40% pass through a No.___ sieve?
a) No.8: No.60
b) No.20: No.60
c) No.60; No.100
d) No.20; No.100

12. Which of the following factor is a problem associated with one plastic
containers for the storage of finish pharmaceutical product
a) Permeability of container
b) Change in container material over time
c) Generally heavy in terms of weight
d) A and B only
e) A and B and C only

13. With this method of particle size analysis, sample particles are sized through
the use calibrated grid background (range is 0.2 to 100um)
 a) Light scattering
b) Microscopy
c) Laser holography
d) Sedimentation rate

14. A drug suspension (125mg/ml) decays with zero order kinetics with a reaction
rate constant of 1mg/1ml per hour. What is the concentration of intact drug
remaining after 3 days(72hrs)?
a) 89mg/ml (alter 72hrs)
b) 72mg/ml (after 72hrs)
c) 53mg/ml (after 72hrs) 125-(72hr x 1)=53mg
d) 197mg/ml (after 72hrs)

15. Drug absorption likely ____ with ____ drug particle size
a) Increase, decrease
b) Decrease, increase
c) Decrease, decrease
d) A and B only
e) A and B and C only

16. All of the following are associated with the use of antacid oral EXCEPT
a) They are intended to counteract effects of gastric hyperactivity
b) They may interfere with antibiotic drug absorption
c) The FDA requires that antacid tablets must not disintegrate
d) Purified water is used during reconstitution for the agent in dry powder
form
17. This is the “specific quantity of drug of uniform specified quality produced
according ___ manufacturing order during the same cycle of manufacture
a) Batchwise control
b) Bath
c) Lot number
d) Lot

18. Which of the following factor is associated with effervescent granulated salts or
effervescent?
a) The masking of an unpleasant taste
b) The granules do not flow as well as powders
c) The granules are categorized as “very fine to fine” powders
d) A and B only
e) A and B and C only

19. This is a liquid preparation that consists of solid particles dispersed… in which
the particles are not soluble
a) Emulsion
 b) Suspension
c) Tincture
d) Spray

20. This dosage form is primarily used in oviform shape

a) Molded tablet
b) Vaginal tablets
c) Urethral suppositories
d) Sublingual tablets

21. Which of the following is an advantage of using suppository for systemic action
over local… of oral route of drug administration?
a) Beneficial for drugs that are inactivated by gastric pH
b) Convenient route for patients who unconscious where swallowing would be
difficult
c) Can avoid first pass metabolism
d) A and B only
e) A and B and C only

22. Which of the following suppository bases is known for dissolving (non-melting)
characteristics?
a) Glycerinated gelatin
b) Polyethylene glycol
c) Cocoa butter
d) A and B only
e) A and B and C only

23. Which is the primary route (or main) by which drugs enter the eye?
a) Retina
b) Conjunctiva
c) Cornea
d) Sclera

24. These forces prevent interpenetration and potential destruction of drug

particles
a) Attractive forces
b) Repulsive forces
c) Electrostatic forces
d) Hydrogen bonding forces

25. Correctly rank the following aqueous preparation in terms of their alcohol
content
a) Elixer > Tincture >Syrups
b) Tincture = syrups = elixir
 c) Tincture > Elixir = Syrup
d) Syrups< Elixir < Tincture

26. This liquid is frequently substituted for glycerol in modern pharmaceutical

formulations
a) Propylene glycol, USP
b) Diluted Alcohol, USP
c) Purified water, USP
d) PEG 3359

27. Which of the following statements regarding alcohol liquid preparation is

incorrect?
a) Dehydrated alcohol USP, contains not less than 99.5% C2H2OH
b) Isopropyl rubbing alcohol contains 70% alcohol
c) Dilute alcohol contains 49.5% alcohol
d) Rubbing alcohol contains 50% ethyl alcohol by volume

28. The buffering of a solution intended for ophthalmic application will probably
a) Maximize efficacy of the preservative
b) To permit the greatest drug activity
c) Achieve greater comfort to the eye
d) A and B only
e) A and B and C only

29. Diagnostic agents are typically injected by the ____route and the limit is only
about 0.1ml?
a) Intramuscular (5 ml in gluteus, 2 ml in deltoid)
b) Intravenous (42-150 ml/hr flow rate into superficial veins, basilica/cephalic)
c) Intradermal (0.1 ml into corneum (dermis))
d) Subcutaneous (1.3 ml)
   
30. What is the purpose of addition purification steps in the production of Viral
vaccine?
a) To decrease the hypersensitivity to host cells
b) To create a more potent vaccine
c) To increase the hypersensitivity to culture cells
d) A and B only
e) A and B and C only
  

31. Which of the following regarding the use of vegetable oils (a non-aqueous
vehicle) is incorrect?
a) Preferred over the use of aqueous solution
b) They can be injected intravenously
c) Beneficial when the drug has good aqueous solubility
d) A and B only
e) A and B and C only

32. This system characterizes emulsifying agents as each type of leaving a

hydrophilic portion and lypophilic portion with one or the other being more or
less predominant?
a) HLB (hydrophilic-lipophilic balance)
b) Oriented wedge
c) Interfacial film wedge
d) Surface tension
33. This method of sterilization is NOT useful for oil, fats and oleaginous
preparation
a) Steam sterilization
b) Dry heat sterilization
c) Sterilization by filtration
d) Laser holography

34. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the patient information from the
pharmacist when administering biotechnology product?
a) All injections should be performed by the health care professional
b) Patients should agitate or shake product well prior to use
c) Patients should avoid rotating injection site
d) A and B only
e) A and B and C only

35. Which of the following factor biotechnology methods is used to amplify nucleic
acid sequences?
a) Nucleotide Blockage
b) PCR (Polymerase chain reaction)
c) NDA probe technology
d) Gene therapy

36. Why are stem cells preferred over the use of somatic cells for gene therapy?
a) Stem cells are a self-renewing cell population
b) Stem cells are differentiated cell population
c) Inserted gene in stem cells can remain in place for only a single generation
d) A and B only
e) A and B and C only

37. Which of the following factor statements regarding antisense therapy is

correct?
a) Antisense drugs bind to sense sequence of DNA molecules
b) Toxicity has occurred due to off-targeting effects
c) Formivirsen, sodium antisense injectable is administered intravenously
d) A and B only
e) A and B and C only

38. Which of the following statements regarding trastozumab is incorrect?

a) Directed against the CD20 antigen on beta lymphocytes
b) The labeling of this agent contains a black box warning
c) Indicated for the treatment of human breast cancer
d) A and B only
e) A and B and C only
39. Vaccination using 3 different subvirion vaccines such as with trivalent influenza
a) Offers partial protection against related strains
b) Protects communities from potential outbreaks
c) Increases recognition of pathogen by the immune system
d) A and B only
e) A and B and C only

40. Autologous and Aliogenic _____ vaccines are under investigation for
personalized medicines
a) Viral
b) Bacterial
c) Cancer
d) Generic

41. _______ Therapy requires smaller doses than pill, patient report fewer side
effects and between _____ relief
a) intra-portal drug, 50~70%
b) intramuscular, 20~50%
c) intraspinal drug infusion, 50~70%
d) Spinal cord stimulation, 50~70%
(If asks about electrical charge, its D)

42. Following reaction of a tumor Glidel Wafer implant are inserted directly into
the ___ and ___% of the copolymer is degraded after _____.
a) Pancreases, >70%, 3 weeks
b) Brain, >70%, 3 weeks
c) Colon, >70%, 3 weeks
d) Brain, >50%, 6 weeks

43. Which of the following liposome component mixtures has the lowest
membrane transitions temperature?
a) DMPC / DOPC (50/50)
b) DSPC / DOPC (50/50)
c) DMPC / DPPC (50/50)
d) DSPC / DPPC (50/50)

44. Which of the following suppository base is known for its dissolving
characteristic?
a) Glycerogelatin
b) Polyethylene-glycol
c) Cocoa butter
d) A and B only
e) A and B and C only
45. Which of the following NDDS will circulate in blood for the longest period of
time?
a) Microsphere
b) Micelle
c) Stealth liposome
d) Conventional liposome

46. All of the following are acidifying agent except

a) Bentonite
b) Citric acid
c) Acetic acid
d) Fumaric acid

47. All of the following are antifungal preservative except

a) Methylparaben
b) Etheylparaben
c) Denzyl paraben
d) Butyl paraben

48. Which of the following is suspending agent

a) Sodium chloride
b) Carbomer
c) Liquid glucose
d) Alginic acid

49. Which of the following is a viscosity increasing agent?

a) Bentonite
b) Alginic acid
c) Carbomer
d) A and B only
e) A and B and C only

50. Which was not a route of administration studied by Osman cay and colleagues?
a) Intravenous
b) Intrapulmonary
c) Intra-arterial
d) Intra-portal

51. Which was one of the conclusion for the Osman Cay’s study?
a) No difference in liver uptake between intravenous and intra-arterial route
administration
b) No difference in liver uptake between intra-arterial and intra-portal route
of administration
 c) No difference in liver uptake between intravenous and intra-pulmonary
route of administration
d) All routes of administration resulted in statistically similar levels of liver
uptake

52. Why were (CX-1 cells) grown under Normoxic and Hypoxic condition (in Osman
Cay’s study)?
a) To confirm that cells growing under Nomoxic conditions would live longer
b) To determine if cells, would grow faster under hypoxic condition
c) To determine if cells would take up more liposome when grown under
Hypoxic condition
d) A and B only
e) A and B and C only

53. When are eutectic mixtures beneficial in pharmacy?

a) When preventing pain form injection of preparations
b) When preventing pain from catheter insertion
c) When preventing pain associated with oral administration
d) A and B only
e) A and B and C only

54. All of the following will improve the dissolution of drug in solution except
a) Lowering the temperature for drugs having positive heat of solution
b) Physical agitation of the drug in solution
c) Adjustment of the pH of weak acid or bases
d) Levigation

55. Which statement regarding velocity of ophthalmic solution is incorrect?

a) Viscosity of the preparation increase with increase in temperature
b) Methylcellulose can be used as a viscosity thickening agent
c) Increasing viscosity of an ophthalmic solution will help retain drug
d) A and B only
e) A and B and C only

56. The sterile solution is used as an electrolyte replenisher and as a vehicle for
drug
a) Lactate Ringer’s injection ANSWER
b) Ringer’s injection ANSWER
c) Bacteria water for injection
d) Saline
e) Sodium Chloride (Is an electrolyte but just a component in replenisher,
replenisher has combination)
 57. Which is a proven benefit of using the polymer(PEG) for drug (i.e.protein)
administration?
a) Decrease interaction with insoluble blood protein
b) Increase in PEG chain length will increase drug circulation n time
c) Increase drug solubility
d) A and B only
e) A and B and C only

58. MAG-C (magnetite) ____ liposome size, ____membrane fluidity and ____
cationic liposome surface charge xtics
a) Increase, increased, increased
b) Decreased, increased, decreased
c) Increased, Decreased, Increased
d) Increased, increased, Decreased
(if its zab instead of cationic, then DECREASE instead of INCREASE)

59. What is the purpose of magnetic drug targeting (MDT)?

a) To improve drug delivery to a specific target
b) To reduce unwanted toxicity associated with use of conventionally FDA
approved agent
c) To increase drug solubility and drug melting
d) A and B only
e) A and B and C only

60. A magnet externally applied to primary tumor along with injection at MDT
a) Reduced the size of melanoma established in the skin
b) Reduced the formation of a metastasis
c) Compromised the functionally of tumor blood vessels
d) A and B only
e) A and B and C only

Answers 5. B
1. A 6. D
2. D 7. E
3. A 8. C
4. D 9. B
10. C 54. A
11. C 55. A
12. D 56. A AND B
13. B 57. E
14. C 58. ?
15. D 59. ?
16. C 60. ?
17. B
18. A
19. B
20. B
21. E
22. B
23. C
24. B
25. D
26. A
27. D
28. E
29. C
30. A
31. E
32. A
33. A
34. E
35. B
36. A
37. B
38. A
39. E
40. C
41. C
42. B
43. A
44. B
45. C
46. A
47. C
48. B
49. E
50. B
51. B
52. C
53. D