Commision Exam Ksa (1) 3 5

MCQ
1- In the condition of diabetes mellitus the following may be seen.

A) Dehydration.
B) acidosis, ketosis.
C) electrolytes imbalance.
D) all above. Answer is D.
2- Solidifying agent for media is,
A) agar.
B) wax.
C) starch.
D) non of above. Answer is A.
3- Color of gram stain is.
A)brown
B) red.
C) green.
D) black. Answer is B.
4- Those are use In gram stain except.
A) crystal violet.
B) malachite green. ,m.,
D) safranine.
E) non of above. Answer is B.
5- Temperature for autoclave is.
A) 121c for 30 min.
B) 121C for 60min.
C) 131C for 20 min.
6- Normal range for bilirubin is.
A) 0.5 – 1 mg/dl .
B) 2mg/l.
C) 4 mg/l.
7- Isotonic solutions concentration is.

A) 85%.
B) 75%.
C) 90%.
8- Objective lence that use oil immersion is .
A) x100.
B) 40.
C) 10.
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9- Microscope use in condition gram stain is.
A) Bright field microscope.
B) electronic microscope.
C) dark field microscope.
D) non of the above. Answer is A.
10- Thayer martin medium is the media of choice for isolation of .
A) E.coli.
B) neisseria.
C) bacillus.
D) vibrio. Answer is B.
11- Bordet gengeo and eugen agar plate with fixed blood is use for isolation of?
A) yersinia.
B) neisseria.
C) bordetella spp.
D) non of above. Answer is C.
12- Bacteria that has no flagella classified as ?
A) atrichon.
B) monotrichons.
C) keprotrichons.
D) peritrichons. Answer is A.
13- Stage of micro vermicular is injective man is ?
A) filariform larva.
B) embrocated egg.
C) encysted larva in muscles.
D) rabidity form larva. Answer is A.?
14- Reproductive process of pathogen fungi is?
A) sexual.
B) both.
C) asexual.
D) neither. Answer is B.
15- Metabolic disarrangement in uncontrolled diabetes mellitus is?
A)Ketoacidosis.
B) glucose is 120mgldl.
C) protein in urine.
D) all above. Answer is A.
16- CLED agar use in urine culture because it?
A) it is transport media.
B) it is basic media.
C) Help in colonies count and prevent swarming of proteus.
D) all above. Answer is C.
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17-Agar solidified at?
A) 100C.
B) 45c.
C) 60C.
D) 75C. Answer is B.
18- Anticoagulant that use in blood culture is?
A) fluoride.
B) EDTA.
C) citrate.
D) Sodium polyanthol sulphat. Answer is D.
19- Which test help in identifying staph from strepto it is.
A) catalyase.
B) coagulase.
C) oxidase.
20- Use to protect biohazard is?
A) tube.
B) Gloves.
C) syringe.
D) non of above. Answer is B.
21- Jaundice is condition that bilirubin exceed.
A) 1. mg/dl.
B) 0 .5 mg/dl.
C) 2 mg/gl.
22- Flaemophtometer use to detect?
A) Na.
B) K.
C) cl.
23- Plasma osomilaty determine by?
A) Na.
B) k.
C) ca.
24- Ziel nelson stain use in?
A) bacillus.
B) mycobacterium.
C) H.influnza.
25-Not true about erythropoietin?
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A) it is not phospholipids
B) has MW 0724.
C) usually not found in urine.
D) act on pronormoblast. Answer is C.
26- Fe++ over load which cause death, high NRBC.

Beta thalassemia.
27- chronic anemia that hb <6g/dl?
A) B12 deficiency.
B) It may show panacytopenia.
C) folic acid deficiency.
28- Most stored in liver is?
A) Glycogen.
B) pyruvate.
C) glucose.
29- Filter porosity for serum sterilization pore is.
A) .5 mm.
B) 2.2 mm.
C) 2 mm.
D) 0.22mm. Answer is D.
30- Enzyme elevated in acute pancaritits is?
A) GPT.
B) Amylase.
C) CK.
D) LDH. Answer is B.
31- Bacteria that can grow in present or absent of O2 is called?
A) facultative anaerobic.
B) strict anaerobic.
C) anaerobic.
32- Optimum temperature for growth of bacteria is?
A) 50C.
B) 60C.
C) 37C.
33- In latent type of diabetes mellitus the 2hppbs is?

A) 100mg/dl.
B) Exceed 180 mg/dl.
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C) >50 mg/dl.
D) 80mg/dl. Answer is B.
34-Which of the following does belong to enterobacteria?
A) yersinia.
B) pasturella.
C) klebsiella.
D) campylobacter. Answer is C ?
35- Agar use in solidifying of media in concentration of?
A) 1 – 2%.
B) 3 -4 %.
C) 4%.
D) 5%. Answer is A.
36- Which is not true about campylobacter?
A) microaerophilic.
B) gram curved bacilli.
C) arranged in pairs.
D) slow grower.
E) grow at 42C. Answer is C.?
37- Cause of Q fever is?
A) coxiella burnet.
B) borrella.
C) treponema.
D) anopheles. Answer is A.
38- In malaria RBC are?
A) lysis.
B) not laysis.
C) non of above.
39- Microcytic cell smaller RBC which central is deeply stain it is?
A) spherocyte.
B) microcyte.
C) large cell.
40- Salmonella in the coming medium it gives?
A) on maccokey pink colonies.
B) XLD red black colonies.
C) SS pink colonies black center.
D) all are true. Answer is D.
41- Test for identifying strepto pneumonia is?
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A) catalase.
B) oxidase.
C) optichin.
D) non of the above. Answer is C.
42- On the EMB and Macconky color of salmonella and shigella is?
A) white colonies.
B) colorless colonies.
C) Pink.
D) red. Answer is B.
43- Invesiveness of pneumonia is by?
A) polysaccharide.
B) bili.
C) flagella.
44- Indicative for rheumatic fever is?
A) CRP.
B) RF.
C) ASO.
45- Satellite phenomenon seen in ?
A) influenza and staph. aureus.
B) influenza and strepto.
C) influenza and vibrio.
46- Characteristic of proteus vulgaris and proteus mirabilis except?
A) swarming on NA.
B) urase produces.
C) H2s produces.
D) indole positive. Answer is D.
*indole positive in vulgaris and morganii.
47- All are true about salmonella except.
A) somatic.
B) oxidase positive.
C) H2S produce.
D) produce acid and gas. Answer is B.
48- In the spectrophotometer the amount of the light absorbs is directly proposinal
to.
A) concentration of the solution .
B) thickness of the curvet.
C) a & b.
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49- Quellung test is positive with the coming except.
A) strepto pneumonia.
B) H. influenza.
C) klebsiella.
D) corynebacteria diphtheria. Answer is D.
50- Most important buffer system in the body is.
A) Na+.
B) K+.
C) HCO3.
51-Those are true about salmonella partyphi B except.
A) contain somatic OAg.
B) non-motile.
C) gram –ve.
D) non lactose ferment. Answer is B.
52- Definitive host for toxiplasma is.
A) dog.
B) camel.
C) cat.
53-Cross matching that using pt. cell and donor plasma is.
A) minor.
B) major.
C) non of above.
54- Dawarf tapeworm is.
A) H. nana.
B) teina segnata.
C) teina solium.
55-Spp of malaria that cause enlargement of RBC is.
A) P.falciparum.
B ) P.malari.
C) P.vivax.
D) P.ovali. Answer is C.
56- Most common intercellular hemolysis seen in.
A) ABO.
B) drugs.
C) non of above. Answer is A.
57- In significance bacteria cfu/ml is.
A) > 100.
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B) >1000.
C) >10000.
D) 100000. Answer is D.
58- Agar use to solidify the medium in concentration of.
A) 1- 2 %.
B) 3%.
C) 2 – 4%.
59-Which of the following is lactose ferment.
A) klebsiella.
B) proteus.
C) shigella.
D) pseudomonas. Answer is A.
60- Culture media kept in the following after plating.
A) hot oven.
B) incubator.
C) non of above.
D) all above. Answer is B.
61- Which of the following causing white discharge.
A) Cryptococcus.
B) trichomonas vaginal.
C) E.coli.
D) shigella. Answer is A
62- Which of the following is use to determine syphilis.
A) VDRL.
B) ASO.
C) RF.
D) CRP. Answer is A.
63-Best stain for corynebacterium diphtheria is.
A) Albert's stain.
B) gram stain.
C) eosin stain.
64- Media for detection of hemolysis is.
A) blood agar.
B) neutral agar.
C) macconky.
65- Microfilaria can seen in the following specimen.

A) stool.
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B) urine.
C) blood.
D) swab. Answer is C.
66- Group A strepto can be differentiate from group B strepto by.
A) obtichin.
B) bactracin.
C) bile solubility,
67- Colonies color in vibrio when inoculate on TCBS is.
A) red.
B) black.
C) yellow.
68- The immunoglobin that has smallest amount in the serum is.
A) IgA.
B) Ig E.
C) Ig G.
D) IgM.
E) IgD. Answer is B.
69- Autoclave temperature is.
A) 130 C for 30min.
B) 120C for 20min
C) 121 for 20 – 30 min.
70- All are use in Zeilh Nelson stain except.
A) Carbon Fuchcin.
B) Acid alcohol.
C) Methyl blue.
D) Malachite green. Answer is D.
71- Color of gram negative bacteria is.

A) red.
B) blue.
C) violet.
D) green. Answer is A.
72- At birth present of Hb F is.
A) 20%.
B) 70%.
C) 100%.
D) 40%. Answer is
73- Meaning of ph is =ph log{(CHO2)(0.02
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74- Most common bacteria that produces urease is.
A) proteus.
B) pseudomonas.
C) E.coli.
75- Albert's stain use with which of the organism.
A) E.coli.
B) H. influenza.
C) C.tetani.
D) Corynebacterium diphtheria. Answer is D.
76- Distillation is process of .
A) steaming.
B) boiling.
C) a & b.
D) Non of above. Answer is C.
77- WBC which has three lobules and purple in color is.
A) Esinophil.
B) monocyte.
C) nutrophil .
D) lymphocyte. Answer is C.
78- Which of the coming is not apart of spectrophotometer.
A) filter.
B) fuel.
C) light source .
D) cuvatte. Answer is B.
79- Nano gram is from gram.
(a)- 1000000000.
b- 1000
c- 10000
d- Non of above. Answer is A.
80- Antibodies in blood group O is.
A) anti A.
B) Anti B.
C) a & b.
81- Immunoglobin cause HDN is.
A) IgM.
B) IgG.
C) IgA.
D) Igd.
E) IgE. Answer is B.
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82- T-lymphocyte mature in .
A) thymus .
B) liver.
C) B.M.
D) lymph node. Answer is A.
83- Bacteria that cause scarlet fever is.
A) strepto G.B.
B) strepto G.D.
C) strepto G.A.
84- Gas gangrene cause by.
A) Clo. perfringers.
B) Clo. Tetani.
C) Clo. Botulism.
D) Non of above. Answer is A.
85- Which is most abundant (prevalence).
A) P. falciparum.
B) P.ovali.
C) P.malari.
D) P.vivax. Answer is A.
86- H antigen present in salmonella is .
A) flagellate.
B) somatic.
C) capsule.
*H,flagella-O, somatic-K, capsule.
87- Blood smear fixed by.
A) normal saline.
B) acid.
C) methanol.
88-Which Ig seen in condition of allergy and parasite.
A) IgA.
B) Ig E.
C) Ig D.
D) IgG.
E) IgM. Answer is B.
89- Auto infection seen in .
A) giardia.
B) Trichmonas.
C) Malaria.
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D) entrobious vermacules. Answer is D.
90- Which of the following enzyme detect in the condition liver and bone disease.
A) gpt.
B) got.
C) ALP.
D) GGT Answer is C.
91- Which of the following enzyme is detect in the condition of heart and liver
disease.
A) got.
B) gpt.
C) ALP.
D) amylase. Answer is A.
92- Pyrimidine found in .
A) DNA.
B) RNA.
C) Both above.
93- In gram positive bacteria there is.
A) peptidoglycan and teicholic acid .
B) has no peptidoglycan.
C) has no teicholic acid.
94- Trophozoite can seen in.
A) teina spp.
B) trichomonas vaginal.
C) nom of above.
D) all above Answer is B.
95- Whooping cough cause by.
A) yersinia spp.
B) strepto. Pneumonia.
C) bordetella pertuss.
D) staph. aureus. Answer is C.
96- Iodine us e in stool test to determine which part of E.H cyst.
A) nuclei.
B) cytoplasm.
C) chromatin body.
D) cell wall.
E) all above. Answer is E.
97- Anticoagulant use in blood bank is:
A) heparin.
B) EDTA.
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C) fluoride.
D) CPDA Answer is D.
98- Blood culture is indicated for :
A) vibrio.
B) neisseria.
C) shigella dysentery.
99- Diagnostic stage for giardia lambelia is:
A) cyst.
B) trophozoite.
C) a & b.
100- Sporozoite invade :
A) RBCs.
B) R.E.S.
C) non of above.
101- Organism that exhibit satellite with staph aureus is:
A) E.coli.
B) H.influnza.
C) corynebacterium diphtheria.
102- Express in international unit is:
A) hormone.
B) enzyme.
C) hb.
103- Add buruon should be neutralize by .
A) NaHco3 powder.
B) Nacl.
C) HCO3.
104- Molecular mass of an element can be identified by.
A) H of electron.
B) H of perun.
C) H of neutron.
D) atomic H of element divided by valence. Answer is ?
105-Which of the following is oxidase positive:
A) shigella.
B) pseudomonas.
C) salmonella.
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D) proteus spp. Answer is B.
106- The sigara form glycogen present in :
A) E.coli.
B) E.H.
C) Iodamebeabuetschii.
D) non of above Answer is B.
107- The pancreatic disease diagnosis by:
A) amylase.
B) lipase.
C) ALP.
D) ACP. Answer is A.
108- The myocardic infraction diagnosis by:
A) CK MB.
B) CK MM.
C) CK BB.
D) L.D.H. Answer is A.
109- The blood transfusion can not done by all the following except:
A) The donor infected by HIV.
B) The donor infected by HBV.
C) The donor infected by syphilis.
D) The donor infected by HCV.
E) Donor free from all above. Answer is E.
110- In the condition of iron deficiency anemia blood smear shows:
A) Macrocytic hypochromic.
B) Microcytic hypochromic.
C) spherocytosis.
111- Sideroplastic anemia diagnosis by:
A) ring sideroplastic in the bone marrow.
B) Spherocytosis.
C) anisocytosis.
D) non of above Answer is A.
112- Best anticoagulant for blood culture is:
A) EDTA.
B) heparin.
C) Na phosphonephed alcohol.
D) fluoride oxalate. Answer is C.
113- In UTI the following is present:
A) glucose.
B) acetone.
C) leukocyte.
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114- Worm infect human and lay egg around anus is:
A) hock worm.
B) pin worm.
C) ascaris.
D) Schistosoma. Answer is B.
115-Chronic glomerulonephritis diagnosis by :
A) blood urea.
B) creatinine.
C) protein in urine.
116-The normal CD4 count is:

A) 440 – 1600 microliter.
B) 4 – 16 microliter.
C) 44 - 160 microliter.
117- The normal CD8 count is:
A) 18 – 85 microliter.
B) 180 – 850 microliter.
C) 18 - 850 microliter.
118- Normal 5-Nucleotidase serum is:
A) 0 – 5 u/l.
B) 0 – 10 u/l.
C) 0 – 15 u/l.
119- Osmolaity serum level is:
A) 280 – 303 mosm/kg.
B) 28 – 30 mosm/kg.
C) non of above.
120- Normal partial thromboplastin time, active(PTT,APTT).
A) 25 – 40 seconds.
B) 20 – 40 seconds.
C) 2 – 4 seconds.
121- Arterial blood ph is:
A) 7 – 8 .
B) 7.35 – 7.45.
C) 7.4 – 7. 6
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122- Normal prolactin serum:
A) 2 – 20 ng/ml.
B) 20 – 26 ng/ml.
C) 2 – 26 ng/ml.
123- Reticulocyte count RBCs%:
A) 10 – 15%.
B) 1 – 5%.
C) 0.5 – 1%.
D) 0.5 - 2.7% Answer is D.
124- Normal serum Na is :
A) 135 – 145 mmol/l.
B) 35 – 45 mmol/l.
C) a & b. .
125- Testosterone total level (morning) in serum is :
A) 20 – 89 ngldl.
B) 200 – 890 ng/dl.
C) 20 – 90 ng/dl.
D0 non of above. Answer is B.
126- Urea nitrogen serum normal level.
A) 2 – 7 mg/dl.
B) 10 – 20 mg/dl.
C) 7 - 20 mg/dl.
D) 5 – 20 mg/dl. Answer is C.
127-Normal serum K is :
A) 3 – 4 mmol/l.
B) 2 – 4 mmol/l.
C) 5 – 6 mmol/l.
D) 3.5 – 5 mmol/l. Answer is D.
128-Normal serum triglyceride is :
A) 200mg/dl.
B) 2.3 mmol/l.
C) a & b.
D) 400 mg/dl. Answer is C.
129- Normal serum cholesterol is:
A) 5.2 mmol/l.
B) 8 mmol/l.
C) 3 mmol/l.
D) 2.5 mmol/l. Answer is A.
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130- Best sample for detect of HDL is.
A) heparin plasma.
B) EDTA plasma.
C) fluoride plasma.
131- Good level of HDL is:
A) >20 mg/dl.
B) >30 mg/dl.
C) <30mg/dl
D) >4o mg/dl. Answer is D.
132- Good level of LDL is:
A) < 100mg/dl.
B) >100 mg/dl.
C) >200 mg/dl.
D) >190 mg/dl. Answer is A.
133- CHO/HDL ratio is:
A) 4.9
B) 5.0
C) 4.4
D) 3.0 Answer is C.
134- Normal blood glucose level is:
A) 3 – 4 mmol/l.
B) 6 – 7 mmol/l.
C) 8 mmol/l.
D) 4 – 6.5 mmol/l. Answer is D.
135- Normal creatinine level in blood is:
A) 0.5 – 1mg/dl.
B) < 97 umol/l.
C) a & b.
136- Normal bilirubin level in blood is:
A) < 1mg/dl.
B) <17 umol/l.
C) >2mg/dl.
D) a & c. Answer is D.
137- GGT is very sensitive in the:
A) liver carcinoma.
B) liver obstruction.
C) alcoholism.
138- Normal amylase level is:
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A) <100 umol/l.
B) >100 umol/l.
C) <1000 umol/l.
D) >1000umol/l. Answer is A.
139- Normal ALP level in blood is:
a- 12 u/l.
b- 29 u/l.
c- 120 u/l.
d-129 u/l Answer is D.
140- Normal CK level in blood is:
A) 195 u/l.
B) 150 u/l.
C) 100u/l.
141- Normal uric acid level in blood is:
A) 3.5 – 7 mg/dl.
B) 420 umol/l.
C) a & b.
142- Blood culture use in with following :
A) shigella.
B) C.tetani.
C) corynebacteria.
D) non of above. Answer is D.
143- To differentiate between meningo cocci and gonococci:
A) fermentation of dextrose and lactose.
B) fermentation of dextrose and sucrose.
C) fermentation of dextrose and maltose.
D) fermentation of lactose and sucrose. Answer is C.?
144- On XLD and EMB media shigella flexeneris is:
A) pink color.
B) yellow color.
C) colorless.
D) black colonies. Answer is ?
145- Using 10 objective and 10 eyepiece in bright field microscope it give
magnificence about:
A) 10.
B) 100.
C) 1000.
146- Which of the following use as solidifying agent in culture media:
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A) Agar.
B) wax.
C) gel.
147- All are true about agar except:
A) inert.
B) nutrient.
C) malt at 100C.
D) solidify at 45C. Answer is B.
148- Serum sterilize by filter pore is:
A) 0.8um.
B) 0.6um.
C) 0.1um.
D) 0.22um. Answer is D.
149- Temperature for autoclave is:
A) 100 C for 1hr.
B) 60 C for 30 min.
C) 121 C for 30 min.
150- Which of the following is best anticoagulant for blood culture?
A) heparin.
B) EDAT.
C) citrate.
D) Sodium polymethol sulphate. Answer is D.
151- The concentration of agar use in solidify media is:
A) 1 -10%.
B) 10 – 20%.
C) 1 – 2%.
152- Which of the following diagnosis by rabidy form of larvae in feces:
A) Trichulla spiralis.
B) Hook worm.
C) Strongyloides stercoralis.
D non of above. Answer is C.
153- Which of the following does not secrete egg or larvae in intestine:
A) Trichuris Trichiura.
B) pin worm.
C) strongyloides.
D) Trichenella spiralis. Answer is B ?
154- Significance bacteria in alkaline urine found with:
A) E.coli.
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B) pseudomonas.
C) citrobacter.
D) proteus spp. Answer is D.
155- ASO titer use to identifying:
A) pneumonia.
B) rheumatic fever.
C) non of above.
156- Proteus mirabilis and proteus vulgaris all are true except:
A) produce H2S.
B) Non lactose ferment.
C) urease positive.
D) indole positive. Answer is D.
157- Gram stain smear see under:
A) Dark field microscope.
B) Bright field microscope.
C) Fluorescence microscope.
D) Electron microscope. Answer is B.
158- Smear stain with fluorescence exam with:

A) Bright field microscope.
B) Fluorescence microscope.
C) Dark field microscope.
D) Electron microscope. Answer is B.
159- An example for negative stain is:
A) gram stain.
B) Alberts stain.
C) methyl blue.
D) nigrocine stain. Answer is D.
160- Streptococci that responsible for more man infection is:
A) G.A.
B) Beta. H.
C) bacitracin positive.
161- Virus resemble living organism in:
A) motile.
B) grow.
C) reproduce.
162- All of the following are non lactose ferment except:
A) E.coli.
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B) shigella.
C) proteus.
D) salmonella. Answer is A.
163- To differentiate between staph aureus and other staph spp:
A) catalyase test.
B) Oxidase test.
C) Coagulase test
D) Dnase test. Answer is C.
164- One of the following is an example for enrichment media:
A) Blood agar.
B) CLED.
C) Nutrient agar.
D) Selenite broth. Answer is D.
165- One of the following is an example for enrich media:
A) Blood agar.
B) N.A.
C) Selenite broth.
D) Macconky. Answer is A.
166- One of the following is an example for enrichment media:
A) Blood agar.
B) N.A.
C) Selenite broth.
D) Macconky. Answer is C.
167-All of the following affect gram stain except.
A) smear from old media.
B) prolong decolonization.
C) staing smear stay for long time.
D) All of above. Answer is D.
168- The following are use in gram stain except.
A) iodine.
B) crystal violet.
C) safranine.
D) malachite green. Answer D.
169- All of the following belong to enterobacteracae except.
A) E.coli.
B) Alcaligenes.
C) proteus.
D) campylobacter. Answer is D.
170-All are true about salmonella except.
A) gram negative bacilli.
B) non lactose ferments.
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C) produce H2S.
D) man is reservoir and carrier host.
E) oxidase positive. Answer is E.
171-Diagnostic stage for giardia lambelia is.
A) cyst.
B0 trophozoite.
C) larvae.
D) a &b. Answer is D.
172-Bateria that grow at 60C termed.
A) Mesophilic.
B) Thermophilic.
C) psychrophilic.
D) non of the above. Answer is B.
173- All are true about enterococcus.
A) Bacitracin resistant.
B) hippurate positive.
C) grow at 6.5 Nacl.
D) call strepto group D.
E) non of the above. Answer is E.
174-In the lab gram stain use with the following except.
A) bacteria smear.
B) pus cell smear.
C) urethral discharge.
D) C.S.F. Answer is D.
175- Group A streptococci sensitive to.
A) optichin.
B) neomycin.
C) bacitracin.
176-The man acquire toxoplasmosis by.
A) cat.
B) tick.
C) dog.
D) cattle. Answer is A.
177-Leishmania transmitted by.
A) house fly.
B) testes fly.
C) sand fly.
D) horsefly. Answer is B.
178- Culture media sterile by.
A) autoclave.
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B) oven.
C) filter.
D) flame. Answer is A.
179- Which of the following sterile by hot oven.
A) media.
B) serum.
C) sand.
D) water. Answer is C.
180- Which of the following sterile by filter.
A) media.
B) serum.
C) sand.
D) water. Answer is B.
181- The primary stain of gram stain is.
A) crystal violet.
B) safranine.
C) iodine.
D) eosin. Answer is A.
182-Mycobacterium named acid fast because?
A) stain easily.
B) once stained not decolorize by acid.
C) because of it is shape.
183-The satellite phenomena refer to streak of staphylococcus aureus across plate
culture with.
A) H. influenza.
B) brucella.
C) E.coli.
184- In IMVC E.coli is.
A) ++-- .
B) +-+-.
C) ----.
D)++++. Answer is A.
185-All are true about campylobacter except.
A) gram negative curved.
B) nitrate positive.
C) obligate aerobe.
D) strict microaeophilic.
E) oxidase +ve.
F) grow at 42C. Answer is C.
23
186-The following is true about campylobacter.
A) it cause diarrhea.
B) it cause abdominal pain.
C) diarrhea is watery or bloody.
D) the disease is self limit with 5-8days.
E) all above. Answer is E.
187- Which of the following trophozoite ingest RBCs.
A) E.coli.
B) E.H.
C) non of above. Answer is B.
188-The gram negative bacteria colored .
A) green.
B) red.
C) violet.
D) brown. Answer is B.
189- Which malaria spp causing enlargement of RBCs.
A) P. falciparum.
B) P.malare.
C) P. vivax.
D) P.ovale. Answer is C.
190- Egyptian hematuria cause by.
A) Sch.mansonia.
B) Sch.hematubium.
C) Sch.japonicom.
D) non of above. Answer B.
191.In the microbiological Nacl use in concentration of.
A) 0.85g%.
B) 0.08g%.
C) 88g%.
D) 65g%. Answer is A.
192- Target cell can be seen in.
A) hereditary spherocytosis.
B) following folic acid disorder.
C) following B12 disorder.
D)non of above. Answer is A.
193- In E.coli the incubation temperature is.
A) 20C.
B) 30C.
C) 37C.
D) 40C. Answer is C.
194- Salmonella and shigella can be differentiate by.
24
A) H2S production.
B) ONPH test.
C) gram stain.
D) urease test. Answer is A.
195- PCR means.
A) polymerase chain reaction.
B) polymerase chain reagent.
C) polymerase chain replication.
D) polymerase chemical reaction. Answer is A.
196- Epstein Barr virus associated with.
A) burket lymphoma.
B) CSF.
C) stool.
D) urine. Answer is A.
197- Herpes virus can be diagnosis by.
A) CSF.
B) skin scraping.
C) stool.
D) urine. Answer is B.
198- Adeno virus is.
A) RNA .
B) Double capsid.
C) DNA.
D) pleomorphic. Answer is C.
199- Antibodies produces by .
A) T-lymphocyte.
B) plasma cell.
C) RBCs.
D) neutrophils. Answer is B.
200- Solid phase use coated or antibodies coated plate in.
A) RIA.
B) ELISA.
C) TPHA.
D) VDRL. Answer is B.
201- Toxoplasmosis is diagnoses by.
A) serological test.
B) Blood film examination.
C) X-ray.
D) skin scraping. Answer is A.
202- The organism that can be isolated from stool is.
A) T.pallidum.
25
B) klebsiella.
C) salmonella.
D) neisseria. Answer is C .
* salmonella can be found in the stool in the third week.
203- Campylobacter is gram .
A) negative rod.
B) negative cocci.
C) positive rod.
D) positive cocci. Answer is A.
* campylobacter is gram negative curved bacilli.
204- When campylobacter incubate at 42C all are true except.
A) it can grow .
B) it can be selective (inhabit other organism growth).
C) it can not grow.
D) it is strict aerobic Answer is C.
205- The selective media used for bordetella.
A) Blood agar with antibiotic.
B) Blood agar with serum.
C) Blood agar with antibodies.
D) Blood agar with protein. Answer is A.
206- E.coli in KIA (kligller iron agar) is .
A) No gas no H2s.
B) produce gas and H2S.
C) gas.
D) H2S. Answer is B.
207- The organism that show cluster shape in gram stain.
A) streptococci.
B) staphylococci.
C) neissera.
D) E.coli. Answer is B.
208 – Different between staph aureus and staph epidermidies is .
A) gram stain.
B) coagulase test.
C) catalase test.
D) cluster formation. Answer is B.
209- Which of the following organism can be involved from C.S.F.
A) shigella.
B) mycobacterium tuberculosis.
C) salmonella.
D) clostridia. Answer is B.
210- The pain in the body that not usually sterile is.
26
A) villa.
B) Bladder.
C) meningitides.
D) joint fluid. Answer is A ?
211. Malaria is diagnosis by.
A) Blood culture.
B) Blood film.
C)Blood swab.
D) sputum culture. Answer is B.
212- Oxidase positive organism is.

A) pseudomonas.
B) E.coli.
C) klebsiella.
D) shigella. Answer is A.
213- MCV means.
A) mean corpuscular volume.
B) mean capsule volume.
C) mean concentration volume.
D) mean cell virulence . Answer is A.
214- Shigella spp on XDL produce .
A) yellow colonies.
B) pink colonies.
C) black colonies.
D) white colonies. Answer is B. ?
215- Neisseria spp are.
A) gram +ve diplococci.
B) gram –ve diplococci.
C) gram +ve cocci.
D) gram –ve cocci. Answer is B.
216- Different between strepto pyogen and other strepto spp is.
A) bacitricin.
B) gram stain.
C) catalase.
D) CAMP test Answer is A.
217- In hemophilia A the deficiency is in factor.
A) V111.
B) V11.
C) 11.
27
218- Diagnosis of multiple myeloma is by.
A) TLC (total leukocyte count).
B) serology.
C) HB.
D) Bone marrow aspiration. Answer D.
219-In cross matching the following are use.
A) donor RBCs + patient serum.
B) patient RBCs + donor serum.
C) patient RBCs+ patient serum.
D) donor RBCs + donor serum. Answer is A.
220- Nucleated red blood cell (NRBC) seen in.
A) Thalassemia.
B) Multiple myeloma.
C) WBC disease.
D) Haemophilia. Answer is B.
221- Lactam ring found in .
A) anulin.
B) bacitracin.
C) optichin.
D) penicillin. Answer is D.
222- In urine examination blood cast can seen in.
A) acute glomerulonephritis.
B) malaria.
C) fever.
D) meningitis. Answer is A.
223- Which of the following subcutaneous disease.
A) Actinomyce.
B) Candida.
C) malaria.
D) toxoplasma. Answer is A.
224- Cryptococcus cocci means.
A) gram negative.
B) produce budding.
C) produce gas.
D) Candida. Answer is B.
225- Indian ink use in.
A) Capsule stain.
B) spore stain.
C) gram stain.
D) Z.N stain. Answer is A.
28
226- Crystal violet use in the media as .
A) Indicator.
B) nutrient.
C)Inhibitor.
227- Gram stain affected by .
A) D.W.
B) glass slide.
C) type of bacteria.
D) prolong decolonization. Answer is D.
228- Myocardial infraction diagnose by.
A) CK- MB.
B) CK- MM.
C) CK-BB.
229- Diagnosis of acute pancrasitit is by.
A) amylase.
B) GOT.
C) GPT.
D) HDL. Answer is A.
230- LAP (leumogie alkphosphatase ) is low in.
A) CML.
B) iron deficiency anemia.
C) ALL.
D) Haemophilia A. Answer is A.
231- Diagnosis of sickle cell anemia is by.
A) bone marrow aspiration.
B) HB,electrophoresis .
C) RBCs count.
D) ESR. Answer is B.
232- Casin reaction is.
A) hyper sensitivity reaction.
B) biochemical reation.
C) pcr technique.
D) Ag and Abs reaction. Answer is A?
233- The test use to differentiate pathogen strepto is.
A) Catalase.
B) oxidase.
C) coagulase.
234- Group A strepto differentiate from other beta hemolytic strepto by disc of.
29
A)Neomycin.
B) Optichin.
C) Bacitracin.
D) Novobiocin. Answer is C.
235- For blood culture the best anticoagulant is .
A) citrate.
B) oxalate.
C) sodium polyanetholsulphate.
D) heparin. Answer is A?
236- The IMVC with klebsiella is..
A) --++.
B) ++--.
C) +-+-.
D) -+-+. Answer is A.
237- On EMB or macconky agar media shigella and salmonella produce.
A) black colonies.
B) pink colonies.
C) green colonies.
D) yellow colonies.
E) colorless colonies Answer is E.
238- The best specimen for recovery of poliovirus for culture is.
A) CSF.
B) blood.
C) throat wash.
D) Buffy coat.
E) feces Answer is E.
239- All leishmania infection transmitted by.
A) testese fly.
B) Sand fly.
C) house fly.
D) horse fly. Answer is B.
240- Dwarf tape worm.
A) taenia segnata.
B) taenia solium.
C) hymenoplesis nana.
D) diphylopothryomlatum. Answer is C.
30
241- Which of the following culture media use in semi-quantitive count of bacteria
count of urine?
A) Macconky.
B) XLD.
C) Blood agar.
D) CLED.
E) Manitol salt agar. Answer is D??
242-Quelling test is positive with the following except.
A) Strepto pneumonia.
B) H.influnza.
C) klebsiella.
D) Cryenbacterium diphtheria. Answer is ?
243-Vibrio cholera on TCBS give colonies has color.
A) blue.
B) yellow.
C) green.
D) orange. Answer is B.
244- All the following organism are non lactose ferment except.
A) proteus.
B) salmonella.
C) shigella.
D) klebsiella. Answer is D.
245- All are true about salmonella typhi except .
A) Human is the main reservoir and carrier.
B) pocess H &O antigen.
C) produce H2S.
D) oxidase positive. Answer is D.
246- Which of the following is false about campylobacter .
A) gram negative curve.
B) appear in pair.(sea-gull).
C) slow grower.
D) grow on XLD. Answer is B.
247- Direct gram stain is routinely performing for the following specimens except.
A) pus ,appear fluids and discharge.
B) CSF.
C) sputum.
D) urine.
E) stool. Answer is E.
248- When using 10eyepiece and 10 objective of bright field microscope the total
magnificence is.
A) 10.
31
B) 100.
C) 1000.
249- The resolution of the bright field microscope is.
A) 2.0 um.
B) 0.2 um.
C) 0.02 um.
D) 0.002um. Answer is B.
250 - Which of objective microscope leince need oil immersion?
A) 10.
B) 40.
C) 100.
251- Which of the following is not true about agar?
A) inert.
B) nutrition .
C) solidify at 42C.
D) malt at 100C. Answer is B.
252- The concentration of bilirubin in normal adult serum is.
A) 0.1 – 1mg/dl.
B) 0.1 – 1 ug/dl.
C) 10mg/dl.
D) 0 – 20 mg/dl. Answer is A.
253- Laboratory test of hepatic function include all fowling except.
A) serum bilirubin.
B) urine bilirubin .
C) excretory function test.
D) liver enzyme. Answer is C.
254- The enzyme that use to detect alcoholism is.

A) ALP.
B) got.
C) gpt
D) GGT. Answer is D.
255- Amylase increase in serum in the following condition.
A) bone disease.
B) Acute pancaratitis.
C) salivary gland lesion.
D) liver disease.
E) B &C. Answer is E.
256- Glycogen, the storage carbohydrate in the body predominantly found in.
32
A) liver tissue.
B) muscles.
C) bone.
D) all above. answer is A.
257- insulin hormone help to maintain concentration of glucose in plasma constant
by.
A) allow glucose move from plasma to the cell.
B) moving glucose out of cell.
C) inhabit glucolysis
D) all above answer is D.
258- In latent diabetes one of the following is not true.
A) FBG exceed 150 mg/dl.
B) glucose and ketone bodies can be found in urine.
C) 2hrppbg exceed 180mg/dl.
D) the GGT is normal. Answer is D.
259- A technician work in clinical chemistry lab must note his super visor urgent
when blood glucose level is.
A) 80 mg/dl.
B) 70 mg/dl.
C) 60mg/dl.
D) 50mg/dl.
E) 120 mg/dl. Answer is D.
260- Intestinal function test include.
A) Lactose tolerance test.
B) D-xylose absorbent test.
C) measure of serum carotenoide.
D) full fat analysis Answer is ?
261- the spectrophotometer principle base on.
A) the amount of the light pass is direct proposional to the concentration of the
solution.
B) the amount of the light pass is direct proposional to the thickness of the cuvatte.
C) the amount of the light pass is direct proposional to the concentration of solution
and the thickness of cuvatte.
D) non of the above. answer is C.
262- The most important buffer system in the body is.
A) HB.
B) phosphate.
C) HCO3.
D) acetic acid answer is C.
263- In significance bacteriuria the CFU/ML is.
A) >100000 cfu/ml.
33
B) <100000cfu/ml.
C) >1000cfu/ml.
D)<1000cfu/ml. answer is A.
264- When Abs bind to Ag the following is true.
A) Neutralize pathogen feature of Ags such as their toxin.
B) facilate their ingestion by phagocytes (opsonizing).
C) fix to active complement to produce opsonizing and chemottactan.
D) participate in Abs development cellular cytotoxicity,(ADCC)
E) all above. answer is E.
265- What is the best preservative for urine.
A) formalin
B) ethanol
C) N.saline
D) boric acid. Answer is D.
266- What is true about urine specific gravity?
A) 1.006 – 1.030.
B) 1.060 – 1.30 .
C) 1.003 – 1.6
D) 1.006 – 1.03 Answer is A
267- Urine specific gravity vary according to.
A) time of day.
B) amount of food.
C) liquid consume.
D) amount of recent exercise .
E) all above. Answer is E
268- If urine specimen should not be exam immediately it should be keep in.
A) refrigerator .
B) room temperature.
C) in N.saline.
D) non of above Answer is A
269- What is SI unit?
A) system inhibition .
B) system international
C) system invasion
270- System international
A) use molecules per volume.
B) mass per volume.
C) weight per volume.
D) all above. Answer is A
271- Mg/dl it is .
34
A) bridish system.
B) Spanish system.
C) American system.
D) non of above Answer is C
272- HB glucose all are true except
A) it is amount of HB that glucose adhere to it in RBCs.
B) it investigate every three month to ensure level of glucose for last three month.
C) it is normal range is 6 – 8%.
D) non of the above Answer is D.
273- When smear of wet preparation for fungi examine and there is epithelial cell,
hyphae and arthrospore the report is.
A) No fungal infection.
B) fungal structure are seen.
C) direct microscopy show fungal infection.
274- IN HIV patient major opportunistic infection seen is.
A) malaria.
B) pneumocystic carinii.
C) giardia.
D) leishmania. Answer is B
275-In HIV patient the most opportunistic virus infection is..
A) mums.
B) rubella.
C) poliomyelitis.
D) Caposi sarcoma virus. Answer is D.
276- The father of bacteriology is.
A) Louis Pasteur.
B) Koch.
C) Raymond sabouraud.
D) tijani
E) non of above Answer is A.
277- A clinically-useful antibiotic should have as many of these characteristics as

possible.

A) It should have a wide spectrum of activity with the ability to destroy or inhibit
many different species of pathogenic organisms.
B)It should be nontoxic to the host and without undesirable side effects.
C)It should be nonallergenic to the host.
35
D)It should not eliminate the normal flora of the host.
E)It should be able to reach the part of the human body where the infection is
occurring.
G)It should be inexpensive and easy to produce.
H)It should be chemically-stable (have a long shelf-life).
I)Microbial resistance is uncommon and unlikely to develop.
J)All above. Answer is J.
278- Bacteriology is.
A) study of parasite.
B) study of fungi.
C)study of bacteria'
D) all above. Answer is C
279- What are multipurpose enteric screening media?
Those are like.
A) kligler iron agar (KIA).

B) Triple sugar iron (TSI).
C) Lysine iron agar (LIA).
D) Motility indole ornithine (MIO)
E) All above. Answer is E.
280 All are true about pseudomonas except.
A) it can grow in D.W.
b) it can grow on neutral agar.
C) it can grow on MacConkey.
D) it grow only in complicated media.
36
E) it resist many antibiotic Answer is D.
281- Pseudomonas produce the following pigment.
A) pyoverdin.
B) pyocyanin.
C) a& b.
282- The media of choice for mycobacterium (MTB) is.
A) MacConkey.
B) Lowenstein – Jensen(LJ).
C) Blood agar.
283- The cysteine lactose electrolyte deficiency agar (CLED) is suitable for.
A) inoculation of blood culture.
B) inoculation of CSF.
C) inoculation of urine.
D) inoculation of swab. Answer is C.
284- The bile esculin agar medium (BEA) use for.
A) enterococcus .
B) staphylococci.
C) E.coli.
285- Hektoen enteric agar(HEA) is use for.
A) use for fecal bacteria belong to enterobacteriaceae like ( Sal. and shigella)
37
B) use for urine .
C) use for swab.
286-MacConkey is.
A) selective media.
B) differential media.
C) a & b.
D) basic media. Answer is C.
287- Mueller-Hinton agar(MHA) which is form of beef, peptone water and starch,
is use for.
A) culture organism.
B) satellites phonema.
C) camp test.
D) antibiotic susceptibility. Answer is D.
288-OnOZ agar this is allow more rapid bacteria diagnosis as in.
A) salmonella.
B) shigella.
C) a & b.
289- phenylethyl alcohol agar(PEA) is selective media for.
A) G+Ve.
B) G-Ve.
C) Mycobacterium.
D) Triponema. Answer is A.
38
290- R2A agar (R2A) non specific agar is use for.
A) food analysia.
B) Water analysis.
C) Milk analysis.
D) All above. Answer is B.
291-Tryptic soy agar(TSA) it is.
A) selective media.
B) enrichment media.
C) Basic media.
292- xylose –lysine-Deoxycholate agar (XLD) is use for.
A) urine culture.
B) blood culture.
C) stool culture.
D) all above Answer is C.
293- Shigella can be grow in which of the following.
A) EMB.
B) MacConkey.
C) ENDO.
D) SS.
F) Hektoen enteric agar(HE).
E) all above Answer is E.
294- Salmonella colonies color on (XLD).

39
A) black.
B) Green.
C) Red.
D) yellow. Answer is A.
295- Color of Salmonella colonies on HE is.
A) blue.
B) green.
C) yellow.
D) Blue green Answer is D.
296- Chocolate blood agr is doing by heating BA at .
A) 100 C.
B) 56C.
C) 60 C.
297- Chocolate blood agar named according to.
A) a person who discovered it.
B) it is odor.
C) it is color.
298- Thayer martin agar (TM) is use for isolation of.
A) E.Coli.
B) shigella.
C) pneumonia.
D) N.gonorrhoea. Answer is D.
40
299- A review of protocols and recommendations for the use of heat to control microbial growth is given in
Table 1.
Table 1. Recommended use of heat to control bacterial growth
Treatment Temperature Effectiveness

Vaporizes organic material on nonflammable surfaces but
Incineration >500o
may destroy many substances in the process
30 minutes of boiling kills microbial pathogens and
Boiling 100o vegetative forms of bacteria but may not kill bacterial
endospores
Three 30-minute intervals of boiling, followed by periods
Intermittent boiling 100o
of cooling kills bacterial endospores
kills all forms of life including bacterial endospores. The
Autoclave and pressure cooker 121o/15 minutes at
substance being sterilized must be maintained at the
(steam under pressure) 15# pressure
effective T for the full time
For materials that must remain dry and which are not
Dry heat (hot air oven) 160o/2 hours destroyed at T between 121o and 170o Good for glassware,
metal, not plastic or rubber items
Same as above. Note increasing T by 10 degrees shortens
Dry heat (hot air oven) 170o/1 hour
the sterilizing time by 50 percent
kills most vegetative bacterial cells including pathogens
Pasteurization (batch method) 63o/30 minutes such as streptococci, staphylococci and Mycobacterium
tuberculosis
Effect on bacterial cells similar to batch method; for milk,
Pasteurization (flash method) 72o/15 seconds this method is more conducive to industry and has fewer
undesirable effects on quality or taste
Ultrapasteurization (direct 140o/2 seconds Effect on most bacterial cells is lethal. For milk, this
method) method creates a product with relatively long shelf life at
refrigeration temperatures
300- Obligate aerobic means.
A) grow only aerobic (strict aerobic).
B) grow anaerobic.
C) grow aerobe and anaerobe.
301- Prokaryote means.
A) organism have nucleus cell memberace .
41
B) organism have no nucleus cell memberace.
C) organism have big nucleus.
302- Eukaryote means.
A) organism have no nucleus cell memberace.
B) organism have big nucleus.
C) organism have nucleus cell memberace .
D) non of above. Answer C.
303- Antigens means.
A) is foreign body for the body.
B) when introduce to the body produce Abs.
C) any foreign thing which when introduce to the body stimulate the production of
Abs.
304- Antibodies means.
A) is antigen.
B) it is carbohydrate substance.
C) it protein produce response to antigen.
305- Pathogen means.
A) is organism able to cause disease.
B) organism cause no disease.
C) an organism.

42
306- Opportunistic organism is.
A) organism cause no disease.
B) organism cause disease.
C) organism that normally cause no disease but in certain condition cause disease
like when there is immune deficiency .
307- Carrier means.
A) patient suffering from infection.
B) patient get well from infection.
C) patient attach by organism(pathogen) and does not suffering.
308-Toxiemia means.
A) presence of toxin in the blood stream.
B) present of organism in blood.
C) present of organism and it is toxin in blood.
309- Toxoid is.
A) toxin.
B) toxiemia.
C) bacteria toxin lost it is pathogencity and use to stimulate the production of

antibodies.
310- Exotoxin is.
43
A) it produce extracellular during multiplication of bacteria.
B) produce during death of organism.
C) non of above.
311- Endotoxin is.
A) this can not liberated unless the bacterial cell destroyed.
B) produce during organism living.
C) non of above.
312- Enterotoxin is
A) any toxin produce by organism.
B) toxin introduce extracellular.
C) toxin affect intestine.
313- Which of the following is spore forming bacteria.
A) clostridia.
B) bacillus.
C) a & b.
D) listerua. Answer is C.
314- All are true about bacillus anthrax except.
A) gram positive.
B) spore forming.
C) catalyase and oxidase positive.
D) motile. Answer is D.
44
E) capsulated.
315- which of the following organism is showing thick pellicle growth.
A) clostridium.
B) bacillus.
C) listeria.
316- Which bacillus species cause eye infection.
A) anthrax.
B) cereus.
C) subtillus.
317- Which bacillus species cause food poison.
A) cereus.
B) subtillus.
C) anthrax.
318- Listeria is.
A) gram positive coccobacillus.
B) motile at 22C.
C) It is rotary tumbling motility.
D) sensitive for chemical and physical agent.
45
319- listeria in newborns it cause.
A) bacteriemia.
B) septicemia.
C) meningitis.
D) endocarditis.
E) liver and spleen abscess.
F) all above. Answer is F.
320- Listeria in adult it cause.
A) abortion.
B) gastroenteritis.
C) pneumonia.
D) meningitis and septicemia.
E) organ abscess.
F)all above. Answer is F.
321- Specimen for diagnosis of listeria is.
A) blood.
B) C.S.F.
C) amniotic fluid.
322- Yersinia family is.
A) spirochaeataceae.
B)enterobacteriaceae.
C) spore forming bacteria.

46
323- Yersinia define as.
A) gram negative coccobacillus.
B) bipolar morphology.
C) it found where dead animal cracas.
324- Y.pestis it cause.
A) bubonic pelage.
B) septicemia pelage.
C) pneumonic pelage.
D) all above Answer is D.
325- Specimen for diagnosis of yersinia.
A) sputum.
B) blood.
C) bubo aspiration.
D) all above Answer is D.
326- Hot air oven use for.
A) sterilizing of media.
B) sterilizing of powder.
C) sterilizing of instrument.
327- Radiation use for sterilizing of.
A) sterilizing of instrument.
47
C) plastic or rubber material.
328- incinerators use for.
A) plastic or rubber material.
C) sterilizing of instrument.
D) wastes of body like blood and other body parts. Answer is D.
329- Tyndallizer is.
A) sterilizing of instrument.
B) plastic or rubber material.
C) process use for sterilization of spore forming bacteria.
330- According to theory of Koch which of the following organism can not grow
on artificial medium.
A) trepanoma palladium.
B) M.leprae.
C) a & b.
D) M.tuberculosis. Answer is C.
331- Hansen disease seen with.
A) M.leprae.
B) M.tuberculosis.
C) trepanoma.
48
332- In the condition of M.leprae in the stained film possible to see.
A) solid stain.
B) fragment stain.
C) a & b.
333- Bordetella it is .
A) gram negative coccbacilli.
B) non motile.
C) have polysaccharide capsule.
D) bipolar stain.
F) all above. Answer is F.
334- Family of bordetella is.
A) alkaligenaceae.
B) enterobacteriaceae.
C) non of above.
335- Whooping cough, the incubation period is.
A) 7days.
B) 10 days.
C) 5 days.
49
336- Specimen for bordetella is.
A) throat swab.
B) nasopharyngeal swab.
C) secretion.
337- Which of the coming true about bordetella.
A) strict aerobic.
B) temperature is 37C.
C) grow on bordet medium (mucoid creamy colonies).
D) charcoal cephalexin medium (creamy colonies).
338- Family of Haemophillus is.
A) pasteurellaceae.
B) enterobacteriaceae.
C) non of above.
339- Different between salmonella and citrobacter is.
A) H2S.
B) Acid from sugar.
C) Motility.
D) non of above Answer is D.(citerobavter

can not decarboxylate lysine)
50
340- Staph sensitive to except.
A) Gentamycine.
B) Vancomycin.
C) Penicillin.
D) erythromycin
E) cephalosporine.
F) clindamycine. Answer is A ?
341- Specimen for diagnosis of M.tuberculosis is.
A) blood.
B) c.s.f
C) sputum
D) all above Answer is C?
342-Negler reaction is due to enzyme.(use with clostridium)
A) oxidase.
B) catalyase.
C) phosphatase.
D) non of above Answer is D(lecithinase&phospholipase)
343-Medusa head in
A) B.anthrax.
B) B.cerus.
C) B. non pathogen

51
344- To differentiate between strepto.
A) oxidase.
B) catalase.
C) lancefiled grouping.
D) non of above Answer is C.
345-Antibody production reagon?
A) FAB
B) FC
C) light chain
D) heavy chain Answer is
346- To screen MRSA carrier from which sample.
A) skin.
B) nose.
C) GIT
D)vaginal Answer is B
346- Fungi that cause mengitis is.
A) cryptoccus.
B) candida.
C) leucor?
D) non of above Answer is A
347-RBC in malaria parasite contain all except.
A) 2chromatin dot.
B) ring stage.
C) schizon.
52
D) merozoite Answer is D?
348-Zn. Stain use to.
A) staph.
B) strepto.
C)Mycobacterium.
349-Cryptosporidium parrum identify by.
A) CFT
B) ELISA.
C) PCR.
D) non of above Answer is D(by detection

of oocyst in fresh stool)
350- Wood lamb use to identify .
A) Aspergillus.
B) Actinomyce.
C) penicillinum.
D) taenia capites Answer is D?
351-proteus mirablis resist to
A) polymyxin
B) Ampicilin.
C) cephalosporin.
D) non of the above Answer is A .
352- Essential function of bacteria is.
A) cause disease .
53
B) decompose of organic substances. Answer is ?
353- organism that can transmitted through conjunctive is.
A) HBV.
B) Brucella.
C) HIV.
D) non of the above Answer is B
354- Vibrio that cause out break of gastroenteritis.
A) vibrio non O1.
B) vibrio vulnificus.
C) V. alginolyticus.
D) non of the above Answer is D(v.O1 it cause out break)
355- Maximum bacteria cell division in.
A) death phase.
B) log phase.
C) stationary phase.
D) lag phase. Answer is B.
356- Tricurosis identify by.
A) egg in stool.
B) egg in sputum.
C) larva in stool.
D) all above Answer is A?
357- Stool examination reveal egg of one of the following except.
A) A. lumbercoides.
B) T.tricum.
54
C) S.haeatoubum.
D) taenia segnata Answer is C.
358- Clostridia is.
A) short bacilli.
B) long bacilli.
C) coccobacilli.
D) cocci. Answer is B.
359- Formal ether concentrated use in parasitology lab because.
A) cheap.
B) save.
C) concentrate cyst and egg of all parasites.
D) all above Answer is C?
360- counter stain in Z.N is.
A) saffranin.
B) Malachite green.
C) carbolfucine.
D)non of above Answer is A.
361- in old Z.N stain all are true except.
A) primary die is carbolfucsin.
B) Acid alcohol is decolorize 3%.
C) primary stain is aurosine.
D) methyl blue is counter stain. Answer is C.
362-Autoantigen is.
A) bacterial antigen.
55
B) self antigen.
C) virus antigen.
D) all above Answer is B?
363- staph is .
A) oxidative.
B) fermentative.
C) non oxidative.
D) non fermentative.
E) oxidative and fermentative Answer is B?
364- Campylobacter and helicobacter are
A) small in size.
B) microaerophilic.
C) all above.
D) non of above Answer is C.
365- When urine contaminate stool which parasite can be seen?
A) T.vaginal.
B)E. vermmeculis.
C) A.lumbercoli.
366- Chemotact in compelement is.
A) C5a.
B) C4b.
C) C3a.
D) C6b Answer is A.
56
367- Bacteria resist to streptomycine is.
A) proteus.
B) enterococci.
C) S.aureus.
D) non of above Answer is C( generally anaerobic

bacteria are resist to aminoglycside like gentamycin,neuomycin and
streptomycin)and sensitive to clindamycin and lincomycin and metonedizol.
368- stuarts transport medium all are true except.
A) contain charcoal.
B) does not contain antifungal.
C) preserve pus fresh in the bottle.
D) modified to Amies transport medium. Answer is D ?
369) Quellung test is use with which of the follwing?
A) corynebacterium diphtheriae.
B) Haemophilus influenzae.
C)listeria.
D) helicobacter. Answer is B.
370- nagler reaction use for.
A) Cl.preferningens.
B) Cl.tetani .
C) Cl.botulinum.
D) Cl.difficile. Answer is A.
371- Mcfadyeans reaction (capsule stain )is do by.
A)giemsa stain,
57
B) grams stain.
C)eosin stain.
D) Polychrome methyl blue. Answer is D.
372- Macfadyeans test done with which of the following?
A) yersinia.
B) bordetella.
C) Bacillus.
D) proteus. Answer is C.
373- In the condition o salmonella .
A) Human is only reservoir host.
B) Animal is only reservoir host.
C) both are reservoir host.
D ) non of above. Answer is A.
374- Which of the clostridium resist antibiotic?
A) clo. Tetani.
B) clo. Preferingens.
C) Clo. Botulinum.
D) Col.difficile Answer is D.
375- Organism that cause meningitis in neonate is (3month).
A) Streptococcus pneumonia.(all age group)
B) Listeria monocytogenes
C) E.coli
D) Strepto.group B .(glaciate).

58
376- Which of the following cause meningitis in AIDS patients?
A) H.influenza.
B) E.coli.
C) Cryptococcus neoformans.
D) H.influenza group B.( 6month—5years)
D) Streptococcus group B. Answer is C.
377- Which of the following can cause meningitis in all age group?
A) E. coli.
B) strepto group B.
C) Listeria.
D) Strepto pneumonia Answer is D.
378-Which of the following organism can cause meningitis?
A) E.coli.
B) strepto group B.
C) listeria.
D) neisseria.
E) strepto pneumonia.
F) H.influensa.
G) Creptococcus neoformans.
H) all above Answer is H.
379- Which of organism cause pneumonia?
A) Strepto pneumonia.
B) H.influenza.
C) Staphylococcus aureus.
59
D) Klebsiella.
E) pseudomonas aeruginosa.
F) Mycoplasma.
G) Chlamydia pneumonia.
H) all above Answer is H.
380- Which is true about vaginal discharge.
A) Bacteria vaginalitis is homogens white, gray.
B) Trichmonas vaginaitis is yellow green.
C) Candida vaginitis is white like cheese.
D) all are true. Answer is D.
381- The following are RNA viruses except.
A) Picornaviruses.
B) Rhabdoviruses.
C) Rotaviruses.
D) Papillomaviruses. Answer is D.
382- Live attenuated vaccines are available against the following viruses except.
A) Hepatitis B Virus.
B) Rubella Virus.
C) Yellow Fever Virus .
D) Varicella-Zoster Virus. Answer is A.
383- The following are DNA viruses except.
A) Herpesviruses.
B) Hepadnaviruses.
C) Parvoviruses.
60
D) Adenoviruses.
E) Papillomaviruses.
F) Rotaviruses. Answer is F.
384- In Herpes Simplex Encephalitis all are true except.
A) Commonly affect the temporal lobe.
B) May be diagnosed by PCR of the CSF.
C) May be diagnosed by the finding of specific antibody in the CSF.
D) Is usually diagnosed by culture of the CSF. Answer is D.
385- All are true about Cytomegalovirus (CMV) except.

A) Primary infection is usually symptomatic.
B) An infectious mononucleosis-like syndrome may occur during primary infection.
C) Causes Kawasaki's Disease.
D) May cause severe infection in immunocompromised individuals. Answer is C.
386- Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV) is associated with .
A) Infectious Mononucleosis.
B) Hepatitis.
C) Burkitt's lymphoma.
D) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma.
E) Oral leukoplakia .
F) All above.
387- The following are true about Adenoviruses except.
A) May cause gastroenteritis.
B) May cause conjunctivitis.
C) May cause pneumonia.
D) May cause warts. Answer is D.
388- Human Papillomaviruses all true except.
61
A) HPV-16 and HPV-18 are associated with genital cancers.
B) Warts caused by papillomaviruses may respond to interferon therapy.
C) Papillomavirus infection is commonly not diagnosed by viral culture.
D) Are associated with progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy (PML) Answer is D.
389-13. Coxsackie B Virus is associated with the following.
A) Paralytic illness.
B) Myocarditis.
C) Bornholm's disease.
D) Severe congenital infection.
E) Meningitis.
F) All above. Answer is F.
390- Influenza A Virus all are true except.
A) May undergo antigenic shift and antigenic drift.
B) May cause pandemics.
C) Respond to rimantidine.
D) Respond to neuraminidase inhibitors.
E) Vaccination confers lifelong protection. Answer is E.
391-15. Paramyxoviruses may cause except.
A) Croup.
B) Pneumonia.
C) Bronchiolitis.
D) Diarrhoea. Answer is D.
Comments- Paramyxoviruses most commonly cause croup. They may occasionally cause bronchiolitis and
pneumonia.
392- Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV) all are true except.
A) May cause bronchiolitis .
B) May cause croup.
C) May cause pneumonia.
62
D) May be prevented by vaccination. Answer is D.
393-Parvoviruses all are true except.
A) May cause abortion.
B) May cause aplastic crisis in persons with haemolytic anaemias.
C) Causes Erythema Infectiousum.
D) Is teratogenic. Aswer is D.
394-In measles infection all are true except.
A) May cause encephalitis.
B) May be prevented by HNIG.
C) May be prevented by vaccination.
D) Causes a vesicular rash. Answer is D.
395- Rubella Virus.
A) The rash of rubella is similar to that caused by parvo and enteroviruses.
B) Is teratogenic.
C) Congenital rubella is charaterised by eye, ear and heart defects.
D) Congenital rubella is diagnosed by the finding of rubella-specific antibody in the cord blood of infants.
E) Infants with congenital rubella poses a great infectious risk.
396-20. Human T-lymphotropic virus 1 (HTLV-1) is associated with the following except.
A) Adult T-cell lymphoma.
B) Tropical Spastic Paraparesis.
C) Not cause Burkitt's lymphoma.
D) Hodgkin's lymphoma. Answer is D.
397- HIV Infection may lead to.
A) Dementia.
B) Chronic Diarrhoea.
C) CMV retinitis.
63
D) Oesophageal candidiasis.
E) Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma.
398- A chronic carrier state may occur in the following:
A) Hepatitis B.
B) Hepatitis C.
C) Not inHepatitis A.
D) Smallpox Infection. Answer is D.
399- The following statements are true.
A) Chronic HBV infection may respond to interferon therapy.
B) Chronic HCV infection may respond to interferon therapy.
C) Chronic HCV infection may respond to ribavirin therapy.
D) Hepatitis Delta infection may be prevented by vaccination against HBV.
E) All above Answer is E.
400-26. The following viruses can be transmitted by blood.
A) HIV.
B) HTLV-1.
C) HBV.
D) HCV.
E)All above Answer is E.
401- Regarding viral infection of the central nervous system (CNS).
A) Meningitis may occur together with encephalitis.
B) Enteroviruses are one of the commonest causes of CNS infections in childhood.
C) Measles encephalitis is a postinfectious encephalomyelitis.
D) The detection of antibody in the CSF is a useful diagnostic marker.
402- The following viruses are associated with gastroenteritis.
64
A) Astroviruses.
B) Norwalk-like viruses.
C) Adenoviruses.
D) Rotaviruses.
403. The following viruses are transmitted from animals to humans except.
A) Rabies Virus.
B) Hantaviruses.
C) Lassa Fever Virus.
D) Polioviruses. Answer is D.
404- The following is true of rabies virus except.
A) Infection may be prevented by active and passive immunization.
B) The animal reservoir differ from country to country.
C) May be diagnosed by serology.
D) The majority of cases world-wide result from bat bites. Answer is D.
405. Malaria does not grow in

[A] Puked RBCs
[B] EDTA blood
[C] Plasma
Answer [C]
406. Polio myelitis is transmitted through

[A] Feco-oral
Answer [A]
407. serious organism that cause food poisoning

[A] Staph. albus
[B] Salmonella enteritidis
[C] Clostridium septica
65
[D] Salmonella Typhi
Answer [B] not [A]
408. Vitamin A deficiency causes

[A] Kwashiorkor
[B] Night blindness
[C] Goiter
[D] Hepatomegaly
[E] Steatorrhea
Answer [B]
409. For absorption of calcium the body need

[A] Vitamin C
[B] Vitamin B2
[C] Vitamin D
[D] Vitamin A
[E] Vitamin B6
Answer [C]
410. Yaws disease is caused by
[A] Treponema pallidium
[B] Trep. Pseudopallidium
[C] Trep. Peretenu
Answer [C]
411. Action of Strept. Pyogene is through
[A] Hyaluronidase
[B] Streptokinase
[C] Staf kinase
[D] Coagulase
Answer [B]
412. First line of body defense against Staphylococci is

[A] Phagocytosis
[B] TL - II
Answer [A]
413. Renal impairment may be due to all except
[A] Glactosaemia
Answer [A]
414. Diffusion in semi solid is used to
[A] Detection amount of Ab. to neutral Ag
Answer [A]
415. Goiter is
[A] Enlargement of kidney because oh high intake of sodium
[B] Enlargement of the prostate gland
[C] Increased levels of calcium in the body
66
[D] Enlargement of thyroid gland due to iodine deficiency
[E] Deficiency of iron
Answer [D]
416. Cholesterol is present in
[A] Corn oil
[B] Sesame oil
[C] Olive oil
[D] Palm oil
[E] Butter
Answer [E]
417. Iron containing protein is
[A} Thyroglobulin
[B] Albumin
[C] Hemoglobin
[D] Globulin
[E] Insulin
Answer [C]
418. Excess carbohydrate in the body
[A] Stored as glycogen and fats
[B] Can be used in repairing damaged tissue and growth
[C] It will increase the motility of the intestine and facilitates defecation
[D] Can be stored as cellulose
[E] Can be stored as casein
Answer [A]
419. In N.gonorrhea the best growth media is

[A] Thayer martin
[B] Blood agar
Answer [B]
420. Vaginal discharge occur with all except

[A] Gardenella
[B] Trichomonas vaginalis
[C] Cryptococcus
[D] Candida
[E] N.gonorrhea
Answer [A]
421. Hemophilia "A" man married to normal female the incidence of his children will be
[A] Male carrier
[B] Female carrier
[C] Disease male
[D] Disease girls
[E] Normal all
Answer [B]
67
422. Which of the following is an essential fatty acid?
[A] Aspartic acid
[B] Acetic acid
[C] Alpha Linolenic acid
[D] Myristic acid
[E] Palmitic acid
Answer [C]
423. The best useful test to differential between Hemophilia "A" from Hemophilia "B"
[A] PTT
[B] PT
[C] Inheritance studies
Answer [C]
424. In electronic coulter the total count was 22 x 10*9 the nucleated cell was
200/100WBCs How much will be the accurate leucocytic count
[A] 7,500
[B] 11,00
[C] 4,00
[D] 20,00
Answer [A]
425. Vitamin C deficiency can cause
[A] Anemia
[B] Osteoporosis
[C] Marasmus
[D] Goiter
[E] Scurvy
Answer [E]
426. Beri Beri is caused by the deficiency of

[A] Vitamin B12
[B] Vitamin D
[C] Vitamin B1 (thiamine)
[D] Riboflavin
[E] Biotin
Answer [C]
427. Vitamin required for blood coagulation
[A] Vitamin K
[B] Pyridoxine
[C] Vitamin E
[D] Vitamin D
[E] Pantothenic acid
68
Answer [A]
428. Which of the following is rich in cholesterol?
[A] Egg
[B] Apple
[C] Corn oil
[D] Bread
[E] Honey
Answer [A]
429. Which of the following cause U.T.I and it is indole positive?
[A] Kleb.
[B] Staph.
[C] E.Coli
[D] Salmonella
Answer [c]
430. Enzyme required to digest milk sugar is
[A] Lipase
[B] Lactase
[C] Amylase
[D]Maltase
[E] Sucrase
Answer [B]
431. Phenylketonuria is caused by the lack of an enzyme to metabolize
[A] Leucine
[B] Tyrosine
[C] Alanine
[D] Phenylalanine
[E] Histidine
Answer [D]
432.Rota virus : which is not correct
[A] Has 4 serotype
[B] Cause diarrhea
Answer [B]
433. Good source of omega 3 fatty acid is

[A] Fatty fish
[B] Palm oil
[C] Butter
[D] Orange
[E] Parboiled rice
Answer [A]
434. Dietary factor blamed to cause Caries is
[A] Simple carbohydrates
[B] Proteins
[C] Fats
[D] Vitamin C deficiency
[E] Complex carbohydrates
69
435. Chromosomal abnormality of t ( 8 , 21 ) associated with
[A] CML
[B] M1
[C] M2
[D] M4 with oesonophelia
[E] M5 b monocytic l
Answer [C]
436. Chromosomal abnormality in M3 is
[A] t ( 15 , 17 )
Answer [C]
437. ITP ( Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpra ) occur in all except
[A] Hyper splenism
[B] Sarcoidosis
[C] S.LE
[D] Quinidine
Answer [A]
438. In factor XIII deficiency what will be affected
[A] PTT
[B] PT
[C] Thrombin time
Answer [C]
439. For absorption of calcium the body need
[A] Vitamin C
[B] Vitamin B2
[C] Vitamin D
[D] Vitamin A
[E] Vitamin B6
Answer [C]
440. In purpura
[A] Hge in deep muscles
[B] Hge in mucus membrane
[C] Haemarthrosis
Answer [A]
441. The best anti-coagulant in blood cultures is

[A] Sodium oxalates
[B] Sodium citrates
[C] Sodium sulphonates
[D] Heparin
Answer [B]
442. All the following samples are stained with Gram stain except
[A] Sputum
[B] Bacteria
[C] Urine and stool
[D] Water cultures
443. Sodium chloride percentage in agar culture is
[A] 0.58 %
70
[B] 0.058 %
[C] 0.0058 %
[D] 58.0 %
Answer [A]
444. Agar is characterized by all the following except
[A] Nutritive
[B] Un-nutritive
[C] Freezing point is 42 ° C
[D] Melting point is 100 ° C
Answer [A]
445. The normal value of sodium in serum is
[A] 135 – 145 mmol/ml
[B] 135 – 145 mg/dl
[C] 135 – 145 mmol/L
[D] 135 – 145 mg/ml
446. Gram stain start with
[A] Iodine
[B] Safranine
[C] Methyl violet
[D] Crystal green
Answer [C]
447. The causative organism of Toxoplasma is
[A} Cats
[B] Dogs
[C] Flees
[D] Lice
Answer [A]
448. Gram negative samples are stained with
[A] Blue color
[B] Yellow color
[C] Red color
[D] Violet color
Answer [C]
449. The color of Cholera when cultured on TCBS is

[A] Blue
[B] Yellow
[C] Green
[D] Black
Answer [A]
450. The diameter of micro pore filter used in bacteria filtration is
[A] 0.22 microns
[B] 0.033 microns
[C] 2.2 microns
[D] 0.45 microns
Answer [A]
451. Leishmania is transported by
[A] Sand fly
71
[B] Mosquitoes
[C] Flees
[D] Pugs
Answer [A]
452. To investigate one sample containing fluoro-carbon we used which microscope
[A] Light microscope
[B] Brilliant microscope
[C] Fluorescent microscope
[D] Electron microscope
Answer [C]
453. Virus is similar to live organisms in
[A] Crystallization
[B] Movement
[C] Growth
[D] Reproduction
Answer [D]
454. The lowest resolution of a microscope is
[A] 0.2 microns
[B] 0.02 microns
[C] 0.002 microns
[D] 2.0 microns
Answer [A]
455. Which of the following is liver function test
[A] Liver enzyme
[B] Serum bilirubin
[C] Urine bilirubin
[D] All of the previous
Answer [D]
456. Which of the following causing enlargement of RBCs
[A] Reticulocytes
[B] Platelets
[C] Plasmodium
[D] Leishmania
Answer [C]
457. The best sample for the culture of children paralysis virus is
[A] Stool culture
[B] CSF culture
[C] Anal culture
[D] Blood culture
Answer [A]
458. Dry air oven is used to sterilize
[A] Sand
[B] Culture media
[C] Water
[D] Micro-pore filters
Answer [A]
72
459. The diabetic patient is going to comma when blood glucose is
[A] 75 – 95 mg/dl
[B] Less than 50 mg/dl
[C] 120 mg/dl
[D] 160 mg/dl
Answer [B]
460. To differentiate between the two streptococci group which enzyme is used
[A] Co-amylase
[B] Catalase
[C] Amylase
[D] Kinase
Answer [C]
461. The microscope which used in investigate syphilis is
[A] Light microscope
[B] Dark field microscope
[C] Brilliant microscope
[D] Ultra violet microscope
Answer [B]
462.The antibiotic disc which differentiate between group A streptococci & other groups is
[A] Neomycin
[B ] Bacitracin
[C] Tetracycline
[D] Erythromycin
Answer [B]
463. All of the following is true for salmonella except
[A] Contain cilia
[B] Produce H2 gas
[C] Oxygen positive
[D] Does not ferment lactose
Answer [C]
464. Amylase value is high in the following disease
[A] Liver
[B] Muscles
[C] Salivary glands
[D] Pancreas diseases
[E] C and D
Answer [E}
465. One jaundice patient has yellow skin and eye led his bilirubin is
[A] 0.1 mg/dl
[B] 2.5 mg/dl
[C] 1.2 mg/dl
[D] 5.0 mg/dl
Answer [B]
466. Acute diabetic patient has
[A] Blood sugar more than 150 mg/dl
[B] Blood sugar more than 180 mg/dl
[C] Glucose and acetone in urine
73
[D] Noneof the previous
Answer [C]
467. The normal value of bilirubin is
[A] Less than 1.0 mg/dl
[B] 0.2 – 2.0 mg/dl
[C] Less than 2.0 mg/dl
[D] Non of 2.0 mg/dl
Answer [A]
468. Diabetic patient has one of the following symptoms
[A] Acidosis
[B] Alkalosis
[C] Dryness
[D] All of the previous
Answer [D]
469. Insulin is regulating blood sugar by
[A] Increase the influx of glucose into cells
[B] Increase the out flux of glucose from cells
[C] Activate glycogensis
[D] A & C
Answer [D]
470. The nutritive substance in culture media is
[A] Sugar
[B] Agar
[C] Ratings
[D] Starch
Answer [D]
471. The best media for urine culture is
[A] Agar agar
[B] Nutrient agar
[C] Chock let agar
[D] CLED
Answer [D]
472. The sterilization temperature of autoclave is
[A] 85 º C for half an hour
[B] 121 º C for 15 minutes
[C] 150 º C for 30 minutes
[D] None of the above
Answer [B]
473. Shigella soni color on MacConkey and EMB is

[A] Red
[B] Pink
[C] Colorless
[D] Black
Answer [B] not [C]
474. The oil emersion lens is
[A] 1000 º
74
[B] 10 º
[C] 100 º
[D] 40 º
Answer [C]
475. The dwarf worm is
[A] Tenia saginata
[B] Fasciola
[C] H.nana
[D] Schistosoma
Answer [C]
476.All the following compounds are present in gram stain except
[A] Safranine
[B] Methyl violet
[C] Malachite green
[D] Iodine
Answer [C]
477. The diagnostic stage of amoeba is
[A} Cyst
[B] Trophozoite
[C] A and B
[D] Non of the previous
Answer [C]
478. To check the intestinal efficacy the following test is done
[A] Amylase
[B] Stool fats
[C] Lipase
[D] Pepsin
Answer [B]
479. The worm which cause blood in urine is
[A] Schistosoma haematobium
[B] Fasciola
[C] H.nana
[D] Ascaris
Answer [A]
480. The significant count of bacteria to be inflammation is
[A] More than 10
[B] Less than 10³
[C] More than 10³
[D] Less than 10³
Answer [A]
481. To investigate gram stained sample we used the following microscope
[A] Light microscopy
[B] Brilliant microscope
[C] Florescent microscope
[D] Double phase microscope
Answer [A]
482. The most important buffer system in the blood is
75
[A] Haemoglobin
[B] Phosphate system
[C] Bicarbonate system
[D] Acetic acid system
Answer [C]
483. All the following bacteria are interobacter except
[A] E.coli
[B] Klebsiella
[C] Proteus
Answer[D] not [B]
484. In the microscope when using objective lens 10 º and eye lens 10 º ,
the magnification power of the microscope is
[A] 10
[B] 1000
[C] 100
[D] 10000
Answer [C]
485. All the following parameters affecting Gram staining except
[A] Use conc.H2SO4
[B] Add absolute alcohol after washing
[C] Delaying the dryness of the slide
Answer [A]
486. Glycogen is stored in

[A] Liver
[B] Muscles
[C] A & B
Answer [C]
487. Malaria Schizonts are present in
[A] Leucocytes
[B] RBCs
[C] Platelets
[D] Reticulo-endothelial
Answer [B]
488. Comma of diabetic patient shows
[A] Glucose greater than 200 mg/dl
[B] Glucose greater than 200 mg/dl
[C] Glucose less than 200 mg/dl
[D] Glucose less than 50 mg/dl
Answer [D]
76
489. Blood donor in K.S.A. are all of the following except
[A] Hb% 12.5 - 16
[B] Free from syphilis
[C] Jundice free
[D] One year after delivery
Answer [D]
490. Solidifying agent in culture media is
[A] Wax
[B] Starch
[C] Agar
[D] Non of the above
Answer [C]
491. Agar which used as a solidifying agent in culture media concentration is
[A] 1 – 2 %
[B] 4 – 9 %
[C] 5 – 9 %
Answer [A] not [D]
492. To sterilizing culture media we use
[A] Autoclave
[B] Oven
[C] Boiling
[D] Hot plate
Answer [A]
493. Bone matrix can also called
[A] Osteon
[B] Fibrous tissue
[C] Vascular tissue
Answer [A]
494. Unidirectional movement of WBCs directly to its target is

[A] Chemotaxis
[B] Phagocytosis
[C] Sliding
Answer [A] not [B]
495. When focusing a stained smear under oil immersion field the used magnification is
[A] 10 X
[B] 20 X
[C] 40 X
[D] 100 X
Answer [D]
496. In myocardial infection
[A] Level of LDH is high
[B] Level of Alkaline phosphatase is high
77
[C] Level of CK-MB is high
[D] Level of GOT is high
Answer [C]
497. Variation in RBCs size is
[A] Macrocytosis
[B] Anisocytosis
[C] Microcytosis
[D] Polychromasia
Answer [B]
498. pretransfusion test that is performed using the patient red cells and donor plasma
[A] Major x-matching
[B] Minor x-matching
[C] Antibody screen
Answer [A]
499. Serum LDH is elevated in
[A] Cardiac disease
[B] Hepatic disease
[C] Renal disease
[D] Skeletal disease
Answer [A]
500. Elevated sodium is seen in
[A] Severe dehydration
[B] Shock
[C] A & B
Answer [C]
501. Which test is better to diagnose chronic common bile duct?

[A] SGPT
[B] SGOT
[C] Total bilirubin
[D] ALP
Answer [C]
502. Generally diagnosed by recovery and identification of larva in stool

[A] S.stercoralis
[B] Hook worm
[C] E.vermicularis
[D] T.trichura
Answer [B]
503. Enlarged RBCs is common in

[A] P.vivax
[B] P.malaria
78
[C] P.falciparum
[D] P.ovate
Answer [A]
504. Which of the following is not laying eggs in small intestine?
[A] Hook worm
[B] Pin worm
[C] T.trichura
[D] T.saginata
Answer [B] not [C]
505. Blood culture is used to diagnose
[A] C.tetani
[B] C.diphteria
[C] M.tuberculosis
Answer [A]
506. How much of water should be added to 500 ml of a solution of 10 % of NaOH to
bring it to 7.5%
[A] 666 ml
[B] 125 ml
[C] 166 ml
[D] 250 ml
Answer [D]
507. Ten micro liters are
[A} 0.01 L
[B] 0.001 L
[C] 0.0001 L
Answer [D]
508. While using the pregnancy test we are measuring
[A] Beta HCG
[B] Total HCG
[C] Beta HCG and LH
[D] Beta HCG and FSH
Answer [A]
509. Abnormal constitutes of urine include
[A] Urea
[B] Glucose
[C] Cholesterol
[D] Proteins
510. With age the renal threshold for glucose
[A] Increased
[B] Decreased
[C] Does not changed
Answer [D]
511. Most of the concentrations are calculated using a factor this factor is
[A] Standard absorption / standard concentration
79
[B] Standard concentration / standard absorption
[C] Standard concentration x standard absorption
Answer [B] not [D]
512. Calibrator sera are

[A] Primary standards
[B] Secondary standards
[C] Tertiary standards
[D] Internal standards
Answer [B]
513. A buffer made of
[A] A strong acid with a strong salt
[B] A strong acid with a weak salt
[C] A weak acid with a weak salt
[D] A weak acid with a strong salt
Answer [C]
514. A standard micro plates in ELISA test has
[A] 96 wells
[B] 98 wells
[C] 92 wells
[D] 94 wells
Answer [A]
515. The enzyme in ELISA testing is present in the

[A] Conjugate
[B] Micro plate
[C] Buffer
Answer [A]
516. Antigen antibody complex are
[A] Weak bound
[B] Strong bound
[C] Not bound at all
Answer [B]
517. The washing is a must in all heterogeneous ELISA technique because
[A] It removes the excess binding
[B] Increase the specificity
[C] Increase the sensitivity
Answer [A]
518. The label in ELISA tests is
[A] Enzyme
[B] Antibody
[C] Antigen
80
[D] Radio active substance
Answer [A]
519. The difference between plasma and serum is that plasma

[A] Contains fibrinogen
[B] Does not contain fibrinogen
[C] Has more water
[D] Has less water
Answer [A]
520. Five ml of colored solution has an absorbance of 0.500 nm , the absorbance of 10 ml of

the
same solution is
[A] 1.000 nm
[B] 0.500 nm
[C] 0.250 nm
[D]0.250 nm
Answer [B]
521. Plasma or serum should be separated at the earliest for estimation of glucose because
[A] The glucose value decreases with time
[B] Glucose value increases with time
[C] Lysis of blood will occur
Answer [A]
522. Sensitivity and specificity are
[A] Directly related
[B] Reversely related
[C] They mean the same
Answer [B]
523 A dichromatic analysis is carried to increase
[A] Specificity
[B] Sensitivity
[C] Linearity
524. Cause of high serum bilirubin are
[A] Overload on liver
[B] Cholestasis
[C] Haemolysis
[D] All of the above
Answer [D]
525. Polio myeletis is transmitted through

[A] Feco-oral
[B] Respiration
[C] Skin
81
Answer [A]
526. Malaria does not grow in

[A] Packed RBCs
[B] EDTA blood
[C] Plasma
[D] Heparinized blood
Answer [C]
527. Serious organism that causes food poisoning

[A] Staph. albus
[B] Salmonella entreritidis
[C] Clostridium spelica
[D] Salmonella typhi
Answer [B]
528. Vaginal discharge occur with except
[A] Gardenella
[B] Trichomonous vaginalis
[C] Candida
[D] Gonorrhea
Answer [C]
529. Haemophilia man married to normal woman the incidence of his children is
[A] Carried male
[B] Carried female
[C] Diseased male
[D] Diseased female
[E] Normal
Answer [B]
530. Which of the following cause UTI and it is indole positive
[A] Klebsiella
[B] Staphilococcus
[C] E.coli
[D] Salmonella
Answer [C]
531. Blood transfusion can transmit
[A] HIV
[B] CMV
[C] Hepatitis B virus
Answer [D]
532. ADH is secreted from
[A] Posterior pituitary
[B] Anterior pituitary
[C] Hypothalamus
[D] Thyroid gland
Answer [C]
82
533 Glycosylated hemoglobin of diabetic patient is important for
[A] Long term follow up
[B] Short follow up
[C] Patient has to come fasting
Answer [A]
534. For glucose tolerance test
[A] You have collect 5 blood samples only
[B] You have collect 5 urine samples only
[C] You have collect 5 blood samples and 5 urine samples
[D] You have collect 4 blood samples and 4 urine samples
Answer [C]
535. One of the following heart enzymes is measured after 4 – 8 hours of chest pain
[A] GPT
[B] GOT
[C] CPK
[D] LDH
Answer [C]
536.Cardiac LDH can be substituted by one of the following
[A] GOT
[B] GPT
[C] HBDH
[D] CPK
Answer [D]
537. Light affects one of the following
[A} Glucose
[B] Bilirubin
[C] Urea
[E] Non of the above
Answer [B]
538. One of the following is specific diagnostic liver enzyme
[A] GPT
[B] GOT
[C] LDH
[D] CPK
[E] Alkaline phosphatase
539. One of the following is specific diagnostic enzyme
[A] GGT
[B] GOT
[C] LDH
[D] CPK
Answer [C]
540. Alkaline phosphatase is

[A] Liver enzyme
[B] Bone enzyme
83
[C] Placental enzyme
[E] Non of the above
Answer [D]
541. One of the following is pancreatic enzyme

[A] CPK
[B] Lipase
[C] GOT
[D] Acid phophatase
Answer [B]
542. One of the following is pancreatic enzyme
[A] Amylase
[B] GOT
[C] LDH
[D] CPK
543. Salive is rich in
[A] LDH
[B] GPT
[C] Amylase
[D] Alkaline phosphatase
Answer [C]
544. The following enzyme is important before anesthesia
[A] Alkaline phosphatase
[B] LDH
[C] Acid phosphatase
[D] Pseudocholine esterrase
Answer [B ]
545. Acid phosphatase is

[A] Liver enzyme
[B] Prostatic enzyme
[C] Heart enzyme
Answer [B]
546. In uric acid estimation
[A] Patient has to come fasting
[B] Uric acid is affected by carbohydrate meal
[C] No need for fasting
547. Metabolic gout is different from renal gout in
[A] Serum uric acid level
[B] Blood urea level
[C] Urine uric acid level
[D] Plasma total protein level
Answer [A]
548. All the following biochemical tests are affected by meal except
84
[A] Uric acid
[B] Creatinine
[C] Albumin
[D] Glucose
Answer [B]
549. Sodium is the main
[A] Intracellular anion
[B] Extracellular cation
[C] Intracellular cation
[D] Extracellular anion
Answer [B]
550. Potassium is the main

[A] Intracellular anion
[B] Extracellular cation
[C] Intracellular cation
[D] Extracellular anion
Answer [C]
551. One of the following electrolyte is more affected by hemolysis

[A] Calcium
[B] Sodium
[C] Magnesium
[D] Potassium
Answer [D]
552.In blood glucose estimation the following is required
[A] Fasting blood glucose
[B] Glycosylated Hb
[C] Post prandial blood glucose
[D] Fructoseamine
[E] All of the above
Answer [E]
553. The best kidney function test is
[A] Total protein
[B] Urea
[C] Creatinine
[D] Creatinine clearance
Answer [D]
554. For GGT in a child, the dose of glucose is
[A] 50 gm
[B] 100 mg
[C] 75 gm
Answer [D]
555. For GTT in a child, the dose of glucose is

[A] 30 mg
85
[B] 15 gm
[C] 30 gm
[D] 75 gm
Answer [ ]
556. Random blood glucose
[A] Is used to justify blood glucose
[B] Give an idea about blood glucose in urgent cases
[C] Patient to fast
Answer [A]
557. Immunoglobulin is
[A] Synthesized in liver
[B] γ - globulin
[C] α - globulin
[D] β - globulin
Answer [B] not [A]
558. Ig-M is
[A] Acute immunoglobulin
[B] Immunoglobulin in allergic condition
[C] Chronic immunoglobulin
[D] α - globulin
Answer [A]
559. Exogenous triglyceride is carried on

[A] VLDL
[B] Chylomicron
[C] LDL
[D] HDL
560. Harmful cholesterol is carried on
[A] VLDL
[B] Chylomicron
[C] LDL
[D] HDL
Answer [C]
561. Useful cholesterol is carried on
[A] VLDL
[B] Chylomicron
[C] LDL
[D] HDL
Answer [D]
562. Intramuscular injection increase the activity of the following enzyme
[A] GPT
[B] CPK
[C] CPK-MB
[D] LDH
Answer [C]
563. Muscular exercise increase the activity of the following enzyme
86
[A] CPK-MB
[B] GOT
[C] Total CPK
[D] Alkaline phosphatase
Answer [A]
564 For lipid investigation patient has to come fasting for
[A] 4 – 6 hours
[B] 12 – 14 hours
[C] 6 – 8 hours
[D] No need for fasting
Answer [B]
565. Chylomicron is
[A] The diameter of RBCs
[B] Size of one lipid molecule
[C] One of lipoproteins
Answer [C]
566.Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase is
[A] Cardiac enzyme
[B] Pancreatic enzyme
[C] AMB pathway enzyme
[D] Prostatic enzyme
Answer [C]
567. Estimation of G6PDH is a test to
[A} Measure blood glucose
[B] To diagnose hemolytic anemia
[C] To diagnostic myocardial infraction
[D] To diagnostic pancreatic disease
568. To measure G6PDH we use
[A] Plasma
[B] Whole blood
[C] Serum
Answer [B]
569. At what temperature degree blood is stored in blood bank

[A] 2 – 4 º C
[B] 4 – 8 º C
[C] 8 – 12 º C
Answer [A]
570. Amoeba move by
[A] Pseudopodia
[B] Cilia
[C] Flagella
Answer [A]
87
571. Trypanosoma move by
[A] Pseudopodia
[B] Cilia
[C] Flagella
Answer [C]
572. Giarda move by
[A] Pseudopodia
[B] Cilia
[C] Flagella
Answer [C] not [B]
573. Entamoeba histolytica cyst is appear in which part of gastrointestinal tract
[A] Stomach
[B] Small intestine
[C] Large intestine
Answer [B]
574. Sand fly transmits which disease

[A] Lishmaniasis
[B] Filariasis
[C] Amoebaiasis
Answer [A]
575. By eating uncooked meet a person can infected with
[A] Tap worm
[B] Hook worm
[C] Round worm
576. One of the following is capsulated bacteria
[A] Klibsiella
[B] E.coli
[C] Streptococcus
[D] Staphylococcus aureus
Answer [C]
577. One of the following is Gram positive bacilli

[A] Anthrax
[B] Niesseriae
[C] E.coli
578. The following parasite can seen in the blood
[A] Malaria
[B] Filaria
[C] Trypanosoma
88
[D] Lishmania
[E] All of the above
579. The following parasite can seen in urine
[A] Schistosoma hematobium
[B] Filaria
[C] Trypanosoma
[D] Lishmania
Answer [A]
580. Female anopheles transmits which disease

[A] Lishmaniasis
[B] Filariasis
[C] Amoebaiasis
[D]Malaria
Answer [D]
581. Imric reaction of E.coli is

[A] + + - -
[B] - - + +
[C] + - + -
[D] + - - +
Answer [A]
582.Trophozoite of amoeba which engulfs RBCs is
[A] E.coli
[B] H.nana
[C] E.histolytica
[D] Giardia lamblia
Answer [C]
583. Diagnosis of G.lambilia is by
[A] Cyst
[B] Trophozoite
[C] A & B
Answer [C]
584. Tuberculosis is acid fast because
[A] Stained in acid media
[B] Can not be discolored in acid media
[C] A & B
Answer [B] not [C]
585. Na , K and CL are best measures with

[A] Spectrophotometer
[B] Flame photometer
[C] Elisa
[D] RIA
Answer [B]
89
586. When using normal saline that is mean the concentration of sodium chloride is
[A] 0.85 gm %
[B] 0.95 gm %
[C] 1.0 GM %
Answer [A]
587) Which of the following is gram positive bacilli?
A-cholestridium.
B-Bacillus.
C- coryenbacterium diphtheria.
D- listeria.
E- All above. Answer is E.
588) Which of the following sis spore forming?
A- Bacillus.
B-clostridium.
C- A and B.
D- Non of above. Answer is C.
589) Which of the following is non spore forming?
A- Corynebacterium diphtheria.
B- Listeria.
C-Bacillus.
D- A and B. Answer is D.
590) Medusa head seen in .
A- Bacillus .
B- corynbacterium diphtheria.
C- Listeria.
90
D- Non of the above. Answer A.
591) Inverted tree in glatin medium see with.
A- clostridium.
B- listeria.
C- Bacillus.
D- non of the above Answer is C.
592) Organism that show white pellicle in fluid media is .
A- Listeria.
B- Bacillus.
C-closteridium.
D- non of the above Answer is B.
593)Which of this organism cause food poison.
A- Staphylococcus aureus.
B- Clostridium botulinum.
C- E.coli.
D- Bacillus cereus.
E- All above Answer is E.
594- Which of the following organism cause meningitis.
A- Neisseria meningitides.
B- Streptococci group B(Streptococcus aglactiae)
C- E.coli.
D- Haemophilus influenzae.
E- Streptococcus pneumoniae.
F- Cryptococcus neoformans.
91
G- All above Answer is G.
*Listeria and streptococcus agalactiae group B and E.coli are causing meningitis in
neonate.
595) Lab diagnosis for clostridium difficile is by.
A- ELISA.
B- IFT.
C- Stool culture.
D- Detection of toxin in the stool sp. Answer is D.
596) Clostridium difficile it resist the follwing antibiotics.
A- Clinda mycin.
B- lincomycin.
C- both A and B. Answer is C.
D- non of above.
597) All anaerobic bacteria are sensitive to
A- lincomycin.
B- clindamycin.
C- metronidizol.
D- All above Answer is D.
598) Eleks test for toxicity use with
A- Corynebacterium diphtheria.
B- clostridium.
C- listeria.
D- non of above Answer is A.
599) Nigler reaction use in the diagnosis of.

92
A- Bacillus.
B- listeria.
C- clostridium.
D-non of above. Answer is C.
600)Aberts stain use for ( metachromatic granules) see in .
A- listria.
B- corynebacterium d.
C- Bacillus.
D-All above. Answer is B.
601) organism that shows Chinese letters when stain with gram stain is.
A- Bacillus.
B- Clostridium.
C- Corynebacterium d.
D- listeria. Answer is C.
602) Anaerobic condition made by which of the following.
A- By using mackintoch jar.
B- Anaerobic gas generating kits.
C- Anaerobic incubator.
D- Fluid media like thyoglycolate media.
E- Robertson cooked meat medium.
F- Reducing substance.
603) Which of the coming organism is gram negative cocci.
A- proteus.
93
B-shegiella.
C- neisseriae.
D- Klebsiella. Answer is C.
604) raets and card test use with
A- Brucella.
B- pasteurella.
C- Yrsenia.
D- Influenza Aswer is A
605) Which of the following organism is gram negative bacilli.
A- E.coli.
B- pasteurella.
C- Yrsenia.
D- Influenza.
E- Brucella.
F-proteus.
G- Klebsiella.
H- Salmonella.
I-Shigella.
J- Pseudomonas.
K- All above Answer is K
606) What means by septicemia.
A- Toxin in blood.
B- bacteria in blood.
C- bateria and its toxins in the blood.

94
D- All above Answer is C.
607) What means by toxiemia.
A- Toxin in blood.
D- All above Answer is A.
608) What means by bacteraemia.
A- Toxin in blood.
D- All above Answer is B.
609)Which of the following organism cause food poison.
A- Staphylococcus aureus.
B- Bacillus cerus.
C- Clostridium perferinger.
D- Clostridium botoulinum.
E- E.coli.
610) Which of the coming organism is gram positive coccobacilli(short rods)
A- Yersinia.
B- haemophilus.
C- brucella.
D- pasteurella.
E- Bordetella.
95
F- All above Answer is F.
611) Which of the coming organism is gram positive coccobacilli(short rods) and
zoonatic.
A- Yersinia.
B-pasteurella.
C- brucella.
612) Which of the coming organism is gram positive coccobacilli(short rods) and
zoonatic show biopolar stain ( safety pin).
A- Yersinia.
B-pasteurella.
C- a and b.
D- Non of above Answer is C.
613) yersinia infect human by bit of .
A- rate.
B-fleas.
C- Dog.
D-Cat Answer is B.
614) Which of the following organism cause black death.
A- brucellla.
B- pasteurella.
C- yersinia.
D- bordetella Answer is C.
615)Yersinia can cause which of the following disease.
96
A- bubonic blaque.
B-Pneumonic plaque.
C-Septicemia.
D-Watery and blood stain sputum.
616) Which spp of yersinia is non motile.
A- y.enteriocolotica.
B-y.pseudotuberculosis.
C-y.pestis.
D-All above Answer is C.
*a and b are motile at (20-25C)
617)Suitable specimen for y. pestis is.
A- sputum.
B- Blood.
C-Swab.
D-All above Answer is D.
*sp for y.pseudotuberculosis is from lymph/y.enteriocolotica is stool.
618)Culture for yerinia is.
A-Blood agar.
B- MacConkey.
C- a and b.
D-non of the above Answer is C.
*y.enteriocoltica grow also on SS medium and DCA,XLD,Mac.
619)Pasteurella transimtte by the bit of .

97
A- Dog.
B-Cat.
C-a and b.
D-non of the above Answer is C.
* pasturella is only one spp p.multocidia.
620)When swab take from bit site the suspected organisms are.
A- pasturella multocidia.
B-Staphylococci.
C- Streptococci.
D-Bacteroides.
E-Anaerobic bacteria.
F-All above Answer is F.
621) Pasturella can cause which of the following disease.
A- respirotary infection.
B- bacteriaemia.
C- meningitis.
D-ulcer.
E-arthritis.
F-osteomylitis.
G- all above Answer is G.
622)Which of the following test are positive with pasturella.
A-catalyase.
B-oxidase.
C- a &b
98
D-non of above Answer is C.
623) Specimen for pasturella are.
A-swab.
B-c.s.f
C- blood for culture.
624) Culture for pasturella are.
A- blood agar.
B- chocolate blood agar..
C- both a&b.
625) Pasturella can show bipolar when stain with
A- giemsa stain.
B- wayson stain.
C- a&b.
D- non of above Answer is C.
626) Sutible media for haemophilus is.
A- blood agar.
B- chocolate blood agar.
C- a&b.
D- nutral agar. Answer is C.
627) haemophilus spp that can cause chancroid(soft chancre) ulcer sore sexual
transmitte disease
A- H.influenzae.
99
B- H.parainfluenzae.
C-H.aegyptius.
D-H.ducreyi. Answer is D.
628) H. influenzae can cause
A-otitis.
B-sinusitis.
C-artharitis.
D-epiglotitis.
E-menigitis.
F-pneumonia.
629)Specimen for diagnosis of haemophilus are.
A-csf.
B-sputum.
C-blood.
D-ear swab.
630)Satellitism appear in haemophilus with .
A-Staphylococcus aureus.
B-streptococci
C-proteus.
D- yersinia Answer is A.
631)To differentiate between haemophilus spp X&V factor are use.
100
x v
H.influenza + +
H.aegyptius + +
H.parainfluenza _ +
H.ducreyi + _
632)On chocolate blood agar H.influenza colonies are.
A-black.
B-red.
C-gray mucoid.
D-green. Answer is C.
633)Quelling test-Ag&Ab reaction (capsule swelling test)use in
A-H.influenzae.
B-proteus.
C-shiglla.
D-non of above. Answer is A.
635)Organism that require X and V factor is
A-proteus.
B- shigella.
C-H.influenzae.
D. All above. Answer is C.
636)What the organism that cause whooping cough
A-pasteurella.
101
B- shigella.
C-H.influenzae.
D- bordetella. Answer is D.
637)The medium that suitable for bordetella is.
A-bordiet gengo medium.
B-N,agar.
C- non of above.
D- all above. Answer is A.
638)Bordetella transmitted by.
A- blood.
B-droplets.
C-feces.
D- non of above Answer is B.
639) Specimen for diagnosis of bordetella are.
A- cough plate.
B-prenasal swab.
C-blood.
D- a&b Answer is D.
640) bordetella of bordiet gengo medium it need 2-5days.
A-it is green.
B-yellow.
C-mercury drop.
641)Which of The following serology can be done for bordetella .

102
A-1-3,1-3,and 1-2-3.
B-ELISA.
C- a&b.
D-non above. Answer is C.
642)Vaccine for bordetella is.
A-single.
B- triple vaccine bordetella,diphtheria,tetanus.(killed)
C a&b.
D-non of above Answer is C.
643) Brucella can be transmitted by.
A-contact with animals.
B-butcher.
C- veterinary.
D- farmer.
E- by animal product.
F-all above Answer is F.
*transmition can be through oranl o eye or any mucus membrane organs.
*Pathogencity /mainly reach the RES (liver/spleen/lymph node) then reach blood
causing fever (undulating fever) brucellosis it was discovered in Malta
644)Pasteurization of milk can kill the following organisms.
A-brucella.
B-salmonella.
C-T.B (povin)
D-coxiella.
103
E- all above Answer is E.
*pasteurize 2 types holder 63c for 30min/ flash method 72c for 20min.
645)Specimen for brucella is.
A- blood.
B-stool.
C-urine.
D-swab Answer is A.
646) Culture for brucella is.
A- it need long incubation 4 weeks.
B-it is fastidious.
C-it grow on slope media diphase medium (Castaneda media) it has solid part
(agar) and fluid part (browth).
647)brucella is
A-gram –ve
B- catalyase +ve
C-non motile.
D-non capsulated.
648) Serological test to brucella are
A- ELISA.
B- CFT.
C-Rose bangal test.

104
D-raet test.
*To differentiate that the infection is recent or old use 2-

mercaptoethanol(2ME)this destroy IgM. When 2ME use and there is reaction that
mean the Abs are IgG it is old infection.
649) in the condition of brucellosis epidemiology most common test use is.
A- milk ring test.
B- blood culture.
C- serology.
650)whay test use with.
A-pasteurella.
B-brucella.
C-proteus.
D-all above Answer is B.
651)Which of the following are spirochetes
A-treponema.
B-borrela.
C-leptospira
D-all above Answer is D
652)Spirochetes are
A- all are motile.
B- can be stain by silver impregnation.
C- it can be seen with dark field microscope.
105
D- all are spiral in shape.
E-all above Answer is E.
653)Trepanema transmitted by.
A-sexually.
B-from mother to the child.
C- in medicall staff.
D- donar fresh blood.
654) pathogencity of treponema is.
A- primary hard chancre.
B- Secondary stage the organism may be reach blood and differ part of the body .
C-Tertiary stage the organism reach nerve system ,joint,cardic system and other
part as the disease is serious but can be treated with penicillin.
D- all above Answer is D.
*the most tramsimition is in the secondary stage.
655)In the treponema infection the infection to fetus can be.
A- at any time from mother.
B- in the first trimester it can cause abortion.
C-in the late stage of pregnancy the child is born with syphilis.
D-all above Answer is D.
656)Diagnosis of treponema is by.
A- dark field microscope.
B-it can not culture.
C-serology (VDRL) and rapid plasma regent test.

106
D- treponema imoplization test.
E-all above Answer is E.
657) Most specific test for treponema are.
A- T.P haemoagglutination test.
B- fluorescence treponema Ab test.
C- a&b.
658) Borrelia spp that can cause relapsing fever is.
A- B.recurrentis.(body &cloth lice)
B- B.duttoni (tick borne relapsing fever)zoonatic.
C- B.burgdorfery (cause Lyme disease tick)
D- Vincentia (Vincentia angina). It is acute ulcerative gingivitis it cause also by

fusiform and bacteroid . Answer is A
659) Which is true about borrelia.
A- transmitted by lice bite.
B-it enter through the skin when the lice crushed.
C-it reach the R.E.S cause septicemia and in blood it cause fever.
D- it have antigen variation.
E- incubation period from 5-7 days.
F- all above Answer is F.
660)Antigen variation seen with which of the following organism.
A-influenza.
B- malaria.
107
C-borrelia.
661)Specimen for borrelia is.
A-stool.
B- urine.
C- blood.
D-swab Answer is C.
662) Lab diagnosis of borrelia is by.
A- In direct smear wet preparation motility seen.
B- when blood film stain with giemsa stain borrelia seen.
C- a & b.
D- non of the above Answer is C.
663) in the condition of the borrelia vincentis when smear stain with giemsa stain
the following are found.
A-pus cells.
B- fusiform.
C- bacteroid.
D-spirochetes.
664)In Leptospira the following are true.
A-found in the urine of animal.
B- it die in the dry.
C- it can be survival in water.
D- it can be found in caw,goat,cat and dog.

108
E- all are true Answer is E.
665) Transmition of leptospira is by.
A- musus membrane or through ulcer.
B- stool .
C- urine.
666) Leptospira ssp that can cause severe infection is.
A- L.biflexa.
B- L. canicola.
C- L.icterohemorragen.(weils disease)
D- L.interrogans. Answer is C.
667) Symptom of leptospirosis are.
A- fever.
B-jundice.
C- hemorrhage.
D- renal failure.
668)Lab diagnosis of leptospira is by.
A- Sample is blood and urine.
B- Dark field microscope is use.
C- culture reach medium serum albumin.
D- serology direct agglutination test or complement fixation test.
E- all above. Answer is E.
109
669) Key to Abbreviations
ELISA Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay RIA Radio immunoassay
CFT Complement fixation test RIBA Recombinant Immunoblot assay
HAI Haemagglutination inhibition PCR Polymerase chain reaction
IF Immunofluorescence UD Urea denaturation
670) The following are true about obligate intracellular bacteria.
A- require living cell for growth.
B- they must culture in tissue culture.
C-they lack energy factor.
D- e.g for interacellular bacteria are Chlamydia and rickettsia.
671)Chlamydia spp are
A-ch.trachomatis.
B-ch. Pneumoniae.
C- ch. Psittaci.
672) Chlamydia cause the following disease.
A- it cause STD in male and female (discharge) also infilterity ,urethritis

lymphogranuloma.
B- it cause ophthalmic (eye infection) neonatorum it also cause by neisseria G.
C- it cause inclusion conjunctivitis in adult.
673) The infective stage for Chlamydia are.
A- elementary bodies.
110
B-inclusion bodies.
C- both a & b.
674) Specimen for Chlamydia are.
A- discharge.
B- swab.
C-sputum.
D-granules.
E- blood.
675) Lab diagnosis for Chlamydia is by.
A- microscopic by iodine or giemsa stain inclusion bodies are seen.
B- inmunofluresence. Ag & Abs reaction.
C- ELISA.
D- Culture in the Mac coy cell culture.
* treatment by tetracycline.
676) Richetsia group are.
A-Typhus group/
*epidemic –R.prowazeki /by body lice.
* endemic-R.typhus and conorii piipen (murine typhus)/by fleas.
B- R.rickettsi /spotted fever and (rash) and rocky mountain fever-by tick.
C- Scrub typhus group/R.tsu tsu gamushi in the southeast asia –by mice insect.
D- Rochalimaea Quintana it cause trnch fever /by body lice.
E-Coxiella burnetii in caw goat cause Q fever.

111
677)Lab diagnosis of rickettsia.
A- no culture because it is dangerous.
B- serology for Abs detection.
C- Weils Felix test(this by use Ag of proteus and the PT serum if there is reaction it
is proteus or richettsia.not specific.
D- ELISA and flouresence .
*treatment is tetracycline.
678) helicobacter bylori it is
A-fastidious microaerophilic.
B-Causative agent of peptic ulcer and gastric cancer.
C- typical helical shape.
D- all true Answer is D.
679) pH indicator
A-pH indicator can be formulated as follows HInd + H2O ⇌ H3O+ + Ind-( Here HInd
stands for the acid form and Ind- for the conjugate base of the indicator).
B-pH indicators themselves are frequently weak acids or bases.
C- .
D-all true Ansawer is D.
680) Some examples of selective media include:
 eosin-methylen blue agar (EMB) that contains methylene blue – toxic to

Gram-positive bacteria, allowing only the growth of Gram negative bacteria
 YM (yeast and mold) which has a low pH, deterring bacterial growth
112
 blood agar (used in strep tests), which contains beef heart blood that becomes
transparent in the presence of hemolytic Streptococcus
 MacConkey agar for Gram-negative bacteria
 Hektoen Enteric (HE) which is selective for Gram-negative bacteria
 Mannitol Salt Agar (MSA) which is selective for Gram-positive bacteria and
differential for mannitol
 Terrific Broth (TB) is used with glycerol in cultivating recombinant strains of
Escherichia coli.
 xylose lysine desoxyscholate (XLD), which is selective for Gram-negative
bacteria
 Buffered charcoal yeast extract agar, which is selective for certain gram-
negative bacteria, especially Legionella pneumophila
681) Differential media or indicator media distinguish one microorganism type

from another growing on the same media.[5] This type of media uses the
biochemical characteristics of a microorganism growing in the presence of specific
nutrients or indicators (such as neutral red, phenol red, eosin y, or methylene blue)
added to the medium to visibly indicate the defining characteristics of a
microorganism. This type of media is used for the detection of microorganisms and
by molecular biologists to detect recombinant strains of bacteria.
Examples of differential media include:
 Eosin methylene blue (EMB), which is differential for lactose and sucrose
fermentation
 MacConkey (MCK), which is differential for lactose fermentation
 Mannitol Salt Agar (MSA), which is differential for mannitol fermentation
 X-gal plates, which are differential for lac operon mutants
682)Transport media.
A- These are used for the temporary storage of specimens being transported to the
laboratory for cultivation.
B- Such media ideally maintain the viability of all organisms in the specimen
without altering their concentration.
C- Transport media typically contain only buffers and salt.
D- The lack of carbon, nitrogen, and organic growth factors prevents microbial
multiplication.
113
E- Transport media used in the isolation of anaerobes must be free of molecular
oxygen.
F-all above Answer is F.
683)Example for transport medium are.
A-: Stuart transport medium-a non-nutrient soft agar gel cointaining a reducing
agent to prevent oxidation,.
B- charcoal to neutralise certain bacterial inhibitors-for gonococci ..
C-buffered glycerol saline for enteric bacill..
D-Venkat-Ramakrishnan(VR) medium for v. cholerae.
684) Enriched media contain the nutrients required to support the growth of a wide
variety of organisms, including some of the more fastidious ones.example.
A-blood agar.
B-Chocolate agar is enriched with heat-treated blood (40-45°C), which turns

brown and gives the medium the color for which it is named.
C- both a and b.
685) Basal medium (nutrient medium)
 a carbon source such as glucose for bacterial growth
 water
 various salts needed for bacterial growth
a source of amino acids and nitrogen (e.g., beef, yeast extract
114
686) The Nutrient Requirements of Cells
[hide]
v • d • e
Growth media / agar plates
MacConkey agar - Buffered charcoal yeast extract agar - Thayer-Martin agar - Bile esculin
Selective media
agar - Lowenstein-Jensen medium - XLD agar - Cetrimide agar - Hoyle's Agar
Differential Eosin methylene blue - MacConkey agar/Sorbitol-MacConkey agar - Bile esculin agar -
media Hektoen enteric agar
Fungal Sabouraud agar - Potato dextrose agar
Cysteine lactose electrolyte deficient agar - R2a agar - Trypticase soy agar - Nutrient agar -
Plate count agar - Chocolate agar - Eaton's agar - Bismuth sulfite agar - Simmons' citrate agar
Other/ungrouped
- DCA agar - XLT agar - XLD agar - PNP agar - VRBDA - Dermatophyte Test Medium -
Bordet-Gengou agar - Mueller-Hinton agar - Cystine tryptic agar
687)66List of vitamins
Each vitamin is typically used in multiple reactions and, therefore, most have multiple functions.[17]
Recommended
Vitamin Upper
Vitamer chemical dietary
generic Deficiency Intake
name(s) (list not Solubility allowances Overdose disease
descriptor disease Level
complete) (male, age 19–
name (UL/day)[18]
70)[18]
Retinoids Night-blindness
Hypervitaminosis
Vitamin A (retinol, retinoids Fat 900 µg and 3,000 µg
A
and carotenoids) Keratomalacia[19]
Rare
hypersensitive
Beriberi, reactions
Vitamin Wernicke- resembling
Thiamine Water 1.2 mg N/D[20] anaphylactic
B1 Korsakoff
syndrome shock-- injection
only;
Drowsiness
Vitamin
Riboflavin Water 1.3 mg Ariboflavinosis N/D ?
B2
Liver damage
Vitamin Niacin, (doses > 2g/day)
Water 16.0 mg Pellagra 35.0 mg [21]
B3 niacinamide and other
problems
Vitamin Pantothenic acid Water 5.0 mg[22] Paresthesia N/D ?
115
B5
Impairment of
Pyridoxine, proprioception,
Vitamin
pyridoxamine, Water 1.3-1.7 mg Anemia[23] 100 mg nerve damage
B6
pyridoxal (doses > 100
mg/day)
Vitamin Dermatitis,
Biotin Water 30.0 µg N/D ?
B7 enteritis
Deficiency during
pregnancy is
Possible decrease
Vitamin Folic acid, folinic associated with
Water 400 µg 1,000 µg in seizure
B9 acid birth defects,
threshold
such as neural
tube defects
Cyanocobalamin,
Vitamin Megaloblastic No known
hydroxycobalamin, Water 2.4 µg N/D
B12 anemia[24] toxicity[25]
methylcobalamin
Vitamin C
Vitamin C Ascorbic acid Water 90.0 mg Scurvy 2,000 mg
megadosage
Ergocalciferol, Rickets and Hypervitaminosis
Vitamin D Fat 5.0 µg-10 µg[26] 50 µg
cholecalciferol Osteomalacia D
Deficiency is Increased
very rare; mild congestive heart
Tocopherols,
Vitamin E Fat 15.0 mg hemolytic anemia 1,000 mg failure seen in one
tocotrienols
in newborn large randomized
infants.[27] study.[28]
Increases
phylloquinone, Bleeding coagulation in
Vitamin K Fat 120 µg N/D
menaquinones diathesis patients taking
warfarin.[29
666
666C…e shown in EM; causative agent of chronic gastritis, peptic ulcers and gastric cancer. Image can be used to
describe the helical morphology of the organism. Average size: 1micron by 2-5 microns. Organism is
116

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MCQ

1- In the condition of diabetes mellitus the following may be seen.

7- Isotonic solutions concentration is.

26- Fe++ over load which cause death, high NRBC.

33- In latent type of diabetes mellitus the 2hppbs is?

65- Microfilaria can seen in the following specimen.

71- Color of gram negative bacteria is.

116-The normal CD4 count is:

158- Smear stain with fluorescence exam with:

212- Oxidase positive organism is.

254- The enzyme that use to detect alcoholism is.

277- A clinically-useful antibiotic should have as many of these characteristics as

C)It should be nonallergenic to the host.

G)It should be inexpensive and easy to produce.

H)It should be chemically-stable (have a long shelf-life).

I)Microbial resistance is uncommon and unlikely to develop.

J)All above. Answer is J.

278- Bacteriology is.

D) all above. Answer is C

279- What are multipurpose enteric screening media?

Those are like.

A) kligler iron agar (KIA).

C) Lysine iron agar (LIA).

D) Motility indole ornithine (MIO)

E) All above. Answer is E.

280 All are true about pseudomonas except.

A) it can grow in D.W.

b) it can grow on neutral agar.

C) it can grow on MacConkey.

D) it grow only in complicated media.

281- Pseudomonas produce the following pigment.

D) non of above. Answer is C.

282- The media of choice for mycobacterium (MTB) is.

D) non of above. Answer is B.

A) inoculation of blood culture.

D) inoculation of swab. Answer is C.

284- The bile esculin agar medium (BEA) use for.

D) all above. Answer is A.

285- Hektoen enteric agar(HEA) is use for.

C) use for swab.

D) all above. Answer is A.

D) basic media. Answer is C.

D) antibiotic susceptibility. Answer is D.

288-OnOZ agar this is allow more rapid bacteria diagnosis as in.

D) non of the above. Answer is C.

289- phenylethyl alcohol agar(PEA) is selective media for.

D) All above. Answer is B.

291-Tryptic soy agar(TSA) it is.

D) non of above. Answer is C.

292- xylose –lysine-Deoxycholate agar (XLD) is use for.

D) all above Answer is C.

293- Shigella can be grow in which of the following.

F) Hektoen enteric agar(HE).

E) all above Answer is E.

294- Salmonella colonies color on (XLD).

295- Color of Salmonella colonies on HE is.

D) Blue green Answer is D.

296- Chocolate blood agr is doing by heating BA at .

D) non of above Answer is B.

297- Chocolate blood agar named according to.

A) a person who discovered it.

D) non of above. Answer is C.