Chemistry 151

Final exam review questions

1. What is the best answer to the following expression?

(12.125 + 0.530 + 71.4)
a) 84.055 b) 84.06 c) 84.1 d) 84.0 e) 84

2. Which of the following values contains 4 significant figures?

a) 0.0004 kg b) 0.0040 L c) 0.0400 mm d) 0.4000 m e) all of these

3. The result of adding 1.01 kg and 21.45 g is

a) 1.03145 x 101 g. b) 1.0315 x 103g. c) 1.031 x 103 g.
d) 1.03 x 103 g. e) 1.0 x 103 g.

4. The melting point of nitrogen is 63 K. This corresponds to

a) 63oC b) -63oC c) -210oC d) 483oC e) -336oC

5. Which of the following is not an SI unit?

a) Meter b) kilogram c) kilocalorie d) Pascal e) joule

6. How many 100-mg salt tablets can be made from 1000 kg of salt?
a) 1000 b) 10,000 c) 100,000 d) 1,000,000 e) 10,000,000

7. In addition to volume, which property of matter must be known to calculate mass?

a) Temperature b) molecular weight c) density
d) Pressure e) specific heat

8. What volume of alcohol (density 0.800 g/mL) is needed to obtain 320. g of alcohol?
a) 80.0 mL b) 100. mL c) 256 mL d) 320. mL e) 400. mL

9. A solid-liquid mixture can best be separated by

a) Liquid chromatography. b) Paper chromatography.
c) Distillation. d) Filtration. e) Titration.

10. All of the following are characteristic properties of phosphorus. Which one is a chemical
property?
a) Red phosphorus and white phosphorus are solid allotropic forms.
b) The red form melts at about 600 OC and the white form melts at 44 OC)
c) The white form is soluble in liquid carbon disulfide, but is insoluble in water.
d) When exposed to air, white phosphorus will burn spontaneously, but red phosphorus will
not.
e) The red form of phosphorus is insoluble in both water and carbon disulfide)

11. Which of the following is an example of a chemical change?

a) Dry ice sublimating b) alcohol boiling

c) Sodium chloride melting d) hydrogen burning e) sucrose dissolving

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12. The number of neutrons in a given nucleus determines the
a) Number of neutrons. b) Atomic number. c) Mass number.
d) Number of protons. e) Number of isotopes.

13. How many protons, neutrons, and electrons are in the tin (II) ion, (Sn2+)?
a) 119p, 50n, 119e b) 50p, 69n, 50e c) 50p, 69n,48e
d) 69p, 50n, 69e e) 50p, 119n, 52e

14. An atom that has the same number of neutrons as 59Co is

a) 59Ni. b) 59Co. c) 60Cu. d) 58Fe e) 58
Ni.

15. The neutral atoms of all of the isotopes of the same element have
a) Different numbers of protons. b) Equal numbers of neutrons.
c) The same number of electrons. d) The same mass numbers.
e) The same masses.

16. Which of the following is not a correct name-symbol combination?

a) manganese, Mg b) tin, Sn c) boron, B d) iron, Fe e) antimony, Sb

17. Which one of the following lists gives the symbols for the elements phosphorus, potassium,
silver, chlorine, and sulfur in that order?
a) K, Ag, Po, Cl, S b) P, Po, Ag, Cl, S c) Ph, K, Ag, S, Cl
d) P, K, Ag, Cl, S e) Ph, Po, Ag, Cl, S

18. The formulas of the nitrite, nitride, and nitrate ions are represented respectively as
a) NO2-, NO3-, NO4-,. b) N3-, NO2-, NO3-,
c) NO-, NO2-, NO3-, d) NO2-, N3-, NO3-,
- - 3-
e) NO3 , NO2 , N

19. The formula of aluminum sulfite is

a) Al2(SO3)3. b) Al2 (SO4)3. c) Al3(SO4)2.
d) Al2S3 e) Al3S2

20. Choose the pair of name and formula that do not match.
a) Sodium sulfite Na2S b) Calcium fluoride CaF2
c) Potassium permanganate KMnO4
d) Aluminum bromide AlBr3 e) Iron(III) oxide Fe2O3

21. The formula of potassium carbonate is

a) P2CO3. b) K2CO3. c) Po2CO3.
d) P2C e) K2C

22. Which of the following oxoacids and names sets is (are) correct?

1) H2SO3 sulfurous acid 2) HClO2 chlorous acid 3) H2CO3 carbonic acid

a) 1 only. b) 2 only. c) 3 only. d) 1 and 2 only.

e) All are correct.

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23. Which one of the following equations is properly balanced?
a) NH4NO3  2H2O + N2
b) CH3CHO + 3O2 2CO2 + 2H2O
c) Sn + 4 HNO3 SnO2 + 4NO2 + 2 H2O
d) 2Na2SO4 + 3Bi(NO3) 3 Bi2 (SO4) 3 + 9NaNO3
e) Na2CO3 + 2H2SO4  Na2SO4 + 2H2O + CO2

24. Ammonia can be made by reaction of water with calcium cyanide

__ Ca CN2 (s) + __ H2O(l)  __ CaCO3(s) + __ NH3(g)

When the equation is properly balanced, the sum of the coefficients is

a) 4. b) 5. c) 6. d) 7. e) 9.

25. All of the following reactions can be described as displacement reactions except
a) Zn(s) + FeCl2 (aq)  ZnCl2 (aq) + Fe(s).
b) CuSO4 (aq) + Fe(s)  Cu(s) + FeSO4 (aq).
c) 2Na(s) + 2H2O (l)  2NaOH (aq) + H2 (g).
d) C6H6 (l) + Cl2 (g)  C6H5Cl(l) + HCl(g).
e) Cu(s) + 2AgNO3 (aq)  Cu (NO3) 2 (aq) + 2Ag(s).

26. Which of the following is a weak base?

a) HOCl b) LiOH c) Ba(OH) 2
d) KOH e) NH3

27. All of the following are strong electrolytes in aqueous solution except
a) HBr b) C2H3O2H c) NaC2H3O2
d) NaCl. e) NH4C2H3O2

28. A precipitate is expected when an aqueous solution of potassium iodide is added to an aqueous
solution of
a) sodium sulfate b) iron(II) chloride c) calcium perchlorate
d) Barium hydroxide e) lead nitrate

29. Which of the following is a weak electrolyte in aqueous solution?

a) H2S b) H2SO4 c) HI d) HNO3 e) HCl

30. What products result from the addition of aqueous solutions of Cu(NO3) 2 and (NH4) 2S?
a) CuS(aq) and NH4NO3 (s) b) CuS(s) and NH4NO3 (s)
c) CuS(s) and NH4NO3 (aq) d) Cu2S(s) and NH4NO3 (aq)
e) CuS(s), NH3 (g), and H2S (g)

31. Which of the following best represents the equation for the reaction of aqueous ammonia with
sulfuric acid?
a) NH4OH (aq) + H2SO4(aq) NH4SO4(aq) + H2O(l)
b) NH3 (aq) + H2SO4 (aq) NH4SO4 (aq)
c) 2NH3 (aq) + H2SO4 (aq)  (NH4)2SO4
d) 2NH3 (aq) + H2SO4 (aq)  (NH4)2SO4 (aq) + H2 (g)
e) 2NH3 (aq) + H2SO4 (aq)  (NH4)2SO4 (aq) + 2H+(aq)
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32. The net ionic equation for the reaction of nitric acid with lithium hydroxide is
a) HNO3(aq) + LiOH(aq) LiNO3(aq) + H2O(l).
b) HNO3(aq) + LiOH(aq) Li+(aq) + NO3-(aq) + H2O(l).
c) HNO2(aq) + Li+ (aq) + OH-(aq) Li+ (aq) + NO2- (aq) + H2O(l).
d) H+(aq) + NO2- (aq) + Li+ (aq) + OH-(aq) Li+(aq) + NO2-(aq) + H2O(l).
e) H+(aq) + OH-(aq) H2O(l).

33. What is the average oxidation number of S in S2O3 2-?

a) 2 b) 2.5 c) 4 d) 4.5 e) 6

34. The oxidation number of chromium in sodium chromite, NaCrO2, is

a) -2. b) -1. c) +1. d) +2. e) +3.

35. Which of the following chemical reactions is an oxidation-reduction reaction?

a) Zn(s) + S(s) ZnS(s)
b) H2SO4 + 2NaOH Na2SO4 + 2H2O
c) CO2+ H2O H2CO3
d) AgNO3 + NaCl AgCl + NaNO3
e) NaOH + HCl NaCl + H2O

36. In the reaction Br2 + 2OH-  OBr- + Br- + H2O, the reducing agent and the oxidizing agent
are, respectively,
a) Br2 and OH-. b) OH- and Br2. c) Br2 and OBr-.
-
d) Br2 and Br . e) Br2 and Br2.

37. The formula weight of potassium phosphate, K3PO4, is

a) 196 g/mol. b) 212 g/mol. c) 260. g/mol.
d) 276 g/mol. e) 312 g/mol.

38. The total number of atoms in 1.00 g of CaCO3 (MM = 100.0 g/mol) is
a) 1.81 x 1022. b) 2.41 x 1022 c) 3.01 x 1022.
d) 2.41 x 1023. e) 3.01 x 1023.

39. How many moles of C6F6 are there in 1.62 g of C6F6?

a) 9.43 x 10-4… b) 8.71 x 10-3…
c) 11.5 d) 115 e) 301

40. How many moles of silver are contained in 1.00 kg of silver?

a) 9.27 x 10-3 b) 9.27 x 10-1 c) 9.27
1 3
d) 9.27 x 10 e) 9.27 x 10
41. What is the percentage of chlorine in DDT, C14H9Cl5?
a) 35.0 b) 40.0 c) 45.0 d) 50.0 e) 55.0

42. Fumaric acid, which occurs in many plants, contains, by mass, 41.4% carbon, 3.47%
hydrogen, and 55.1% oxygen. A 0.050-mole sample of this compound weighs 5.80 g. The
molecular formula of this compound is

a) CHO. b) C3H3O. c) C3H3O3.

d) C4H4O4. e) C6H6O6.
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43. 2KHCO3(s)  K2CO3 (s) + CO2 (g) + H2O (l)

How many moles of carbon dioxide will be produced if 100.0 g of potassium hydrogen
carbonate are heated?
a) 0.250 b) 0.500 c) 1.00 d) 2.00
e) 25.0

44. What volume of 0.200-molar Na2CO3 (FW = 106) solution contains 53.0 g of Na2CO3?
a) 0.200 L b) 0.400 L c) 0.500 L
d) 1.60 L e) 2.50 L

45. The titration of HCl with NaOH is represented by the equation

HCl + NaOH  NaCl + H2O

What volume of 0.100 M HCl is required to titrate 50.0 mL of 0.500 M NaOH?
a) 50.0 mL b) 100. mL c) 200. mL
d) 250. mL e) 500. mL

46. Calculate the energy (J/particle) of a light of wavelength 45.0 nm.

a) 6.67 x 1015 b) 6.67 x 1011 c) 4.42 x 10-11
d) 4.42 x 10-15 e) 4.42 x 10-18

47. What is the energy of one mole of photons with a wavelength of 285 nm?
(h - 6.63 x 10-34… J.s, Avogadro’s number = 6.02 x 1023)
a) 6.98 x 10-19J b) 3.50 x 10-18 J c) 3.15 x 105 J
5 6
d) 4.20 x 10 J e) 2.11 x 10 J

48. What is the wavelength of light emitted when the hydrogen atom undergoes a transition from
level n = 5 to level n = 2? hcRH = 2.180 x 10-18 J

a) 663 nm b) 833 nm c) 546 nm d) 521 nm e) 434 nm

49. The square of the wave function, ψ2, of an electron in an atom

a) Describes the energy of the electron.
b) Specifies the momentum of the electron.
c) Gives the probability of finding the electron in a region of space)
d) is proportional to the velocity of the electron.
e) is inversely proportional to the distance between the electron and the nucleus.

50. Which of the following quantum numbers is often designated by the letters s, p, d, f, and g
instead of numbers?
a) n b) l c) m d) s e) g
51. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is not permissible?
a. n = 1, l = 0, ml = 0, ms = +1/2
b. n = 4, l = 0, ml = 0, ms = +1/2
c. n = 3, l = 3, ml = -3, ms = -1/2
d. n = 2, l = 1, ml = 1, ms = -1/2
e. n = 2, l = 0, ml = 0, ms = +1/2

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52. It has been shown experimentally that a beam of electrons can be diffracted, this is evidence
that electrons
a) Have wave properties. b) Are negative
c) Are lighter than protons. d) Are lost by atoms.
e) Have magnetic properties.

53. The two quantum numbers which represent a 3d electron are

a) n = 3, l = 3 b) n = 2, l = 2 c) n = 2, l = 1
d) n = 3, l = 2 e) n = 3, l = 1

54. The number of orbitals in an f (l = 3) is

a) 1. b) 3. c) 5. d) 7. e) 14.

55. Moseley's measurements of the frequency of the radiation emitted by elements bombarded
with high energy electrons provided
a) the basis for the concept of the atomic number.
b) the discovery of isotopes.
c) the measurement of the charge/mass ratio of an electron.
d) the measurement of the charge/mass ratio of a proton.
e) discovery of x-rays.

56. The Pauli exclusion principle requires that

a) both the position of an electron and its momentum cannot simultaneously be known very
accurately.
b) the wavelength and mass of a subatomic particle are related by λ = h/mv.
c) the wavelength of a photon of light times its frequency is equal to the speed of light.
d) no two electrons in the same atom can have the same set of four quantum numbers.
e) an electron can have either particle character or wave character.

57. From a consideration of electronic configurations, which of the elements indicated below
would be classified as a transition element?

a) 1s2, 2s2, 2p2 b) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p5

c) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s2 d) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d5, 4s2
2 2 6 2 6 2 6
e) 1s , 2s , 2p , 3s , 3p , 3d10, 4s , 4p

58. Which of the following electron configurations is not possible?

a) 1s2, 2s2, 2p3 b) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6 c) 1s2, 2s2, 2d2

d) 1s2, 2s1 e) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6 3s1

59. Which ground-state electron configuration is incorrect?

a) Cr: [Ar]3d6 b) Ca: [Ar]4s2‚ c) Na: 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1

d) Zn: [Ar] 3d10 4s2‚ e) Kr: [Ar] 3d10 4s2‚ 4p6

60. All the following ground-state electronic configurations are correct except:
a. 20Ca [Ar] 4s2
b. 25Mn [Ar] 4s2 4d5
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 c. 29Cu [Ar] 3d 10 4s1
d. 50Sn [Kr] 3d 10 5s2 5p2
e. 54Xe [Kr] 3d 10 5s2 5p6
61. The ground-state configuration of a Co2+ ion is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d7. Therefore Co2+ is
a. diamagnetic
b. paramagnetic with one unpaired electron
c. paramagnetic with one unpaired electron
d. paramagnetic with three unpaired electron
e. paramagnetic with four unpaired electron

62. All the following statements concerning the periodic table are correct except
a) Mendeleev received most of the credit for the early development of the periodic table)
b) The elements in a given group or family have similar chemical properties.
c) Mendeleev left spaces in his periodic table for undiscovered elements.
d) All of the elements are arranged in order of increasing atomic weights.
e) The chemical characteristics of the elements are periodic functions of their atomic
numbers.

63. Which of the following elements has the smallest ionization energy?
a) F b) Be c) B d) Mg e) H

64. Which one of the following elements would be expected to have the largest atomic radius?
a) Li b) Cs c) F d) Br e) I

65. When arranged in order of increasing atomic number, the elements exhibit periodicity for all
of the following properties except
a) ionization energy. b) atomic radii. c) electron configurations.
d) electron affinity. e) atomic masses.

66. How many electrons does a stable aluminum ion have?

a) 10 b) 11 c) 12 d) 13 e) 16

67. What is the electron configuration of Ni2+?

a) [Ar] 3d6 4s2‚ b) [Ar] 3d7 4s2 c) [Ar] 3d8
8 2
d) [Ar] 3d 4s ‚ e) [Ar] 3d8 4s1

68. Chemical reactions between metals and nonmetals primarily involve

a) interactions between protons.
b) interactions between protons and electrons.
c) interactions between protons, electrons, and neutrons.
d) transfer of electrons.
e) sharing of electrons.

69. Which of the following is not in the order of increasing atomic radius?
a. Ca2+ < Sr2+ < Ba2+
b. Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+
c. K+ < Cl- < S2-
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 d. O2- < F- < Na+
e Cl- < Br- < I-

70. Which of the following species is isoelectronic with Kr?

a) Xe b) K+ c) In3+ d) S2- e) Sr2+

71. The measure of the attraction that an atom has for the electrons in a chemical bond is called
a) electron affinity. b) ionization energy. c) electronegativity.
d) hybridization. e) London forces.

72. Which of the following compounds violates the octet rule for electron distribution around the
central atom?
a) CS2 b) SF4 c) CF4 d) N2O4 e) CO2

73. The Lewis structure for phosphine, PH3, has

a) four bonding pairs. b) two bonding pairs and two lone pairs.
c) three bonding pairs and one lone pair.
d) one bonding pair and three lone pairs. e) four lone pairs.

75. Which of the following compounds has the most ionic bonding (has the highest percentage of
ionic character)?
a) LiI b) CaF2 c) CsF d) LiF e) OF2

76. The concept of resonance describes molecular structures

a) which have several different geometrical arrangements.
b) which have no suitable single Lewis electron-dot formula)
c) which have electrons resonating.
d) which are formed from hybridized orbitals.
e) which have resonating structures.

77. The Lewis structure for each of the following species contains a either double bond , triple
bond or both except
a) HCCH. b) N2 c) NO-
d) N3- e) O22-

78. Which of the following diatomic molecules has the greatest bond strength?
a) Cl2 b) HCl c) CO d) H2 e) HF

79. The formal charges on the sulfur and oxygen atoms in the sulfite ion, SO32- are, respectively,
a) +6 and -2. b) +4 and -2. c) +2 and -2.
d) +1 and -1. e) +1 and -2.

80. The basis of the VSEPR model of molecular bonding is ____________.

a) regions of electron density on an atom will organize themselves so as to maximize s-
character
b) regions of electron density in the valence shell of an atom will arrange themselves so as to
maximize overlap
c) atomic orbitals of the bonding atoms must overlap for a bond to form

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 d) electron pairs in the valence shell of an atom will arrange themselves so as to minimize
repulsions
e) hybrid orbitals will form as necessary to, as closely as possible, achieve spherical
symmetry

81. According to VSEPR theory, if there are 5 pairs of electrons in the valence shell of an atom,
they will be arranged in a(n) _________ geometry.
a) octahedral b) linear c) tetrahedral
d) trigonal planar e) trigonal bipyramidal

82. The molecular geometry of the H3O+ ion is __________.

a) linear b) tetrahedral c) bent
d) trigonal pyramidal e) octahedral

83. The molecular geometry of the SF2 molecule is __________.

a) linear b) bent c) trigonal planar
d) tetrahedral e) octahedral

84. The molecular geometry of the BeCl3 - molecule is __________.

a) trigonal planar b) bent c) tetrahedral
d) trigonal pyramidal e) T-shaped

85. The molecular geometry of C1 on the following molecule is:

OH

H3C C1
O

a) Trigonal planar
b) Trigonal bipyramidal
c) Tetrahedral
d) octahedral

86. An electron domain is a ____________.

1. lone pair 2. single bond 3. double bond
4. triple bond 5. central atom
a) 1 or 2 b) 1, 2, 3, or 4 c) 5 only d) 2, 3, or 4 e) 1 or 5

87. Of the molecules below, _____ is polar.

a) SbF5 b) AsH3 c) I2 d) SF6 e) CH4

88. Of the molecules below, only _____ is nonpolar.

a) CO2 b) H2O c) NH3 d) HCl e) TeCl2

89. The molecular geometry of the CHF3 is __________, and the molecule is ___________.
a) trigonal pyramidal, polar b) tetrahedral, nonpolar
c) Seesaw, nonpolar d) tetrahedral, polar e) seesaw, polar

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90. The electron-domain geometry of a carbon-centered compound is tetrahedral. The
hybridization of the central carbon atom is _____.
a) sp b) sp2 c) sp3 d) sp3d e) sp3d2‚

91. Generally, a molecule in which the central atom is sp2‚ hybridized will have a/an ______
electron-domain geometry.
a) Octahedral b) linear c) trigonal planar
d) trigonal bipyramidal e) tetrahedral

92. The hybrid orbitals used for bonding by Xe in the unstable XeF2 molecule are _____ orbitals.
a) sp b) sp2 c) sp3 d d) sp3 e) sp3d2‚
93. A typical double bond ____________.
a) is stronger and shorter than a single bond
b) consists of one sigma bond and one pi bond
c) imparts rigidity to a molecule
d) consists of two shared electron pairs
e) all of these answers are correct

94. Sideways overlap of two p-orbitals resulting in two regions of electron density in common to
the two nuclei defines a/an _____ bond.
a) pi b) sigma c) delta d) double e) ionic

95. There are __ σ and __ π bonds in the H2C=C=CH2 molecule)

a) 4 and 2 b) 6 and 4 c) 2 and 2
d) 2 and 6 e) 6 and 2

96. The bond order of any molecule containing equal numbers of bonding and antibonding
electrons is ____________.
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3 e) 1/2

97. Of the following, only _____ has unpaired electron(s). (Hint:think of paramagnetic or
diamagnetic molecules)
a) C2 b) N2 c) F2 d) O2 e) Li2

99. According to MO theory, overlap of two p atomic orbitals produces ____________.

a) two bonding molecular orbitals
b) one bonding molecular orbital and one antibonding molecular orbital
c) two bonding molecular orbitals and two antibonding molecular orbitals
d) two bonding molecular orbitals and one antibonding molecular orbital
e) three bonding molecular orbitals and three antibonding molecular orbitals

100. The units for specific heat are

a) J/(goC). b) J oC/g. c) Jg/oC d) J/oCe) J/g.

101. Consider the following specific heats of metals.

1) copper 0.385 J/(g /oC) 2) cobalt 0.418 J/(g /oC)

3) chromium 0.447 J/(g /oC) 4) gold 0.129 J/(g /oC)
5) silver 0.237 J/(g /oC)

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 If the same amount of heat is added to 100-g samples of each of the metals, which are all at
the same temperature, which metal will reach the lowest temperature?
a) copper b) cobalt c) chromium d) gold e) silver

102. ΔHfus for sulfur is 17.7 kJ/mol. How many grams of sulfur can be melted by 29.0 kJ?
a) 9.8 g b) 19.5 g c) 26.2 g d) 40.7 g e) 52.5 g

103. When 0.0500 mol of HCl is reacted with 0.0500 mol of NaOH in 50.0 mL of water solution,
the temperature of the water solution increases by 13.7oC. Calculate the heat of the reaction for the
following thermochemical equation: (heat capacity of the system is 209.2 J/oC)

HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq)  NaCl(aq) + H2O(l)

a) -57,300 J/mol b) -2870 J/mol c) +2870 J/mol

d) +57,300 J/mol e) +115,000 J/mol

104. Which statement concerning the following is correct? 2NO2 (g) + 114 kJ  2NO (g) + O2 (g)
a) The reaction is exothermic
b) The products have an enthalpy loss.
c) The sign of ΔH for the reaction is negative
d) The products have less enthalpy than the reactants.
e) The enthalpy of the products exceeds that of the reactants.

105. All of the following have a standard enthalpy of formation value of zero at 25oC and 1.00 atm
except

a) CO(g). b) Fe(s). c) C(s). d) F2 (g). e) Ne (g).

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ANSWER KEY
1. c 2. d 3. d 4. c 5. c 6. e
7. c 8. e 9. d 10. d 11. d 12. c
13. c 14. d 15. c 16. a 17. d 18. d
19. a 20. a 21. b 22. e 23. c 24. d
25. d 26. e 27. b 28. e 29. a 30. c
31. c 32. e 33. a 34. e 35. a 36. e
37. b 38. c 39. b 40. c 41. d 42. d
43. b 44. e 45. d 46. e 47. d 48. e
49. c 50. b 51. c 52. a 53. d 54. d
55. a 56. d 57. d 58. c 59. a 60. b
61. d 62. d 63. d 64. b 65. e 66. a
67. a 68. d 69. d 70. e 71. c 72. b
73. c 75. c 76. b 77. e 78. c 79. d
80. d 81.e 82. d 83. b 84. a 85. a
86. b 87. b 88. a 89. d 90. c 91. c
92. c 93. e 94. a 95. e 96. a 97. d
99. b 100. a 101. c 102. e 103. a 104. e
105. a

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