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CP/18/C19

CLAT Mock – 19
(Questions)
Section – I: English
Directions for Questions 1 to 7: In each question, a sentence is presented in four different ways.
Choose the sentence which is most appropriate grammatically as your answer.

1. A. When the bride arrives at the groom’s house, a bouquet of flowers act as the welcoming gift
from the groom’s family.
B. A bouquet of flowers act as the welcoming gift from the groom’s family for the bride when
she arrives at the groom’s house.
C. When the bride arrives at the groom’s house, a bouquet of flowers acts as the welcoming gift
from the groom’s family.
D. A bouquet of flowers is given as a gift to bride from groom’s family when arriving at the
groom’s house.

2. A. Although a lot of studies point to the harm from the caffeine in coffee, beneficial effects are
much more pronounced than the harmful effects they may have.
B. Although a lot of studies point to the harm from the caffeine in coffee, it may not be as
harmful as the beneficial effects.
C. Beneficial effects of coffee point to the fact that harmful effects shown by studies may not be
as harmful.
D. Although a lot of studies point to the harm from the caffeine in coffee, the beneficial effects
are much more pronounced than the harmful effects it may have.

3. A. The storm deposited lot of hail on the road so the tourists walked slowly and being very
cautious.
B. The storm deposited lot of hail on the road so being very cautious and slowly the tourists
walked.
C. The storm deposited a lot of hail on the road so the tourists walked slowly and cautiously.
D. The storm deposited lots of hails on the road making tourists walk slowly and cautiously.

4. A. When the riot control equipment finally reached the police, the riots already ended.
B. When the riot control equipment finally reached the police, the riots had ended.
C. When the riot control equipment finally reached the police, the riots already were ended.
D. When the riot control equipment ultimately reached the police, the riots quashed.

5. A. A final agreement was said to have been within reach but now the talks have reached a
deadlock with the NSCN demanding absolute autonomy.
B. A final agreement was said to have been within reach but now the talks are deadlocked from
the NSCN demanding absolute autonomy.

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C. A final agreement is said to have been within reach but for the talks have reached a deadlock
with the NSCN demanding absolute autonomy.
D. With the NSCN demanding absolute autonomy, a final agreement was said to have been
within reach but now the talks reached a deadlock.

6. A. The roads sometimes pass you by and the National Highway did this to Pipili, the village that
gave the GI tag to the famous applique craft of Odisha.
B. The village Pipili that gave the GI tag to the famous applique craft of Odisha was passed by the
National Highway.
C. The roads sometimes pass you by, how the National Highway did this to Pipili, the village that
gave the GI tag to the famous applique craft of Odisha.
D. The village Pipili that gave the GI tag to the famous applique craft of Odisha was sometime
passed by the National Highway.

7. A. Dhurupad is the ancient style of reiterative singing of praise to the gods through the deeply
felt and moving rendition of simple phrases or statements, having become popular after its
revival by patronage from modern corporate houses.
B. Dhurupad, now a popular music form, is the ancient style of reiterative singing of praise to
the gods through the deeply felt and moving rendition of simple phrases or statements,
revived by patronage from modern corporate houses.
C. Dhurupad, now a popular music form revived by patronage from modern corporate houses, is
the ancient style of reiterative singing of praise to the gods through the deeply felt and
moving rendition of simple phrases or statements.
D. Dhurupad is the ancient style of reiterative singing of praise to the gods through the deeply
felt and moving rendition of simple phrases or statements, having revived by patronage from
modern corporate houses become popular.

Directions for Questions 8 to 12: Fill the blanks with contextually the most appropriate choice.

Abhishek an audio book narrator, till last year, worked as a news anchor. It was this experience, he says,
that __8__ him to modulate his voice and achieve clear pronunciation and diction. Though Abhishek
was also recording audio books simultaneously, he quit his full-time job to become an audio book voice-
over artist. This has given him opportunities to play different __9__in books published by Penguin.
Recording an audio book is a __10__ task. Artists claim that clear delivery of expressions is __11__. In
order to minimise retakes, most voice-over artiosts practice the diction and expressions a day in
advance. Joel, who has been __12__ his voice to advertisements, animated films and documentaries is
now shifting his focus to audio books.

8. A. taught B. inclined C. promoted D. instigated

9. A. varieties B. characters C. part D. stories

10. A. funny B. easy C. glamorous D. tedious

11. A. the beauty B. achieved C. obscured D. mandatory

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12. A. scrutinising B. lending C. proving D. speaking

Directions for Questions 13 to 17: Fill the blanks with contextually the most appropriate choice.

At the other extreme are concepts that are so specific they are almost practical ideas. While ‘steak’ is a
concept it excludes fish, chicken, and pasta. The __13__with concepts that are too specific is that they
narrow the thinking. If you think only in terms of the concept of ‘monetary reward’ rather than ‘reward’
you may not __14__ that a smile, a word of appreciation or some sort of __15__ might mean more to
your staff than money. ‘Achievement’ is a __16__ concept. Youngsters need achievement. If we
__17__that concept to ‘success in sport’ then we might build more sport facilities. But there are many
youngsters who are not interested in sport.

13. A. idea B. understanding C. danger D. implication

14. A. realise B. understand C. take in D. conclude

15. A. recognition B. realisation C. reward D. repulse

16. A. broad B. narrow C. vague D. definite

17. A. narrowed B. broadened C. defined D. diffused

Directions for Questions 18 to 23: Each question has a sentence that has two blanks. From the given
options choose the most appropriate pair of words.

18. It would be unfair they argued to force them to continue waiting to die of serious ailments,
which would leave one of them ____________and destined to a _________ death.
A. bereaved/ lonely B. lonely/ nondescript
C. beleaguered/ hasty D. stunned/ early

19. Blind photographers are primarily those that have lost their sight to different ________, not
those who were _______blind.
A. reasons/ actually B. degrees/ born
C. diseases/ absolutely D. mishaps/ unluckily

20. A factor we consider when discussing migration and movement is the ______ and _____ of the
labour market.
A. high/ low B. hit/ miss
C. ebb/ flow D. fact/ fiction

21. A popular _______ that was also expressed by the Supreme Court in its judgement was NOTA’s
potential to increase voter _________.
A. mistake/ turnaround B. precept/ turnout
C. voice/ violation D. perception/ turnout

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22. Large irrigation structures such as dams________ huge investment, the ________ of local
people, and submersion of sizeable portion of land.
A. dip/ acquisition B. bring in/ offer
C. drown/ protest D. entail/ displacement

23. From highways carved through thriving ghettoes to walls ________ black and white areas, US
city development has a long and _______ history.
A. segregating/ divisive B. highlighting/ glorious
C. dividing/ glorious D. implanting/ divisive

Directions for Questions 24 to 40: The questions are based on the information presented in the
passage given below:

In many situations direct experimentation is possible. For example, at home you may rearrange your
bedroom furniture by directly experimenting with different layouts. You will move the furniture using
every possible layout and observe each layout and then move the furniture to the arrangement judged
the best, completing the experiment.

A similar experiment could in theory be applied to the effects of a rearrangement of machinery in a


factory. Such a procedure would, however, be costly, time-consuming, and disruptive. Hence,
simulation, or indirect experimentation, is employed, using a model to represent the factory and
templates to represent the items of machinery to be moved. Again, direct experimentation in aircraft
design would involve constructing a full-scale prototype, which could be flight-tested under real
conditions. Although this is an essential step at a particular phase in the evolution of a new design, it
would be very costly as a first step. The usual procedure is to evaluate several proposed configurations
by building a model of each and then testing in a wind tunnel. Again this is a process of simulation.

A succinct definition of simulation is that ‘Models represent reality; simulation imitates it’. Simulation
indeed involves the manipulation of a model so that, in effect, it yields a motion picture of reality.
Logical models are used in an attempt to copy the dynamics of a real-life situation. A standard
technique for simulation is the system commonly referred to as the Monte Carlo technique, linked to
the gambling casinos rather than the car rally.

Monte Carlo simulation performs risk analysis by building models of possible results by substituting a
range of values- a probability distribution-for any factor that has inherent uncertainty. It then calculates
results over and over, each time using a different set of random values from the probability functions.
Depending upon the number of uncertainties and the ranges specified for them, a Monte Carlo
simulation could involve thousands or tens of thousands of recalculations before it is complete. Monte
Carlo simulation produces distributions of possible outcome values- probability of each occurrence.

Directions for Questions 24 to 33: Each question has a word from the underlined words in the passage.
From the given choices, choose the meaning of the word in context of the passage.

24. DISRUPTIVE

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A. divisive B. turbulent C. truculent D. fractious

25. PROTOTYPE
A. design B. guide C. blueprint D. model

26. ESSENTIAL
A. obligatory B. paramount C. requisite D. critical

27. EVOLUTION
A. extension B. progression C. expansion D. transformation

28. SIMULATION
A. imitation B. pretention C. deception D. invection

29. DYNAMICS
A. energy B. change C. physics D. unpredicted

30. TECHNIQUE
A. skill B. capability C. competence D. method

31. INHERENT
A. natural B. instinctive C. high D. low

32. RANGE
A. variety B. spectrum C. chance D. width

33. OUTCOME
A. outgrowth B. issue C. product D. service

34. Monte Carlo technique would be most useful in which of the following situations:
A. Determining possibility of getting certain percentage of marks in an examination.
B. Determining outcome of imposition of a new tax in a large country.
C. Determining the outcome of investing money in a stock market.
D. Determining the outcome of investing money in a rare painting.

35. In which of the following cases could direct experimentation be most useful?
A. Determining which dress to wear for a party.
B. Determining the life of 50 different electric lamps.
C. Determining the strength of porcelain cups.
D. Determining the strength of a road bridge pillar.

36. Models are useful in experimentation as they:


A. help complete an experiment with good accuracy.
B. help in deciding which design to finally adopt.
C. help in making an experiment scientific.

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D. help in reducing cost.

37. Why is the Monte Carlo technique linked to the casino and not to the car rally?
A. Car rally outcomes can be fixed.
B. Monte Carlo is more famous for the casinos than for the car rallies.
C. Car rally is based on human skills rather than on scientific principles.
D. Casino outcomes have high unpredictability.

38. In a Monte Carlo simulation:


A. each factor has equal probability.
B. all factors are uncertain.
C. some factors are theoretical.
D. some factors are certain.

39. “A similar experiment could in theory be applied to…” in this line, ‘in theory” means which of the
following?
A. in imagination
B. it is possible to apply
C. it is impossible to apply
D. as a mathematical function

40. Which of the following can best represent the tone of the passage given above?
A. didactic B. explicative C. implicative D. neutral

Section – II: General Knowledge


41. India’s fastest and first multi-peta-flops supercomputer “Pratyush” has established at which
institute?
A. Indian Institute of Remote Sensing (IIRS) Dehradun
B. Central Institute of Technology (CIT) Kokrajhar
C. Indian Institute of Information Technology (IIIT) Gwalior
D. Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM) Pune

42. Which Indian personality will be conferred with the France’s highest order of merit ‘Legion of
Honour at the 42nd International Kolkata Book Fair 2018?
A. Soumitra Chattopadhyay B. Priyanka Chopra
C. Deepika Padukone D. Amitabh Bachchan

43. Which committee has been constituted by the Election Commission (EC) to suggest changes to
Representation of the People Act in view of social media expansion?
A. Umesh Sinha committee B. N K Singh committee
C. Pukhraj Kukreja committee D. Nilesh Gupta committee

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44. What is the India’s rank at the latest World Economic Forum (WEF)’s Global Manufacturing Index
(GMI)?
A. 44th B. 30th C. 57th D. 68th

45. Which of the following countries has recently joined the Australia Group export control regime?
A. South Africa B. China C. Russia D. India

46. Who has been honoured with the India’s highest peacetime military decoration “Ashoka Chakra”
at the 69th Republic Day?
A. Khairnar Milind Kishor B. Nilesh Kumar Narayan
C. Devendra Mehta D. Jyoti Prakash Nirala

47. Capital account convertibility signifies


A. guaranteeing the right to investment to foreigners
B. ensuring the right of buyers to make international payments
C. ensuring free international movement of capital
D. ensuring the right of an individual to invest in foreign capital markets

48. The purpose of Kyoto Protocol was


A. to promote tourism
B. to contribute sustainable development
C. to promote renewable sources of energy
D. to put a limit on green1ouse gas emissions by states

49. The economist who for the first time scientifically determined national income in Ina:
A. Dr. D.R. Gadgil B. Dr. V.K.R.V. Rao
C. Dr. Manmohan Singh D. Dr. Y.V. Alagh

50. Gandhi ji expounded his economic ideas in


A. Hind Swaraj B. My Experiments with Truth
C. Unto the Last D. Economics of Permanence

51. Match List-I with List-II and select the best option using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Organization/Centers) List-II (Locations)
A. High Altitude Warfare School 1.Chennai
B. Indian Air force Training Center 2. Gulmarg
C. National Defense College 3. New Delhi
D. Institute of National Integration 4. Pune
A. A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 B. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4.
C. A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3 D. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3.

52. What is the theme of the 8th edition of the Theatre Olympics 2018?
A. Culture of Friendship B. Tradition of Love
C. Flag of Friendship D. Play of Life

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53. According to the Union Minister of State of the Atomic Energy and Space, Dr Jitendra Singh, the
Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) is planning to launch __________ Mission around
April 2018.
A. Chandrayan-2 B. MoM-2 C. MoM-3 D. Chandrayan-3

54. Japan's government has reappointed Bank of Japan Governor _____________ for another term.
A. Tokihiro Nakamura B. Kensaku Morita
C. Shingo Mimura D. Haruhiko Kuroda

55. India’s Umang App was named winner of the Best M-Government Service award in the
Accessible Government category while Aadhar won the best emerging technology award at the
recently concluded World Government Summit (WGS) 2018. The WGS 2018 was held recently in
_______________.
A. Dubai B. Riyadh C. New York D. Port Luis

56. Name the newly appointed Prime Minister of Nepal.


A. Pushpa Kamal Dahal B. Sher Bahadur Deuba
C. Sushil Koirala D. K.P. Sharma Oli

57. Name the country that will host 2018 Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) Summit in June
2018.
A. Germany B. China C. Indonesia D. Switzerland

58. Which country declared Mandarin as one of the official languages of that country?
A. Pakistan B. China C. USA D. Canada

59. Which Country permitted the country’s women to start their own businesses without their
guardian’s consent (generally the guardian is a male relative)?
A. Iran B. Saudi Arabia C. Iraq D. Palestine

60. Who took charge as the Commandant of Indian Naval Academy (INA) at Ezhimala in Kannur
district, Kerala?
A. Vice Admiral John Prakash B. Vice Admiral R B Pandit
C. Vice Admiral Jin Joseph D. Vice Admiral Ajith Kumar

61. Who is the first Indian bowler to take a five-wicket haul in all three formats in international
cricket?
A. Shikhar Dhawan B. Jasprit Bumrah
C. Bhuvneshwar Kumar D. Kuldeep Yadav

62. The National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) has approved the proposed merger between
_________and Telenor India.
A. Idea Cellular B. Vodafone India
C. Reliance Communications D. Bharti Aritel

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63. Which task force has been constituted by the Union Government on Artificial Intelligence (AI) for
India’s economic transformation?
A. Gautam Shroff task force B. Shantanu Chaudhary task force
C. V. Kamakoti task force D. Vijay Kumar Sankarapu task force

64. Who discovered cell in 1665?


A. Robert Hook B. Robert Crook
C. David Thomson D. Marie Francois

65. The Fundamental Rights, enshrined in Part III of the Constitution of India, "are inherent and
cannot be extinguished by any constitutional and statutory provision". This was made clear in
the case of
A. A. K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
B. I. C. Golak Nath v. State of Punjab
C. State of West Bengal v. Committee for Protection of Democratic Rights, West Bengal
D. Shankari Prasad Singh Deo v. Union of India

66. Which of the following features were borrowed by the Constitution of India from the British
Constitution?
1. Rule of Law 2. Law making Procedure
3. Independence of Judiciary 4. Parliamentary
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2, 3 and 4 C. 1 and 4 only D. 1, 2 and 4

67. Which one among the following was not a proposal of the Cabinet Mission, 1946?
A. The Constituent Assembly was to be constituted on the democratic principle of population
strength
B. Provision for an Indian Union of Provinces and States
C. AU the members Constituent Assembly be Indians
D. British Government supervise the affairs Constituent Assembly

68. Which of the following structures of a plant is responsible for transpiration?


A. Xylem B. Root C. Stomata D. Bark

69. Who has won bronze in the 2017 women’s singles World Badminton championships (WBC)?
A. Ashwini Ponnappa B. Jwala Gutta C. P V Sindhu D. Saina Nehwal

70. Which expert committee has constituted by the Union Government to identify key data
protection issues in India?
A. Tushar Mehta B. R S Rawat C. BN Srikrishna D. H R Khan

71. Who has been appointed as new chief coach of the Indian Senior Men Hockey Team?
A. Phil Baty B. Stephen Constantine
C. Johanna Maria Jacob D. Waltherus Marijne

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72. In which two Indian States of the four mentioned below, it is necessary to hold certain minimum
educational qualifications to be eligible to contest Panchayat Elections?
1. Punjab 2. Haryana 3. Karnakata 4. Rajastahan
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 4 C. 2 and 3 D. 1 and 4

73. Which committee has drafted the 3rd National Wildlife Action Plan (NWAP) for 2017–2031?
A. Krishna Murthy committee B. JC Kala committee
C. Prabhakar Reddy committee D. K C Patan committee

74. Who has been appointed by the Supreme Court (SC) as amicus curiae on plea seeking re–probe
of Mahatma Gandhi assassination?
A. J S Khehar B. Arun Kumar Mishra C. RanjanGogoi D. Amrender Sharan

75. Who has won the Nobel Prize in Economic Sciences 2017?
A. George F. Loewenstein B. Colin F. Camerer
C. Stewart C. Myers D. Richard H. Thaler

76. President Ram NathKovind has launched Mata Amritanandamayi Math Project ‘Jeevamritham’
from which state?
A. Mizoram B. Kerala C. Andhra Pradesh D. Karnataka

77. Which state to host the 36th edition of National Games of India in 2018?
A. Goa B. Assam C. Kerala D. Jharkhand

78. The committee that has been constituted by Union Government to identify key data protection
issues?
A. B N Srikrishna committee B. A K Mathur committee
C. H S Khan committee D. KK Lahoti committee

79. The theme of 2017 International Youth Day (IYD) is?


A. Change Our World B. Youth and Mental Health
C. Youth Building Peace D. Youth Civic Engagement

80. Saima Wazed Hossain has been appointed as WHO goodwill ambassador for Autism in South–
East Asia Region is from?
A. Pakistan B. Israel C. Bangladesh D. Iran

81. Who will head the 3rd National Judicial Pay Commission (NJPC) to look into pay hike issue of
lower court judges?
A. R C Lahoti B. E Padhmanabhan C. Jagannatha Shetty D. PV Reddi

82. Who has been bestowed with the 2017 Lal Bahadur Shastri National Award for Excellence in
Public Administration, Academics and Management?
A. Meera Thakur B. Bindeshwar Pathak C. K C Gupta D. M N Ramakrishna

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83. Which country has become the first country to leave International Criminal Court (ICC)?
A. Botswana B. South Africa C. Burundi D. Gambia

84. Which Indian sportswoman has won triple gold at Egypt Junior and Cadet Open Table Tennis
Championship 2017?
A. Mouma Das B. Manika Batra C. Selena Selvakumar D. Poulomi Ghatak

85. Which Indian Armed Force has launched an innovative mobile health App “MedWatch”?
A. Indian Army B. Indian Coast Guard C. Indian Air Force D. Indian Navy

86. Identify the correct sequence of passing a Budget in the Parliament


A. Vote on Account–Finance Bill–Appropriation Bill–Discussion on Budget
B. Finance Bill– Appropriation. Bill Discussion on Budget–Vote on Accounts
C. Discussion on Budget–Vote on Account– Finance Bill–Appropriation Bill
D. Discussion on Budget–Appropriation Bill–Finance Bill–Vote on Account

87. Which fish has been officially declared as one of the rarest species of fish in the world by the
Marine Living Resources Department of Andhra University?
A. Rohu B. Rayichapalu C. Catla D. Tengra

88. Who won India’s first ever gold medal at Wushu World Championships, in Russia?
A. Y Sanathoi Devi B. Surya Bhanu Pratap C. Uchit Sharma D. Pooja Kadian

89. In what field US scientists Rainer Weiss, Barry Barish and Kip Thorne won the 2017 Nobel Prize?
A. Medicine B. Economy C. Chemistry D. Physics

90. Who is elected as the new chief of UNESCO?


A. Irina Bokova B. Tair Mansurov C. Audrey Azoulay D. Harvey Weinstein

Section – III: Numerical Ability


91. Rohit Sharma scored 200 runs against Australia which includes 14 fours and 4 sixes. What
percent of his total score did he make by running between the wickets?
A. 40% B. 70% C. 60% D. 50.7%

92. How many tiles 12 cm by 16 cm will be required to pave the floor of a meeting hall of a room
18m long and 30 m wide?
A. 28125 B. 4440 C. 5400 D. 5440

93. The ratio of the number of boys and girls in a class of 180 students is 5 : 4. Out of this, 20 boys
leave the class and an equal number of girls join. The ratio of the number of boys to the number
of girls in the class now is
A. 4 : 5 B. 4 : 7 C. 3 : 4 D. None of these

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94. HCF of a and b is 6,HCF of b and c is 12 and HCF of c and d is 9. What is the HCF of a,b,c and d?
A. 6 B. 12 C. 3 D. Cannot be determined

95. Find the remainder when 2565178 is divided by 125?


A. 0 B. 2 C. 1 D. None of these

96. Pankaj invited 10 persons on his birthday. In how many ways can he and his guests be seated
around a circular table?
A. 10! B. 11! C. 10! ×2 D. None of these

97. A can complete a job in 9 days, B in 10 days and C in 15 days. B and C start the work and leave
after 2 days. Now, A joins. The number of days taken by A to finish the remaining work is:
A. 8 B. 9 C. 6 D. None of these

98. A certain number of men can complete a job in 30 days. If there were 5 men more, it could be
completed in 5 days less. How many men were there in the beginning?
A. 10 B. 15 C. 20 D. 25

99. Find the value of (P+Q) where 23P ×2Q1 =54978?


A. 12 B. 11 C. 9 D. None of these

100. Sum of the ages of Amit, Shyam and Abhishek are 94. After 14 years, ratio of there ages will be
25:22:21. Find the sum of present ages of Amit and Shyam?
A. 66 B. 58 C. 64 D. none of these

2a  b ab
101. If,  3 then find the value of ?
a  4b a  2b
A. 8/9 B. 10/9 C. 4/3 D. None of these

102. Find the average of first 50 positive multiples of 7.


A. 138.5 B. 157.5 C. 178.5 D. None of these

103. A showroom is offering ‘Buy 7 and get 3 free’ on all its clothing items. What is the discount
offered?
A. 30% B. 42.84% C. 37.5% D. None of these

104. Two dice are thrown together. What is the probability that the sum of the number on the two
faces is divisible by 2 but not by 3?
A. 1/6 B. 1/9 C. 2/3 D. 1/3

105. In a clearance sale, Bharat Fabrics gives an additional discount of 20%, thus selling silk Saree
worth Rs 5000 for Rs 3600.Find the first discount.
A. 10% B. 15% C. 22.22% D. None of these

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106.A bag has 4 red and 5 black balls. A second bag has 3 red and 7 black balls. One ball is drawn from
the first bag and two from the second. The probability that there are two black balls and a red
ball is
A.14/45 B.11/45 C.7/15 D.9/54

107. Find the equation whose roots are the square of the roots of equation x2  9x  3  0?
A. x2  75x  9  0 B. x2  75x  9  0 C. x2  81x  3  0 D. x2  81x  3  0

108. A mixture of milk and water is in ratio 3:2. When 45 litres of water is added the amount of milk
and water is found to be equal. Find the initial quantity of milk in the mixture.
A. 225 B. 115 C. 120 D. None of these

109. Due to recession, Akash’s salary reduced by 30%. By what percent should his reduced salary be
raised so as to bring it at 30% more with his original salary?
A. 60% B. 85.7% C. 55.8% D. 65%

110. In an examination 59% candidates failed in English and 26% failed in Hindi, and 15% failed in
both the subjects. If the total number of candidates who passed in Hindi alone is 220, what is the
total number of candidate?
A. 400 B. 500 C. 600 D. None of these

Section – IV: Legal Reasoning


111. Principle: Whoever, intending to take dishonestly any moveable property out of the possession
of any person without that person’s consent, moves that property in order to such taking, is said
to commit theft.
Facts: Hari Prasad was going on a pilgrimage when a sudden stampede caused death of at least a
dozen pilgrims. Amidst the chaos, Hari noticed that one of his fellow travelers, Gangaram who
sat beside him on the bus while they were coming, was lying on the floor. Hari wanted to help
him so he checked his pulse and found that he was already dead. He secretly removed the
Golden Chain and rings from Gangaram’s body, intending to sell it later as it was of no use for a
dead body. When he tried to sell the Ornaments, it was discovered that it was not made of gold
and not worth any money so Hari threw the same in frustration. Has Hari Prasad Committed
Theft?
A. Yes because he dishonestly took the movable property
B. No because he initially wanted to help Gangaram thus there was no dishonest intention
C. No
D. Yes, because he took it out of Gangaram’s possession.

112. In the above principle consider the following fact situation


Lalit was going out of the country for sometime so he entrusted some valuable items with his
friend Nirav and said that he will collect it from him when he comes back from his trip. Nirav sold
the items to Shushil and used the money for buying a property. When Lalit returned and

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demanded his goods, Nirav refused to acknowledge the same. Lalit filed a case of Theft against
Nirav. Will Lalit succeed in his case for theft against Nirav.
A. Yes, because Nirav sold his items without his knowledge or consent
B. Yes because he sold the property that was in the ownership of Lalit
C. No, because it is not a case of theft
D. Yes because Nirav dishonestly disposed off the movable property that belonged to Lalit
without his consent

113. Principle I: Whoever, having a husband or wife living, contracts a marriage during the life of the
former husband or wife will be charged with the offence of Bigamy.
Principle II: A person abets an offence, who abets either the commission of an offence, or the
commission of an act which would be an offence, if committed by a person capable by law of
committing an offence with the same intention or knowledge as that of the abettor.
Facts: Raman Bhalla was married to Ishita but due to some differences, his family members
insisted Raman to abandon Ishita and marry Ishita’s unmarried sister Mihika instead. Raman
agreed and accordingly arrangements were made for his second marriage. He intended to get a
divorce from Ishita after his marriage with Mihika. Relatives from both the sides attended
Raman’s marriage ceremony with Mihika but later Ishita filed a case of Abetment against close
relatives of Raman and Mihika, who despite having knowledge participated in the actual
essential ceremonies of the same.
A. Only Raman can be held liable for any offence in this case
B. Raman and Mihika both are equally liable for Bigamy
C. Everyone who attended the wedding can be held liable for abetment of Bigamy
D. Close relatives who participated in the essential ceremonies are liable for Abetment of
Bigamy

114. Principle: Malicious Prosecution consists in instituting unsuccessful criminal proceedings


maliciously without reasonable and probable cause. When such prosecution causes actual
damage to the party prosecuted, it’s a tort for which he can bring an action.
Facts: Charlie and Allen were neighbors who were not in good terms with each other. Charlie’s
Bike was missing from the common parking lot and he went to the police station after making
looking for his missing bike whole day. He told Jake, who was a policeman in an informal
complaint, that Allen has always been jealous of him and that he had heard from watchman that
Allan was seen with a similar bike in the evening. The policeman without any further
instructions, makes inquiries and arrests Allen. Allen was found innocent and he filed a case of
malicious prosecution against Charlie.
A. Charlie can be held under malicious prosecution because he complained with evil intentions
B. Charlie is not liable for malicious prosecution
C. Charlie and Jake both are equally liable
D. Charlie is liable because he did not have sufficient evidence against Allen

115. Defamation Is the act of making untrue statements about another which damages his/her
reputation. Qualified Privilege is a defence to defamation.
Facts: Mr. Mallya, manager of a public sector bank called BRB Bank, rejected home loan to one
of his customers, Mr. Vijay on the basis of his defaults and poor CIBIL score with his bank. Vijay

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approached a private bank called ASAP Bank who were lenient with home loans. The manager of
ASAP, Mr Mehul contacted Mr. Mallya and asked him why did he reject Vijay’s Loan. Mr. Vijay
stated that “Mallya has been my old customer but his account statements lately have many
irregularities and defaults. I am pretty convinced that his business is not going to sustain very
long and I have no opinion about his honesty or intention to return the loan.” Vijay filed a case
against Mr. Mallya for defamation claiming that his business is sound and well and untrue
statements like these will affect the business of my company as well as injure my reputation.
A. Mallya is not guilty of defamation
B. Mallya is guilty of defamation because is projecting false image in the market
C. Mallya is not guilty because he did not publish his statement
D. Mallya has an absolute privilege against defamation because he is a government employee

116. Principle: The defendant is liable for the wrongful act only if it is causa causans of Injury and not
merely a causa sine qua non
Facts: Jack & Rose Pvt Ltd. operated a dock in a Port for ships. A Sea vessel named Titanic was
moored 500 feet from the jack & Rose’s wharf when, due to the negligence of Titanic’s
operators, she discharged furnace oil into the bay causing minor injury to the Jack & Rose’s
property. However, the oil was ignited when molten metal dropped from the wharf and came
into contact with cotton waste floating on the water’s surface. The fire seriously damaged the
wharf and two ships docked there. Will the operator of Titanic be responsible for all the
damages to Jack & Rose including the dock and the two ships?
A. Yes, because they are responsible for all the consequences of its actions
B. No, because further damage was not reasonably foreseeable
C. No, because there was contributory negligence on the part of Jack & Rose
D. Yes, because they suffered serious damaged and there has to be a remedy for that

117. Principle: One of the Fundamental Duties of citizens is to develop scientific temper, humanism,
the spirit of inquiry and reform.
Facts: Under the orders of Human Resource and Development minister, a circular was issued to
all the primary Schools that study of religious texts shall be taught as a part of history and it also
issued orders for removal of some of the scientific theories that are not in line with the sacred
texts. An NGO called ‘Evolution’ wants to file a writ petition against the government for violation
of fundamental duties.
A. The NGO can file the writ and the order will be struck down as it violates the fundamental
duty
B. The order will not be struck down because the ministry has the authority to prescribe syllabus
as per their discretion
C. The order is not against the Fundamental duty
D. NGO cannot file a writ petition for violation of fundamental duty

118. Principle: A misrepresentation is a false statement of fact made by one party to another, which,
whilst not being a term of the contract, induces the other party to enter the contract. The effect
of an actionable misrepresentation is to make the contract voidable.
Facts: An Indian Tobacoo Company ‘Pan Prasad’ roped in a popular Hollywood actor Brosnan
Bond for the promotion of it’s product line including tobacco infused mouth freshner for an

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advanced cheque of 1 million dollar.The contract explicitly stated that he was to endorse a
“breath freshener/tooth whitener”. He was told that he will be advertising for just one product
as Pan Prasad allegedly claimed it was an “all-natural containing neither tobacco, supari, nor any
other harmful ingredient.” After the ad campaign went on air, Brosnan faced criticism for
endorsing a tobacco product and it severely affected his image and career. He demanded the
company to remove him from its advertising campaign, and claimed to have had no prior
knowledge of endorsing something that would harm one’s health.
A. Bond cannot avoid the contract as he had already taken the consideration of 1 million dollar.
B. Bond can file a case of defamation against Pan Prasad for injury to his reputation
C. Bond has the right to rescind the contract and/or claim damages
D. Contract was void ab initio.

119. Principle: The Constitution of India guarantees freedom of speech and expression to all the
citizens subject to the right of the State to make a law and impose restrictions on his freedom in
the interest of sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of State, friendly relations with
foreign States, public order, decency or morality, or in relation to contempt of court,
defamation, incitement of an offence.
Facts: Netchill, a US based Satellite TV company introduced a new service for it’s mature
subscribers that showed X rated adult content which can be viewed in India. The Government of
India passes a law and bans viewing of this channel and other similar channels in India. It also
makes reception and circulation of such programmes a punishable offence. This is likely to result
into considerable financial loss for operators throughout India because they were expecting
massive viewership for netchill’s content. They filed a writ petition in the Supreme Court
challenging the validity of the new law as contradictory to freedom of speech and expression.
A. The law is unconstitutional as it restricts the right to choice by adults
B. The law doesn’t violate freedom of speech and expression
C. Banning such content is violation of Speech and expression. Only limited restriction should be
put
D. The Government is liable to compensate for the loss for operators

120. Principle: Whoever, by words, either spoken or written, or by signs, or by visible representation,
or otherwise, brings or attempts to bring into hatred or contempt, or excites or attempts to
excite disaffection towards the Government established by law in shall be punished for sedition.
Facts: A Youtuber Dheeraj Rath uploads a video in his channel that exposed that the current
government has come to power by having an unholy nexus with the Election Commission and
tampering with the EVM Machines. He presents real facts and evidences from reliable sources
that proves his claim without any reasonable doubt and he also shows that it is practically
impossible to fight with them in a court of law as they have “bought” every organ of the
Democracy. He asks his viewers that since it is not possible to overthrow the government by
lawful means, it is time to become Bhagat Singh and Finish those people who murdered
democracy.
A. He cannot be booked for sedition because he is talking against government that was “not
established by law”
B. He can be booked for sedition
C. He cannot escape the sedition charges as government has all the agencies at it’s disposal

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D. He Cannot be booked for sedition because his claims are backed by reliable sources and
evidences

121. Principle: An agreement enforceable in a court of law is a contract


Facts: Sanjay was a film producer who was having facing difficulty with the release of Padyuman,
a historical Fiction movie that Jauhars, a particular community was objecting to. To clear the
doubt that there’s nothing controversial in the movie, he invited some of his friends from large
media houses for an exclusive premier show so that they watch the movie before release and
give positive reviews about the same in their respective news channel for public support and
promotion. He offered them VIP treatment along with a special dinner and expensive gift for
their time. All the Journalists spoke well about the movie, but one of the invited journalists
Arnab also received money from leaders of Jauhar Community and he not only revealed the
whole plot of Padyuman, scene by scene in his news channel but severely criticized the movie
and blamed others for being a “sold out” to give a clean chit to Sanjay. Arnab gained significant
TRP by his act and Sanjay’s efforts and money were in vain. Sanjay sued him for breach of
contract.
A. Sanjay can sue Arnab as he not only breached the contract but also trust
B. The Object and consideration was not illegal
C. There was no intention to enter into a legally binding contract
D. This was against the ethics of Journalism

122. Principle: When a person is in a position to dominate another`s will and uses that position to
procure an unfair contract, such contracts can be avoided.
Facts: Aanchal was an aspiring medical student who couldn’t procure admission in any decent
medical college in India. She applied for Admission in a medical college in Nepal. The Nepali
College required for the completion of course in 6 years, and compulsory serving in Nepal for at
least 5 years after the completion of her course. She was also required to clear a highly
competitive written test to be able to practice in India. After 6 years when her course was
complete, Aanchal’s parents had arranged for her wedding in Lucknow (India). She was not in
position to spend 5 more years in Nepal so she asked them to release her from the service
agreement. The Nepali College withheld her medical degree and refused to allow her to leave
Nepal.
A. The contract was voidable as undue influence was used
B. Aanchal willingly entered into such a contract with full knowledge so there was no undue
influence
C. Aanchal had option to study anywhere else but she chose to agree to the terms of Nepali
College hence no undue influence
D. Aanchal is bound to fulfill the terms of the contract

123. Principle: Right to privacy is a fundamental right


Facts: Govind Jharwal was the Chief minister of a state and he had promised to install CCTV
cameras in all public places for safety and efficiency. He ordered that CCTV’s should be installed
in all the classrooms of government run primary schools in the state and parent’s of the wards
be given live access to what is happening inside classrooms. Parents and students were quite
happy happy with the order but the college management did not want their mode of imparting

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education and internal functioning be made public in this manner. They filed a writ against the
order claiming that it’s violation of their right to privacy.
A. It was a violation of right to privacy
B. It was not a violation of right to privacy
C. It was not a violation of right to privacy because parents were happy with the order
D. The college management must be transparent in their functioning

124. Principle I: If there is undue influence on a party to an agreement,he may refuse to perform the
agreement.
Principle II: For a Valid Contract, there has to be lawful Object and consideration
Facts: Mr. Gaurav was living in a rented Bungalow paying a rent of Rs 15 Thousand per month.
He started his small business that needed staff of around 7-8 people in that residential area,
where use of the property for commercial purpose was not allowed by local municipal laws.
When the Landlord discovered that Gaurav is using his residential property for commercial
purpose, he asked him to leave his premises. Gaurav had nowhere to go at such a short notice so
he requested the landlord to accept a hiked rent of Rs 25 thousand per month and allow him to
secretly and silently carry on his small business in that premise. Landlord agreed for 25 thousand
rent agreement but at the time of paying the rent, Gaurav sent only Rs 15 thousand and said
that he agreed for 25 Thousand under undue influence.
A. The new rent agreement is void
B. The new rent agreement is voidable
C. The new rent agreement is valid as far as rent for residential purpose is concerned and invalid
for the commercial use
D. The agreement is voidable at the option of the landlord

125. Principle: The tort of Conspiracy necessarily involves that when the object of persons combining
is to protect or further their legitimate interest rather than causing damage to the plaintiff that
is justification for their combination and they will not be liable even though their concerted act
causes damage to the plaintiff.
Fcats: Mr. Bhaskar was accustomed to take his newspaper from Raghu withdraw his custom
from him and started taking the newspapers from Rajiv. Members of a committee of circulation
managers of daily suppliers threatened the cutting of the supply of newspaper to Rajiv if he
continued to supply newspapers to Bhaskar. Are the members of the committee liable for
Conspiracy?
A. Yes, as they combine for the purpose of willful causing damage to Rajiv
B. No, as they acted to protect and promote their business interests
C. No, as they did not threaten to commit violence
D. Yes, because there is no lawful justification in this threat

126. Principle 1: Acceptance of an offer is complete when the acceptance is put into the course of
transmission so as to be out of the power of the acceptor.
Principle 2: Acceptance once completed makes the agreement binding on both the parties.
Facts: Ravi Kumar offered to sell his DSLR Camera for Rs 11,000 and indicated the same to
Satyam via Whatsapp text. Satyam got tempted by the offer and immediately sent his
acceptance in reply. The reply message however showed “One tick” i.e it was sent by Satyam but

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not received by Ravi. In this short duration Ravi reconsidered his offer to raise the price to Rs
15,000and deleted his previous text within five minutes by selecting the option “Delete for
everyone”. He received acceptance text by Satyam for Rs 11000 offer but he refused to sell it for
11,000. Satyam sued Ravi for breach of Contract.
A. Ravi is not bound by Contract because he changed his mind within five minutes
B. Ravi is bound by contract because Satyam had already sent his acceptance for that offer
C. There was no legally binding contract as it was an informal chat
D. Ravi is not bound by contract because he withdrew his offer by deleting the text.

127. Principle: Whoever delivers to any other person as genuine any counterfeit currency which he
knows to be counterfeit, but which he did not know to be counterfeit at the time when he
received it is guilty of an offence.
Facts: Boman buys a carton of liquor at a wine shop and Gives a note of Rs 2000. Due to excess
crowd and chaos, the shop owner was taking money and receiving change in great hurry. He
mistakenly handed over a counterfeit note of Rs 500 as change to Boman. Boman noticed the
same while he was about tho leave so he entered the queue once again to clarify and exchange
the note. The shop owne, Baburao who was busy with customers refused to entertain and
accept that it was delivered to Boman by him. Boman comes back after sometime, buys three
bottles of beer and taking advantage of the crowd, returns the counterfeit note to Baburao.
A. Baburao is guilty of delivering counterfeit coin to Boman
B. Boman is guilty of delivering counterfeit coin to Baburao
C. None is Guilty as the note is where it belonged initially
D. There is no offence by either of the party as there is a common misunderstanding

128. Principle: A bailment is the delivery of goods by one person to another for some purpose, upon
a contract that they shall, when the purpose is accomplished, be returned. In all cases of
bailment the person whom the goods are delivered is expected to take as much care of the
goods as a man of ordinary prudence would, under similar circumstances take of his own goods
of similar nature.
Facts: Ms Bipasha gave a considerable amount of pure gold to M/S Nirav Modi Jewellers to make
necklace of a particular design out of that gold. The jewelers kept the gold in an almirah in their
shop. There was burglary in the shop and the gold given by Ms Bipasha was stolen along with
other jwellery and valuable items belonging to the firm worth crores of Rupees. The burglars
broke open one of the shop windows when the only security guard that was deployed was in the
washroom.
A. Nirav Modi jewelers is not liable to compensate Ms Bipasha because they took as much care
as they took in respect of their own goods which is established by the fact that their own
goods were also stolen along with the gold belonging to Ms Bipasha
B. Nirav Modi Jewelers is liable to compensate Ms Bipasha because it failed to take as much care
as a man of ordinary prudence ought to have taken in respect of the goods entrusted.
C. Nirav Modi Jewelers is not liable to compensate Mr Bipasha because it took reasonable care
in respect of the goods entrusted to it and the burglary could not have been avoided under
any circumstances.
D. The security guard is liable to pay as he was negligent

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129. Principle: Self defence is considered as a universal exception for intentionally causing harm.
Facts: The robbers, armed with knives and crowbars, broke the access door of a house and
entered into it. The owner of the house took out his gun and threatened to shoot them. The
robbers ran out of the house and started pelting stones. The owner opened the fire. Having
heard the gun shot, the police rushed to the place and announced that the owner must stop
firing. The owner, suspecting mischief, continued to fire and a policeman was injured by a shot.
The robbers meanwhile fled away. The owner was sued for attacking the public servant on duty.
A. The owner shall be liable for causing harm, in excess of what is necessary for self defence.
B. The owner shall not be liable for attacking the public servant
C. The owner’s action is justified by the consideration of self defence.
D. The owner can also take the defence of mistake

130. Principle I: According to the Organ Transplantation Act, kidney transplantation is legal, when
kidney is donated by a near relative of the patient. Sale of Kidney however is not legal
Principle II: There has to be a lawful consideration for a valid agreement
Facts: Vijay Raj a kidney patient, requested Siddhu, his Cousin to give his kidney. Siddhu agreed
to the request on the condition that Vijay would give a share to him in his landed property. Vijay
agreed but after the successful transplantation, Vijay went back on his promise. Siddhu sued him
for breach.
A. Vijay is liable to uphold his promise as that was the consideration for his gain
B. Vijay is not liable as the contract is void
C. There was a contract as per valid offer, acceptance and consideration, hence it’s binding
D. Cousin is not considered a near relative hence not valid

131. Principle: Whoever causes death by doing an act with the intention of causing death commits
culpable homicide, punishable under Indian Penal Code.
Dudhua National Park is a protected area wherein hunting is totally forbidden. Radhe, a tourist
had acquired special permission to access restricted areas of the park and he had his air gun with
him for protection along with a forest ranger to assist him but the ranger had specifically asked
him not to use the gun for anything except self defence.. When the ranger went out to attend to
his natural call, Radhe was tempted to shoot a prohibited black buck that he noticed from his
jeep. He pulled the trigger but missed the target and the bullet hit the ranger who was behind
the bush and ranger dies immediately. Is Radhe guilty of culpable homicide.
A. Yes, because he caused death while doing an illegal act
B. Yes, because he was explicitly asked not to use his gun
C. No, because he did not intend to kill the ranger
D. Yes, because he intended to cause death of the Black Buck.

132. Principle: The owner of immovable property is entitled to the column of airspace above the
surface. However, the owner’s right to air and space above his land is restricted to such height as
is necessary for the ordinary use and enjoyment of his land and the structures on it.
Facts: Jhingalala TV Network Company is providing cable connections to their customers. One of
the cables passes over the house of Thakur Clan. He is not a customer of the Jhingalala. The
cable is neither attached to his house nor to any projection thereof. It is at a distance of 20 feet
above the terrace of Thakur Clan’s two storeyed house. Because of the cable, Mr. Clan’s son

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Abhi is unable to fly a kite from the terrace. Thakur requested the Network Company to change
the position of the cable. But the company did not bother to change it. One evening Mr. Bhat cut
the cable and cleared the airspace above his house. The Network company suffered monetory
loss and They brought a legal action against Thakur Clan.
A. The Network Company will succeed because the cable was not interfering with the ordinary
use and enjoyment of Thakur’s property
B. The Network Company will not succeed because Thakur has every right to ensure proper
enjoyment of his property by removing objects causing trespass in the air above his property
to a reasonable extent.
C. The Network Company will not succeed because Thakur only Abated the nuisance
D. The network Company will succeed because Thakur’s act was illegal

Directions for Questions 133 to 140: The following question consists of two statements, one labelled
as ‘Assertion’ and the other as ‘Reason’. Read both the statements carefully and answer using the
codes given below.

a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

133. Assertion (A): Common intention implies a pre-arranged plan, prior meeting of minds and prior
consultation between all the persons committing the crime.
Reason (R): The law makes no distinction between the persons or the part played by them in
doing the criminal act.

134. Assertion (A): Culpable homicide becomes murder when the act causes death and is done with
the intention of causing death.
Reason (R): One of the conditions to be satisfied for treating it as a murder is that the injury
intended to be inflicted is sufficient in the ordinary course of nature to cause death.

135. Assertion (A): Under Article 368, the Parliament can amend any provision of the Constitution,
except the basic structure of the Constitution.
Reason (R): The Supreme Court has restricted the absolute power of Parliament to amend any
provision of the Constitution.

136. Assertion (A): 60th Constitutional Amendment Act reduced the voting age from 21 to 18
years of age.
Reason (R): Article 326 recognizes Universal Adult Franchise as essential aspect of Republic
form of government.

137. Assertion (A): Article 14 incorporates equal protection of laws in the Indian Constitution.
Reason (R): Equal protection of laws is based on rule of law.
138. Assertion (A): Indian Constitution has not recognised the doctrine of separation of power in its
absolute rigidity.

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Reason (R): Doctrine of separation of power accommodates a system of checks and balances.

139. Assertion (A): The United Nations cannot perform peace keeping or peace making operations.
Reason (R): United Nations has its own armed forces in the form of the “UN Peacekeeping
Force”.

140. Assertion (A): Harbouring includes supplying a person with shelter, food, money or conveyance.
Reason (R): The supply must relate to evading apprehension.

141. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court for the first time lay down that
Judicial review is the part of basic structure?
A. Keshavananda Bharati vs State of Punjab B. A.K. Roy vs Union of India
C. ADM Jabalpur vs Shiv Kant Shukla D. Minerva Mills vs Union of India

142. The marriage of a 15 year old girl with a 45 year old man is -
A. valid B. invalid
C. voidable at the option of the girl D. voidable at the will of the man

143. Who of the following cannot be appointed as the judge of a high court
A. Retired Judicial officers B. A Lawyer with a practice of 20 years
C. A Judicial officer with 10 years of service D. All of the above are eligible.

144. which of the following doctrine is not related to Article 13 of the Constitution of India
A. Doctrine of Eclipse B. Doctrine of Colorable Legislation
C. Doctrine of Waiver D. Doctrine of severability

145. The ‘Electoral College’ for the election of the President of India constitutes
A. Members of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha
B. Members of the Lok Sabha
C. Members of the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Legislative Assemblies of the States, including
National Capital Territory of Delhi and the Union Territory of Pondicherry
D. Elected Members of the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Legislative Assemblies of the States,
including National Capital Territory of Delhi and the Union Territory of Pondicherry

146. The constitution of India currently consists of


A. 395 Articles B. 444 Articles
C. 448 Articles D. None of the above

147. Who among the following can take the plea of ignorance of Indian Law?
A. Indian Citizens B. Foreigners
C. Indian Citizens Abroad D. None of the above

148. Which of the following writs can be issued to force a public authority to perform a public or
statutory duty?
A. Mandamus B. Habeas Corpus

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C. Certiorari D. Quo Warranto

149. The tort of intentional infliction of emotional distress is a more recent development than the
traditional torts of trespass to the person. To which of those torts is it most closely related?
A. Assault B. Battery
C. False imprisonment D. Detinue

150. Which of the following situations would be sufficient to support a res ipsa loquitur inference of
fault on the part of the defendant?
A. A glass bottle of soda bottled by the defendant explodes in the plaintiff’s hand, injuring the
plaintiff
B. The plaintiff suffers a broken leg in defendant’s hospital while under general anaesthetic for
an operation on her arm
C. The spare tire falls from beneath defendant’s truck and crashes through the windshield of
plaintiff’s car
D. A bottle of wine lands on plaintiff’s head as she walks past defendant’s hotel, which has many
balconies

151. If a thief breaks into a house and suffers electric shock due to live wire on boundary, he cannot
claim damages. The defendant can take which of the following defences?
A. Plaintiff, the wrongdoer B. Private Defence
C. Volenti non fit injuria D. Necessity

152. Consider the following statements:


1. Parties to a Muslim marriage must be of the age of puberty and of sound mind.
2. The parties must not have legal disability.
3. Consent of both the parties must be free.
4. A proposal followed by acceptance is a must.
5. Neither party should have a spouse living at the time of the marriage.
Which of the following combinations satisfies the conditions for a lawful Muslim marriage?
A. 1, 2, 4 and 5 B. 2, 3, 4 and 5 C. 1, 2, 3 and 4 D. 1, 3, 4 and 5

153. The Hindu Succession Act is applicable to:


A. Only Hindus
B. Hindus, Buddhists, Jains and Sikhs
C. Hindus, Buddhists, Jains, Sikhs and Christians
D. 1 and 3

154. If a Hindu women is dying intestate, her property will first devolve upon:
A. Mother and father B. Sons, daughters and husband
C. Heirs of mother D. Heirs of father

155. A marriage with a woman before completion of her Iddat is:


A. Irregular B. Void (batil) C. Voidable D. None of these

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156. Abhi sees Biswa drop his wallte with money in it. Abhi picks up the wallet with the intention of
restoring it but afterwards uses the money to give in Charity. State which offence is committed
by Abhi
A. Theft B. No Offense
C. Criminal breach of trust D. Dishonest misappropriation of property

157. A (deceased) grabbed a gun from the B (accused). In the struggle to collect back the gun, B
mistakenly touched the trigger and the gun went off, killing A. State whether B can be criminally
held liable.
A. B must not be held liable since the act occurred independent of the exercise of his will.
B. B must be held liable because he was holding the gun
C. B must be held liable because he killed A.
D. Both 2 and 3

158. A truck driver due to dense fog could not see a school mini van full of children coming and in
order to avoid collapsing with it, at last moment the driver banged his truck into a car in which a
newly married couple was sitting. Both of them were killed on the spot. Can the truck driver take
the defense of necessity?
A. Yes, as the act was done to avoid a greater harm
B. Yes, as there was no wrongful intention to harm
C. No, his act of killing two people is not justified
D. No, because the driver was driving negligently

159. Which of the following rules reduces the harshness of the principle of Contributory Negligence?
A. Rule of Last Opportunity B. Rule of Strict Liability
C. Rule of Absolute Liability D. Rule of Equity and Natural Justice

160. Which one of the following is not correct?


A. Freedom of speech and expression includes freedom of press.
B. Right to life and personal liberty includes right to carry on any trade and profession
C. Right to equality includes the principles of natural justice
D. Freedom of conscience includes the wearing and carrying of kirpans by the Sikhs

Section – V: Logical Reasoning


161. In a certain code language NATIONAL= 128 and SIGNAL= 72, then find code of CENTURY?
A. 94 B. 98 C. 106 D. 49

162. In a certain code language, SIGN is coded as 49 and ROLL as 57, then the code for STONE is ?
A. 73 B. 78 C. 25 D. 84

163. Find the next term in the series: 5, 11, 21, 64, 191, 765, ____
A. 3060 B. 3061 C. 3059 D. 3999

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164. A clock gains 5 minutes per day. Among the following options, after how many days will it show
the correct time, if it is set correct right now.
A. 720 days B. 80 days C. 300 days D. 148 days

165. A girl going with a boy is asked by a woman about the relationship between them. The girl
replied, "My maternal uncle and his maternal uncle is the same. How is the girl related with that
boy?
A. Sister B. Cousin C. Brother D. Data insufficient

Directions for Questions 166 to 169: These questions are based on information below.

In a racing competition, six participants A, B, C, E, and F are ranked from 1 st to 5 th with Rank 1
being the best. Ranks of C and F are consecutive but none of them is ranked 5 th . B is either
ranked 1 st or 2 nd .
166. If B is ranked 2nd, who could be ranked 1st-
A. E B. C C. A D. Either E or A

167. If none of B, C and F is ranked 2ndand F is one rank above E, what is the rank of A?
A. 2 B. 3 C. 5 D. Data insufficient

168. If A gets a better rank than E, what is the rank of E ?


A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 5

169. If A and E get consecutive ranks, how many arrangements are possible?
A. 8 B. 6 C. 2 D. 4

170. A man is facing east. He makes 200 turns towards his left and then 243 turns towards his right.
Which direction is opposite to the direction he is facing now?
A. East B. North C. South D. West

171. If you write down all the numbers from 1 to 100, then how many times do you write 7?
A. 11 B. 18 C. 20 D. 21

172. A man has 50 socks in his drawer: 20 blue, 16 black and 14 red. The socks of each of the colors
are identical. If he is blindfolded and then how many socks must he take out to be sure that he
has a pair of blue socks?
A. 4 B. 32 C. 31 D. 30

173. Find the next term in the series: A, I, P, V, A, E, ?


A. I B. F C. G D. H

Directions for Questions 174 and 175: These questions are based on information below.

Pramod is the father of Dipu. Dipu is the only son of Tanya. Tanya is the daughter of Shubham. Tanya is
the mother of Guthy. Guthy is the sister of Vidya and Dipu.

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174. If Shubham is married to Sonu, then how is Sonu related to Vidya?


A. Grand-father B. Grand-mother C. Mother D. Cannot be determined

175. How is Pramod related to Guthy?


A. Uncle B. Father C. Mother D. Cannot be determined

Directions for Questions 176 to 178: The following questions are based on information below.

Six persons – P, Q, R, S, T and U are to be divided into two groups – group 1 and group 2 such that P is
always in group 1. Also, R and U always want to be together. Further, T and Q can never be together.

176. If each of the groups contain equal number of members, then who will definitely be in group 1?
A. S B. Q C. T D. Data insufficient

177. If group 2 consists of 3 members such that Q is not a member of group 2, then which among the
following represents the members of group 2?
A. T, P, R B. T, R, U C. R, U, Q D. R, P, T

178. If there is only one person in a group, then in how many ways can the persons be divided into
two groups?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 8

179. In a certain code language, CINEMA is coded as 395541 and MOVIE is coded as 46495. How is
THEATRE coded in the same language?
A. 1851295 B. 2751295 C. 2851295 D. 2851195

180. In a certain code, TOGETHER is written as RQEGRJCT. In the same code, PAROLE will be written
as
A. NCPQJG B. NCQPJG C. RCPQJK D. RCTQNC

181. When people visit the Louvre after buying the tickets, they look only for the popular and
ubiquitous Mona Lisa. The time and money they spend goes waste as other great works of art
and artefacts curated at the museum make little sense to them. Some knowledge of history of
art is essential if one were to really appreciate and enjoy a visit to the Louvre.
Which of the following if true supports the argument given above?
A. Entry tickets for the Louvre are expensive and the large museum requires at least a day to
see.
B. Louvre is too big and expansive, one can make a select list of items to see.
C. Each work of art has a story to tell.
D. Not only work of art, if one were to enjoy a visit to a place, some knowledge of its history
would be helpful in making the most of the visit.

182. Almost all modern buildings- commercial or residential -have smoke detectors, water sprinklers
and other firefighting equipment along with CCTV security cameras. The buildings have clearly

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demarcated fire exits and emergency numbers prominently displayed. In spite of these the
number of fire incidents and casualties resulting from fire have increased substantially over the
years.
Which of the following, if true, best explains the situation given above?
A. Pollution, which is so widespread now, worsens the harmful effects of a fire.
B. Building interiors today use a lot of wood, plastic and other similar material.
C. Firefighting equipment can be useful only if used properly and timely.
D. Firefighting devices are increasingly being used only because of the jump in fire incidents.

183. Although agriculture contributes only about 20% to the nation’s GDP, the agriculture sector still
remains important in country with lot of initiatives being launched for the welfare of the farmers
and farming. The budget gives the sector a substantial allocation. The Government also has
several departments that work for different areas of the agriculture sector and regularly launch
programmes to support farmers and other farm producers.
Which of the following, if true, best explains the government’s focus on agriculture in spite of its
low share in the GDP?
A. Government’s focus is a lot on gaining popularity to get votes in elections.
B. There is a substantial gap in the per capita incomes of rural and urban population.
C. A large percentage of population is dependent on agriculture as the primary source of
income.
D. Agriculture remains the focus area in economies across the world.

184. There have often been doubts raised on the prejudiced attitude of some judges and many have
pointed to subjective judgments in several cases. The fact that judgments passed by lower courts
are often overturned when the same cases are taken to higher courts for review supports the
reservation on the impartiality of judges.
Which of the following, if true, least supports the argument given above?
A. Hearings at review cases are mostly supported by fresh evidence.
B. Corruption is present across all professions.
C. One out of 65 cases when presented at higher court gave a judgment different from what was
awarded earlier.
D. A proposal has been moved which would establish a body looking over the works of the
courts.

185. An appeal by an NGO: Water is a scarce resource. A study has estimated that on Holi, we may
use up half a day’s supply of municipal water in playing Holi. Play Holi only with the dry gulal
(colour powder) and avoid wastage of precious resource water.
Which of the following, if true, will least support the appeal?
A. People are generally insensitive to matters that do not directly affect them.
B. Municipal water supply is often from far away reservoirs from where water is pumped and
filtered before being supplied.
C. Holi is a joyous festival and is synonymous with colours.
D. The authorities have arranged to supply additional water on Holi to be compensated for by
reduced supply over the next week.

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Directions for questions 186 to 190: In the following questions, a statement is followed by two
sentences (assumptions) marked I and II. Mark your answer as:

A. If only assumption I is implicit.


B. If only assumption II is implicit.
C. If neither I nor II is implicit.
D. If both I and II are implicit.

186. Statement: In today’s stressful modern life, it is necessary to have a spiritual guru who can guide
us to finding inner peace.
Assumptions: I. Inner peace is difficult to find.
II. Inner peace is essential.

187. Statement: Once electric cars become affordable, cars running on petroleum will become
obsolete.
Assumptions: I. Petroleum is a non-renewable resource.
II. Electric cars are advantageous.

188. Statement: You must give at least one evening every week to reading literature.
Assumptions: I. People are too busy to read literature.
II. People generally do not read.

189. Statement: An organisation must promote employees on the basis of their competencies and
not on the basis of seniority alone.
Assumptions: I. Some people may not learn over the years.
II. People have varying degrees of ability to learn.

190. Statement: We must go to the college and deposit our examination form well in advance and
not wait for the last date.
Assumptions: I. There is lot of rush just before the last date of submission.
II. Forgetfulness is very common.

Directions for questions 191 to 195: Read the passage given below, and in the context of the passage,
examine each of the inferences that follow and mark the answers as:

A. If the inference is definitely true.


B. If the inference is probably true.
C. If the inference is probably false.
D. If the inference is definitely false.

About 44 cents out of every dollar spent online in America flows to Amazon, according to eMarketer, a
research firm. The firm’s success can be attributed in part to speed and convenience. To get orders to
customers as quickly as possible, the company relies on a vast network of warehouses the size of
aircraft carriers where the company stores its products and processes orders. Amazon operates more
than 75 “fulfilment centres” and 35 sorting centres in America, manned by 125,000 full-time workers.

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To keep costs in check, Amazon must not only maintain dozens of warehouses, but run them efficiently.
Whereas traditional shop workers might remain idle for hours at a time, Amazon’s workers—the
“stowers” that stock inventory, the “pickers” that pluck items from shelves and the “packers” that box
them up for shipment—are constantly moving. Pickers are equipped with hand-held devices that show
them what each item looks like, where it may be found, and how to get there as quickly as possible. As
they navigate row after row of shelves, timers count down the seconds needed to retrieve each item. To
meet performance targets, pickers must collect as many as 1,000 items and walk up to 15 miles in a
single shift.

191. Doing a job efficiently results in saving money.

192. Amazon is the biggest online company in America.

193. Amazon employees are some of the highest paid in the industry in America.

194. Shipment of a wrong item to a customer is a frequent occurrence at Amazon.

195. Amazon warehouses work a single shift in a day.

Directions for Questions 196 to 200: Each question has a set of two or more statements followed by
four options (A) – (D) with one statement each. From the options, choose the one that may be
concluded from the two statements in the question.

196. Statements: All colourful are flowers.


Some flowers are sweet-smelling.
A. Some colourful are sweet smelling.
B. Some flowers are colourful and sweet smelling.
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of the above.

197. Statements: Some surveys are conducted.


All conducted are false.
A. Some false are conducted.
B. Some surveys are conducted false.
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of the above.

198. Statements: Some bricks are mortar.


All mortar is concrete.
All bricks are red.
A. Some concrete is red.
B. Some concrete is not mortar.
C. No red is mortar.
D. No brick is concrete.

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199. Statements: All smoothies are sweet.


All sweet are healthy.
Some runners are healthy.
A. Some smoothies are runners.
B. Some healthy are runners.
C. Some sweet are runners.
D. All follow.

200. Statements: Some oranges are Nagpuri.


Some Nagpuri are naarangi.
All Nagpuri are citrus.
A. Some citrus are oranges.
B. Some naarangi are oranges.
C. Some citrus are not naarangi.
D. Some naarangi are not citrus.

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