00 Set 1 B2 08.06 Paper Cover (20 Files Merged)

Euro Examinations
Practice Test  Level B2  Set One
CONTENTS
Exam Guide Page 2 Answer Keys Page 57
Test 1 Test 1: Reading

Reading  The Answer Key Page 58
 Question Paper Page 5
 Answer Sheet Page 15 Test 2: Listening
 The Answer Key Page 60
Test 2  The Tapescript Page 62
Listening
 Question Paper Page 17 Test 3: Writing
 Answer Sheet Page 21  Marking schemes Page 66
 Sample answer Page 68
Test 3
Writing Test 4: Grammar and Vocabulary
 Question Paper Page 23  The Answer Key Page 70
 Answer Sheet Page 26
Test 5: Mediation
Test 4  Answer Key for Part A Page 73
Grammar and Vocabulary  The Tapescript Page 74
 Question Paper Page 27  Answer Key for Part B Page 75
 Answer Sheet Page 33  Sample answer Page 76
Test 5 Test 6: Speaking

Mediation Part A  Marking schemes Page 78
 Question and Answer Sheet Page 37
Mediation Part B
 Question Paper Page 39
 Answer Sheet Page 43
This publication has been printed on
Test 6 recycled paper.
Speaking Page 45
Copyright 2007 Euro Exam ination Centre.
All rights reserved. No parts of this publication may be reproduced, distributed, transmitted, displayed, published or broadc ast w ithout the
prior w ritten permission of the Euro Examination Ltd. The Euroexam is a register ed trademark of Euro Examination Ltd.
Jelen kiadvány teljes egészében szerzői mű, az Euro Nyelvvizsga Kft. szellemi tulajdona. Bárminemű sokszorosítás vagy további
felhasználás kizárólag az Euro Nyelvvizsga Kft. kifejezett írásos hozzájárulásával engedélyezett! Az euroexam az Euro Nyelvvizsga Kft.
Magyarországon és más országokban bejegyzett védjegye.
Revised in April, 2007.

Exam Guide Page 2
Exam Guide Level B2
The Euro and EuroPro exams test communicative competence by testing success in real
communication. Exam tasks are directly based on the Common European Framework of the Council
of Europe. Passing the Euro or the EuroPro Exam indicates that the candidate can undertake a
variety of real-life tasks in English.
Below is a table showing for each test: its name, the number of tasks, the time allowed and the
number of available marks. Each of the tests is then described on the following pages.
In order to pass candidates are expected to achieve 65% of the total marks available, as well as
getting 40% or more in each test. These thresholds will vary slightly from examination to
examination depending of the difficulty of the tasks.
Test number Test Number of tasks Time Marks

Test 1 Reading 4 40’ 25
Test 2 Listening 3 40’ 25
Test 3 Writing 2 60’ 25
Test 4 Grammar & Vocabulary 3 40’ 25
Test 5 Mediation (Optional) 3 20’+30’ 25
Test 6 Speaking 4 10+20’ 25
Approx. 4 hrs 20’
Total time / Marks available 150
+ breaks
Test 1- Reading text of 350-450 words, normally an article,

(Time: 40 minutes) letter or narrative.
Task 1 – Short texts 5 points
You match five short texts (hand-written Test 2 - Listening

notes, short advertisements, notices, (Time: 40 minutes)
instructions, directions, or excerpts from a
leaflet), with one of seven possible responses Task 1 – Short pieces 6 points
(pictures, titles, notes, definitions, etc.). An
example is provided. You listen twice to six short recordings made
in the same location, and match them with
Task 2 – Paragraph Headings 6 points eight pictures or eight short pieces of text,
(e.g. a list, email extracts, advertisements)
There are six paragraphs for which you must
find the most appropriate heading from a Task 2 – Notes 9 points
choice of eight paragraph headings. Two
headings are not needed. An example is You listen twice to an extended monologue.
provided. There are notes based on the text which
contains nine gaps. Each gap requires a piece
Task 3 – Scan Reading 7 points
of information which you must write in no
more than three words, whilst listening.
You read four texts on a single topic and nine
statements containing information from one of
the texts. Your task is to decide which section
each statement comes from. An example is
provided.
Task 4 – Multiple choice 7 points
You answer seven multiple choice

comprehension questions based on a single
Exam Guide Page 3
Task 3 – Radio/TV Programme 10 points Task 2 – Multiple Choice Gap fill 6,25 points
You listen twice to an excerpt from a radio or You receive a written text of 150-200 words
TV programme. You answer ten multiple with ten gaps where a single content word has
choice questions while listening. The been removed. For each gap, the task is to
programme may be news, documentary or choose the correct word from four options.
formal discussion.
Task 3 – Modified Cloze 6,25 points
You receive a written text of 150-200 words

with ten gaps where a single grammar word
has been removed. For each gap, the task is
Test 3 - Writing to write in a correct word.
(Time: 60 minutes)
Task 1 – Transactional Task 12,5 points
You read several pieces of written or

diagrammatic text (leaflets, notes, letters,
maps, timetables) providing a context and Test 5 - Mediation Part A
information for the task. You are asked to (Time: 20 minutes)
write a c.a. 200 word transactional letter,
email or message using the information Task 1 – Dialogue 8 points
provided.
You hear a dialogue of six turns between two
participants, a Hungarian (speaking in
Task 2 – Extended Writing 12,5 points
Hungarian) and an English speaker (speaking
There are three tasks from which you choose in English). One of the speakers may be an
one. You must write a c.a. 200 word text official working in the public sphere. You write
within the genre specified. The type of text down the main points of the conversation in
could be an article, a report, a descriptive or the opposite language to the one you hear.
narrative composition, or a discursive essay. Two examples are given.
Test 5 - Mediation Part B

(Time: 30 minutes)
Test 4 - Grammar and Task 1 – Summary 5 points
Vocabulary You receive text in English of 200-225 words,

(Time: 40 minutes) written in five paragraphs. For each paragraph
you are given three summaries written in
Task 1 – Dictation 12,5 points
Hungarian. You must choose the most
appropriate summary.
You listen to a recorded extended monologue
of 85-120 words. You have to write the text Task 2 – Hungarian to English 7+5 points
down word for word. The text is heard three
times, once all the way through with no break. You receive a personal or semi-formal letter of
The text is then heard again broken down into about 80 words written in Hungarian. You
small units with each unit repeated once. have to translate the letter into English.
There breaks between units to allow time for
writing.
Exam Guide Page 4
Test 6 - Speaking 25 points

(Time: 10 minutes preparation + 20 minutes interview) Task 3 – Situations
You receive a cue card. The card describes a
You are examined in pairs. There are two situation, your role and gives you an
examiners: one an interlocutor, the other an instruction. You speak, the interlocutor gives a
assessor. You have ten minutes before the scripted reply and then you respond to the
test for preparing Task 2. You may use printed reply. You will have three cue cards. You and
(i.e. non-electronic) dictionaries. your partner will alternate in doing this task.
Task 1 – Warm-up
Task 4 – Communication Task
The interlocutor will ask you one introductory
question, and then two questions on another You receive a topic card which contains a
topic. Topics include travel, work, family, debatable point or question. (e.g. what are
sport, cinema, hobbies, education, some of the problems of living in a foreign
relationships, housing, news and current country?) First you and your partner think of
affairs and the environment. issues which answer the question or contribute
to the debate. Then you discuss, expand on
Task 2 – The Picture Story and prioritise these issues. Task 4 is the only
You receive a picture story with an opening task in the speaking test where you talk to
line; the task is to tell the story. Before your partner.
meeting the examiner, you have ten minutes
to prepare a story. You may make notes in the
preparation stage but should not read aloud
from a prepared script.
LEVEL B2  VANTAGE
Test 1 - Reading
Time: 40 minutes
 Answer all the questions

 Write all your answers on the separate answer sheet
 You must not speak to the other candidates
Test 1 – Reading Page 6
This page is blank!

Task One: Short texts (10 minutes) – Questions 1-5
The following short texts are from a problem page.

 Match the letters with one of the Problems.
 The first one has been done for you.
Example Problems
A My mother-in-law suddenly wants to play grandma
Hello, B My aunt thinks I’ll jump whenever she whistles
Well, this is a tricky one. I C I’m being forced into marriage by my father
hope your husband’s loyal D My husband and I are not really talking and it’s a
serious problem now
to you because it’s him E I think I’m too young for a kid – but I’ve got one
you’ll have to talk to and F My sister-in-law can’t cope with her new life as a
decide what to do – it’s mother
about his mother. She has no G Pride runs in the family – how do I talk to my Dad?
H Financial worries are causing troubles in my
right to the children so marriage
don’t feel pressured.
The example letter matches Problem “A”. The answer ”A” has been written
on t he answer paper.
1 2 3
Hi, Hi, Hi,

These difficulties are hard on You are in an extremely Everyone tells parents how
relationships and depending difficult position and it wonderful it is to have
on what kind of problems seems that you can't avoid babies but no-one prepares
you have, it can make one some kind of trauma. If you them for the shock of having
partner feel very bitter about go along with your parents’ a new life in their world.
the other. Talk to each other wishes you could end up Your brother and his wife
and try to be constructive: being a miserable wife for the will need to sort out the
If you are in debt, don’t rest of your life, if you go question of who’s doing
blame each other and if it’s against them you might be what themselves; the only
4 5
Hi, Hi,
Be proud of being a father. This is a difficult situation.
You have brought another Of course you want things
human being into the world to be OK, but it is
who is going to look to you reasonable to want some
for love, support and time to yourself, too. Why
guidance and they don’t don’t you write her a letter?
care you are only eighteen. She needs to understand that
Baby years are usually the you have your own life and
most difficult ones but can’t always be there for her.
Task Two: Paragraph Headings (10 minutes) – Questions 6-11
 Read the text and match the paragraph heading to the appropriate
paragraph.
 The first one has been done for you.
 There are two extra paragraph titles that you do not need.
A PLACES TO VISIT
B EVENTUALLY ACCEPTED
C SIR WILLIAM’S RETIREMENT
D SOMETHING FOR EVERYONE (EXAMPLE)

E THE ISLAND’S CELTIC CASTLES
F GETTING ABOUT
G INSPIRATION FOR A NEW PROJECT
H ANOTHER IDEA The flag of the Isle of Man

GETTING THERE
The Isle of Man
Situated midway between England and Ireland, the Isle of Man is a sleepy
haven of peace and tranquillity. The island also has something for lovers of
the fast-paced too, hosting the world famous Tourist Trophy motorcycle
races and other motor sport events for which the island is internationally
renowned.
Example: Paragraph “D” is the best heading
6. 600 miles of uncluttered roads criss-cross breathtaking scenery as do many

well-maintained footpaths. As well as enjoying a wide range of country
pursuits or sea sports, visitors can go back to another era by experiencing
one of the Isle of Man’s vintage transport systems - steam railway, electric
tram or horse tram.
7. The island’s history dates back more than 10,000 years. In 1997 a new £6
million heritage centre, the House of Manannan, opened in Peel, on the
Island’s west coast. It provides information about a variety of historical
sights ranging from Celtic monuments to the best preserved medieval
fortress in Britain - Castle Rushen. All these sights are accessible to tourists.
8. The Isle of Man was also the birthplace of the Royal National Lifeboat
Institution. Sir William Hillary, the founder, got his idea for the service after
moving to the Island in 1808. From his Fort Anne mansion overlooking
Douglas Bay, he was aware of the treacherous nature of the Irish Sea with
many boats being wrecked around the Island’s coast. He drew up plans for
a lifeboat service run by trained crews.
9. Initially he received little response from the Admiralty but on appealing to
the more philanthropic members of London society, the plans were
enthusiastically adopted and the Royal National Lifeboat Institution for the
Preservation of Life from Shipwreck (which later became the RNLI) was
founded in 1824.
10. At the age of 60, Sir William took part in the rescue of the Royal Mail Steam
Packet St. George, which foundered on Conister Rock at the entrance to
Douglas harbour. He commanded the lifeboat and everyone aboard the St
George was rescued with no loss of life. The experience prompted him to
build the Tower of Refuge on Conister Rock. Completed in 1832, the tower
provided shelter for shipwrecked mariners until the lifeboat could reach
them. Until recently, the tower was constantly kept supplied with fresh
bread and water.
11. The Isle of Man is ideally placed for yachtsmen to visit en route from
Scotland or Ireland, and take shelter in one of the Isle of Man’s pretty
harbours. However, there is easy access by air or sea. Major carriers are:
The Isle of Man Steam Packet Company which operates passenger and
ferries between the ports of Douglas and Heysham/Liverpool and Manx
Airlines, which operates regular flights from many UK airports including
Heathrow, Luton, Liverpool, as well as Dublin.
Task Three: Scanning for Information (10 minutes) – Questions 12-18

 Read the following biographies of famous celebrities and decide if the
information is in text A, B, C or D.
Example: They were an untidy couple.

The correct answer is: A
Information to find:
12. They lived together for a decade before getting married.

13. They owned a huge piece of land.
14. It is said they can understand each other without words.
15. They spend their wealth on humanitarian causes.
16. They had a fabulous ceremony when they got married.
17. These people were literary soul mates.
18. One member of this couple was named after some clothes.
Text A:
Iris Murdoch & John Bayley
A libertine spirit with a brilliant mind, Iris Murdoch was a

woman ahead of her time: philosopher, author of 26
novels, and winner of the prestigious literary Booker
Prize. She also had a sensual, spellbinding presence that
cast a powerful spell on everybody who met her,
including her husband, Oxford professor and writer John
Bayley. They were together for 43 years.
They lived in Oxford in a famously chaotic household.

He did the cooking, she did the shopping, and in addition
to their literary and academic pursuits, they were
enthusiastic travelers, dance partners, poker players—and, above all, swimmers. They never had any
children, and while she had affairs that Bayley tolerated, it was by all accounts, a supremely happy union of
two scholars.
Text B:
Paul Newman & Joanne Woodward
In Hollywood, a town where marriages fade faster than a bad movie, actors Paul Newman and Joanne
Woodward are as famous for their marital success as for their Oscars. How have they managed to stay
together for 44 years?
It probably helps that they live in Connecticut, not in fantasyland. They also share a profession, three
grown children and an interest in philanthropy. Even the stars favor this glamorous couple. “You
stimulate each other’s intellect,” says a Web astrologer, looking over the couple’s 2002 horoscopes. “You
challenge each other’s world view. At times you may read each other’s minds and finish each other’s
sentences. You can be a mentally and technically creative team.”
Newman and Woodward also sponsor the Save the Children foster parent campaign and a camp for children
with life-threatening illnesses. In 1982 Newman set up a multimillion-dollar corporation that markets
everything from popcorn to spaghetti sauce. All profits go to charity.
Text C:
Sting & Trudie Styler
In an extravagant, fairy-tale wedding attended by lots of celebrity friends, Sting, the world-renowned
singer and songwriter, married his long-time love, Trudie Styler, an actress and film producer. This 1992
ceremony not only celebrated the couple’s ten years together, but also their three children (they’ve since
had a fourth) and their collaborative work for environmental causes.
Born Gordon Sumner in 1951 into a working class family in Newcastle, England, Sting got his name from
fellow musicians—a tribute to the striped “bee-like” shirts he wore. Teacher by day, punk rocker by night,
he made it big in 1979 when his band, The Police, produced the hit single Roxanne.
In the early 80s, shortly before The Police was formed and his first marriage broke up, Sting met the
vivacious blond Styler. Born in England in 1955, Trudie had run away from home at age 17 with dreams
of becoming an actress. She went on to attend the Bristol Old Vic Theatre School and has acted in and
produced a number of movies, including Lock, Stock and Two Smoking Barrels.
Text D:
George & Olivia Harrison
Olivia Harrison was by her husband’s side when the legendary “quiet” Beatle died of cancer last year at
age 58. So was their son, Dhani, 24.
Always a sweetly serene couple in public, the Harrisons weren’t a favourite of the sensational newspapers
that hunt famous rock guitarists. Perhaps it was because they met after the Beatles, arguably the best pop
group of all time, had disbanded. They met after the scandal of George’s first marriage, which ended when
his wife, model Patti Boyd, took off with his best friend, superstar guitarist Eric Clapton. The friendship
survived the betrayal, thanks to George’s forgiving nature.
George met Olivia Arias, an assistant in the merchandising department at A&M records, in the late 70s.
She was smart, pretty and centered. In 1978, they got married and had Dhani, their only child. In England,
they lived in a handsome mansion in Henley-on-Thames, not far from London. It had high walls and
extensive grounds, where George grew all kinds of plants. The couple loved to travel to India together, to
study yoga and meditation.
Task Four: Reading for detailed information (10 minutes) – Quest ions 19-
-25
You are going to read an article about smoking. Answer the questions with the
answer that you think fits best according to the text.
 Read the text and answer the questions after it.
By Caren Benjamin
Nobody smokes in Catherine Nagle's house. Nobody. When smokers come to visit, she hands them an
ashtray and tells them to step outside if they want to have a cigarette. She won't even make an
exception for her mother-in-law – though her husband made her break the news.
Nagle believes the fact that her 16-year-old son doesn't smoke, despite typical teenage peer pressure, is
thanks largely to the household's total smoking ban. "I think the fact that we won't let his grandmother
or aunts or uncles smoke in the house shows how firmly we believe that smoking is bad," she says.
"He sees that we think it’s wrong for adults to do it so he won’t think 'it's something I can do when I
get to be 18 when it's legal.' "
A study in the Journal of the American Medical Association suggests she is on the right track. The
study found that a total ban on smoking in the home is the most effective way to keep teenagers from
picking up the habit. Whether or not parents smoke is still the most important factor, but the JAMA
study found children of non-smoking parents who let other people smoke in their home are almost as
likely to become smokers as kids from homes where at least one parent smokes and there is a total
ban.
Ideally, the home smoking ban should be in place when your child is born. Aside from the obvious
health reasons, there are good sociological reasons for this. If you've got young children, then usually
it's not difficult for parents to ask relatives not to smoke in the house. Grandparents, uncles and friends
think that's a right that parents have. By the time the child is 15 or 17, it's a much harder sell, in fact by
that age it's probably not worth the fight.
Even in a household where one parent smokes, a total ban can still be very effective. If mom makes
dad smoke on the porch, and dad agrees to do so, that's a pretty significant message to kids about the
dangers of smoking and about the fact that even the adult smoker knows the behavior is dangerous.
As an added bonus, for smokers who are forced outside their homes to smoke, the habit becomes
something they have to consciously choose to do. They think to themselves “'Do I want to get up and
have a cigarette, or do I want to stay here and finish watching this TV show?" As often as not, they
choose the TV show. As nicotine consumption decreases, so does addiction level, eventually making it
easier for the parent to quit smoking.
Questions for Task Four:

19. Which of the following is the best A One parent smokes but nobody is
summary of the text? allowed to smoke in the house.
A The best way to stop your children B Neither parent smokes but visitors
from becoming smokers is to stop are allowed to smoke in the house.
relatives from smoking in your C Neither parent smokes and nobody
house. is allowed to smoke in the house.
B Teenagers are more likely to D None of the child’s family or friends
smoke if they see their family smoke.
smoking.
C The best way to stop your children
from becoming smokers is not to 23. What is the main reason a smoking
allow anybody to smoke in your ban should be in place from the
house. time the child is born?
D Teenagers are more likely to A It might help relatives give up
smoke if their parents smoke. smoking.
B It is easier to persuade people not
to smoke around a young child.
20. Why, in Catherine Nagle’s opinion,
C Smoking has a damaging effect on
doesn’t her son smoke?
the health of a young child.
A His mother does not allow him D Smokers don’t like the smell of a
smoke anywhere.
young child.
B Because the ban on adults smoking
in the house makes him see it is
wrong. 24. Why does a parent agreeing to
C His friends don’t smoke and peer smoke outside reduce the risk of a
group pressure is so strong he child smoking?
doesn’t do it either.
A It shows that the smoker knows that
D He is not 18 and it is not legal for
smoking is unhealthy.
him to smoke.
B It shows that women can tell men
what to do.
21. Which of the following most C It makes it easier to persuade
closely reflects Catherine Nagle’s friends and relatives to smoke
opinion? outside.
A Smoking should be banned. D The child associates smoking with
B Smoking outdoors reduces the being cold.
health risk for her son.
C Her husband should tell people 25. How does smoking outside help the
bad news. smoker?
D You should stick to your principles,
A They watch less television
even if it makes life difficult
sometimes.
B They get fresh air while smoking.
C Smoking becomes inconvenient so
the smoker is likely to smoke less.
D They don’t have to speak to their
husband / wife while smoking
22. Children are most likely to become
smokers in which of the following
households?
That is the end of the Reading test

This page is blank!

Test 1 – Reading ANSWER SHEET Page 15
TEST 1: READING – ANSWER SHEET
Candidate Number:
E I
Centre
Candidate Code
Code
Task One: Short Texts – Questions 1-5
Question Your Answer
E xa mp le 
A B C D E F G H
1 A B C D E F G H
2 A B C D E F G H
3 A B C D E F G H
4 A B C D E F G H
5 A B C D E F G H
Task Two: Paragraph Headings – Questions 6-11
E xa mp le A B C D E F G H I
6 A B C D E F G H I
7 A B C D E F G H I
8 A B C D E F G H I
9 A B C D E F G H I
10 A B C D E F G H I
11 A B C D E F G H I
Test 1 – Reading ANSWER SHEET Page 16
Task Three: Scanning for Information – Questions 12-18
Question Your Answer Question Your Answer
E xa mp le 
A B C D 15 A B C D
12 A B C D 16 A B C D
13 A B C D 17 A B C D
14 A B C D 18 A B C D
Task Four: Reading for Detailed Information – Questions 19-25
19 A B C D
20 A B C D
21 A B C D
22 A B C D
23 A B C D
24 A B C D
25 A B C D
Test 2 - Listening
Time: approx. 40 minutes

 You may write on the question paper but make sure you
write all your answers on the separate answer sheet
(You will have 5 minutes at the end of the test for this)
Test 2 - Listening Page 18
Task One: Short Conversations – Questions 1-6
Someone is showing presents to their friend and explaining w ho they bought

them for and why.
 You will hear six short conversations.
Listen, look at the pictures and decide which picture is the correct
illustration for each conversation.
 Write the letter next to the question number on the answer sheet.
 You will hear each recording twice.
Pictures
A B C D
E F G H
Task Two: Making Notes – Questions 7-15
You will hear an interview from a radio talk show called Standing Up for Yourself.
 Look at the notes. The notes contain nine gaps.

 You have one minute to read the notes.
 Now listen to the speaker and fill in the gaps with

a maximum of 3 words.
 Do not write more than 3 w ords in one gap.
 You will hear the recording twice.
Matt Thompson, a man of principle?
Matt Thompson
Matt’s job
 He found his job ___7___.
 He used to go to Miss Gold to pick up the ___8___.
 He was annoyed because he often had to ___9___.
Lorna
 Lorna was employed as a ___10___.
 Matt approached Miss Gold in order to ___11___.
 In the meeting with Miss Gold he felt ___12___.
After Matt left the firm
 Matt wrongly thought his wife would ___13___.
 Matt’s marriage ___14___.
 Now Matt thinks in defending his principles he ___15___.

Task Three: A Radio Programme – Questions 16-25
You are going to listen to a radio programme called Looking Back.

 On the test paper you have 10 multiple choice questions about
the programme.
 Choose the best response (A, B, C or D) for questions 16 -25.
(Tick [] A, B, C or D on the answer sheet.)
 You will hear the recording twice.
 You have two minutes to read the questions before
the recording starts.
20. At the first school, Graham really
Questions for Task Three: liked…
A the physical activities.
16. Graham started school… B snails and fish.
A in 1926. C looking after the nature table.
B in 1925. D model-making and drawing.
C on his fifth birthday.
D on his sixth birthday.
17. Graham…
A never walked to school with his 21. T he Big School…
mother. A had 50 in a class.
B did exercises on his way to school. B had at least 40 in a class.
C only twice walked to school. C was in the centre of Cambridge.
D didn’t mind walking to school. D was just outside Cambridge.
18. Graham’s first teacher… 22. When he was 13, Graham played
A was 18. football…
B left and had a child. A for the first time.
C was very strict. B in a team.
D was the headmaster. C only with cans and bits of tyres.

D every week.
19. T he children at the first school…
A were not physically punished. 23. On his 11th birthday, Graham…
B were punished for talking.

A learnt to ride a bike.
B was given a brand new bike.
C shouted a lot.
C met his cousin John.
D were taught in three classes.
D had a bike for the first time.
24. Did Graham enjoy being at school?

A Yes, very much A It’s better in every way.

B Absolutely not B It’s worse in every way.
C He enjoyed some things about it. C It’s better in some ways, worse in
D He only liked the first school. others.
D He doesn’t say.
25. What does he say about life for
children today?
THAT IS THE END OF THE LISTENING TEST. YOU NOW HAVE 5

MINUTES TO TRANSFER YOUR ANSWERS ONTO THE SEPARATE
ANSWER SHEET.
Test 2 – Listening ANSWER SHEET Page 21
TEST 2: LISTENING – ANSWER SHEET
Candidate Number:
E I
Centre
Candidate Code
Code
Task One : Short Conversations – Questions 1-6
1 A B C D E F G H
2 A B C D E F G H
3 A B C D E F G H
4 A B C D E F G H
5 A B C D E F G H
6 A B C D E F G H
Task Two: Making Notes – Questions 7-15
7 12
Do not write here! Do not write here!

8 13

9 14

10 15

11
Do not write here!

Task Three: A Radio Programme – Questions 16-25
16 A B C D 21 A B C D
17 A B C D 22 A B C D
18 A B C D 23 A B C D
19 A B C D 24 A B C D
20 A B C D 25 A B C D
Test 3 - Writing
Time: 60 minutes

Test 3 – Writing Page 24
Task One: Compulsory task
 You must answer this question.

You received this letter and information from a friend. You have made notes
next to the information leaflet.
lots of tourists – English –

German
Hi, big beach – v nice but
Great news! You’ll never believe it but I’ve won

a competition. I’m going to Spain for a two
week holiday from 10th – 24th September.
Hotel Nueva – Alicante
Even better, it’s a holiday for two and I want - 300 rooms (all en-suite)
you to come with me! What do you think? We - 10 minutes walk from beach
haven’t been on holiday together for ages and - 15 minutes from town centre
we always had so much fun. The flight and Hotel Grande – Torrenueva
the accommodation are all paid for including - 80 room (all en suite)
breakfast and dinner. - 20 minutes from beach
- 5 minutes walk from old town
Also, there is a choice between two hotels in
different towns and I can’t decide. I know
you’ve been before so which place do you think
is better. I’ve enclosed the leaflet with the
letter.
Let me know what you think as soon as

possible so I can make the arrangements. This historic old town– castle
is going to be so much fun!
etc
Love beach – rocky, quiet
Alex good restaurants, no
Your Task: Write a formal letter to the tourist information office in the town of
your choice requesting further information about conditions, prices and any
special events or programmes during your stay. Include some information about
yourself and your interests. (ca.200 words)
Task Two: Extended writing
 Choose only ONE of the following questions – 1,2 or 3. Write ca. 200 words.
You can include addresses, dates etc if you want to but they will not be marked.
 DO NOT answer more than one question.
1
You see the following advertisement in a newspaper you are reading.
A leading British newspaper – The Correspondent – would

like to publish articles from people living in Central &
Eastern Europe.
The title of the feature is:
‘Approaching the European Union? – Life in Central &

Eastern Europe Today’
Write an article.
You are the chairperson of your local residents’ committee.

A multinational company would like to build a shopping
centre in your neighbourhood. Your neighbours have asked
you to write a report to the local council summarising the
advantages and disadvantages from the residents’ point of
view.
Write the report.
3
You see the following in a newspaper.
Win a trip to anywhere in the world! The prize will be awarded

to the writer who gives the most interesting or unusual reason
for wanting to go or the best description of how you would
spend your time there.
Don’t forget to tell us where you want to go!
The best story wins an all expenses paid week in your chosen
location.
Write the composition.

Test 3 – Writing ANSWER SHEET Page 26
TEST 3: WRITING – ANSWER SHEET
Candidate Number:
E I
Centre
Candidate Code
Code
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Test 3 – Writing ANSWER SHEET Page 26
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Test 4
Grammar & Vocabulary
Time: 20 minutes + dictation

Test 4 – Grammar & Vocabulary Page 28
This page is blank!

Task One: Dictation – Skiing
In this part of the test you will hear a text about getting ready for
a skiing holiday.
 You must write down every word in the text on the

numbered lines on the separate Answer Sheet.
 You will be marked for getting the correct words and correct spelling.
 You will hear the text three times:

First - you will hear the whole text.
Then - you will hear small pieces of the text.
These will each be repeated once.
You may make notes on this sheet of paper but please make sure you write
your answers on the answer sheet provided.
Your notes
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
DON’T FORGET to copy your answers onto the separate answer sheet!
Task Two: Multiple Choice Gap Fill – Questions 1-10

Complete the following article by choosing the correct word from the four
options.
Grenberg’s Town Council: who represents YOU

Saul Denman meets Councillor Arnie Fischer
Councillor Arnie Fischer has been a town councillor for the _EXAMPLE_
fifteen years. We asked him to tell us something about his work.
“Well first of all I should _1_ you in on the area that I _2_. My district of the
town is called Babylon and it _3_ in a wide range of different people.
Babylon _4_ from the centre of the town, right out to the green _5_. It’s
shaped like a hook.
“So the make-up of the district is extremely diverse. Babylon contains a

tiny part of the commercial _6_, a larger piece of the poor inner city and
_7_ out into richer green suburbs. I’ve tended to pick up most of my votes
from the _8_ populated inner city areas.
“Major changes are under way, though. What has happened is that
richer people have _9_ up large amounts of inner city property and have
_10_ them up. The next election will be an up hill struggle for me.”
Questions for Task Two:

Example: A. early B. last C. late D. first
The correct answer is B.
1. A. take B. inform C. tell D. fill
2. A. delegate B. mandate C. represent D. claim
3. A. includes B. gives C. takes D. contains
4. A. moves B. exists C. includes D. runs
5. A. belt B. circumference C. ring D. border
6. A. edge B. centre C. location D. piece
7. A. shorten B. flows C. comes D. extends
8. A. completely B. weightily C. thickly D. densely
9. A. sold B. purchased C. bought D. marketed
10. A. taken B. brought C. made D. done

Task Three: Gap Fill – Questions 11-20
 For questions 11-20, complete the following note by writing the missing
words on the separate answer sheet.
 Use only one word for each space.
 You must think of the word - there are no multiple choices
Example: The correct word is ‘the’.
Diwali, the festival of lights, is perhaps the most

important festival in India and is celebrated on the
darkest night of _Example_ year. Diwali has
always been a festival with _11_ social than
religious connotations. The celebrations include
activities such _12_ the lighting of lamps and
candles or the bursting of crackers. Friends and
neighbours exchange special sweets.
People sometimes buy new clothes, but in certain communities _13_ is
absolutely essential to wear new clothes on this day.
Diwali in India is equivalent to Christmas in the West. Therefore it is also the

time _14_ people get the festival bonus added to _15_ salaries. It marks the
beginning of the New Year for a large majority of Hindus. Preparations for the
festival begin many days prior _16_ Diwali. It is time for a thorough cleaning of
the house _17_ it is believed that Lakshmi will only enter clean and nicely
decorated houses.
_18_ times Diwali celebrations get ugly, especially in the metropolitan cities. In
New Delhi people start bursting crackers in the evening and this continues till
_19_ early hours of the morning. _20_ a result the city is full of toxic fumes and
smoke for almost 10 hours.
Test 4 – Grammar & Vocabulary ANSWER SHEET Page 33
TEST 4: GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY – ANSWER SHEET
Candidate Number:
E I
Centre
Candidate Code
Code
Task One: Dictation
Do not write here
2
Do not write here
3
Do not write here
4
Do not write here
5
Do not write here
6
Do not write here
7
Do not write here
8
Do not write here
9
Do not write here
1
0
Do not write here
1
1
Do not write here
1
2
Do not write here
1
3
Do not write here
TEST 4: GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY – ANSWER SHEET
Candidate Number:
E I
Centre
Candidate Code
Code
Task Two: Multiple Choice Gap Fill – Questions 1-10

Example A B C  D
1 A B C D 6 A B C D
2 A B C D 7 A B C D
3 A B C D 8 A B C D
4 A B C D 9 A B C D
5 A B C D 10 A B C D
Task Three: Gap Fill – Questions 11-20
Example the
Do not write here
11 16
Do not write here Do not write here

12 17

13 18

14 19

15 20

This page is blank!

Test 5
Mediation Part A
Candidate Number:
E I
Centre Candidate Code
Code
Time: approx. 20 minutes

 Write all your answers on this sheet
Test 5 – Mediation Part A Page 38
Task One: Dialogues – Questions 1- 8
 Help your friend who doesn’t speak English. Mediate between the two
people.
 If the person speaks in English, translate into Hungarian. If the person
speaks in Hungarian, translate into English.
 Do not translate e ve ry w ord. Translate only the basic me aning.
 Each person will talk five times. You will hear each line twice. There will
be a pause between each line for you to write down the translation.
 At the end of the conversation you will have two minutes to check what
you have written.
 Re member, you will not have time to translate e ve rything you he ar.
Ex. Write in Example: Prof. Vágó from Budapest. booked room by

1 Englis h fax
Ex. Write in Example: Megvan. Ajánlhatnám, legszebb, tengerre

2 H ungarian néző szobát?
Write in
1 English
Write in
2 Hungari
an
Write in
3 English
Write in
4 Hungari
an
Write in
5 English
Write in
6 Hungari
an
Test 5 – Mediation Part A Page 39
Write in
7 English
Write in
8 Hungari
an
Stop writing when you are told to do so.

Test 5
Mediation Part B
Time: 30 minutes

Test 5 – Mediation Part B Page 40
Task One: Rats – Questions 1- 5
Read the English text. Choose the Hungarian sentences that summarise the
text most accurately.
Study shows rats dream about running mazes

Researchers say they have entered the dreams
of rats and found them running through the
same lab mazes they negotiate during the day.
It is evidence not just that animals dream, but
that they replay events much the way humans
do, and they may use their dreams to learn or
memorise.
The findings could eventually help researchers understand how the human
mind works. "It's really opening a new door into the study of dreams," said
professor Matt Wilson, leader of the study.
But Robert Stickgold, Professor of Psychiatry, said there is no way to prove

researchers were seeing rats dream, "If a rat could tell us, 'Yes, I was
dreaming about running around the track,' then we'd have it nailed down."
The scientists had the rats perform specific tasks in a maze that produced
very distinctive patterns of brain activity. When they repeatedly saw almost
exactly the same patterns reproduced during sleep, they concluded the rats
were dreaming about running through the maze.
The discovery of similarities between human and animal dreams could help
scientists to use the rats to learn more about the human mind. Scientists
could manipulate the rats' experiences in a way that is not permissible with
people.
- ANSWER SHEET
Questions for Task One:
1
A. A kutatók szerint az állatok is álmodnak, méghozzá nagyon hasonló
módon, mint az emberek.
B. Kutatók patkánykísérletei szerint az állatok pontosan úgy álmodnak,

mint az emberek.
C. Kutatók útvesztőkben futkosó patkányokat találtak, amikor különleges

technológiával beléptek a patkányok álmaiba.
A. A felfedezés új korszakot nyithat az emberi agy kutatásában.
B. Az álomkutatásban tárt kapukat dönget a felfedezés.
C. A felfedezés segíthet az emberi álmok jobb megértésében.
A. Robert Stickgold pszichiátriaprofesszor azt tartja, hogy a patkányok nem

tudják elmesélni az álmaikat.
B. Robert Stickgold pszichiátriaprofesszor szerint nem lehet egyértelműen

bizonyítani, mit látnak álmukban a patkányok.
C. Robert Stickgold pszichiátriaprofesszor szerint, ha a patkányok

álmukban útvesztőkben futkosnának, azt meg lehetne állapítani.
A. A tudósok útvesztőkben mindenféle feladatot végeztettek a

patkányokkal, és közben megfigyelték az agyműködésüket.
B. A tudósok a patkányok agyhullámainak alvás- és ébrenlét közti

hasonlóságából következtettek a patkányok álmaira.
C. A kísérleti patkányok ugyanolyan agyhullámokat produkáltak az

útvesztőkben, mint a különböző feladatok megoldása során.
- ANSWER SHEET
A. A felfedezés nyomán fel lehet majd használni a patkányokat az emberi

agy fejlesztésére.
B. A felfedezés segíthet az emberi agy kutatásában.
C. A felfedezés segítségével manipulálni lehet az emberi elmét, hogy

álmában feladatokat tudjon megoldani.
- ANSWER SHEET
Task Two: A Letter
Your friend has asked you to translate their letter into English.
Drága Lucy!
Bizonyára meglepődtél, amikor megtaláltad a levelemet a

postaládádban. Tíz éve nem hallottunk egymásról. Remélem,
azért nem felejtettél el.
A címedet egy közös barátunktól, Tomtól kaptam meg, aki sokat

mesélt rólad. Örömmel hallottam, hogy jól vagy, és éttermet
nyitottál. Mindig erre vágytál, nem? Az üzleti életben
bizonyára nagyon sikeres vagy, és nagyon jól emlékszem még
arra is, milyen remek szakács vagy.
Az én álmaim nemigen váltak valóra. A munkám a régi.

Szeretem, de már nem sok kihívást jelent. A régi barátokkal sem
nagyon találkozom mostanában.
Örülnék, ha írnál.
- ANSWER SHEET
Test 5 – Mediation Part B ANSWER SHEET Page 43
TEST 5: MEDIATION – PART B – ANSWER SHEET
Candidate Number:
E I
Centre
Candidate Code
Code
Task One: Summary – Questions 1-5
1 A B C
2 A B C
3 A B C
4 A B C
5 A B C
Task Two: Translation – A Letter
(Write in English)
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Test 6 - Speaking
Time: 20 minutes
Procedure, Script and Materials
You now have 10 minutes to prepare the picture story

 You may use a dictionary.
 You must not speak to the other candidates.
 You may make notes but do not read aloud from the notes in the test.
 You may take this sheet of paper and your notes into the examination.
 In the test, give your notes to the examiner when asked.
Test 6 – Speaking Procedure and Interlocutor’s Script Page 46
Outline of Speaking Exam
Before the exam you have ten minutes preparation time in the preparation
room. Here you receive your Mark Sheet and a Picture Story sheet. You are
allowed to use your dictionary to prepare your story.
There will be two examiners in the exam room – the Interlocutor who is running
the exam and the Assessor who is listening and evaluating - and two
candidates at a time:
INTERLOCUTOR ASSESSOR
CANDIDATES
This test will have four tasks:
Task Timing
 The I nterlocutor will ask you one
1. Welcome and Interview introductory question, and tw o on 2-3mins.
another topic.(e.g. food, trav el)
2 mins
 First Candidate A then Candidate B
2. Picture Story
w ill tell their picture based stories
2 mins.
 Each candidate gets three different

situation cards in turns. They start
3. Transactional Dialogues 4-5 mins.
“three-turn” conversations with the
I nterlocutor
 Candidates receive a card w ith a
sentence describing a problem or
situation. After thinking of a few ideas,
the candidates discuss the adv antages
4. Collaborative Task 3-4 mins.
and disadv antages of v arious ideas
before coming to an agreement about
the most suitable.
Together with the welcome, setting up of tasks and closure the speaking task
will be no longer than 20 minutes.
The Interlocutor will speak from a script you can see on the following pages.
Speaking: Interlocutor’s’ scripts
Welcome (maximum 30 seconds)
Good morning / afternoon / ev ening.

My name is < name > and this is my colleague < name >.
Hav e you got your mark sheets?
>>> candidates hand over forms <<<
Please also giv e me the tasks and your notes. I’ll return these to
you later.
>>> candidates hand over forms <<<
So you are < candidate A name > and you are < candidate B
name >?
Task 1: Interview (max 2 minutes)
>>> The Interlocutor will ask a selection of the following

questions and will follow up with the interventions. <<<
1(a) Warm Up
What do you do?

Where do you liv e?
What languages do you speak?
How long have you been learning English?
Why is learning English important to you?
Possible Interventions:
Inviting participation
What about you?

What do you think?
Do you agree?
What’s your opinion?
Inviting expansion
Why?
In what way?
Tell me more.
Describe him / her / it.
Changing topic
Now I’d like to ask about a different subject.

OK. Thank you.
Let’s change subjects.
The next topic is…
1(b) Topics
>>> The Interlocutor will ask at least one ‘A’ question and one
‘B’ question. <<<
Family
A
Tell me something about your family.
Who is the hardest working person in your family?
Which member of your family understands you best?
B
Is family more important to old people than young people?
Is it better to grow up in a small family or a big family?
Are big families better for society?
Sport
A
Are you a sporty person?
What sports do you do?
Do you watch big sporting ev ents like the Olympics or the
World Cup?
B
Is sport about winning or taking part?
Do you think that sport is important for a nation?
Why does sport encourage so much excitement?
Cinema
A
Do you often go to the cinema?
What sort of films do you enjoy?
What films turn you off?
B
Do you think Hollywood is a good or negative influence?
Film stars are greatly ov errated. Do you agree?
The cinema has much less importance now that we have TV.
Thank you.
Task 2: Prepared story (2 x 2 minutes 3 + instructions)
In this part of the test, you are going to tell the stories you
prepared earlier.
< Candidate A > here are the pictures and your notes.
Now, I’d like you to tell your story. You may look at your notes
but please do not read aloud from what you have written. Tell
the story to < Candidate B >, < Assessor > and me. Remember
you only hav e two minutes so don’t worry if I interrupt you. All
right?
You have 30 seconds to look through the pictures and your

notes. Please start when you are ready.
>>> The Interlocutor gives Candidate A the pictures and notes

that he/she prepared before the exam. <<<
>>> 30 seconds - The candidate looks through his/her notes.

<<<
If necessary >>>
Please start now.

>>> 2 minutes - The candidate tells his/her story using the
notes and the pictures. <<<
Thank you.
>>> This is then repeated with the other candidate. <<<

Task 3: Transactional Dialogues. (5 minutes)
In this part of the test you must say something that is

appropriate to say in a situation. Read each card and follow
the instructions.
>>> The Interlocutor gives a card to Candidate A, who reads

it and starts a conversation with the Interlocutor. This is
repeated with Candidate B, and then the whole sequence two
more times, with different cards. <<<
< Candidate A > Read this card. When you

are ready please start a conv ersation with
me. I am your friend. You are at home
>>> # Card 1. <<< feeling bored. Ring
If necessary >>> your friend. Greet him
Please start now. / her and suggest
>>> Candidate <<< going to the cinema
Well, actually, I saw it last week. Would you to see the new Robert
like to meet for a drink instead? De Niro film.
>>> Candidate <<<
Thank you.
< Candidate B > Read this card. When you

are ready please start a conv ersation with
me. I am your colleague. You are at work. Your
>>> # Card 2. <<< colleague is sitting
If necessary >>> with his / her eyes
Please start now. closed. Find out what
>>> Candidate <<< the matter is.
I've got a terrible headache! I don't know
what to do.
>>> Candidate <<<
Thank You.
< Candidate A > Here is your next card.

Please read it and speak when you are
ready. I am the shop assistant. You are in a
>>> # Card 3. <<< supermarket. You
If necessary >>> need to buy some
Please start now. butter but you can't
>>> Candidate <<< find any. Ask the shop
Butter? I am afraid we only have margarine. assistant for help.
>>> Candidate <<<

Thank you.
< Candidate B > Here is your next card.

Please read it and speak when you are
ready. I am your colleague.
>>> # Card 4. <<<
If necessary >>> Your office has just
been redecorated.
Please start now. You would like to
>>> Candidate <<<
move your desk to
Sure. Let me just finish writing this email first. another part of the
Where do you want to mov e it? room. You go to
>>> Candidate <<< your colleague.
Thank You. Greet him / her and
ask him / her to help
< Candidate A > Here is your last card. Please

read it and speak when you are ready. I am
your friend. Your friend is going
>>> # Card 5. <<< for a walk. It's a
If necessary >>> nice, but cold,
Please start now. spring day. Advise
>>> Candidate <<< him / her to wear a
Actually, I am quite warm. I will be OK in a coat.
sweater, won't I?
>>> Candidate <<<
Thank you.
< Candidate B > Here is your last card. Please

read it and speak when you are ready. I am
your friend.
>>> # Card 6. <<< Your train to Prague
If necessary >>>
is leaving in 30
Please start now. minutes. You are still
>>> Candidate <<<
at home. You must
Your keys? No idea… Anyway, do you want rush, but you can't
some coffee? …No, sorry. find your keys. Ask
>>> Candidate <<< your friend if he /
Thank You. she saw your keys.
Thank you.
Task 4: Collaborative Task (4 minutes)
For the final part of the test, you are going to talk to each other
about a topic I will giv e you. I’m just going to listen.
>>> The Interlocutor picks up a Topic Card, reads it out

loud and gives the following instructions: <<<
First make a spoken list of four or fiv e things.

Then, when you have done that, discuss which one is the best/
most important. Remember to giv e reasons for what you say.
You have 3 minutes altogether to try and agree. All right?
>>> The Interlocutor places the topic card in front of the

candidates. <<<
Thank you. That is the end of the test. Good bye. Hav e a nice
weekend / ev ening.
>>> The cards for candidates are on page 56. <<<

Speaking Materials
Preparation for telling the Picture Story

(10 minutes to prepare a 2 minute story)
In the test you are going to tell a story based on these pictures on the
following page.
 You have 10 minutes to prepare the story and decide how you can tell the
story in an interesting and enjoyable manner.
Your notes (Remember. Only write notes, not the whole story)
Somebody will take you to the test room when it is your turn.
Picture Story: Candidate A

The story starts like this: “Ian had big plans for Friday night.”
Picture Story: Candidate B

The story starts like this: “Bill wanted to go camping for the family holiday.”
Speaking: Topic Cards for Task Four
B2-Sample Set One-4-M
When you are choosing where to go

on holiday, what helps you decide?
1. the weather
2. ……………..
3. ……………..
4. …………….. etc.
B2-Sample Set 1-4-N
What are some of the main causes of

disagreement between parents and
children?
1. staying out late
2. ………………….
3. ………………….
4. …………………. etc.

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Euro Examinations

Practice Test  Level B2  Set One

Exam Guide Page 2 Answer Keys Page 57

Test 1 Test 1: Reading

Test 5 Test 6: Speaking

Copyright 2007 Euro Exam ination Centre.

Revised in April, 2007.

Exam Guide Level B2

Test number Test Number of tasks Time Marks

Test 1- Reading text of 350-450 words, normally an article,

Task 1 – Short texts 5 points

You match five short texts (hand-written Test 2 - Listening

You answer seven multiple choice

You receive a written text of 150-200 words

Task 1 – Transactional Task 12,5 points

You read several pieces of written or

Test 5 - Mediation Part B

Test 4 - Grammar and Task 1 – Summary 5 points

Vocabulary You receive text in English of 200-225 words,

Test 6 - Speaking 25 points

 Answer all the questions

This page is blank!

Task One: Short texts (10 minutes) – Questions 1-5

The following short texts are from a problem page.

Hi, Hi, Hi,

Task Two: Paragraph Headings (10 minutes) – Questions 6-11

 The first one has been done for you.

D SOMETHING FOR EVERYONE (EXAMPLE)

H ANOTHER IDEA The flag of the Isle of Man

The Isle of Man

6. 600 miles of uncluttered roads criss-cross breathtaking scenery as do many

Task Three: Scanning for Information (10 minutes) – Questions 12-18

Example: They were an untidy couple.

12. They lived together for a decade before getting married.

A libertine spirit with a brilliant mind, Iris Murdoch was a

They lived in Oxford in a famously chaotic household.

 Read the text and answer the questions after it.

Questions for Task Four:

That is the end of the Reading test

This page is blank!

TEST 1: READING – ANSWER SHEET

Task One: Short Texts – Questions 1-5

Question Your Answer

Task Two: Paragraph Headings – Questions 6-11

Question Your Answer

Task Three: Scanning for Information – Questions 12-18

Question Your Answer Question Your Answer

Task Four: Reading for Detailed Information – Questions 19-25

Question Your Answer

Time: approx. 40 minutes

 Answer all the questions

Task One: Short Conversations – Questions 1-6

Someone is showing presents to their friend and explaining w ho they bought

 You will hear each recording twice.

Task Two: Making Notes – Questions 7-15

 Look at the notes. The notes contain nine gaps.

 Now listen to the speaker and fill in the gaps with

 He found his job ___7___.

 He found his job _7_.

 He used to go to Miss Gold to pick up the _8_.

 He was annoyed because he often had to _9_.

 Lorna was employed as a _10_.

 Matt approached Miss Gold in order to _11_.

 In the meeting with Miss Gold he felt _12_.

 Matt wrongly thought his wife would _13_.

 Matt’s marriage _14_.

 Now Matt thinks in defending his principles he _15_.