Sample questions for Selection Test

IIT JEE Achiever / Medical Excel /

PreUni Plus 2021-22

The duration of the Test is 2 Hours.

This paper consists of 60 multiple choice questions with 4 options for each of the question.
You need to mark your option in the OMR sheet given by us.
There are TWO parts in the paper, and all questions are compulsory.

Part - I: Consists of questions from 1 to 20 and these are numerical problems (integer type
0 to 999) and consists of 10 Questions of Quantitative Aptitude, 5 questions of Mathematics
and Physics each. Each question carries 4 marks. There is no negative marking.

Part - II: PCMB, consists of questions from 21 to 60, 10 in each subject. These are multiple
choice questions with four options of which one is correct. Each correct answer carries
4 marks. There is no negative marking.
 PART - I
Quantitative Aptitude
Numerical problems
(The answer to each of the following question is an integer ranging from 0 to 999)
1. The ratio between the speeds of two trains is 7 : 10. If the second train runs 400 kms in 4 hours then the
speed of first train is (in km/hr)
1
2. If 1369  0.0615  x  37.25 and x  , then the value of y is
10 y
1 1 1
3. A, B and C enter into a partnership and their investments in the ratio : : . After 2 months, A
2 3 4
withdraws half of his capital and after 10 months, a profit of Rs.378 is divided among them. The share of
B is

4. If a + b + c = 13, a2 + b2 + c2 = 69. Then the value of ab + bc + ca is

5. If the sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then the absolute difference between the
numbers is

6. The mean proportional between 234 and 104 is

y
7. 270 candidates appeared for an examination, of which 252 passed. The pass percentage is x , then the
z
value of x  y  z is
1 2
8. If 12 + 22 + 32 + ….. + 102 = 385, then the value of (2  42  62  .....  202 ) is
2
9. A can finish the work in 18 days and B can do the same work in 15 days. B alone worked for 10 days
and left the job. If A alone has to finish the remaining work the numbers of days it takes is
a b c abc
10. If   , then the value of is
3 4 7 c

MATHEMATICS
11. If tan  + cot  = 6, then the value of tan2  + cot2  is
12. The positive value of k for which the equality x2 + kx + 64 = 0 and x2  8x + k = 0 which have real
roots is
13. A circle is inscribed in ABC touching AB, BC and AC at P, Q and R respectively. If AB = 10 cm,
AR = 7 cm, CR = 5 cm then the length of BC is (in cm)
p
14. If 0.254 expressed as (HCF of p, q is 1) then the value of p + q is
q
C
15. In the figure (not drawn to scale) given below, P is a point on AB such that
R
AP : PB = 4 : 3. PQ is parallel to AC and QD is parallel to CP. In ARC, Q
ARC  90 and in PQS, PSQ  90 . The length of QS is 6 cm. If the ratio S
A B
P D
AP : PD = k, then 3k = ______

Selection Test : Sample Paper 2021-22 2

 PHYSICS
16. An object is placed between two plane mirrors inclined at an angle to each other. If the number of
images formed is 7 then the angle of inclination is
17. How much heat is required to raise the temperature of 20 g of mercury from 20 °C to 30 °C?
[Cmercury = 140 J kg–1 K–1]
18. A person suffering from defective vision can see objects clearly only beyond 100 cm from the eye.
Calculate the power of the lens in diopter required so that he can see clearly the object placed at least
distance of distinct vision (D = 25 cm).

19. A figure divided into squares each of size 1 mm2 is being viewed at a distance of 9 cm through a
magnifying glass of focal length 10 cm held close to the eye. The area of each square in the virtual image
is _____cm2.

20. The near and far points of a person are at 40 cm and 250 cm respectively. With aided eye, the maximum
distance upto which he can clearly see is approximately _____ cm
 200 
(given: Focal length of the lens used     cm) .
 3 

PART II
MATHEMATICS
21. One card is drawn at random from a well-shuffled deck of 52 cards. The probability of getting 6 is
3 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D) none of (A), (B) & (C)
26 52 13
22. The height of a tower is 100 3 m . The angle of elevation of its top from a point 100 m away from its
foot is
(A) 30 (B) 45 (C) 60 (D) 75

23. The quadratic equation whose one root is  3  2 3  is

(A) x2 + 6x  3 = 0 (B) x2  6x  3 = 0 (C) x2 + 6x + 3 = 0 (D) x2  6x + 3 = 0
24. The mean and mode of a frequency distribution are 28 and 16 respectively. The median is
(A) 22 (B) 23.5 (C) 24 (D) 24.5
25. If A(2, 4), B(0, 0), C(4, 2) are vertices of ABC. Then the length of median through vertex A is
(A) 5 units (B) 6 units (C) 7 units (D) 9 units

26. The height of cylinder is 14 cm and its curved surface area is 264 cm2. Then the volume of cylinder is
(A) 308 cm3 (B) 396 cm3 (C) 1232 cm3 (D) 1848 cm3
27. If HCF of 65 and 117 is of the form 65m – 117, then the value of m is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
28. 3cos2 60 + 2cot2 30  5sin2 45 =
13 17
(A) (B) (C) 1 (D) 4
6 4

Selection Test : Sample Paper 2021-22 3

Read the passage given below and answer questions 29 and 30 by choosing the correct
alternative
A cylindrical tub of radius 5 cm and length 9.8 cm is full of water. A solid in the form of a right circular cone
mounted on hemisphere is immersed into the tub. If the radius of hemisphere is 3.5 cm and height of cone
 22 
outside the hemisphere is 5 cm  use   
 7 

29. The volume of solid immersed in the tub is

(A) 770 cm3 (B) 154 cm3 (C) 616 cm3 (D) 196 cm3
30. The volume of water left in the tub is
(A) 770 cm3 (B) 154 cm3 (C) 616 cm3 (D) 196 cm3

PHYSICS
  
31. If A  B  C, then which of the following statements is wrong?
         
(A) C  A (B) C  B (C) C   A  B (D) C   A  B 

32. If the resultant of n forces of different magnitudes acting at a point is zero, then the minimum value of n
is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

33. Forces F1 and F2 act on the point mass in two mutually perpendicular directions. The resultant force on
the point mass will be
(A) F1 + F2 (B) F1  F2 (C) F12  F22 (D) F12  F22

34. An object is placed in front of plane mirror, when the mirror is moved away from the object through a
distance d, the image moves a distance 20 cm from the object then the distance d is
(A) 20 cm (B) 40 cm (C) 15 cm (D) 10 cm
35. A ray of light is incardinating normally on a plane mirror. The angle of reflection will be
(A) 0 (B) 90
(C) will not be reflected (D) 45
36. A charge is taken from a point A to a point B. The work done per unit charge in the process is called
(A) the potential at A (B) the potential at B
(C) the potential difference between B and A (D) the current from A to B
37. Steam at 100 C is continuously passed through a flask containing 100 g ice at 10 C to produce boiling
water in the flask. Heat loss from the flask is prevented. The mass of the boiling water produced in the
flask is [use cice = 0.5 cal g1 K1 : cwater = 1 cal g1 K1 ; Lf = 80 cal g1 and Lv =540 cal g1]
(A) 100 g (B) 134 g (C) 166 g (D) 66 g
38. If a positive charge is shifted from a low-potential region to a high-potential region, the electric potential
energy
(A) increases (B) decreases
(C) remains the same (D) may increase or decrease

Selection Test : Sample Paper 2021-22 4

Read the passage given below and answer questions 39 and 40 by choosing the
correct alternative
The basic principle of calorimetry is as follows: Heat gained by one body = Heat lost by other body. This
statement follows from the law of conservation of energy.
An aluminium container of mass 100 g contains 200 g of ice at 20 C. Heat is added to the system at the
rate of 420 J s1. Specific heat capacity of ice = 2100 J kg1 K1,
specific heat capacity of aluminium = 840 J kg1 K1 and latent heat of fusion of ice = 3.36  105 J kg1.
39. The time required to raise the temperature of the container and ice from 20 C to 0 C is
(A) 12 s (B) 24 s (C) 36 s (D) 48 s
40. The time required to melt ice at 0 C into water at 0 C is
(A) 40 s (B) 80 s (C) 120 s (D) 160 s

CHEMISTRY
41. The most electronegative element will have an electronic configuration of
(A) 2, 7 (B) 2, 4 (C) 2, 3 (D) 2, 8, 7
42. pH of two solutions A and B are 2 and 4 at 298 K respectively. This means that
(A) solution A is twice as acidic as B (B) solution B is twice as acidic as A
(C) solution A is 100 times more acidic than B (D) solution B is 100 times more acidic than A
43. 4 neutrons will be present in
(A) an element with an atomic number of 2 and an atomic mass of 4
(B) an element with an atomic number of 3 and an atomic mass of 7
(C) an element with an atomic number of 4 and an atomic mass of 9
(D) an element with an atomic number of 7 and an atomic mass of 14
44. Sodium, mercury, argon, and neon are used in the production of lamps. There are fewer safety guidelines
regarding the handling of neon and argon than for mercury and sodium. Which of the following best
describes the elements within the group of the Periodic Table that contains neon and argon gas?
(A) Gaseous at room temperature and highly reactive with metals
(B) Solid at room temperature and mildly reactive with strong acids
(C) Gaseous at room temperature and mostly unreactive with metals
(D) Solid at room temperature and mostly unreactive with strong acids
45. Polyatomic ions containing oxygen are called oxyanions. These have names ending with either -ate or
______
(A) ic (B) ite (C) ium (D) ide
46. The term that correctly describes a solution that is at equilibrium with the solid form of the solute is
(A) unsaturated (B) supersaturated (C) saturated (D) dilute
47. Noble metals like gold are soluble in an acid mixture that contains
(A) Nascent oxygen (B) Nascent hydrogen
(C) Nascent chlorine (D) None of (A), (B) and (C)
48. Electrolytes are correctly described by the statement______
(A) Electrolytes always contain metal ions
(B) Electrolytes have a pH value of 7
(C) Electrolytes have low melting points
(D) Electrolytes are strong conductors of electricity in solution
Selection Test : Sample Paper 2021-22 5
Read the passage given below and answer questions 49 and 50 by choosing the correct
alternative
Ionic radius is defined as the radius of ions, when it is bonded with another ion. Cations are always smaller
than the neutral atoms from which they are formed. Anions are larger than the neutral atoms from which they
are formed.
49. Which of the following is the correct order of the size?
(A) I > I+ > I (B) I+ > I > I (C) I+ > I > I (D) I > I > I+

50. Which of the following has the largest size?

(A) Al (B) Al+ (C) Al2+ (D) Al3+

BIOLOGY
51. Hormone ‘X’ of anterior pituitary stimulates gland ‘Y’ to secrete thyroxine which needs element ‘Z’ to
be synthesized. What are X, Y and Z respectively?
(A) X – FSH (Follicle-stimulating hormone), Y – thyroid gland, Z – calcium
(B) X – ACTH (Adrenocorticotrophic hormone), Y – adrenal cortex, Z – sodium
(C) X – TSH (thyroid stimulating hormone), Y – thyroid gland, Z – iodine
(D) X – GH (growth hormone), Y – thyroid gland, Z – magnesium

52. Max was studying the effects of atmospheric humidity on the rate of transpiration in mustard plants.
Which of these graphs rightly shows the same considering the X axis indicating humidity levels and
Y axis showing the transpiration rate?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

53. Identify the types of transport A, B and C in the given diagram respectively

(A) Passive transport, simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion

(B) Simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion and passive transport
(C) Active transport, facilitated diffusion and active transport
(D) Simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion and active transport

Selection Test : Sample Paper 2021-22 6

54. Identify the parts that handle creativity, produce growth hormone and connect between the cerebral
hemispheres respectively according to the image given here

(A) 1, 7, 6 (B) 1, 8, 2 (C) 1, 9, 5 (D) 1, 6, 7

55. Right part of the human heart contains

(A) Oxygenated blood (B) Mixed blood
(C) Deoxygenated blood (D) No blood

56. Gigantism and dwarfism are the diseases related to

(A) prolactin hormone of mammary gland (B) growth hormone of adenohypophysis
(C) luteinising hormone of pituitary gland (D) thyroid stimulating hormone of thyroid
57. Which of the following is not a reflex action?
(A) Blinking of eyes (B) Knee jerk
(C) Sweating (D) Withdrawal of hand on touching a hot vessel
58. The duration of the cardiac cycle in an 89-year-old woman is 1.4 seconds. This means that her heartbeat
rate is approximately
(A) 48/min (B) 43/min (C) 51/min (D) 67/min
59. Given figure represents demonstration of osmosis by egg membrane osmoscope.
After few days, which of the following would have occurred?

(A) A rise in level X and a drop in level Y

(B) A drop in level X and a drop in level Y
(C) A rise in level X and a rise in level Y
(D) A drop in level X and a rise in level Y

60. Each nephron has two parts, which are

(A) Bowman’s capsule and PCT (B) Glomerulus and renal tubule
(C) Glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule (D) Bowman’s capsule and renal tubule

***

Selection Test : Sample Paper 2021-22 7

Answer keys
Q.No. Ans Q.No. Ans Q.No. Ans Q.No. Ans Q.No. Ans
1. 70 2. 3 3. 144 4. 50 5. 4
6. 156 7. 89 8. 770 9. 6 10. 2
11. 34 12. 16 13. 8 14. 69 15. 7
16. 45 17. 28 18. 3 19. 1 20. 53
21. (C) 22. (C) 23. (B) 24. (C) 25. (A)
26. (B) 27. (B) 28. (B) 29. (B) 30. (C)
31. (D) 32. (C) 33. (C) 34. (D) 35. (A)
36. (C) 37. (B) 38. (A) 39. (B) 40. (D)
41. (A) 42. (C) 43. (B) 44. (C) 45. (B)
46. (C) 47. (C) 48. (D) 49. (D) 50. (A)
51. (C) 52. (C) 53. (D) 54. (B) 55. (C)
56. (B) 57. (C) 58. (B) 59. (A) 60. (B)

Selection Test : Sample Paper 2021-22 8