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PE Civil Exam 40-Mix Questions & Answers (PDF Format) For Breath Exam (Morning Session) Set #-3
PE Civil Exam 40-Mix Questions & Answers (PDF Format) For Breath Exam (Morning Session) Set #-3
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1. Construction-8 Q & A 3
2. Geotechnical-8 Q & A 11
3. Structural-8 Q & A 21
4. Transportation-8 Q & A 25
I. Construction
A borrow pit contour elevation has been shown in the figure; it has to be
cut. What is the average volume (yds3) cut from the borrow pit?
a. V=11333 yds3
b. V=5666 yds3
c. V=7536 yds3
d. V=2833 yds3
1. Solution:
a. V=2194 yd3
b. V=4389 yd3
c. V=3567 yd3
d. V=7895 yd3
2 Solution:
L=700-500=200 ft
Embankment volume (yd3), V = {(A1+A2)/2} x L/27
V = {(625+560)/2} x 200/27=4389 yd3
Find the weight for a 26 gage 14" galvanized spiral duct work which is 150'
long with a 15% waste for bracing, hangers, waste, and seams.
a. 574 lbs
b. 551 lbs
c. 633 lbs
d. 474 lbs
3. Solution:
Which of the following statements is not true for measuring asphalt bitumen
test?
4. Solution:
A 5- storied apartment building has to be built, building footings layout with cross-
section is shown in the Figure. How much volume of concrete is required for
building the foundation up to Ground Level (G.L.) with a 10% wastage?
a. 351 ft3
b. 324 ft3
c. 342 ft3
d. 376 ft3
5. Solution:
A subcontractor has the task of erecting 8000 square meter of metals scaffolds. The
contractor can use several crews with various costs. It is expected that the
production will vary with the crew size as given below:
a. $32400.00
b. $32500.00
c. $32900.00
d. $32300.00
6. Solution:
All residential developments areas to provide two Deep Soil Zones (D.S.Z); one to
the rear and one to the front of the property. Which of the following statements is
not true for the Deep Soil Zones (D.S.Z)?
a. Rear Deep Soil Zones are to have minimum width of 8m or 30% of the average
width of the site which ever is the greater and a minimum depth of 18% of the
length of the site up to 8m but not less than 5.5m. Greater than 8m may be
provided if desirable.
b. Deep Soil Zones must be provided for all new developments only, except on
large lot rural or agriculturally zoned land.
c. Front Deep Soil Zones are to be the width of the site boundary minus the
driveway width and the pathway width by the front setback depth.
d. Deep Soil Zones cannot be covered by impervious surfaces such as concrete,
terraces, outbuildings or other structures.
7. Solution:
Deep Soil Zones must be provided for all new developments and existing
development, except on large lot rural or agriculturally zoned land.
Which of the following statements is not applicable for Temporary Access Roads
Construction?
a. Temporary roads shall follow the contour of the natural terrain to the extent
possible. Slopes should not exceed 10 percent.
b. A 6-inch course of Coarse Aggregate shall be applied immediately after
grading or the completion of utility installation within the right-of-way. Filter
fabric may be applied to the roadbed for additional stability.
c. Roadbeds shall be at least 12 feet wide for one-way traffic and 18 feet wide
for two-way traffic.
d. All cuts and fills shall be 2:1 or flatter to the extent possible.
8. Solution:
Roadbeds shall be at least 14 feet wide for one-way traffic and 20 feet wide for
two-way traffic.
II. Geotechnical
A soil sample has the following properties by the Unified Soil Classification System.
LL = 42, PL = 31. What is the soil classification?
a. CH
b. MH
c. ML
d. CL
a. The blows/foot is number of times the 140 lbs drive weight dropped 30
inches needs to penetrate one foot. The 37 blows per foot confirm the
description of dense or well-compacted soil.
b. The moisture content range of 1.2 to 5.7% means the soil has enough
moisture and will not require a lot of water to achieve compaction.
c. The dry density in the top 4 feet is 127.7 pound per cubic foot (PCF). This
indicates a well-graded soil with a low void ratio. It can be expected to have
significant cohesion and friction angle
d. The soil between 5 and 8 feet of depth has a dry density of only 96.8 pcf.
This indicates the soil is poorly graded and a low percentage of fines. This
soil will probably have little or no cohesion. That means it may not stand on a
construction slope as steep as 1H to 1V.
10. Solution:
The moisture content range of 1.2 to 5.7% means the soil is very dry and will
require a lot of water to achieve compaction.
A road project requires a fill to be compacted to 95% of its relative density with
relation to the standard Proctor (ASTM D698). The laboratory results for the
standard Proctor indicated that the soil has a maximum dry density of 121 lb/ft3,
and an optimum moisture content of 9.0%.
After the compaction of the fill soils with a vibratory roller, field testing with a sand
cone, nuclear densio-meter, or other appropriate methods indicated that the
compacted fill soils have an in-place unit weight of 124.00 lb/ft3, and a moisture
content of 7.0%. Calculate the relative compaction, and does the compacted fill
exceed project requirements or not?
11. Solution:
Rd = d
m
The compacted fill exceeds project requirements of at least 95% relative density
Using the Rankine analysis, determine the lateral earth pressures due to
earthquakes on a 8 ft rigid concrete retaining wall. The free draining gravel backfill
has a soil unit weight, , of 132 lb/ft3, and an angle of internal friction, , of 33
degrees. The retaining wall will be constructed for passive conditions.
a. 3056 lb/ft
b. 5080 lb/ft
c. 7020 lb/ft
d. 8078 lb/ft
12. Solution:
Pe = 3 KhH2
8
Earthquake coefficient, Kh = 3 K= 3 (3.40) = 2.55
4 4
Pe = 3 KhH2
8
= 3 (2.55) x (132 lb/ft3 x (8 ft)2 = 8078 lb/ft
8
a. 2768 lb/ft2
b. 2134 lb/ft2
c. 2585 lb/ft2
d. 1790 lb/ft2
13. Solution:
z = 3 ft
q = 3200 lb/ft2
Rectangular footing size, 6 ft x 9 ft
= ΣPv
ΣPv = summation of all stress components (i.e. Pv1 + Pv2 + .... + Pvn). In this case,
we analyze the foundation in 4 equal but separate quadrants. Instead of a single 6
ft x 9 ft foundation, we have 4 separate 3 ft x 4.5 ft quadrants. This is done so that
one corner of each quadrant is located in the center of the footing.
4Pv = 4qSince the quadrants have equal dimensions with the same applied load,
we simply multiply the equation by 4 (4 quadrants).
m= x = 4.5 ft = 1.5
z 3.0 ft
n= y = 3.0 ft = 1.0
z 3.0 ft
= 0.202, Influence value from Boussinesq chart, where m = 1.5 and n= 1.0.
= 4q = 4(3200 lb/ft2)(0.202) = 2585 lb/ft2
Determine the consolidation settlement at the center of the clay layer of the mat
(30m x 40m) foundation shown in the Figure. Given, the total effective stress,
σ’=220 KN/m2 and the average effective stress increased due to the foundation
load, Δσ’=90 KN/m2 at the center of the clay layer.
a. 345.00 mm
b. 275.00 mm
c. 187.00 mm
d. 141.00 mm
14. Solution:
σ’=220 KN/m2, Δσ’=90 KN/m2, Cc=0.29 and eo=0.85
Settlement, Sc={CcHc/(1+eo)}log {(σ’+ Δσ’)/ σ’}
Sc={0.29 x 8/(1+.85)}log {(220+ 90)/ 220}*1000=186.77 mm
Determine the active earth pressure for the following retaining wall, H=18 feet.
Where, the unit weight of the soil is γ= 120 lb/ft3, δ= 9o and Φ=32o.
a. 11 Kip/ft
b. 4 Kip/ft
c. 8 Kip/ft
d. 14 Kip/ft
15. Solution:
Determine the tension of the tie rods “T” if they are spaced at 2 meters from the
center of the anchored sheet pile wall shown in Figure. The unit weight of soil is γ=
15.0 kN /m3.
a. 123.00 kN
b. 345.00 kN
c. 176.00 kN
d. 288.00 kN
16. Solution:
III. STRUCTURAL
In a building column the axial forces are determined as 180 kips of dead load, 100
kips of floor live load, 50 kips from the roof snow load. Determine the required
strength of the column without wind & earthquake load. Using the combination load
specified by AISC’s Manual of Steel Construction.
a. 241.00 kips
b. 458.00 kips
c. 346.00 kips
d. 401.00kips
17. Solution:
Given, D=180 kips, L=100 kips, S=50 kips, W=0.0 kips, & E=0.0 Kips
Combination of load:
1.2 D + 1.6 L + 0.5 (Lr or S or R)= 1.2 x180 + 1.6 x 100 +0.5 (50)= 401 kips
1.2 D + 1.6 W + 0.5 L + 0.5 (Lr or S or R)= 1.2 x180 + 0.0 + 0.5 x (50)=241 kips
Determine the dead load acting on the shown in the Figure steel beam with
concrete slab & floor tiles as shown in the Figure. The tiles flooring is 3” thick with
cement mortar.
6 ft
Flooring
6 inch concrete slab
W18x97
a. 772 lb/ft
b. 630 lb/ft
c. 727 lb/ft
d. 547 lb/ft ft
18. Solution:
a. -6.25 K
b. 6.25 K
c. 31.25 K
d. -12.5 K
19. Solution:
ΣMA=0,
YD= 31.25 K
YA=-31.25+25= -6.25 K
Determine the ultimate load, Qult of a rectangular footing that is 6’x 4’ and eccentric
shown in the Figure where, soil unit weight is γ= 120 lb/ft3, and the ultimate
bearing capacity is q’u=3200 lb/ft2, eB=1.5’ and eL=1.75’.
a. 76.8.0 Kips
b. 48.0 Kips
c. 22.5 Kips
d. 25.4 Kips
20. Solution:
a. -450 K-ft
b. -650 K-ft
c. -800 K-ft
d. -700 K-ft
21. Solution:
Determine the maximum shear for the simply supported reinforced concrete beam
shown with a dead load of 1.5 k/ft and a live load of 2.0 k/ft. Assume that the point
of reaction is at the end of the beam.
a. 48.00 k
b. 78.00 k
c. 56.00 k
d. 72.00 k
22. Solution:
Self weight = (12/12 ft) x (27/12 ft) x 150 lb/ft3 = 338 lb/ft = 0.34 k/ft
Wu = 1.4 (1.5 k/ft + 0.34 k/ft) + 1.7 (2 k/ft) = 5.98 k/ft
Vu (max) is at the ends = WuL/2 = 5.98 k/ft x (24 ft)/2 = 71.71 k
Determine the capacity of an 18” x 18” column with 10-#8 bars, tied. Grade 40
steel and 3,000 psi concrete.
a 731 kips
b 450 kips
c 340 kips
d 825 kips
23. Solution:
Find φ Pn, with φ=0.65 and Pn = 0.80Po for tied columns and
P0 = 0.85 fc′( A g − A st ) + f s A st
Vertical steel area for #10 bar, A= 3.14/4 x {(8/8)2}=0 .78 in2
Check the adequacy of the shown tension element where, fy=60 ksi. Considering,
the Load and Resistance Factor Design (LRFD) method.
Where, Tn, is the nominal strength of the member
Tu, is the Ultimate strength of the member.
t is the resistance factor, t = 0.9 for cross-section yielding
Bar 6 in x 0.75 in
L=100 kips
D=60 kips
24. Solution:
t Tn Tu
t is the resistance factor taken as: t = 0.9
Fy = Steel yield strength= 60 ksi
Ag = Gross area of section= (6 x 0.75) in2
Tu = 1.2D + 1.6L = 1.2*60 + 1.6*100 = 232 kips
Tn = Fy x Ag =60 x 6 x 0.75 = 270 kips
t Tn = 0.9*270 = 243 kips > Tu= 232 kips OK
IV. TRANSPORTATION
A curving highway has a design speed of 120 km/hr. At one horizontal curve, the
super-elevation has been set at 8.0% and the coefficient of the side friction is found
to be 0.12. Determine the minimum radius of the curve that will provide a safe
vehicle.
a. 530 meters
b. 495 meters
c. 567 meters
d. 642 meters
25. Solution:
Minimum radius, R
R = V2/(127(e/100+f))=(120)2/(127x(.08+0.12))=566.92 meters
A large elevated object is located 46 feet from the centerline of a two-lane highway,
which has 12-foot wide lanes. The elevator is situated on the inside of a horizontal
curve with a radius of 600 feet. Assuming that the elevated object is the only sight
restriction on the curve. What is the minimum sight distance along the curve,
where degree of the curve 12° turns out?
a 351 ft
b 257 ft
c 405 ft
d 461 ft
26. Solution
Distance from the center of the inside lane to the object, M = 46-12/2=40 ft.
Degree of the curve, D = 12°
Radius of the curve, R = 600 ft
Sight distance (ft), S
M = R - Rcos(SD/200)
(SD/200)=cos-1((R-M)/R)= cos-1((600-40)/600)=21.03
S=(21.03x200)/12°=350.65 ft.
a. 1500 ft
b. 1900 ft
c. 1600 ft
d. 1800 ft
27. Solution:
D= (Vf2-Ui2 )/2A=(882-73.32)/2x2.16=548.86 ft
D1=S+D=183.3+548.86=732.16 ft
The passing sight distance is the distance D2, which is defined as the distance that
the passing vehicle travels while in the left lane.
S2 = 20 ft + 22 ft + 22 ft. + 20 ft =84 ft
S2=V2T,
T2=S2/V2=84/14.67=5.73 sec.
V = 88 ft./sec. (60 mph)
D2= VT2=88x5.73=504.24 ft
The distance, D3=250 ft. is the clearance distance between the passing vehicle and
the opposing vehicle at the moment the passing vehicle returns to the right lane.
The passing sight distance D4 is defined as the distance the opposing vehicle
travels during 66% of the time that the passing vehicle is in the left lane.
D4=VT4=88*3.7=325.6 ft
A highway, with traffic normally runs at 60 mph has an inclined section with a 4%
grade, how much can the elevation of the roadway increase before the speed of the
larger vehicles is reduced to 50 mph?
a. 32 ft
b. 50 ft
c. 40 ft
d. 26 ft
28. Solution
From Graph in the Ascending Grades module, we can see that a 4% grade causes a
reduction in speed of (60 mph-50 mph)=10 mph after 1250 feet.
We can just estimate the elevation increase by multiplying the length of the grade
by the grade.
H= 1250x0.04 = 50 ft.
The elevation of the roadway can only be increased by about 40 feet before heavy
vehicles are reduced to a speed of 50 mph.
A stopping sight distance of 450 ft. is to be maintained on a sag vertical curve with
tangent grades of -3% and 0%, what should the length of the curve be? Assume a
headlight beam has an upward divergence angle of 1°.
a. 465 ft
b. 243ft
c. 287 ft
d. 356 ft
29. Solution
If S > L then
A bridge is being designed to pass over a rural two-lane highway with a design
speed of 60 mph. The section of the two-lane highway where the bridge crosses
over is an 1800 foot vertical sag curve with
A = 3.5. What is the bridge clearance height?
a. 10.50 ft
b. 12.4 ft
c. 16.5 ft
d. 18.6 ft
30. Solution
From Green book table, passing sight distance for a design speed of 60 mph is
2,135 feet
Therefore, S=2135 ft
L=1800 ft
A=3.5
Bridge clearance height, H
Here, S> L,
S=L/2+400(H-5.75)/A=2273.17 ft
2135=1800/2+400(H-5.75)/3.5
Or, 400(M-5.75)=(2135-900)x 3.5
H=16.55 ft.
A horizontal curve is designed with a 600 m radius and is known to have a tangent
length of 52 m. The PI is at station 200+00. Determine the stationing of the PT.
a. PT=200+52
b. PT=200+80
c. PT=200+34
d. PT=199+48
31. Solution:
PC=PI-T=(200+00)-(0+52)=199+48
PT=PC+L=(199+48)+(1+04)=200+52
A racecar is speeding down a level straightaway at 100 km/hr. The car has a
coefficient of drag of 0.3, a frontal area of 1.5 m2, a weight of 10 kN, a wheelbase
of 3 meters, and a center of gravity 0.5 meters above the roadway surface, which
is 1 meter behind the front axle. The air density is 1.054 kg/m3 and the coefficient
of road adhesion is 0.6. What is the rate of acceleration for the vehicle?
a. 2.35 m/sce2
b. 2.25 m/sce2
c. 1.45 m/sce2
d. 1.15 m/sce2
32. Solution:
Divide out mass, which can be computed from weight by dividing out gravity.
Thus, divide mass from the force and acceleration can be found.
Thus, the vehicle is accelerating at a rate of 1.43 meters per second squared.
a. 235 ft
b. 32 ft
c. 37 ft
d. 998 ft
33. Solution:
The relationship between the height of a column of water and the resulting pressure
is 2.31 ft of water produces 1 psi.
Determine the pipe friction loss of irrigation systems in 2000 ft of 10-inch diameter
Class 160 PVC pipe if the flow rate is 1000 gpm.
a. 16.4 ft
b. 12.5 ft
c. 8.6 ft
d. 9.5 ft
34. Solution:
The Hazen-Williams equation, with C = 150 (for plastic pipes), is generally suitable
for irrigation systems and can be expressed as,
Hf = [{0.000977 x (Q)1.852}/(D)4.871] x L
Where,
For an 10-inch Class 160 PVC pipeline that is 4000 feet long and has a flow rate of
1200 gpm, compare the potential surge pressure caused when a butterfly valve is
closed (in 10 seconds) to a gate valve that requires 30 seconds to close.
35. Solution:
P = 0.028 (Q x L)/(D2 x T)
Where,
a. 20.8 m
b. 16.4 m
c. 13.6 m
d. 7.2 m
36. Solution:
W0=2400mm=2.40m
hS =(1.3)(1.6)=2.08 m
LS =10xhs=(10)(2.08)=20.8 m
LS min=(3)(Wo)=(3)(2.4)=7.2 m,
Considering, LS =20.8 m
What is the width of a broad-crested weir to convey a river discharge that varies
between 0.15 and 30.0 m3/sec, ymax=1.75 m, ymin=1.05 m?
a. 29.0 m
b. 38.0 m
c. 12.0 m
d. 17.0 m.
37. Solution:
38. PROBLEM
Determine the 3-hour, 2-year rainfall depth for Fulton County. Where e = 0.767, b =
40, and d = 7.6 for the 2-year frequency.
a. 4.30 inches
b. 1.50 inches
c. 3.20 inches
d. 2.16 inches
38. Solution:
Where:
and
I= 0.72 in/hr
Which of the following statements is not true for Inflow and infiltration (I/I) in
sewer systems?
39. Solution:
A community has a population of 40,000. What would be the storage tank capacity
for fire flow?
a. 1.2 MG
b. 3.6 MG
c. 4.5 MG
d. 2.2 MG
40. Solution:
P=40,000
Where "P" is the population in 1,000's of people. So, for our community with a
population of 40,000, the fire flow would be:
The storage tank must thus have a fire flow capacity of 2.2 million gallons.
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