Practice Test 3

ENGLISH TEST
45 Minutes—75 Questions

DIRECTIONS: In this section, you will see passages with words and phrases that are underlined and numbered. In the
right-hand column you will see a question corresponding to each number that provides alternatives to the underlined part.
In most of the items, you are to choose the best alternative. If no change is needed, choose NO CHANGE.

In other items, there will be either a question about an underlined portion of the passage, or a question about a section of
the passage, or about the passage as a whole. This question type will correspond to a number or numbers in a box.

For each question, choose the best alternative or answer and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet.

Practice Test 3 — english

PASSAGE I

The Names of Flowers

[1]

I look and staring at the first green shoots sprouting up 1. A. NO CHANGE

1 B. look and stare
through the dead leaves. The sight sets me trembling
C. looking and staring
D. looking and stare

with anticipation, and I kneel toward the earth to make sure 2. F. NO CHANGE
2 G. to anticipate
H. and anticipating
J. OMIT the underlined portion.

I’d seen correctly. Yes, the daffodils have already begun 3. A. NO CHANGE
3 4 B. I’ve seen
pushing toward the sun. Like in a fever, I forget my work and
C. I can see
wander about the garden inspecting the mulched beds. D. I will see

4. F. NO CHANGE
G. have beginning
H. will soon began
J. soon beginning to

Winter is almost over, I can taste the coming delirium of 5. A. NO CHANGE

5 B. over and I
flowers.
C. over, and I
D. over, yet I
[2]

Gardening is something new to me, a delight this city boy

never imagined. As a child growing up in an apartment in New

York, it seems enough to know that there were flowers and trees. 6. F. NO CHANGE
6 G. does seem
H. did seem
J. seemed

CONTINUE
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Culture marked even more than the seasons were by nature. 7. A. NO CHANGE
7 B. Even culture was marked more than the seasons
Autumn was when we played football in the street, or when I
than nature.
was older, tried to pick the peak foliage weekend to go camping. C. Even the seasons were marked more by culture
than by nature.
We were familiar with the highlights that marked each season,
D. Seasons were marked more even by culture than
by nature.

though not the subtle particulars, the gradual way one trans- 8. If the writer were to delete the underlined portion,
8 the paragraph would primarily lose:
formed into another. Such intimacy was reserved for buildings, F. proof that the author did not understand the
8 seasons.
crowds, and subway trains. 9 G. an example of a particular with which the author
was not familiar.
H. a poetic turn of phrase that makes the essay
more appealing to read.
J. a key transition between two different yet related
ideas.

9. The purpose of Paragraph 2 as it relates to the

remainder of the essay is primarily to:
A. provide background that helps to explain the
significance of the garden to the writer.
B. provide background that explains why the writer
feels lucky to have escaped the city.
C. portray the writer’s childhood as vividly as the
writer’s garden.
[3]
D. establish the writer’s sensitive personality and
ability to appreciate flowers.
Now the twilight of summer is marked for me by budding

chrysanthemums spilling over the retaining wall at the side of

the house. In too seasons, they’ve grown huge and sprawling. 10. F. NO CHANGE
10
G. too season’s
H. to seasons
J. two seasons
At the height of autumn, they are as bright yellow and red and 11. A. NO CHANGE
11 B. bright yellow red and purple
purple as any foliage, and the season ends when they turn brown
C. bright, yellow, and red, and purple
11
and the last rose buds on the climbers leaning up the porch fail D. bright yellow, and red, and purple

to open.

[4]

Daffodils along the front walk mark the beginning of a long 12. F. NO CHANGE
12 G. have marked
Missouri spring that unfolds with crocuses and tulips, irises and
H. marks
peonies under my study window, and forsythia and spirea around J. marked

the edges of the lawn. Summer means daisies swaying on the

hill, and later, black-eyed susans jostling along the fence.

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[5]

At thirty-five, I’m beginning to learn the names of flowers,

and more than just the names. Names are our entry into the

world, and I feel a fresh side of myself come alive as I become

familiar with the words standing for all those vivid scents and

colors springing from the ground. It’s nice to know that one can

keep on growing. finding enough space inside for gardens and 13. A. NO CHANGE
13 B. growing finding
for subway trains.
C. growing, finding
D. growing Finding

Questions 14 and 15 ask about the passage as a whole.

14. Suppose the writer’s primary purpose had been
to provide a basic explanation of the timeline of a
chrysanthemum’s life. Would this essay accomplish that
purpose?
F. Yes, because it describes how chrysanthemums
look at different points in their life cycle.
G. Yes, because it explains when to plant chrysan-
themums, when they bloom, and when they die.
H. No, because the author is more concerned with
explaining personal experiences than gardening
tips.
J. Yes, because it uses the changing times of season
as a way to describe when chrysanthemums bud,
when they bloom, and when they die.

15. The writer wishes to insert the following detail into the
essay:
I could tell you there were pines, but not distinguish
them from cedar.

The sentence would most logically be inserted into

Paragraph:

A. 1.
B. 2.
C. 3.
D. 4.

CONTINUE
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PASSAGE II

Pasta and Tomatoes

[1]

As trade goes, so also goes the world. In these days of global 16. F. NO CHANGE
16 G. so therefore,
markets where people and goods crisscross the world, the idea
H. also
J. so

that a development in Asia can have a major affect on America 17. A. NO CHANGE
17 B. effect on
C. effect over
D. affect over

is taken for granted. Less widely understood was the fact that 18. F. NO CHANGE
18 G. is
exchange has always been a major force in world affairs.
H. had been
J. could be
[2]

19 Agricultural techniques developed in the Near East spread
deeper into Asia, as well as Europe and Africa, evolving form as
19. Which of the following sentences, if inserted at this
point, would provide the most effective transition to
the second paragraph?
A. Throughout history, agriculture has always
played a major role in the development of
civilizations.
B. Throughout history, the movement of people
and goods has been a major factor in changing
human societies.
C. Many examples of this can be found by studying
the history of trade over the past 100 years.
D. However, this phenomenon was never as
important as it is in the modern world.

they went. Goods, religion, knowledge, all of these things have 20. F. NO CHANGE
20 G. Goods, religion, knowledge: all of these things
moved about through the ages, adopted here by one people,
20 have moved
forced on another people there, and every wealth of interchange H. Movement has occurred in goods, religion, and
knowledge
also witnessed a wealth of transformation.
J. Goods, religion, and knowledge have all moved

[3]

That is why Herodotus could marvel at the different practices

he found upon his tour, of the ancient Mediterranean, and why 21. A. NO CHANGE
21 B. tour—of
C. tour; of
D. tour of

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too his impressions had been passed on to generations born 22. F. NO CHANGE
22 G. have been
H. are
J. will be

two millennia later. In fact, the ancient Greeks, whom were well 23. A. NO CHANGE
23 B. that
aware of the influences of Egypt on their civilization, did not pass
C. who
their wealth of knowledge directly on to the rest of Europe, which D. which

claims Greece as its root. Greek thought was kept alive by Arab

scholars at the height of Islam’s power and Greek texts had to 24. F. NO CHANGE
24 G. power, and Greek
be translated from Arabic into Latin before the likes of Thomas
H. power, but Greek
Aquinas could open the intellectual door to the European J. power, therefore Greek

Renaissance.

[4]

But perhaps the clearest examples of this exchange and

transformation lay in a realm less heady and much closer to the

stomach. How would modern Italy be without pasta and 25. A. NO CHANGE
25 B. What would modern Italy be like
C. Where would modern Italy be
D. Would modern Italy be

tomatoes? Imagine Switzerland without chocolate or Ireland and 26. F. NO CHANGE

26 G. Can you imagine
H. It’s like imagining
J. Isn’t it strange to imagine

Eastern Europe without potatoes. 27 27. Which of the alternatives provides the most logical
conclusion for Paragraph 4?
A. Yet none of these familiar staples was known in
the Europe of the Middle Ages.
B. These staples have become part of the very
identity of these nations.
C. They would not be the same countries that they
are today.
D. Cuisine is an important element of every culture.

CONTINUE
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[5]

Marco Polo brought pasta back to Europe from China.

Tomatoes, potatoes, and cacao, they were all brought back from 28. F. NO CHANGE
28 G. cacao,
H. cacao
J. cacao, which

the Americas and transformed into something else. Therefore, 29. A. NO CHANGE
29 B. Because
C. Since
D. For

while neither tomatoes nor pasta is originally Italian, one cannot 30. Which of the alternatives would conclude this
30 sentence so that it supports the writer’s point about
think of pasta and tomato sauce in all their glorious forms without
30 culture?
thinking of Italy. F. NO CHANGE
30
G. they have been adapted by Italians.
H. they are now important in Italian cooking.
J. one cannot forget that they were once unknown
in Italy.

PASSAGE III

The Life of Aspirin

[1]

There are so many innovations and inventions in our lives

that we take for granted there are even things that are a part of 31. A. NO CHANGE
31 B. granted; there
our daily lives that we have little or no idea about, including
C. granted there;
where they came from or how they developed, although we’re D. . Granted there

happy that they exist and that we have access to them. 32
32. The author of this passage would like to add a
sentence to the end of Paragraph 1, which would help
transition to Paragraph 2. Which of the following
sentences would best serve that purpose?
F. Take, for instance, aspirin.
G. Perhaps that means we’re ignorant.
H. The truth is, some things are better unknown.
J. The Internet is a good place to research new
things.

[2]

Little serious thought is given; to these humble, unassuming 33. A. NO CHANGE

33 B. given to
little pills by the average person, although billions are bought
C. given, to
and sold each year and you’d be hard pressed to find someone D. given. To

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who doesn’t have some in his or her house. These simple-looking

little discs have been responsible for easing countless and innu- 34. F. NO CHANGE
34 G. countless
merable headaches, aches, and pains around the world, yet most
34 H. innumerable or countless
J. many and several

of us don’t know much more about it beyond the fact that there’s 35. A. NO CHANGE
35 B. him
C. us
D. them

likely a bottle full of them somewhere in our medicine cabinets.

Let’s give aspirin the respect its due by taking a closer—look! 36. F. NO CHANGE
36 G. closer—look.
H. closer; look.
J. closer look.
[3]

Aspirin has taken on different forms over its long and illus-

trious history, dating back over 2,400 years to salicin extracts

from the bark of the Willow Tree, which are metabolized by the 37. A. NO CHANGE
37 B. Willow tree
C. willow tree
D. willow Tree

human body into salicylic acid an active ingredient of aspirin.
38
Evidence of this has been recorded in ancient Egyptian, Assyrian,
and Sumerian texts.
38. F. NO CHANGE
G. (an active ingredient of aspirin)
H. an active ingredient of aspirin
J. “an active ingredient of aspirin”

[4]

Through the centuries that followed, chemists sought to

improve the effectiveness of salicylic acid, reduce its side effects,

and make it easier to mass produce as a medicine for widespread

public use. In the late nineteenth century, acetylsalicylic acid was

studied as a possible replacement for salicylic acid and, in 1899,

the modern aspirin was born and named by the pharmaceutical

company Bayer.

CONTINUE
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[5]

Today, aspirin is perhaps the most widely used medicine on

the planet, and exceeds 50 billion pills estimates the consumption, 39. A. NO CHANGE
39 B. 50 billion estimates the globe—annual con-
globally and annually. This nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug
39 sumption of excess pills
(NSAID) is used to treat a wide array of symptoms, inflammatory C. the globe annually consumes 50 billion esti-
mated pill excess
conditions, and illnesses. These include fevers, blood clots, head-
D. estimates of global annual consumption exceed
aches, rheumatoid arthritis, and everyday aches and pains. In 50 billion pills

specific low doses, aspirin has also been suggested as a preven-

tative medicine to reduce the risk of strokes and certain types

of cancer.

[6]

Despite its impressive array of beneficial effects, over the

years weve learned, largely through trail and error, that there are 40. F. NO CHANGE
40 41 G. weave learned
some common unwanted side effects connected with aspirin
H. we’ve learned
consumption. These include stomach pain and bleeding, wors- J. we’ve leaned

ening of asthma symptoms, and ulcers. Aspirin can also be 41. A. NO CHANGE
B. trial and error
C. trail and era
D. tryer and error

hazardous for women who are pregnant or those who drink

excessive amounts of alcohol. 42 42. In Paragraph 6, should the final sentence be omitted?
F. Yes, because it repeats information stated earlier
in the paragraph.
G. Yes, because the paragraph has already provided
sufficient evidence that aspirin can have
dangerous side effects.
H. No, because it is the paragraph’s most convincing
evidence that aspirin can be dangerous.
J. No, because it adds relevant information.

[7]

Here’s an interesting bit of aspirin trivia: Humans aren’t the

only creatures who benefit from the medicinal effects of aspirin.

Veterinarians sometimes administer aspirin to a wide array of

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animals, including dogs and horses, as an anticoagulant and pain

reliever. 43 44
43. The author of this passage has just discovered that
aspirin, when taken at regular low doses, can help
reduce the risk of heart attacks. To which of the
following paragraphs should the author add this
information?
A. Paragraph 3
B. Paragraph 4
C. Paragraph 5
D. Paragraph 6

44. The author of this passage has decided to add a

concluding sentence to this passage. Which of the
following would be the most effective choice?
F. The next time you reach for an aspirin, remember
that you’re about to have a tiny bit of medicinal
history and innovation!
G. There are lots of other things you can take if
you’re feeling ill; aspirin is not your only option!
H. Aspirin is among the most easy-to-purchase
medicines, and you’ll find it in most small grocery
stores, supermarkets, and pharmacies!
J. Can you think of any other significant medical
innovations that have changed our daily lives?

Question 45 asks about the passage as a whole.

45. The author of this essay was recently given an
assignment to research the history of medicines in the
ancient world. Does this essay fulfill this requirement?
A. Yes, because this essay discusses a medicine that
has existed for a long time.
B. Yes, because aspirin was used by the ancient
Egyptians, Assyrians, and Sumerians.
C. No, because this essay isn’t comprehensive enough
PASSAGE IV to fulfill the scope of the assignment.
D. No, because aspirin wasn’t invented until the
A Professional Lesson twentieth century.
[1]

When I first began working as a journalist in the 1970s, there 46. F. NO CHANGE
46
are few women in the field who are taken seriously. I had no G. there are few women in the field who is taken
46 seriously.
H. there were few women in the field who are taken
seriously.
J. there were few women in the field who were
taken seriously.

CONTINUE
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illusions, I would have to prove, myself again and again. 47. A. NO CHANGE
47
B. prove
C. prove;
D. prove—
[2]

Editors were surprised when my work turned out to be first

rate. It took me a long time to understand that the reason had

to do with the way I carried myself, not to mention the fact that 48. F. NO CHANGE
48 G. not to mention the fact that I made no attempt
I was making no attempt with which to conceal my anxieties.
48 to conceal my anxieties
I had not yet learned to put on a professional face. H. with the fact that I made no attempt to conceal
my anxieties
J. I made no attempt to conceal my anxieties
[3]

Editors who would try to hand me the softer stories, or the 49. A. NO CHANGE
49 B. Editors would try to hand me the softer stories,
C. The softer stories were the ones editors would try
to hand me,
D. Editors who tried to hand me the softer stories,

stories with a “woman angle.” “Maybe you could do a piece on
50
the charity work of the First Lady.” I was undaunted by these
50
incidents, and by the inevitable sexist jokes and innuendoes.
50. F. NO CHANGE
G. could do the charity work of
H. could be doing it on the charity work of
J. could do a piece on charity work for

After all, I had chosen a career that meant not breaking ground 51. A. NO CHANGE
51 B. breaking ground in
in a traditional male bastion. Determination and a thick skin were
51 C. it broke ground in
mandatory. D. broken ground in

[4]

There was, however; an aspect of professional life for whom 52. F. NO CHANGE
52 G. for which
H. for what
J. for why

many of us were not prepared. I remember that when I will 53. A. NO CHANGE
53 B. I was working
be working on a difficult assignment and I checked in with the
53 C. I will have worked
editor, I would tell him about my worries, describe the obstacles D. I will work

I had yet to surmount, or sometimes even complain about the

minor frustrations that had made for a bad day. I thought of it

as communication, being honest in my work. I never doubted

that I would get past these problems. They merely represented

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 Practice Test 3

the moment-to-moment process of doing my job. After all, life

was like that too—full of difficulties that I discussed with friends

as a way of getting through them. 54
[5]
I noticed, therefore, that when my male colleagues spoke
to editors, no matter what doubts they had, they always said that
everything was under control. It seemed like lying. What were
54. Would it add to the effectiveness of the essay if the
writer inserted a paragraph at this point describing
the way in which she discussed problems with a
close friend?
F. No, because the writer’s description of how she
interacted with her editor is already clear.
G. No, because such a description belongs just
before this paragraph.
H. Yes, because the writer needs to more fully
illustrate how she interacts with other people.
J. Yes, because the writer needs to show why she
wanted the “softer stories” she was assigned.

these men afraid of. I didn’t realize that by behaving the way in 55. A. NO CHANGE
55 56 B. afraid of
which I’d been acting, my honesty was creating a negative
56 C. afraid of?
impression with my editors. Editors assumed that if I was speaking D. afraid of—

about my difficulties, then I must really be in trouble. Like all 56. F. NO CHANGE
G. my behavior and
H. my behaving in that way and
managers, they wanted to know that everything was under J. OMIT the underlined portion.

control. By sharing the struggles that are part of the process of 57. A. NO CHANGE
57 B. share the struggles
all work, I made my editors worry and at the same time reinforced
C. shared the struggles
all those stereotypes about women who can’t stand the pressure. D. will share the struggle

Questions 58–60 ask about the passage as a whole.

58. For the sake of unity and coherence, Paragraph 2 should
be placed:
F. where it is now.
G. before Paragraph 1.
H. after Paragraph 4.
J. after Paragraph 5.

59. The writer is considering eliminating Paragraph 4. If the

writer removed this paragraph, the essay would
primarily lose:
A. relevant details about the mistakes the writer made
that led to her ultimate realization.
B. historical information regarding women in the
workplace.
C. relevant details regarding the writer’s male
colleagues’ behavior.
D. a revealing anecdote about the writer’s experience
with her friends.

CONTINUE
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60. Which of the following assignments would this essay

most clearly fulfill?
F. Write a persuasive essay about the benefits of
holding a job.
G. Write an essay comparing current and past
business environments for women.
H. Write an essay about a lesson you learned from a
professional experience.
J. Write an essay about an experience in which your
personal integrity was challenged.

PASSAGE V

Edwidge Danticat, A Born Writer

[1]

Those who live in countries where a large proportion of the

population is illegible share their stories orally. In Haiti, 61. A. NO CHANGE

61 B. are ineligible
C. is illiterate
D. are illiterate

one of the world’s smaller countries, when someone has a tale 62. F. NO CHANGE
62 G. a small country
H. a paticularly small country
J. DELETE the underlined portion

to tell, he or she will call out Krik? Neighbors: friends, and relatives 63. A. NO CHANGE
63 B. Neighbors;
C. Neighbors
D. Neighbors,

will then gather around with an answering call of Krak!, signaling

there willingness to listen. 64. F. NO CHANGE

64 G. they’re
H. their
J. they are

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[2]

The Haitian-born writer Edwidge Danticat would have been 65. A. NO CHANGE
65 B. having been
only twenty-six when she took these two words and made them
C. was being
the title for her collection of stories. The nine stories in Krik?Krak! D. was

focus on the hardships of living under a dictatorship. 66 66. For the sake of the logic and coherence of this
paragraph, Sentence 2 should be placed:
F. where it is now.
G. before Sentence 1.
H. after Sentence 3.
J. after Sentence 4.

Families are forced to flee Haiti and seek new lives, in the United 67. A. NO CHANGE
67 B. lives’ in
States.
C. lives in
D. life in
The book received much critical acclaim and even became a 68. F. NO CHANGE
68
G. many critically
finalist for the National Book Award.
H. too critical
[3] J. much criticism

Born in Port-au-Prince in 1969, her family moved to New York 69. A. NO CHANGE
69
B. Danticat moved to New York City when she was
City when Danticat was twelve. She spoke little as a new
69 twelve
immigrant, because when she did speak, other children made C. New York City is where Danticat moved when she
was twelve
D. when she was twelve Danticat moved to New
York City

fun of her heavily accented English. 70 Her thesis in graduate
school later became the novel Breath,Eyes, Memory. That
70. Which of the following sentences, if added here,
would best provide a transition from the description
of Danticat as a young girl to that of Danticat as
an author?
F. Danticat refrained from criticizing them in return,
however, and was successful in the end.
G. Most Haitians speak Creole, and the language is
quite different from American English.
H. Many writers have had difficult childhoods.
J. Although she was silent much of the time,
Danticat watched and remembered, as if already
thinking like a writer.

CONTINUE
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novel, which was subsequently chosen by Oprah Winfrey for

her book club, featured a heroine who, like the author, moved 71. A. NO CHANGE
71 B. not unlike the author
from Haiti to New York City at the age of twelve. Danticat’s
C. just as the author did
third book, The Farming of Bones, is also set in Haiti. D. in much the same manner as the author

[4]

This young authors chosen subject matter, as well as the 72. F. NO CHANGE
72 G. authors’
Creole-accented language she uses to tell her stories, demonstrate
H. author’s
that while Danticat has left Haiti for her adopted country of J. author

America, she hasn’t forgotten both the land of her birth and its 73. A. NO CHANGE
73 B. either the land of her birth or its
brave people.
C. neither the land of her birth or its
D. neither the land of her birth nor its

Questions 74 and 75 ask about the passage as a whole.

74. The writer wishes to open the essay with a sentence that
will set the theme and tone of the essay. Which of the
following would most effectively accomplish this?
F. Whether or not they can read, people all over the
world love stories.
G. One of my favorite books is a collection of stories
set in Haiti.
H. The problem of illiteracy results in a variety of
consequences for people all over the world.
J. Have you ever wondered what it feels like not to be
able to read?

75. Suppose the writer’s goal had been to provide a detailed

history of the hardships the people of Haiti have
endured. Would this essay accomplish that goal?
A. Yes, because the essay mentions that the plot of
Krik? Krak! involves such hardships.
B. Yes, because the essay is about Edwidge Danticat,
who fled Haiti because of the hardships she
endured while living there.
C. No, because the essay does not provide nearly
enough information about Haiti to serve as a
detailed history.
D. No, because the essay does not imply that the
people of Haiti ever suffered hardships.

STOP
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MATHEMATICS TEST
60 Minutes—60 Questions

DIRECTIONS: For each of the following items, solve each problem, choose the correct answer, and then fill in the corre-
sponding circle on the answer sheet. If you encounter problems that take too much time to solve, move on. Solve as many
problems as you can; then return to the others in the time remaining for the test.

You may use a calculator on this test for any problems you choose, but some of the problems may best be solved without
the use of a calculator.

SHOW YOUR WORK HERE

Practice Test 3 — mathematics

Note: Unless otherwise stated, assume the following:

1.   Illustrative figures are NOT necessarily drawn

to scale.
2.   Geometric figures lie in a plane.
3.   The word line indicates a straight line.
4.   The word average indicates arithmetic mean.

1. Of the 80 children at a daycare center, 32 missed at least

1 day because of illness in January. What percent of the
children at the center missed at least 1 day due to illness
in January?
A. 4%
B. 16%
C. 24%
D. 32%
E. 40%

2. Three lines intersect to form the triangle below. What is

the value of x?

xº

40º
55º

F. 55º
G. 75º
H. 85º
J. 95º
K. 105º

CONTINUE
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3. A businessperson calculates that it costs her p dollars SHOW YOUR WORK HERE
per hour in parts costs and l dollars per hour in labor
costs to operate a certain piece of machinery. Which of
the following expressions would provide her with the
total cost of operating this machine for x hours?
A. plx
B. (px)(lx)
C. x(p + l)
D. pl
E. p + l

4. Which of the following is the graph of j(x) = 3x – 2?

J. y
F. y

x
(–2,1)
–1 2
x

K.
G. y y

x
–2 –1

x
–1

–2

H.
y

–1

–2

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5. A phone company charges $1 for a calling card, plus 25 SHOW YOUR WORK HERE
cents per minute for the length of a call. If Jacob uses a
calling card to make 7 calls, each of which lasts 3
minutes, what is his total cost for the calls?
A. $1.75
B. $2.75
C. $5.25
D. $5.50
E. $6.25

6. An amateur artist bought a painting at a yard sale for

$85. She restored the painting and sold it via an online
auction for $125. What percent profit did she earn if she
had to pay 3% in fees to the manager of the auction site?

36.25
F. × 100%
85
G. 36.25 × 100%
125
H. 40%

J. 40
× 100%
85
K. 36.25%

7. Which of the following is equal to the sum of

2 1
, , and 0.177 ?
5 8

A. 0.525
B. 0.577
C. 0.602
D. 0.692
E. 0.702

8. In the figure below, BC = 2 and BD = 10. If the area of

triangle ABC is 5 square inches, what is the area, in
square inches, of triangle ACD?

B C D

F. 8
G. 15
H. 20
J. 25
K. 30

CONTINUE
  835
Peterson's ACT® Prep Guide 2018
 Practice Test 3

9. If w =
2 1
and z = − , what is the value of
w+z
?
SHOW YOUR WORK HERE
3 9 2(w − z )

1
A. −
3
5
B. −
14
5
C.
14
1
D.
2
14
E.
5

10. What is the asymptote for the graph of

F(x) = 5 – log(x + 4)?
F. x = –4
G. y=5
H. y = –4
J. x=4
K. x=5
2x
11. What is the inverse of the function g( x ) = ?
x −1
x −1
A. g −1( x ) =
2x
1
B. g −1( x ) =
x −2
x −2
C. g −1( x ) =
x
x
D. g −1( x ) =
x −2
x ( x − 1)
E. g −1( x ) =
2

12. Suppose p, q, and r are prime numbers. What is the least

common multiple of the whole numbers p2qr3, pq3r3,
and p3r4?
F. pqr3
G. p2q3r3
H. p3q3r4
J. pqr
K. p6q4r10

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 Practice Test 3

13. Colin earns an annual salary of C dollars, and Daryl earns SHOW YOUR WORK HERE
an annual salary of D dollars. If the difference between
Colin’s and Daryl’s average monthly salary is $500, which
of the following represents the relationship between C
and D?

A. C − D = 500

B. C + D = 500

C +D
C. = 6 , 000
2
D. C − D = 6 , 000

E. C + D = 6 , 000

14. A 1980s-style arcade charges customers an admission

fee of $8.50, and it costs just $0.25 per game. Mike and
Stan, together, spent $35. If Stan played three fewer
than twice the number of games Mike played, how
many games did they play, total?
F. 18
G. 25
H. 47
J. 72
K. 75

15. In the figure below, segments AD and BC intersect at

point E and AB  CD. What is the measure of ∠CED ?

D
B
40º
60º

A
C

A. 40°
B. 60°
C. 80°
D. 100°
E. Cannot be determined from the given information

CONTINUE
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 Practice Test 3

16. Two eight-sided dice are used in a board game. One is SHOW YOUR WORK HERE
red with faces labeled as A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H, while
the other is blue with faces labeled as 0, 10, 20, 50, 100,
500, 1,000, and 5,000. If the result of rolling both dice is
recorded, how many possible outcomes are there?
F. 8
G. 16
H. 32
J. 64
K. 128

17. What is the slope of a line perpendicular to the line

whose equation is 2x – 5y – 1 = 0?
5
A. −
2
1
B. −
2
2
C.
5
1
D.
2

E. 2

18. A painter calculates that one gallon of paint can cover a

400 square foot wall with no paint left over. A house has
four walls that are 20 feet tall. Two of the walls are 30
feet long, and two of the walls are 40 feet long. How
many gallons of paint will the painter need to cover all
four walls?
1
F. 3
2

G. 1
5
2
H. 6
J. 7
K. 30

19. What value of w makes the proportion true?

2w + 1 5
=
3 3 6
A.
4
4
B.
3
7
C.
6
D. 9
E. 15

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 Practice Test 3

20. In the figure below, triangles BCA and DEF are similar. SHOW YOUR WORK HERE
What is the length of segment EF?

B F

16
40
30 D
24

A 20 C E

F. 28
G. 30
H. 32
J. 36
K. 40

21. For all nonnegative values of x and y, to which

43 x 7 y
expression is equal?
32 x 4 y 3

8 14 23
A. x y
3
2
4x3
B.
3y
3
8x 2
C.
3y

8 21 2
D. x y
3

3
8x
E. 2
3y

22. The average of six test scores is 80. When two more tests
are included, the average for all eight tests is 85. What is
the average score of the two added tests?
F. 70
G. 85
H. 90
J. 95
K. 100

CONTINUE
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 Practice Test 3

23. What is the area of right triangle ABC below, in square SHOW YOUR WORK HERE
centimeters?

15 cm
9 cm

A C

A. 12
B. 36
C. 54
D. 108
E. 135

24. It took Renee exactly 4 minutes and 26 seconds to

download a file from the Internet to her computer. At
that same rate, how long would it take Renee to
1
download a file that is 2 times as large as the first file?
2

F. 10 minutes and 5 seconds

G. 10 minutes and 26 seconds
H. 10 minutes and 52 seconds
J. 11 minutes and 5 seconds
K. 11 minutes and 15 seconds

25. A college campus’s central green is a square lawn

bordered by footpaths 100 feet long on each side. The
college plans to create a diagonal footpath that would
connect the southwest corner of the green to the
northeast corner of the green. Approximately how many
feet shorter would the new path be than the shortest
possible route on the existing footpaths?
A. 40
B. 50
C. 60
D. 140
E. 150

26. Nick sold his riding mower for $5,400. If this is 30% less
than what he originally paid, how much did the mower
originally cost?
5, 400
F. dollars
0.7
G. 0.7(5,400) dollars
H. 0.3(5,400) dollars
J. 5,400 + 0.7 dollars
K. 5, 400 dollars
0.3

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 Practice Test 3

27. Ben has won the bid to repaint the local high school SHOW YOUR WORK HERE
football stadium. If one gallon of paint covers an area of
150 square feet, what is the minimum number of gallons
he will need to paint two rectangular walls that are 100
yards long and 15 yards high?
A. 20
B. 60
C. 90
D. 150
E. 180

28. In the figure below, WXYZ is a square. Points are chosen

on each pair of adjacent sides of WXYZ to form four
congruent right triangles, as shown below. Each of the
triangles has one leg that is three times longer than the
other leg. What is the ratio of the area of the four
triangles to the area of the shaded region?

X Y

3a

W a Z

3
F.
8
2
G.
5

1
H.
2
3
J.
5

3
K.
4

CONTINUE
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 Practice Test 3

1
−
1 SHOW YOUR WORK HERE
29. 10 100 =
1 1
−
5 25

9
A.
625
1
B.
4
9
C.
16

16
D.
9

E. 625
9

30. What is the equation of the linear function whose graph

is below?

(–2,–1)

(4,–3)

F. f(x) = –3x – 7
1 5
G. f ( x ) = − x −
3 3
H. f(x) = –3x – 2
1
J. f (x) = − x − 2
3
1 5
K. f ( x ) = x +
3 3

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 Practice Test 3

31. At a township meeting, thirty residents are asked how SHOW YOUR WORK HERE
many robocalls they received, on average, in a typical
evening during election season. They responded as
follows:

5 1 0 8 5 4
2 4 1 8 0 5
2 1 0 0 7 8
1 5 1 2 7 1
1 4 4 1 3 1

What is the relationship between the mean, median,

and mode of this data set?

A. mean < median < mode

B. mean < mode < median
C. mode < median < mean
D. median < mean < mode
E. mode < mean < median

2
32. For 90 < q < 180 , if sinq = , then cotq =
3
5
F. −
2
G. −2 5

5
H. −
3

5
J.
3
2 5
K. −
9

CONTINUE
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 Practice Test 3

33. The average of x numbers is 15. If two of the numbers SHOW YOUR WORK HERE
are each increased by y, the new average will be
increased by how much?
A. 2y
B. y
x
C.
2y

D. y
x

2y
E.
x

34. Points A, B, and C below lie on the circumference of a

circle with center O. If the unshaded sectors AOB and
2 1
BOC comprise and of the area of the circle,
5 3
respectively, what is the measure of ∠AOC ?
B

C
A
F. 48°
G. 90°
H. 92°
J. 96°
K. 264°

35. A 12-foot ladder is propped against a 10-foot house as

shown below. Approximately how many feet is the base
of the ladder from the wall of the house?
t

10 feet
e
fe
12

A. 2.0
B. 4.0
C. 6.6
D. 15.6
E. 44

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 Practice Test 3

36. What is the area of a circle with a diameter of 12 yards? SHOW YOUR WORK HERE
F. 36π square yards
2

G. 144 square yards

H. 12π square yards
J. 36π square yards
K. 144π square yards

37. There are 3 teaspoons in 1 tablespoon. A bottle of cough

medicine contains 24 tablespoon-sized servings and
costs $4.50. What is the approximate cost per teaspoon?
A. $0.06
B. $0.15
C. $0.19
D. $0.60
E. $1.50

38. A line passing through the point (–1, 4) is perpendicular

to the line passing through (–3, 2) and (–3, –5). What is
the equation of this line?
F. y = x + 5
G. y = 4
H. 9x + 2y = 5
J. x = –1
K. y = –x – 5

39. A right triangle has hypotenuse with length 5 yards and

one leg has length 2 yards. What is the area of this
triangle?
A. 3 square yards
B. 29 square yards
C. 5 square yards
D. 21 square yards
5
E. 21 square yards
2

CONTINUE
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Peterson's ACT® Prep Guide 2018
 Practice Test 3

2  4 SHOW YOUR WORK HERE

40. Let h( x ) = 1− . Compute h  −  .
3x  x
F. x
x + 24
G.
x
2x +1
H.
12
J. 8 − 12 x
3x 2
K. x+6
6
41. What is the y-intercept, if one exists, of the following
piecewise-defined function?

 x + 1 + 5, x ≤ −2

F( x ) =  4 + 3x , − 2 < x ≤ 1

 − x + 1, x >1
2

A. No y-intercept

B. 4
−
3
C. 1
D. 4
E. 6

42. What is the least possible value for the product xy,
if x + y = 24 and x and y are both prime numbers?
F. 23
G. 44
H. 95
J. 119
K. 143

43. The center of a circle is (–4, 3). If the point (2, –2) lies on
this circle, what is the equation of this circle?

A. (x – 4)2 + (y + 3)3 = 61
B. (x – 4)2 + (y + 3)3 = 61
C. (x + 4)2 + (y – 3)3 = 11
D. (x – 2)2 + (y + 2)2 = 61
E. (x + 4)2 + (y – 3)2 = 61

44. If 0.3z – 0.24 = 1.2(0.3 – z), what is the value of z i 10 −3?

F. 0.0004
G. 0.004
H. 0.4
J. 400
K. 4,000

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 Practice Test 3

45. In the isosceles right triangle below, what is the value of SHOW YOUR WORK HERE
tan x°?

xº

2
A.
2

B. 1

C. 2

3
D.
2

E. 3

46. What is the area of the rectangle shown below in the

standard (x, y) coordinate plane?

(7,2)
x
(–5,–2)

(–1,–6)

F. 32 2
G. 64
H. 24 2
J. 128
K. 144

CONTINUE
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Peterson's ACT® Prep Guide 2018
 Practice Test 3

3 2
SHOW YOUR WORK HERE
47. If x y is positive, then which of the following could
z
be true?
I. x and z are both negative
II. x is negative and z is positive
III. x is zero

A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II, and III
 1 
48. What is the value of log5  ?
 625 
F. –4
G. –3
1
H.
4
J. 4
K. 125

49. If x is inversely related to y and y is directly related to z,

which of the following expressions gives one possibility
for y in terms of x and z?
A. x
y=
z
B. z
y=
x
C. y = zx
D. y = xz
E. y = zx

50. Mary is weatherproofing her rain gutters for the winter.

To prevent freezing, she needs to install heat tape along
the gutters. The local hardware store charges $8.10 per
3-foot segment. What is the cost for 114 feet of heat
tape if 5% sales tax is added to the cost?
F. $292.41
G. $307.80
H. $323.19
J. $923.40
K. $969.57

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 Practice Test 3

3(1− 2 y ) 2 − 4 y SHOW YOUR WORK HERE

51. If − = y , what is y–1?
4 3
A. –16
1
B. − 5

C. 1
−
16
D. 5
E. 16
Ê pˆ
52. What is the period of the graph of y = 4 cos Á 3 x - ˜ + 1?
Ë 2¯
p
F.
6
2p
G.
3
H. 3
J. 4
K. 2π

53. The length of a diagonal of a square is 8 inches long.

What is the perimeter of the square?
A. 4 2 inches
B. 8 2 inches
C. 16
D. 16 2 inches
E. 32 inches

54. A positive number x is increased by 20 percent, and the

result is then decreased by 30 percent. The final result is
equal to which of the following?
F. x decreased by 50 percent
G. x decreased by 16 percent
H. x decreased by 10 percent
J. x increased by 10 percent
K. x increased by 24 percent

55. A 50-foot wire is attached to the top of an electric pole

and is anchored on the ground. If the wire rises in a
straight line at a 70° angle from the ground, how many
feet tall is the pole?
A. 50 sin 70°
B. 50 cos 70°
C. 50 tan 70°
cos 70°
D.
50

E. 50
cos 70°

CONTINUE
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 Practice Test 3

56. What is the complete solution set of the inequality SHOW YOUR WORK HERE
2|3x + 1| > 8?
F. {x: x > 5}
5
G. {x: x < − }
3
5
H. {x: x > 1 or x < − }
3
17
J. {x: x > 5 or x < − }
5
K. {x: x > 1}

57. For what values of c do the lines 2x – cy = 1 and

8cx –2 = y never intersect in the standard xy-plane?

A. c = 0
1 1
B. c=− ,c=
2 2
C. c = –2, c = 2
D. c = –4, c = 4
1 1
E. c=− ,c=
16 16
58. Lines m and n are perpendicular in the standard (x, y)
coordinate plane below. Which of the following is the
equation for line n?
y

n (–1,5)

(–2,2)
x

F. y = –x + 5
G. y = –2x + 3
H. 2y = –x – 4
J. 3y = –x + 14
K. 3y = x + 16

59. Equally sized cards numbered from 1 to 30 are placed in

a box. If one card is selected at random, what is the
probability that the number on the card is either odd or
divisible by 5?
A. 0.18
B. 0.40
C. 0.50
D. 0.60
E. 0.70

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 Practice Test 3

60. While shopping at a clothing store, Ben finds that a shirt SHOW YOUR WORK HERE
and two ties cost $105, while two shirts and one tie cost
$135. If the store charges the same price for all of its
shirts and the same price for all of its ties, what is Ben’s
cost if he wants to buy just one tie?
F. $15
G. $25
H. $30
J. $50
K. $55

STOP
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Peterson's ACT® Prep Guide 2018

READING TEST
35 Minutes—40 Questions
DIRECTIONS: There are four passages in this test. Each passage is followed by several questions. Read each passage, select
the best answer to each related question, and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. You may look back at the
passages as often as you need.
PASSAGE I
PROSE FICTION: Passage A is an excerpt from Pride and Prejudice
by Jane Austen. Passage B is an excerpt from Middlemarch by
George Eliot.
Passage A
by Jane Austen
Mr. Bennet was among the earliest of those who waited on
Mr. Bingley. He had always intended to visit him, though to the
last always assuring his wife that he should not go; and till the
evening after the visit was paid she had no knowledge of it. It
5 was then disclosed in the following manner. Observing his
second daughter employed in trimming a hat, he suddenly
addressed her with:
“I hope Mr. Bingley will like it, Lizzy.”
“We are not in a way to know what Mr. Bingley likes,” said her
10 mother resentfully, “since we are not to visit.”
“But you forget, mamma,” said Elizabeth, “that we shall meet
him at the assemblies, and that Mrs. Long promised to introduce
him.”
“I do not believe Mrs. Long will do any such thing. She has
15 two nieces of her own. She is a selfish, hypocritical woman, and
I have no opinion of her.”
“No more have I,” said Mr. Bennet; “and I am glad to find that
you do not depend on her serving you.”
Mrs. Bennet deigned not to make any reply, but, unable to
20 contain herself, began scolding one of her daughters.
“Don’t keep coughing so, Kitty, for Heaven’s sake! Have a little
compassion on my nerves. You tear them to pieces.”
“Kitty has no discretion in her coughs,” said her father; “she
times them ill.”
25 “I do not cough for my own amusement,” replied Kitty fretfully.
“When is your next ball to be, Lizzy?”
“Tomorrow fortnight.”
Practice Test 3
“Aye, so it is,” cried her mother, “and Mrs. Long does not
come back till the day before; so it will be impossible for her
30 to introduce him, for she will not know him herself.”
“Then, my dear, you may have the advantage of your friend,
Practice Test 3 — reading
and introduce Mr. Bingley to her.”
“Impossible, Mr. Bennet, impossible, when I am not
acquainted with him myself; how can you be so teasing?”
35 “I honour your circumspection. A fortnight’s acquaintance
is certainly very little. One cannot know what a man really is
by the end of a fortnight. But if we do not venture somebody
else will; and after all, Mrs. Long and her daughters must stand
their chance; and, therefore, as she will think it an act of
40 kindness, if you decline the office, I will take it on myself.”
The girls stared at their father. Mrs. Bennet said only,
“Nonsense, nonsense!”
“What can be the meaning of that emphatic exclamation?”
cried he. “Do you consider the forms of introduction, and the
45 stress that is laid on them, as nonsense? I cannot quite agree
with you there. What say you, Mary? For you are a young lady
of deep reflection, I know, and read great books and make
extracts.”
Mary wished to say something sensible, but knew not how.
Passage B
by George Eliot
Celia thought privately, “Dorothea quite despises Sir James
Chettam; I believe she would not accept him.” Celia felt that
this was a pity. She had never been deceived as to the object
of the baronet’s interest. Sometimes, indeed, she had reflected
5 that Dodo would perhaps not make a husband happy who
had not her way of looking at things; and stifled in the depths
of her heart was the feeling that her sister was too religious
for family comfort. Notions and scruples were like spilt needles,
making one afraid of treading, or sitting down, or even eating.
10 When Miss Brooke was at the tea-table, Sir James came to
sit down by her, not having felt her mode of answering him
CONTINUE
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 Practice Test 3

at all offensive. Why should he? He thought it probable that Questions 1–3 ask about Passage A.
Miss Brooke liked him, and manners must be very marked indeed
1. Lizzy is described in the passage as the Bennets’:
before they cease to be interpreted by preconceptions either
15 confident or distrustful. She was thoroughly charming to him, A. youngest daughter.
but of course he theorized a little about his attachment. He was B. oldest daughter.
made of excellent human dough, and had the rare merit of C. sensible daughter.
knowing that his talents, even if let loose, would not set the D. second daughter.
smallest stream in the county on fire: hence he liked the prospect 2. As it is used in line 22, the phrase “You tear them to
20 of a wife to whom he could say, “What shall we do?” about this pieces” most likely means:
or that; who could help her husband out with reasons, and
would also have the property qualification for doing so. F. “you are extremely destructive.”
G. “you have a tendency toward violence.”
As to the excessive religiousness alleged against Miss Brooke, H. “you are making me upset.”
he had a very indefinite notion of what it consisted in, and J. “you are making me physically ill.”
25 thought that it would die out with marriage. In short, he felt
himself to be in love in the right place, and was ready to endure 3. When Mr. Bennet tells his wife that she should
a great deal of predominance, which, after all, a man could introduce Mr. Bingley to Lizzy, she feels that Mr. Bennet:
always put down when he liked. Sir James had no idea that he A. has lost his mind.
should ever like to put down the predominance of this handsome B. is breaching etiquette.
30 girl, in whose cleverness he delighted. Why not? A man’s mind— C. does not understand his wife.
what there is of it—has always the advantage of being mas- D. does not love his wife.
culine,—as the smallest birch-tree is of a higher kind than the
Questions 4–6 ask about Passage B.
most soaring palm,—and even his ignorance is of a sounder
quality. Sir James might not have originated this estimate; but 4. According to the passage, people seem to think that
35 a kind Providence furnishes the limpest personality with a little Miss Brooke is:
gunk or starch in the form of tradition. F. too rude.
“Let me hope that you will rescind that resolution about the G. too religious.
horse, Miss Brooke,” said the persevering admirer. “I assure you, H. too happy.
riding is the most healthy of exercises.” J. too unscrupulous.

40 “I am aware of it,” said Dorothea, coldly. “I think it would do 5. In the context of the passage, the primary function of
Celia good—if she would take to it.” lines 28–30 is to:

“But you are such a perfect horsewoman.” A. quote something Sir James said about Miss
Brooke.
“Excuse me; I have had very little practice, and I should be B. reveal Sir James’s true feelings about Miss Brooke.
easily thrown.” C. contradict the idea that Sir James was charming.
45 “Then that is a reason for more practice. Every lady ought to D. list examples of why Sir James loved Miss Brooke.
be a perfect horsewoman, that she may accompany her 6. As it is used in line 3, the word pity most nearly means:
husband.”
F. sorry.
“You see how widely we differ, Sir James. I have made up my G. compassion.
mind that I ought not to be a perfect horsewoman, and so I H. sympathy.
50 should never correspond to your pattern of a lady.” Dorothea J. shame.
looked straight before her, and spoke with cold brusquerie, very
Questions 7–10 ask about both passages.
much with the air of a handsome boy, in amusing contrast with
the solicitous amiability of her admirer. 7. Given the way they are presented in each passage, Mrs.
Bennet and Miss Brooke are best described as:
A. demure.
B. disgusted.
C. short-tempered.
D. amusing.

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8. In what way is Kitty in Passage A DIFFERENT from Miss
Brooke in Passage B?
F. Kitty is concerned about how others interpret her
behavior.
G. Kitty does not care about what is expected of
women.
H. Kitty uses hostility to mask her romantic feelings.
J. Kitty is extremely selfish and hypocritical.
9. The narrators of Passage A and Passage B reveal the
inner thoughts of which characters from each passage?
A. Kitty and Celia
B. Elizabeth and Miss Brooke
C. Mr. Bingley and Sir James
D. Mary and Celia
10. It can be inferred that Mr. Bingley in Passage A and Sir
James in Passage B are both:
F. extremely charming.
G. uninterested in etiquette.
H. unmarried men.
J. in love with the women they meet.
PASSAGE II
SOCIAL SCIENCE: The following passage is excerpted from a
biography of social reformer and activist Susan B. Anthony, who
worked to ensure that women have the right to vote in the
United States.
Susan preached militancy to women throughout the presi-
dential campaign of 1872, urging them to claim their rights
under the Fourteenth and Fifteenth Amendments by registering
and voting in every state in the Union.
5 Even before Francis Minor had called her attention to the
possibilities offered by these amendments, she had followed
with great interest a similar effort by Englishwomen who, in
1867 and 1868, had attempted to prove that the “ancient legal
rights of females” were still valid and entitled women property
10 holders to vote for representatives in Parliament, and who
claimed that the word “man” in Parliamentary statutes should
be interpreted to include women. In the case of the 5,346
householders of Manchester, the court held that “every woman
is personally incapable” in a legal sense. This legal contest had
15 been fully reported in The Revolution, and disappointing as the
verdict was, Susan looked upon this attempt to establish justice
as an indication of a great awakening and uprising among
women.
Practice Test 3
There had also been heartening signs in her own country,
20 which she hoped were the preparation for more successful
militancy to come. She had exulted in The Revolution in 1868
over the attempt of women to vote in Vineland, New Jersey.
Encouraged by the enfranchisement of women in Wyoming in
1869, Mary Olney Brown and Charlotte Olney French had cast
25 their votes in Washington Territory. A young widow, Marilla
Ricker, had registered and voted in New Hampshire in 1870,
claiming this right as a property holder, but her vote was refused.
In 1871, Nannette B. Gardner and Catherine Stebbins in Detroit,
Catherine V. White in Illinois, Ellen R. Van Valkenburg in Santa
30 Cruz, California, and Carrie S. Burnham in Philadelphia registered
and attempted to vote. Only Mrs. Gardner’s vote was accepted.
That same year, Sarah Andrews Spencer, Sarah E. Webster, and
seventy other women marched to the polls to register and vote
in the District of Columbia. Their ballots refused, they brought
35 suit against the Board of Election Inspectors, carrying the case
unsuccessfully to the Supreme Court of the United States.
Another test case based on the Fourteenth Amendment had
also been carried to the Supreme Court by Myra Bradwell, one
of the first women lawyers, who had been denied admission to
40 the Illinois bar because she was a woman.
With the spotlight turned on the Fourteenth Amendment by
these women, lawyers here and there throughout the country
were discussing the legal points involved, many admitting that
women had a good case. Even the press was friendly.
45 Susan had looked forward to claiming her rights under the
Fourteenth and Fifteenth Amendments and was ready to act.
She had spent the thirty days required of voters in Rochester
with her family and as she glanced through the morning paper
of November 1, 1872, she read these challenging words, “Now
50 Register … If you were not permitted to vote you would fight
for the right, undergo all privations for it, face death for it… .”
This was all the reminder she needed. She would fight for
this right. She put on her bonnet and coat, telling her three
sisters what she intended to do, asked them to join her, and
55 with them walked briskly to the barber shop where the voters
of her ward were registering. Boldly entering this stronghold
of men, she asked to be registered. The inspector in charge,
Beverly W. Jones, tried to convince her that this was impossible
under the laws of New York. She told him she claimed her right
60 to vote not under the New York constitution but under the
Fourteenth Amendment, and she read him its pertinent lines.
Other election inspectors now joined in the argument, but she
persisted until two of them, Beverly W. Jones and Edwin F. Marsh,
both Republicans, finally consented to register the four women.
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 Practice Test 3
65 This mission accomplished, Susan rounded up twelve more
women willing to register. The evening papers spread the sen-
sational news, and by the end of the registration period, fifty
Rochester women had joined the ranks of the militants.
On election day, November 5, 1872, Susan gleefully wrote
70 Elizabeth Stanton, “Well, I have gone and done it!!—positively
voted the Republican ticket—Strait—this a.m. at 7 o’clock—&
swore my vote in at that.... All my three sisters voted—Rhoda
deGarmo too—Amy Post was rejected & she will immediately
bring action against the registrars.... Not a jeer not a word—not
75 a look—disrespectful has met a single woman.... I hope the
mornings telegrams will tell of many women all over the country
trying to vote.... I hope you voted too.”
Election day did not bring the general uprising of women for
which Susan had hoped. In Michigan, Missouri, Ohio, and
80 Connecticut, as in Rochester, a few women tried to vote. In New
York City, Lillie Devereux Blake and in Fayetteville, New York,
Matilda Joslyn Gage had courageously gone to the polls only
to be turned away. Elizabeth Stanton did not vote on November
5, 1872, and her lack of enthusiasm about a test case in the
85 courts was very disappointing to Susan.
However, the fact that Susan B. Anthony had voted won
immediate response from the press in all parts of the country.
Newspapers in general were friendly, the New York Times boldly
declaring, “The act of Susan B. Anthony should have a place in
90 history,” and the Chicago Tribune venturing to suggest that she
ought to hold public office. The cartoonists, however, reveling
in a new and tempting subject, caricatured her unmercifully,
the New York Graphic setting the tone. Some Democratic papers
condemned her, following the line of the Rochester Union and
95 Advertiser which flaunted the headline, “Female Lawlessness,”
and declared that Miss Anthony’s lawlessness had proved
women unfit for the ballot.
11. The passage specifies that when more than seventy
women were refused the right to vote in the District of
Columbia in 1871 they:
A. tried to vote anyway, but only the vote of
Nannette B. Gardner was accepted.
B. sued the Board of Election Inspectors in a case
heard by the US Supreme Court.
C. organized a march on Washington, D.C., to protest
such unfair treatment.
D. traveled to Washington Territory to vote there
instead.
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12. Based on information in the passage, Susan B. Anthony
would most likely promote which of the following
methods to secure one’s civil rights?
F. Conduct a violent revolution.
G. Complain to the press.
H. Vote for sympathetic politicians.
J. Invoke the U.S. constitution.
13. The efforts described in the third paragraph are
presented in order to illustrate the idea that:
A. a militant effort to secure women the right to vote
was in full force.
B. Susan B. Anthony was not alone in her efforts to
secure women the right to vote.
C. every woman in the United States was angered
that they did not have the right to vote.
D. activists would use the Supreme Court as their
main tool for securing equal rights.
14. The author of the passage appears to feel that the
question “What does it take to enact social change?” is
best answered by the assertion that it takes:
F. the dedicated work of a single visionary.
G. an effort to vote out the politicians currently in
charge.
H. a unified effort by many dedicated individuals.
J. a lawsuit brought in front of the US Supreme
Court.
15. The author states in paragraph 6 that Beverly W. Jones
and Edwin F. Marsh “finally consented to register the
four women” because:
A. Susan B. Anthony’s argument was so persistent.
B. Susan B. Anthony read lines from the Fourteenth
Amendment.
C. Susan B. Anthony turned election inspectors
against each other.
D. Susan B. Anthony rounded up twelve more women
willing to register.
16. As it is used in line 61, the word pertinent most nearly
means:
F. relevant.
G. interesting.
H. persistent.
J. remorseful.

17. According to the passage, the news media reported on
the registration of women voters in Rochester after:
A. fifty women had joined the ranks of the militants.
B. Anthony wrote a gleeful letter to Elizabeth
Stanton.
C. Amy Post sued the registrars who would not allow
her to vote.
D. Anthony had successfully gotten sixteen women
to register to vote.
18. In the third paragraph (lines 19-40), the author
discusses Myra Bradwell in a manner that:
F. emphasizes how Myra Bradwell was not qualified
for the Illinois bar.
G. exaggerates the difficulties of being a woman
during Susan B. Anthony’s time.
H. highlights the challenges women faced during
Susan B. Anthony’s time.
J. showcases the brightest women who lived during
Susan B. Anthony’s time.
19. According to the ninth paragraph, Susan B. Anthony
was NOT criticized by:
A. the New York Graphic.
B. the Rochester Union and Advertiser.
C. many editorial cartoonists.
D. the Chicago Tribune.
20. One of the main points made in the eighth paragraph
is that although Anthony brought a great deal of
attention to the movement to win women the right to
vote in the United States, her initial efforts:
F. inspired women such as Lillie Devereux Blake and
Matilda Joslyn Gage to vote.
G. were heavily criticized by Elizabeth Stanton.
H. failed to inspire many other women to fight for
that right.
J. were ruthlessly mocked in all news media outlets.
PASSAGE III
HUMANITIES: The following passage is adapted from a history
of French Impressionist painters originally published in 1903.
Now I must speak at some length of a painter who, together
with the luminous and sparkling landscapist Félix Ziem, was
the most direct initiator of Impressionist technique. Monticelli
is one of those singular men of genius who are not connected
5 with any school, and whose work is an inexhaustible source of
applications. He lived at Marseilles, where he was born, made
a short appearance at the Salons, and then returned to his native
town, where he died poor, ignored, paralyzed and mad. In order
to live he sold his small pictures at the cafés, where they fetched
Practice Test 3
10 ten or twenty francs at the most. Today they sell for considerable
prices, although the government has not yet acquired any work
by Monticelli for the public galleries. The mysterious power
alone of these paintings secures him a fame which is, alas!
posthumous. Many Monticellis have been sold by dealers as
15 Diaz’s; now they are more eagerly looked for than Diaz, and
collectors have made fortunes with these small canvases bought
formerly, to use a colloquial expression which is here only too
literally true, “for a piece of bread.”
Monticelli painted landscapes, romantic scenes, “fêtes
20 galantes” in the spirit of Watteau, and still-life pictures: one could
not imagine a more inspired sense of color than shown by these
works which seem to be painted with crushed jewels, with
powerful harmony, and beyond all with an unheard-of delicacy
in the perception of fine shades. There are tones which nobody
25 had ever invented yet, a richness, a profusion, a subtlety which
almost vie with the resources of music. The fairyland atmosphere
of these works surrounds a very firm design of charming style,
but, to use the words of the artist himself, “in these canvases
the objects are the decoration, the touches are the scales, and
the light is the tenor.” Monticelli has created for himself an
30
entirely personal technique which can only be compared with
that of Turner; he painted with a brush so full, fat and rich, that
some of the details are often truly modeled in relief, in a sub-
stance as precious as enamels, jewels, ceramics—a substance
35 which is a delight in itself. Every picture by Monticelli provokes
astonishment; constructed upon one color as upon a musical
theme, it rises to intensities, which one would have thought
impossible. His pictures are magnificent bouquets, bursts of
joy and color, where nothing is ever crude, and where everything
40 is ruled by a supreme sense of harmony.
Claude Lorrain, Watteau, Turner and Monticelli constitute
really the descent of a landscapist like Claude Monet. In all
matters concerning technique, they form the direct chain of
Impressionism. As regards design, subject, realism, the study
45 of modern life, the conception of beauty and the portrait, the
Impressionist movement is based upon the old French masters,
principally upon Chardin, Watteau, Latour, Largillière, Fragonard,
Debucourt, Saint-Aubin, Moreau, and Eisen. It has resolutely
held aloof from mythology, academic allegory, historical
50 painting, and from the neo-Greek elements of Classicism as
well as from the German and Spanish elements of Romanticism.
This reactionary movement is therefore entirely French, and
surely if it deserves reproach, the one least deserved is that
leveled upon it by the official painters: disobedience to the
55 national spirit. Impressionism is an art which does not give
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much scope to intellectuality, an art whose followers admit 23. The image in lines 35-40 functions figuratively to
scarcely anything but immediate vision, rejecting philosophy suggest that:
and symbols and occupying themselves only with the consid- A. music had a direct influence on Monticelli’s
eration of light, picturesqueness, keen and clever observation, paintings.
60 and antipathy to abstraction, as the innate qualities of French B. Monticelli never used more than one color in his
art. We shall see later on, when considering separately its prin- paintings.
cipal masters, that each of them has based his art upon some C. Monticelli was a great musical composer as well as
masters of pure French blood. a great artist.
D. the basic elements in Monticelli’s paintings have
Impressionism has, then, hitherto been very badly judged.
great emotional impact.
65 It is contained in two chief points: search after a new technique,
and expression of modern reality. Its birth has not been a spon- 24. According to the third paragraph, Impressionistic art
taneous phenomenon. Manet, who, by his spirit and by the involves:
chance of his friendships, grouped around him the principal I. abstract imagery.
members, commenced by being classed in the ranks of the II. the consideration of light.
70 Realists of the second Romanticism by the side of Courbet; and III. picturesqueness.
during the whole first period of his work he only endeavored F. I only
to describe contemporary scenes, at a time when the laws of G. III only
the new technique were already dawning upon Claude Monet. H. II and III only
Gradually the grouping of the Impressionists took place. Claude J. I, II, and III
75 Monet is really the first initiator: in a parallel line with his ideas
and his works Manet passed into the second period of his artistic 25. It can be inferred from the second paragraph that:
life, and with him Renoir, Degas and Pissarro. But Manet had A. Impressionistic art can provoke strong emotions.
already during his first period been the topic of far-echoing B. no artist can be compared to Monticelli.
polemics, caused by his realism and by the marked influence C. landscape art was too mundane for the
80 of the Spaniards and of Hals upon his style; his temperament, Impressionists.
too, was that of the head of a school; and for these reasons D. Monticelli was not appreciated during his lifetime.
legend has attached to his name the title of head of the
26. The passage suggests that Manet was considered a
Impressionist school, but this legend is incorrect.
Realist because:

21. As it is used in line 21, the word inspired most likely F. of his peculiar temperament.
means: G. he tended to paint contemporary scenes.
H. he was friends with many Realists.
A. animated.
J. he was often confused with Monet.
B. encouraged.
C. exceptional. 27. The main idea of the passage is that:
D. educated.
A. Monticelli is one of the key artists of
22. The author of the passage would most likely agree with Impressionism, though his work was not appre-
which of the following statements? ciated until after his death.
B. Impressionism is an exciting art form that took
F. The use of symbols is not necessarily an integral
some time to develop and it has often been
element of good art.
unfairly judged.
G. Romantic and Classical art is worthless.
C. in terms of subject, realism, modernity, beauty,
H. The finest art depicts imagery from mythology.
and portraiture, Impressionism is based on the old
J. The Impressionists were the most technically
French masters.
advanced artists.
D. Manet was often considered the head of the
Impressionist school, but this is inaccurate.

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28. According to Paragraph 2, Monticelli:
I. used a thick brush.
II. often painted jewels.
III. was influenced by music.
F. I only
G. I and II only
H. II and III only
J. I, II, and III
29. Based on the information in the passage, which of the
following is a fact rather than an opinion?
A. Monticelli’s use of color was inspired.
B. Monticelli’s style was entirely personal.
C. All of Monticelli’s pictures provoke astonishment.
D. Monticelli painted landscapes and “fêtes galantes.”
30. The phrase “an art whose followers admit scarcely
anything but immediate vision” in Paragraph 3 implies
that:
F. the Impressionists refuse to discuss their work.
G. spontaneity is the main quality of Impressionist
art.
H. the Impressionists are not honest about their work
processes.
J. the Impressionists are only influenced by artists of
pure French blood.
PASSAGE IV
NATURAL SCIENCE: The following passage is excerpted from
a book about the principles of geology.
Geology is the science which investigates the successive
changes that have taken place in the organic and inorganic
kingdoms of nature; it inquires into the causes of these changes,
and the influence which they have exerted in modifying the
5 surface and external structure of our planet.
By these researches into the state of the earth and its inhab-
itants at former periods, we acquire a more perfect knowledge
of its present condition, and more comprehensive views con-
cerning the laws now governing its animate and inanimate
10 productions. When we study history, we obtain a more profound
insight into human nature, by instituting a comparison between
the present and former states of society. We trace the long series
of events which have gradually led to the actual posture of
affairs; and by connecting effects with their causes, we are
15 enabled to classify and retain in the memory a multitude of
complicated relations—the various peculiarities of national
character—the different degrees of moral and intellectual
Practice Test 3
refinement, and numerous other circumstances, which, without
historical associations, would be uninteresting or imperfectly
20 understood. As the present condition of nations is the result of
many antecedent changes, some extremely remote, and others
recent, some gradual, others sudden and violent; so the state,
of the natural world is the result of a long succession of events;
and if we would enlarge our experience of the present economy
25 of nature, we must investigate the effects of her operations in
former epochs.
We often discover with surprise, on looking back into the
chronicles of nations, how the fortune of some battle has influ-
enced the fate of millions of our contemporaries, when it has
30 long been forgotten by the mass of the population. With this
remote event we may find inseparably connected the geo-
graphical boundaries of a great state, the language now spoken
by the inhabitants, their peculiar manners, laws, and religious
opinions. But far more astonishing and unexpected are the
connections brought to light, when we carry back our researches
35
into the history of nature. The form of a coast, the configuration
of the interior of a country, the existence and extent of lakes,
valleys, and mountains, can often be traced to the former prev-
alence of earthquakes and volcanoes in regions which have
40 long been undisturbed. To these remote convulsions the present
fertility of some districts, the sterile character of others, the
elevation of land above the sea, the climate, and various pecu-
liarities, may be distinctly referred. On the other hand, many
distinguishing features of the surface may often be ascribed to
45 the operation, at a remote era, of slow and tranquil causes—to
the gradual deposition of sediment in a lake or in the ocean, or
to the prolific increase of testacea and corals...
Geology is intimately related to almost all the physical sci-
ences, as history is to the moral. An historian should, if possible,
50 be at once profoundly acquainted with ethics, politics, jurispru-
dence, the military art, theology; in a word, with all branches
of knowledge by which any insight into human affairs, or into
the moral and intellectual nature of man, can be obtained. It
would be no less desirable that a geologist should be well versed
55 in chemistry, natural philosophy, mineralogy, zoology, compar-
ative anatomy, botany; in short, in every science relating to
organic and inorganic nature. With these accomplishments, the
historian and geologist would rarely fail to draw correct and
philosophical conclusions from the various monuments trans-
60 mitted to them of former occurrences. They would know to
what combination of causes analogous effects were referable,
and they would often be enabled to supply, by inference, infor-
mation concerning many events unrecorded in the defective
archives of former ages. But as such extensive acquisitions are
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65 scarcely within the reach of any individual, it is necessary that declared that geology was in nowise concerned “with questions
men who have devoted their lives to different departments as to the origin of things.”
should unite their efforts; and as the historian receives assistance
from the antiquary, and from those who have cultivated different 31. The passage mentions that features of Earth may be
branches of moral and political science, so the geologist should the results of:
70 avail himself of the aid of many naturalists, and particularly of A. undisturbed areas of land.
those who have studied the fossil remains of lost species of B. land elevation.
animals and plants. C. ancient cataclysms.
D. natural erosion.
The analogy, however, of the monuments consulted in
geology, and those available in history, extends no farther than 32. According to the passage, the geologist should also
75 to one class of historical monuments—those which may be have a background in:
said to be undesignedly commemorative of former events. The I. botany.
canoes, for example, and stone hatchets found in our peat bogs, II. anatomy.
afford an insight into the rude arts and manners of the earliest III. chemistry.
inhabitants of our island; the buried coin fixes the date of the F. I only
80 reign of some Roman emperor; the ancient encampment indi- G. I and II only
cates the districts once occupied by invading armies, and the H. II and III only
former method of constructing military defenses; the Egyptian J. I, II, and III
mummies throw light on the art of embalming, the rites of
33. The passage suggests that geology was considered a
sepulture, or the average stature of the human race in ancient
branch of mineralogy as recently as:
85 Egypt. This class of memorials yields to no other in authenticity,
but it constitutes a small part only of the resources on which A. the late 1600s.
the historian relies, whereas in geology it forms the only kind B. the early 1700s.
of evidence which is at our command. For this reason we must C. the late 1700s.
not expect to obtain a full and connected account of any series D. the late 1800s.
90 of events beyond the reach of history. But the testimony of
34. It can reasonably be inferred from the passage that
geological monuments, if frequently imperfect, possesses at
geology is all of the following EXCEPT:
least the advantage of being free from all intentional misrep-
resentation. We may be deceived in the inferences which we F. a study of how Earth originated.
draw, in the same manner as we often mistake the nature and G. an area of study similar to the study of history.
95 import of phenomena observed in the daily course of nature; H. an area of study dependent on all the physical
but our liability to err is confined to the interpretation, and, if sciences.
this be correct, our information is certain. J. a means to explain Earth’s present condition.

35. As it is used in line 12, the word trace most likely

It was long before the distinct nature and legitimate objects means:
of geology were fully recognized, and it was at first confounded
A. outline the shape.
100 with many other branches of inquiry, just as the limits of history,
B. make a sketch.
poetry, and mythology were ill-defined in the infancy of civili-
C. a very small amount.
zation. Even in Werner’s time, or at the close of the eighteenth
D. locate and follow.
century, geology appears to have been regarded as little other
than a subordinate department of mineralogy; and Desmarest 36. The reason that geologists depend on naturalists is
105 included it under the head of Physical Geography. But the most due to the:
common and serious source of confusion arose from the notion,
F. difficulty of excavating the rocks, minerals, and
that it was the business of geology to discover the mode in
other materials that geologists study.
which the earth originated, or, as some imagined, to study the
G. reluctance of geologists to share their discoveries
effects of those cosmological causes which were employed by
with each other.
110 the Author of Nature to bring this planet out of a nascent and
H. fact that geologists must often study the things
chaotic state into a more perfect and habitable condition. Hutton
that naturalists have discovered.
was the first who endeavored to draw a strong line of demar-
J. importance of understanding different branches
cation between his favorite science and cosmogony, for he
of moral and political science.

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37. According to the passage, an increase in coral may:
A. alter Earth’s surface features.
B. impede the understanding of a geological feature.
C. cause an increase of Testacea.
D. increase the tranquility of Earth.
38. The passage states that historians may study mummies
in order to:
F. learn the dates in which rulers lived.
G. find out the areas that armies occupied.
H. gain knowledge about the human form.
J. know how ancient physicians treated the ill.
Practice Test 3
39. Based on information from the passage, historians have
all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:
A. knowledge of ethics and politics.
B. working relationships with other academics.
C. insight into human affairs.
D. understanding of natural philosophy.
40. Which of the following would be the best example of
violent “antecedent changes” that might affect “the
present condition of nations”?
F. The eruptions of volcanoes
G. Nineteenth-century political revolutions
H. Current wars
J. Presidential elections with unfortunate outcomes
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SCIENCE TEST
35 Minutes—40 Questions

DIRECTIONS: There are seven passages in this test. Each passage is followed by several questions. Read each passage,
select the best answer to each related question, and fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet. You may look back
at the passages as often as you need.

You are NOT allowed to use a calculator on this test.

PASSAGE I The following procedure was performed to investigate

whether different resistors acted as ohmic devices in a circuit.
As power is supplied to a circuit, current flows through the circuit.
The circuit was constructed as shown in Figure 1.

Practice Test 3 — science

An ammeter is the device used to measure the current, and many
ammeters measure current in milliamperes (mA). The voltage FIGURE 1
responsible for the current can be measured by a voltmeter and
is measured in volts. When a resistor is placed in a circuit, it
dampens the current flowing through a circuit at a given voltage. Ammeter Power Supply
If there is a linear relationship between current and voltage when
a resistor is placed in the circuit, the resistor is considered an
ohmic device. If the temperature of the resistor changes, then it Voltmeter
is not considered an ohmic device. Some resistors are sensitive
to small external temperature changes and will show a change
in resistance as a result of these temperature changes. These Resistor
resistors are called thermistors. The change in resistance exhibited
by a thermistor can be detected by a change in the observed After each resistor was connected to the circuit, the resistor
current at a given voltage. was submerged in water to detect any changes in temperature
as well as its sensitivity to different beginning temperatures.
The power source was turned on and the voltages of the
power source and the resulting current were recorded. The
voltage was changed several times, and the corresponding
current was noted.

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 Practice Test 3

Table 1 summarizes the results when three different resistors 1. When the temperature is 25°C and the voltage is 4.5
were tested at two different temperatures. In all cases, no change volts, what is the current of the circuit when Resistor B is
in water temperature was observed. used?
A. 81 mA
Table 1 B. 90 mA
C. 420 mA
Voltage Current Current
D. 450 mA
(V) (mA) (mA)
Resistor A 2. If 3.5 volts were used with Resistor A at 27°C,
23°C 25°C approximately what would the current have read?

0.25 25 25 F. 63 mA
G. 70 mA
0.50 50 50
H. 350 mA
1.00 100 100
J. 375 mA
2.00 200 200
3. According to the data in Table 1, which of the following
3.00 300 300
resistors respond linearly to a change in voltage?
4.00 400 400
I. Resistor A
4.50 450 450
II. Resistor B
5.00 500 500
III. Resistor C
Resistor B
A. I only
23°C 25°C
B. II only
0.25 150 150
C. II and III
0.50 195 195 D. I and III
1.00 230 230
4. Resistor B does NOT appear to be a thermistor because:
2.00 295 295
F. at low voltages, Resistor B produces higher currents
3.00 345 345
than either of the other resistors.
4.00 405 405
G. at higher temperatures, Resistor B produces lower
4.50 420 420 currents than either of the other resistors.
5.00 445 445 H. there is a change in resistance at different voltages.
Resistor C J. there is no change in resistance at different
temperatures.
23°C 25°C
0.25 5 4.5 5. What additional information would be necessary to
conclude whether Resistor C is a thermistor?
0.50 10 9.0
1.00 20 18.0 A. The current-voltage response of Resistor C at a third
temperature
2.00 40 36.0
B. The temperature of Resistor C at various voltages
3.00 60 54.0
C. Whether the current of Resistor C responds linearly
4.00 80 72.0 with temperature
4.50 90 81.0 D. There is enough information to determine whether
5.00 100 90.0 Resistor C is a thermistor.

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 Practice Test 3

6. Which of the following hypotheses would be disproved

if there had been a noted temperature change in the
water for all six trials?
F. Resistor A is an ohmic device because of its linear
relationship between voltage and current.
G. Resistor B is affected by different starting
temperatures.
H. Resistor C is not an ohmic device because it does
not have a linear relationship between voltage
and current.
J. Resistor C is not affected by different starting
temperatures.

PASSAGE II

Seagrasses are plants that grow along the coasts of warm, shallow seas. They form underwater meadows that improve water quality,
help prevent erosion of sand and sediment during storms, and provide shelter and food for fish and other aquatic animals. Ecologists
have discovered that they also store a large amount of carbon and other nutrients in the sediment. The ecologists were interested
in how much.

Ecologists selected an area that was undergoing restoration after the original seagrass meadow was wiped out during a severe
hurricane. Seagrass had been seeded onto two separate meadows; one meadow had been reseeded four years ago, and the other
had been reseeded ten years ago. From each meadow, the ecologists took four 20-cm deep, 10-cm diameter sediment cores. They
also took four similar cores from the unplanted sediment immediately around each of the meadows. They removed shells, rocks, and
large roots from the sediment, weighed them wet and again after drying to determine bulk density, and determined the percentages
of organic matter, carbon, and nitrogen in the sediment. The averages of their results are summarized in Table 1.

Table 1
Seagrass
% Bulk
Meadow Density % %
Site Organic Density
Age (years) (shoots Carbon Nitrogen
Matter (g/cm3)
/m2)
Site 1 0 0 0.4 0.2 1.6 1.53
Site 1 4 123 0.39 0.2 1.6 1.44
Site 2 0 0 0.36 0.86 1.4 1.61
Site 2 10 429 0.52 3.75 1.9 1.30

CONTINUE
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After examining nutrient accumulation, the ecologists wanted 9. Which of the following best explains why the scientists
to determine which physical characteristics of the seagrass collected sediment from an unplanted area at each site?
meadow are most helpful in stabilizing sediment to prevent A. To control for differences in original sediment
erosion. They placed four sediment traps within the 10-year composition between the two sites
old meadow, and recorded the characteristics of the seagrass B. To control for differences in water depth between
around the sediment trap: the shoot density (in shoots/m2 of the two sites
seabed), leaf mass (grams of seagrass leaves/ m2 of seabed), C. To determine the most effective seagrass density
seagrass height (cm), and leaf surface area (m2 leaf surface/m2 for nutrient sequestration
of seabed). After each day, they weighed the amount of D. To determine the rate of nutrient loss in unvege-
sediment collected in each sediment trap (g/m2 of trap area, tated seabeds
per day). They compared the average of six days of sediment
results with each of the seagrass characteristics in Table 2. 10. Which hypothesis is supported by the data in Table 2?
F. Taller seagrass plants reduce turbulence in a larger
Table 2 portion of the water column, resulting in greater
sediment deposition.
Trapped Seagrass G. More densely planted seagrass meadows prevent
Seagrass Seagrass
Sediment Surface Seagrass sand from settling to the seabed, resulting in
Density Mass
Weight Area Height reduced sediment deposition.
(shoots/m2) (g/m2)
(g/m2/day) (m2/m2) H. Greater seagrass mass increases turbulence in the
3.3 200 6.0 1.8 29 water column, resulting in reduced sediment
3.8 170 10.2 2.8 56 deposition.
4.1 260 6.8 3.0 33 J. Greater seagrass surface area more effectively
dissipates the energy of ocean currents, resulting in
4.8 230 10.0 4.1 52
greater sediment deposition.

11. A local company wants to dredge a nearby seagrass

7. According to the data in Table 1, the greatest difference meadow to collect sand for a public beach. To decrease
in sediment bulk density was found between: the negative impacts of the dredging, they would like to
replant seagrass afterwards. What is the most likely
A. years 0 and 4 at Site 1. outcome of replanting?
B. years 0 and 10 at Site 2.
C. the two sites without seagrass. A. After 10 years, the replanted seagrass meadow
D. the two sites with seagrass. would have a higher shoot density than the original
one.
8. According to the data, the biggest relative change B. The percentage of organic matter found in the
between 0 and 10 years was found in: sediment would be unchanged by dredging and
F. % carbon. replanting.
G. % nitrogen. C. There would be immediate storage of carbon and
H. % organic matter. nitrogen in the sediment, similar to that in the
J. bulk density. original meadow.
D. There would be a lag of more than four years before
carbon and nitrogen storage reached that of the
original meadow.

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12. Scientists have measured atmospheric carbon dioxide

(CO2) levels that are higher now than they have been in
any measured year and estimated to be higher than any
time in the last 400,000 years. If ecologists want to
increase the amount by which seagrass meadows take
up CO2 and store it in the sediment, what action is most
likely to be effective?
F. Protect and expand existing seagrass meadows.
G. Allow increased fertilizer runoff into coastal
waterways.
H. Harvest and replant seagrass meadows every 10
years.
J. Plant native plants along the shore near seagrass
meadows.

PASSAGE III

Elements are organized into a periodic table to help understand their similarities and differences. They are arranged by the number
of protons (positively charged particles) in the nucleus, which increases along each row of the periodic table. In its neutral state, each
element has an equal number of protons and electrons—negatively charged particles that orbit the nucleus in different energy
levels called orbitals. Elements in each column of the periodic table share the same number of electrons in the highest (outermost)
energy level. Elements in the rightmost column, the noble gases, have a completely filled outermost energy level and are relatively
stable and unreactive elements. They are gases at room temperature and pressure and have slightly different characteristics.

Table 1 contains data for the noble gases, including atomic number, atomic weight (in atomic mass units, amu) atomic radius (in
picometers, pm), density, and boiling point.

Table 1
Atomic Atomic Boiling
Atomic Density
Element Weight Radius Point
Number (g/L)
(amu) (pm) (°C)
Helium 2 4.0 31 0.18 –269
Neon 10 20.2 38 0.9 –246
Argon 18 39.9 71 0.86 –186
Krypton 36 83.8 88 3.75 –153
Xenon 54 131.3 108 5.9 –108
Radon 86 222 120 9.73 –62

13. The element with atomic radius of 88 pm has a boiling 14. According to the table, which element has an atomic
point of: weight approximately four times that of neon?
A. –62°C. F. Helium
B. –108°C. G. Krypton
C. –153°C. H. Xenon
D. –246°C. J. Radon

CONTINUE
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15. Data in the table indicates that as the atomic number PASSAGE IV
increases, the boiling point:
Sedimentary rocks are formed when sediment—sand, dirt, min-
A. increases. erals, and organic particles—settle into place and are gradually
B. decreases. compressed and cemented together. The relatively mild condi-
C. remains constant. tions of this rock-forming process make it ideal for the preser-
D. does not vary systematically. vation of fossils. Geologists can use sedimentary rocks to
16. One hypothesis is that as atomic weight increases, determine an area’s geologic history, including the different
density will increase as well. Which pair of elements environments that an area experienced over time. Figure 1 shows
supports this hypothesis? different layers of sedimentary rock exposed at the edge of a
canyon. The composition of rock, approximate age, thickness,
I. Neon and argon and depth of each layer are listed in Table 1.
II. Krypton and xenon
III. Helium and radon 0
1
F. I and II 2
3
G. II and III
H. II only
J. III only 4
500

Depth below surface (m)

17. A new element, oganesson, with atomic number 118
has been discovered to lie in the same periodic column
as the noble gases. Based on the information in this
passage, what would be the best prediction for 5
oganesson’s atomic radius and boiling point? 1000 6
7
A. Greater than 120 pm and greater than –62°C
8
B. Less than 120 pm and less than –62°C
C. Greater than 120 pm and less than –62°C
D. Less than 120 pm and greater than –62°C
1500 9

10

18. What is the relationship between thickness and depth of

the rock layers?
F. Thicker layers are typically found at greater depths.
G. Thicker layers are typically found at shallower
depths.
H. Rock layers less than 50 m thick are only found at
depths of less than 500 m.
J. There is no relationship between thickness and
depth of rock layers.

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Table 1

Rock/Layer Age Thickness Depth

Layer
Composition (Mill yrs) (m) (m)

Conglomerate,
1 100 30 10.0
Sandstone
Limestone, Mudstone,
2 130 80 0–30
Sandstone, Gypsum
3 Sandstone 160 30 30–110
4 Sandstone 170 670 110–140
Siltstone, Sandstone,
5 180 150 140–810
Mudstone
Sandstone, Freshwater
6 190 40 810–960
Fish Fossils
Siltstone, Sandstone,
7 200 110 960–1,000
Mudstone, Shale
Shale, Conglomerate,
Gypsum, Limestone,
8 220 160 1,110–1,270
Sandstone, Quartz,
Petrified Wood
Shale, Sandstone,
9 Limestone, Siltstone, 230 550 1,270–1,820
Mudstone, Gypsum
10 Limestone, Chert 260 * 1,820

* There is no thickness listed for Layer 10 because the thickness cannot be measured
without excavating.

19. Limestone is composed mainly of compressed skeletal
fragments from sea organisms such as coral, forams, and
mollusks. It is high in calcium carbonate-containing
minerals like calcite and aragonite. During which of the
following time periods is it most likely that the region of
the canyon was covered by a shallow sea?
A. 60 million years ago
B. 100 million years ago
C. 130 million years ago
D. 200 million years ago
21. Carnotite is a bright greenish-yellow mineral found
around petrified wood. It is a uranium ore and is
radioactive. Assuming the sedimentary rock layers are
uniform as they extend away from the canyon, approxi-
mately how deep would miners have to excavate in the
surrounding area in order to obtain uranium?
A. 160 m
B. 500 m
C. 1,200 m
D. 2,000 m

20. Which measurement is shown on the vertical axis of 22. Which conclusion is NOT supported in the data?
Figure 1?
F. The age of the rock layers increases with depth.
F. Temperature G. The most common rock type in the canyon is
G. Age of rock sandstone.
H. Depth below the canyon surface H. Thicker rock layers correspond to longer time
J. Thickness of rock layers periods.
J. Gypsum is only found in layers that also contain
limestone.

CONTINUE
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23. Geologists have found small remnants of a rock called
welded tuff exposed at the surface (above layer 1) near
the canyon. Welded tuff forms when rock and dust is
exposed to temperatures over 1,000°C, hot enough that
the rock welds together. What does this suggest about
the area near the canyon?
A. The area experienced a hot, tropical climate around
100 million years ago.
B. A volcano erupted in the area less than 100 million
years ago.
C. The area was covered by sea at least twice in the
last 260 million years.
D. A volcano erupted in the area more than 260
million years ago and then went extinct.
PASSAGE V
The apparent bird-dinosaur evolutionary connection has been
a source of considerable debate among paleontologists during
the second half of the twentieth century. This association was
proposed on the basis of numerous anatomical similarities and
has been supported by the discovery of fossils of a small number
of seeming transitional forms uncovered in Europe and Asia. Yet
scientists differ in their interpretation of the significance of these
similarities and the nature of the fossil evidence as well.
Paleontologist A
The discovery of fossil reptiles equipped with feathers, wings,
and beak-like snouts may be significant but more likely provides
only limited support for the dinosaurs-into-birds hypothesis.
Convergent evolution often provides animals of very distant
lineages with similar appendages—witness, for example, the
similarities in the body shape and presence of fins in fish and
cetaceans such as whales and dolphins. We would never put
forth the idea that orcas evolved from sharks based on the mor-
phological similarities of these creatures; it would be immediately
deemed absurd.
It is more likely the case that birds and dinosaurs share a very
distant common ancestor, perhaps from among the thecodonts.
These prototypical reptiles of the late Permian survived the largest
mass extinction recorded in the planet’s history to bring forth
many more recent lines; crocodiles, dinosaurs, pterosaurs, and
birds are the most notable among these.
Paleontologist B
In our studies of numerous dinosaur fossils, it has become obvious
that the lifestyles of dinosaurs were amazingly varied. No longer
is it acceptable to view dinosaurs only as lumbering, cold-blooded
monsters; indeed, the most frightening dinosaurs did not lumber
at all. They were agile, swift, and deadly predators who could
run, leap, kick, and shred to pieces an animal they were intent
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upon consuming. Lightweight muscular body structure would
be crucial to the success of this type of predator.
Based upon this observation, along with a number of obvious
physical similarities and evidence from the fossil record, we are
convinced that birds evolved from small, carnivorous dinosaurs
called theropods. A mere examination of the forelimb, hindlimb,
and feet of a theropod fossil, and a comparison to one of the five
available specimens of Archaeopteryx*, will bear this out. In
addition, more recent discoveries of fossil dinosaurs with bird-like
traits and habits, particularly the finds uncovered in the Liaoning
province of China, lend further credible support for our position
that birds are for all intents and purposes actual members of the
lineage Dinosauria living and thriving in our midst.
*Archaeopteryx was a feathered reptile of the late Jurassic Era thought to
represent an intermediate form between dinosaurs and birds.
24. According to Paleontologist A, similarities in the body
forms of dinosaurs and birds:
F. represent a failed experiment of evolution.
G. are the products of convergent evolution.
H. are completely without significance.
J. helped both types of organism survive a large mass
extinction.
25. Which of the following types of evidence, if found,
would lend strong support to the position of
Paleontologist A?
A. Discovery of thecodont fossils with characteristics
of modern birds and existing dinosaur fossils
B. Discovery of another possible intermediate form
between dinosaurs and birds from the Jurassic Era
C. Discovery of an avian prototype dating back to
before the beginning of the era of dinosaur
dominance
D. A careful examination of several sets of theropod
fossil remains
26. Which of the following is a criticism that Paleontologist
A would make of the avian evolutionary hypothesis of
Paleontologist B?
F. It ignores the possibility of the existence of
transitional forms.
G. It ignores the impact of a very large mass
extinction.
H. It assumes that morphological similarities are a
result of a direct lineage.
J. It proposes that dinosaurs and birds arose from
distant lineages.
 Practice Test 3

27. Which of the following perspectives would be consistent PASSAGE VI

with the views of Paleontologist B?
Ecology graduate students wished to experiment with levels of
A. Convergent evolution produces similar forms in diversity in a simple community to observe the relationship
diverse lineages. between increasing complexity and stability of populations. In
B. Dinosaurs and birds may be related via a common particular, they were interested in the impact of changing certain
ancestor. conditions in a community on populations of two species of
C. Birds and dinosaurs arose from completely separate Paramecium, a common ciliated protozoan.
lineages.
A trophic level is the number of steps a species is away from the
D. Birds arose from a lineage of dinosaurs.
producer species in a community. Producers are organisms that
28. If genetic evidence were established to date the avian synthesize energy out of chemical products into nutrients. Table
lineage 85 million years prior to the rise of 1 shows the trophic level occupied by each type of organism
Archaeopteryx, this finding would tend to: involved in the experiments and the number of species that
F. support the theory of Paleontologist A. would be used on each level.
G. support the theory of Paleontologist B.
H. support the theories of both paleontologists. Table 1
J. refute the theories of both paleontologists.
Number of
Trophic Level Organism
29. If Paleontologist B could confirm that birds appeared Species Studied
much later in evolutionary history than any dinosaurs,
First Bacteria 3
which of the following statements would reconcile this
fact with the theory of Paleontologist A? Second Paramecia 2

A. The ancestors of birds and the ancestors of Amoebae

dinosaurs were exposed to specific environmental Third (predator of 2
conditions at the same time, and this caused the protozoa)
development of similar characteristics.
B. The ancestors of birds and the ancestors of
dinosaurs were exposed to specific environmental Experiment 1
conditions that caused the development of similar
The graduate students wished to study the relationship between
characteristics, but the dinosaur ancestors were
one species of Paramecium and the number of species of bacteria
exposed to these environmental conditions later
available for consumption in the community. They created 300
than the bird ancestors were.
“microcosms”—100 cultures each populated with communities
C. The rate of evolutionary change from the the-
of one, two, or three species of bacteria and one of the Paramecium
codont ancestor was much slower for the lineage
species. After 20 days, they examined the cultures individually.
that resulted in birds than for the lineage that
The results are displayed in Table 2.
resulted in dinosaurs.
D. The rate of evolutionary change from the the-
codont ancestor was much faster for the lineage Table 2
that resulted in birds than for the lineage that Number of Cultures in
resulted in dinosaurs. Number of Bacterium
Which Paramecia
Species
Survived
1 32/100

2 61/100

3 70/100

CONTINUE
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Experiment 2 30. What was the dependent variable in Experiment 2?

The students then decided to study how two species of F. The number of species of bacteria
Paramecium would be affected when different combinations of G. The number of species of Paramecium
Paramecium and bacteria were mixed in the cultures. They created H. The length of time after which cultures were
100 dishes each of six separate types of communities—600 examined
cultures with different combinations of the Paramecium and the J. The number of cultures with surviving Paramecium
three bacteria species. After 20 days, they examined the cultures 31. According to the results of Experiments 1 and 2,
and recorded their results. These results are reproduced in Table 3. increasing the number of bacteria species present in
the community:
Table 3 A. decreased the survival rates of the paramecia in
Number of Cultures in the community.
Number of Bacterium/
Which Paramecia B. increased the survival rates of the paramecia in the
Paramecium Species
Survived community.
1/1 35/100 C. had no effect on any species in the community.
D. decreased the survival rates of one type of bacteria
2/1 58/100
in the community.
3/1 65/100
1/2 20/100 32. According to the results of Experiment 2, increasing the
2/2 26/100 number of Paramecium species in the community was
related to:
3/2 31/100
F. decreased survival rates for the paramecia,
depending on the number of bacteria species
Experiment 3 present in the community.
G. decreased survival rates for all species present in
The last condition that the graduate students studied was the
the community.
addition of a third trophic level to their microcosms. They intro-
H. decreased survival rates for the paramecia,
duced two different species of Amoebae that feed on Paramecium.
independent of the number of bacteria species
They decided to use five different versions in 100 culture dishes
present in the community.
each, creating 500 communities for this last experiment. They
J. increased survival rates for the Paramecium,
allowed them to grow undisturbed for 20 days, and then examined
depending on the number of bacteria species
the cultures and recorded their results in Table 4 displayed below.
present in the community.

Table 4 33. What new factor was introduced in Experiment 3?

A. An additional species of bacteria
Number of Bacterium/ Number of Cultures in
B. A longer time for incubation of the experimental
Paramecium/ Which Paramecia
cultures
Amoeba Species Survived
C. A new method for culturing the experimental
1/1/1 22/100
microbes
2/1/1 15/100 D. An additional trophic level
2/2/1 8/100
34. After examining the results of Experiment 3, it would be
2/2/2 6/100 reasonable to conclude that increased diversity in the
3/2/2 2/100 experimental communities:
F. was beneficial to all species present in the
communities.
G. had no effect on any species in the communities.
H. had a detrimental effect on the survival rate of one
species of Amoeba only.
J. had a detrimental effect on the survival rates of
both species of Paramecium under study.

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PASSAGE VII

Classification of planets in our solar system has been a controversial issue, especially in the last decade. Advanced telescopes have
allowed scientists to see more celestial objects in space, so scientists have observed characteristics among the objects that have
caused them to reconsider whether certain planets should retain their “planet” status. Some of the characteristics that make these
objects distinct include size, mass, and shape, as well as orbital characteristics. Two orbital characteristics of planets often compared
by astronomers are orbital inclination and orbital eccentricity. Orbital inclination is the amount an object’s orbit is tilted with respect
to the plane of the solar system. Orbital eccentricity refers to the amount that an object’s orbit deviates from a circular orbit.

In 2006, the International Astronomical Union (IAU) officially defined what a planet is and established a system of classification for
celestial bodies other than satellites (moons). According to the definition, a planet is a celestial body that orbits the sun, has sufficient
mass to be rounded in shape by its own gravity, and has cleared out other large rocks and bodies from its orbital path. The other
classifications established were dwarf planets and small solar system bodies. Based on these new definitions, Pluto was reclassified
from a planet to a dwarf planet.

The table below summarizes many of the qualities of the eight planets in our solar system.

Table 1

Inner Planets Outer Planets

Celestial
Mercury Venus Earth Mars Jupiter Saturn Uranus Neptune
Body
Mass
(kg) 3.3 × 1023 4.9 × 1024 6.0 × 1024 6.4 × 1023 1.9 × 1027 5.7 × 1026 8.7 × 1025 1.0 × 1026

Mean
Density 5,427 5,204 5,520 3,933 1,326 687 1,318 1,638
(kg/m3)
Black-body
Temp. 442.5 238.9 247.3 216.6 90.6 63.9 35.9 33.2
(°K)
Orbital
Inclination 7.000 3.390 0.000 1.850 1.305 2.484 0.770 1.769
(°)
Orbital
Eccentricity 0.2056 0.0068 0.0167 0.0934 0.0484 0.0542 0.0472 0.0086
(°)
Rotation
Period 1,407.60 5,832.50 23.93 24.62 9.93 10.50 17.24 16.11
(hrs.)

35. Uranus has a mass greater than which of the following 36. Black-body temperature is the temperature that would
planets? result from a planet absorbing all received electromag-
netic radiation without reflection. If black-body
A. Mars, Jupiter, and Saturn
temperatures are higher for objects closer to the sun,
B. Neptune, Mercury, and Earth
which of the following would be considered farthest
C. Venus, Mars, and Saturn
from the sun based on the data presented?
D. Mercury, Earth, and Mars
F. Mercury
G. Uranus
H. Jupiter
J. Neptune
CONTINUE
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37. If an astronomer proposed that a celestial body does not
qualify as a planet based solely on having an orbital
inclination greater than 5 degrees and orbital eccen-
tricity greater than 0.2, how many of the current planets
would lose their planet classification?
A. four
B. three
C. two
D. one
38. The orbital eccentricity of a celestial body refers to the
amount that its orbit deviates from a perfectly circular
orbit. A value of 0 is a circular orbit. The higher the
eccentricity value, the more distorted the orbit, which
can result in objects displaying elliptical, parabolic, and
hyperbolic orbits.
Which pair lists the planet with an orbit that deviates
the least from a perfect circle and the one that
deviates the most?
F. Earth; Mercury
G. Mercury; Neptune
H. Venus; Mercury
J. Neptune; Venus
39. It was hypothesized that Jupiter, Saturn, Neptune, and
Uranus were gaseous planets, whereas the others were
composed of solid material. Which of the following
statements best supports this hypothesis?
A. Jupiter, Saturn, Neptune, and Uranus have lower
temperatures than most of the other planets.
B. Jupiter, Saturn, Neptune, and Uranus have densities
much smaller than the densities of the
other planets.
C. Jupiter, Saturn, Neptune, and Uranus have greater
masses than the other planets.
D. Jupiter, Saturn, Neptune, and Uranus have rotation
periods that are much shorter than the
other planets.
40. Which of the following statements is supported by the
data?
F. Rotational period increases as mass increases.
G. The two planets with the highest mass also have
the lowest densities.
H. The two planets closest in mass are also closest in
rotational period.
J. The planet with the lowest mass has the highest
orbital eccentricity.

STOP
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WRITING TEST
40 Minutes

DIRECTIONS: This is a test of your writing skills. You have forty (40) minutes to write an essay in English. Be sure to carefully
read the issue and three perspectives presented before planning and writing your essay so you understand clearly the task
you are being asked to do. Your essay will be graded on the evidence it provides of your ability to analyze the issue; evaluate
and analyze the perspectives; state and develop a personal perspective; and describe the relationship between the given
perspectives and your own, while effectively using organization, logic, and language according to the conventions of standard
written English.

Alternative Energy

Practice Test 3 — writing

The United States—and the entire world—is at a crossroads when it comes to our sources of energy. Traditional fossil fuels, including
coal, petroleum, and natural gas, are our primary fuel sources, and are responsible for everything from powering our vehicles to
warming our homes and providing electricity for our favorite gadgets. However, fossil fuels are also responsible for emitting carbon
dioxide into the atmosphere, which most climate scientists feel adversely impacts the environment and contributes to global
warming. As a result, some have called for increased exploration and investment in renewable, non-fossil sources of energy,
including hydroelectric, solar, nuclear, and wind power, which are better for the environment and would also help reduce our
dependence on foreign oil supplies. Efforts to find new, more efficient, and more cost-effective methods for harnessing the power
of these alternative energy sources is already underway. As we continue to march through the twenty-first century, what are your
thoughts on the advantages and disadvantages of alternative energy exploration and use? What roles should we play regarding
strategies, investment, and incentives for alternative energy use?

Read and carefully consider these perspectives. Each suggests a particular way of thinking about if and how alternative energies should
be used to meet the needs of the country

Perspective One

The United States has sufficient fuel from coal, oil, and gas, and we should continue to use these fossil fuels for all of our
energy needs. The media exaggerate their negative effects and the science isn’t definitive. Our nation has thrived through
the twentieth century thanks to these abundant and effective sources of power, and the government shouldn’t waste
time, energy, and resources on alternative energies, which are expensive, inefficient, and unable to fully meet the needs
of the country.

Perspective Two

A serious and committed investment in alternative energy is not only needed right now, it’s long overdue. Our reliance
on fossil fuels has kept us dependent on energy sources that are destroying our planet. We cannot afford any further
apathy, or to put off figuring out how to free ourselves from fossil fuels—even if it’s expensive and difficult. We need to
end our reliance on fossil fuels immediately. Our planet is worth the effort.

Perspective Three

A decision as large and important as the direction of energy sourcing in the United States should not be made impulsively.
Available scientific evidence indicates that a continued long-term reliance on fossil fuels as our primary energy sources
might not be the most responsible approach. However, quitting fossil fuels “cold turkey” or without a clear plan isn’t
realistic either. Our nation needs to develop a long-term plan that includes a tapering off from fossil fuels and an increased
use of alternative, renewable energy sources. Furthermore, we need to work with other responsible countries around
the world on decreasing fossil fuel reliance; only a worldwide effort will help us tackle this issue.

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 Practice Test 3

Essay Task
Write a unified, coherent essay in which you evaluate multiple perspectives on alternative energy. In your essay, be sure to:

•  examine and assess the perspectives given

•  declare and explain your own perspective on the issue
•  discuss the relationship between your perspective and those given
Your perspective may be in full or partial agreement, or in total disagreement, with any of the others. Whatever the case, support
your ideas with logical reasoning and detailed, persuasive examples.

Plan and Write Your Essay

Use the first two lined pages of the Writing test answer sheet (found at the beginning of the test) to generate ideas and plan
your essay. Then use the following four pages to write your essay. Consider the following as you compose your essay:

What are the strengths and weaknesses of the three perspectives provided?

•  Identify the insights they present and what they fail to consider.
•  Ascertain why a given perspective might persuade or fail to persuade.
How can you apply your own experience, knowledge, and values?

•  Express your perspective on the issue, identifying the perspective’s strengths and weaknesses.
•  Formulate a plan to support your perspective in your essay.

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 Answer Keys and Explanations

English
1.   B 20.   J 39.   D 58.   J
2.   F 21.   D 40.   H 59.   A
3.   B 22.   G 41.   B 60.   H
4.   F 23.   C 42.   J 61.   C
5.   C 24.   G 43.   C 62.   J
6.   J 25.   B 44.   F 63.   D
7.   C 26.   F 45.   C 64.   H
8.   G 27.   C 46.   J 65.   D
9.   A 28.   H 47.   B 66.   F
10.   J 29.   D 48.   H 67.   C
11.   A 30.   F 49.   B 68.   F
12.   F 31.   B 50.   F 69.   B
13.   C 32.   F 51.   B 70.   J
14.   G 33.   B 52.   G 71.   A
15.   B 34.   G 53.   B 72.   H
16.   J 35.   D 54.   F 73.   D
17.   B 36.   J 55.   C 74.   F
18.   H 37.   C 56.   J 75.   C
19.   B 38.   G 57.   A

1. The correct answer is B. As written, the verbs in the
sentence are not in proper parallel form. Both of the
verbs in the underlined portion of the sentence need to
be in the present tense, so choice B is correct. The other
answer choices have to look and to stare in inappro-
priate tenses for this sentence.
2. The correct answer is F. With is the appropriate
preposition in this common phrase. Choice G introduces
a grammatical error, and choice H changes the meaning
of the sentence. The phrase should not be omitted
because it explains the writer’s trembling, so choice J
is incorrect.
3. The correct answer is B. The verb here refers to an
action (staring at the green shoots) that began in the
immediate past and continues into the present;
therefore, the present perfect tense is appropriate. The
original sentence mistakenly uses the past perfect
tense, so choice A is incorrect. Choice C would be used
only if the sentence were written in the simple present
tense, and choice D would be used if it was written in
the simple future tense.
4. The correct answer is F. The verb tense of the under-
lined portion of this sentence is correct as written. The
other answer choices contain incorrect verb forms for
this sentence.
5. The correct answer is C. The conjunction and is
needed to correct the comma splice in the original
sentence, which is the incorrect use of just a comma
to connect two independent clauses. A comma
before the and is also needed, because this con-
junction is being used to coordinate two inde-
pendent clauses with two separate subjects, so
choice B is incorrect. The conjunction yet (choice D)
is inappropriate, because there is no change in
direction between the two clauses.
6. The correct answer is J. The past tense is appro-
priate because the writer is describing his childhood.
Choices F, G, and H are all written in the
present tense.
7. The correct answer is C. This option clearly states
the writer’s point that in New York, culture was the
dominating element, even when it came to marking
the passage of the seasons. Choices A, B, and D are
all worded confusingly.
8. The correct answer is G. In the sentence, the phrase
the gradual way one transformed into another
primarily functions as an example of one of the
particulars with which the author was not familiar.
The phrase is merely an example of one particular
that eluded the author; it is not proof that he did not
understand the seasons, so choice F is not the best

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 Answer Keys and Explanations
answer. The phrase is not particularly poetic and serves
a more important function than merely making the
essay more appealing to read, so choice H is not the
best answer, either. The phrase does not serve as a
transition between two different yet related ideas, so
choice J is incorrect.
9. The correct answer is A. Paragraph 2 tells us that the
writer grew up knowing little about nature. This fact is
essential to understanding the garden’s effect on the
writer. The writer’s current environment is quite
different from a city, but he never suggests the city was
something he felt lucky to have escaped, so choice B is
wrong. Paragraph 2 may be a vivid recollection (choice
C) or an indication of the writer’s sensitivity (choice D),
but neither of these describes the paragraph’s main
purpose.
10. The correct answer is J. As written, the underlined
portion of the sentence contains an incorrect, com-
monly confused word—too. Its homonym, two, is the
appropriate word choice here, so choice J is correct.
Choice G contains the incorrect too and an inappro-
priate possessive form of season. Choice H contains
another incorrect homonym, to.
11. The correct answer is A. No comma should be used
before yellow because bright modifies yellow and all the
other colors. No commas are needed to separate the
colors because the writer has chosen to link them with
the conjunction and. Therefore, choices C and D are
incorrect. Choice B, however, fails to link yellow and red
with either a comma or and, so it is incorrect.
12. The correct answer is F. The present tense is appro-
priate for a general situation that is repeated year after
year. The plural, Daffodils, demands the third-person
plural form of the verb. Choices G and J are in the past
tense. Choice H is a singular verb when a plural one is
required.
13. The correct answer is C. As written, this sentence
creates a sentence fragment. There is a need for internal
sentence punctuation here, so choices B and D are
incorrect.
14. The correct answer is G. In the third paragraph, the
author uses colorful detail to describe when chrysan-
themums bud, when they bloom, and when they die,
while relating the timeline to the change of seasons, so
choice G is the best answer. Choice F is not the best
answer, since it provides no details about planting
chrysanthemums. Choice H is true in itself, but it does
not answer this particular question. Choice J is simply
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wrong; there is specific information about the life cycle
of chrysanthemums in the third paragraph.
15. The correct answer is B. This detail is an example of
how little the writer knew about nature; therefore, it
belongs in the paragraph that discusses growing up in
New York. Paragraphs 1 (choice A), 3 (choice C), and 4
(choice D) all take place in the present.
16. The correct answer is J. The idiomatic expression is: as
x goes, so goes y, so choice J is correct. Choices F and G
add unnecessary words. Choice H is simply awkward.
17. The correct answer is B. As these words are most
commonly used, affect is the proper verb form, while
effect is the noun form. Here the word is a noun, so the
proper word to use is effect, which means you can
eliminate choices A and D. The preposition that properly
follows effect is on, so choice B is correct and choice C is
incorrect.
18. The correct answer is G. The writer is speaking about
our present understanding of trade in the past, so
choice G is correct, and you can eliminate choices F and
H, which are in the past tense. It is an assertion without
any sense of the conditional, so choice J is incorrect.
19. The correct answer is B. This is the only sentence that
stresses the historical importance of exchange and
thereby links the previous paragraph to the examples of
this phenomenon presented in Paragraph 2. Choice A is
inappropriate, since agriculture is merely one detail in
Paragraph 2 and not its main idea. Choice C would be a
more fitting concluding sentence for Paragraph 1 than
an introductory sentence for Paragraph 2, since a phrase
such as “Many examples of this…” should continue a
previous idea directly. Choice D introduces that same
organizational error and focuses on the modern world,
while Paragraph 2 focuses on the historical importance
of exchange.
20. The correct answer is J. The clearest construction lists
the subjects and proceeds directly to the verb without
punctuation or unnecessary words. As originally written,
the list lacks the conjunction and between the last two
items in the list and misuses a comma to separate the
list from the rest of the sentence. In choice G, a colon is
correctly used instead of a comma, but the conjunction
and is still missing. Choice H changes the meaning of
the sentence.
21. The correct answer is D. No punctuation should
separate the noun from the prepositional phrase that
identifies it. Choices A, B, and C all contain unnecessary
punctuation.

22. The correct answer is G. The present perfect tense
indicates the connection between the past and the
present, between antiquity and today. Choices F, H, and
J are all in the wrong tense.
23. The correct answer is C. Greeks is the subject of the
relative clause, so the relative pronoun who is appro-
priate. Whom is a personal pronoun, so the original
sentence is incorrect. Choices B and D are inappropriate
because they refer to non-human subjects.
24. The correct answer is G. A comma is required before a
coordinating conjunction when linking two inde-
pendent clauses. And is the best choice because it
indicates the non-contrasting relationship between the
clauses, so choices F and H are incorrect. Therefore also
expresses this relationship but cannot be used to link
two independent clauses with only a comma; a
semicolon would be required instead, so you can
eliminate choice J.
25. The correct answer is B. This phrasing properly
indicates that the question is about the character of
modern Italy. Choices A, C, and D ask different
questions.
26. The correct answer is F. The imperative form avoids
unnecessary words and maintains the authoritative
tone of the essay. Choices G and J ask questions and
would be appropriate only if the sentence ended with a
question mark. Choice H changes the meaning of the
sentence.
27. The correct answer is A. This sentence makes the point
that these foods are not indigenous to the nations that
rely on them, and this point is crucial to the main idea of
the essay. Choice C makes this point awkwardly, while
choices B and D do not make this point at all.
28. The correct answer is H. The sentence begins with a
series of subjects and should proceed to the verb
without punctuation (choices F, G, and J) or unnec-
essary words (choices F and J).
29. The correct answer is D. For creates a smooth transition
from the previous sentence without changing the
meaning. Therefore (choice A) wrongly indicates that the
way we think of Italy is a direct consequence of the
transformation of exchanged goods. Choices B and C do
not make grammatical sense in the context of this
sentence.
30. The correct answer is F. This option emphasizes the
creative transformation of tomatoes and pasta by Italian
cooking. Choices G, H, and J do not express this crucial
idea effectively.
Answer Keys and Explanations
31. The correct answer is B. As written, the sentence is a
run-on and needs to be fixed. Choice B correctly
combines the two independent clauses while elimi-
nating the run-on sentence. Choice C places the
semicolon in the wrong place in the sentence. Choice D
incorrectly creates a fragment by inserting a period.
32. The correct answer is F. Paragraph 1 discusses
everyday innovations that we take for granted;
Paragraph 2 jumps into discussing aspirins. Choice F
would make an effective transition sentence from
Paragraph 1 to Paragraph 2. The other choices are
off-target and would not serve as effective transitions.
33. The correct answer is B. No punctuation is required at
this position in the sentence, so choice B is correct. The
other answer choices create sentence fragments and
are therefore incorrect.
34. The correct answer is G. Since countless and innu-
merable have the same meaning, including both words
in this sentence is redundant. Choice G eliminates the
redundancy and is therefore the correct answer. Choice
H simply reverses the words and does nothing to
eliminate the redundancy. Choice J substitutes in two
other redundant words and fails to eliminate the
problem.
35. The correct answer is D. A plural pronoun is required
to replace the antecedent discs, so them (choice D) is
correct. Choice B is singular and gender-specific and is
therefore incorrect here. Choice C is a plural pronoun
reserved for animate nouns, so would be incorrect here.
36. The correct answer is J. This simple declarative
statement should end in a period, and no internal
punctuation is needed between closer and look.
37. The correct answer is C. Willow tree is a common noun
that should not be capitalized unless it appears at the
beginning of a sentence, so choice C is correct.
38. The correct answer is G. The underlined portion of the
sentence contains an aside regarding salicylic acid and
belongs in parentheses. The other answer choices are
inappropriate treatments for this information.
39. The correct answer is D. As written, the flow of
information in the underlined portion of the sentence is
confusing and awkward. Choice D avoids the confusion
by adjusting the word flow and is the correct answer.
Choices B and C fail to eliminate the awkwardness and
confusion and are incorrect.
40. The correct answer is H. As written, the contraction
we’ve is missing an apostrophe. Choice H correctly fixes
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 Answer Keys and Explanations
the error. Choice G replaces we’ve with weave, which is a
homonym and an inappropriate word choice here.
Choice J incorrectly replaces learned with leaned, which
is an inappropriate word choice here.
41. The correct answer is B. Recognizing commonly used
phrases is a helpful skill to have for effective reading
comprehension. The correct phrase for this sentence is
trial and error; the other choices sound similar, but are
not appropriate phrases or word combinations for this
sentence.
42. The correct answer is J. The final sentence adds
relevant additional evidence supporting the paragraph’s
topic that aspirin can have dangerous side effects, so
choice J is the best answer. The sentence provides
additional evidence; it does not repeat evidence already
provided earlier in the paragraph as choice F suggests.
While the paragraph has already provided some
evidence that aspirin can have dangerous side effects,
additional evidence just strengthens the paragraph’s
thesis, so choice G is not the best answer. However, the
fact that aspirin can be hazardous to pregnant women
or those who drink excessive amounts of alcohol is not
necessarily more convincing evidence than any
evidence previously given in the paragraph, so choice H
is not as strong an answer as choice J is.
43. The correct answer is C. Adding information about
aspirin reducing the risk of heart attacks would best fit
in Paragraph 5, which covers the wide array of
symptoms, inflammatory conditions, and illnesses that
aspirins are used to help treat.
44. The correct answer is F. An effective concluding
sentence ties up the ideas presented in the written
piece. The passage is about how aspirin, an everyday
object often taken for granted, is actually an interesting
bit of medicinal history and innovation, and choice F
effectively captures this notion. Choices G and J take the
focus off aspirin, and are incorrect. Choice H focuses on
a minor detail, and is too narrow in scope for a con-
cluding sentence.
45. The correct answer is C. This essay focuses solely on
aspirin and no other medicines, so it isn’t compre-
hensive enough fulfill the requirements of an
assignment to research the history of medicines in the
ancient world.
46. The correct answer is J. The phrase refers to the past,
so the verbs must be in the past tense. Choices F and G
are in the present tense and choice G contains a
singular verb (is) that does not agree with its plural
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antecenent (women). Choice H combines the present
and past tenses.
47. The correct answer is B. As written, punctuation in the
underlined portion of the sentence creates an awkward
pause and is incorrect. Choice B correctly fixes the
sentence. Choices C and D also contain incorrect
internal sentence punctuation.
48. The correct answer is H. This option maintains the
parallel structure set up by the preposition with, thus
indicating that the two factors mentioned are sides of
the same problem. As originally written, the phrase “not
to mention the fact” suggests an incidental piece of
information and not the explanatory information that
actually follows the phrase. Choices G and J are
phrased awkwardly.
49. The correct answer is B. This option turns the fragment
(choice A) into a complete sentence and avoids the
needless use of the passive voice in choice C. Choice D
is also a fragment.
50. The correct answer is F. This option makes it clear that
the writer is being asked to write a piece about the First
Lady’s charity work. Choices G and J change the
sentence’s meaning. Choice H is unnecessarily wordy.
51. The correct answer is B. The gerund phrase acts as a
noun—in this case the object of the verb meant,
creating a correct sentence. The verbs in choices C and
D are in the wrong form. The form should be positive
because the essay makes it clear that the author did
break ground. As originally written, the sentence
contradicts its own meaning by including the word not.
52. The correct answer is G. As written, the sentence
contains an incorrect word choice; the pronoun whom
does not fit into the sentence as written. Choice G
corrects the sentence: There was, however, an aspect of
professional life for which many of us were not prepared.
53. The correct answer is B. The words “I remember” signal
us that the action in the sentence is a memory of
something that has already happened, so the past tense
should be used in the underlined portion of the
sentence. Therefore, choice B is the correct answer.
Choices C and D use the incorrect verb tenses.
54. The correct answer is F. The suggested paragraph
would add unnecessary details and distract from the
writer’s point. Since that suggested paragraph does not
belong at any point in this essay, choices G, H, and J can
all be eliminated.
 Answer Keys and Explanations

55. The correct answer is C. This sentence is a question because illegible means unreadable. Choice B uses the
and should end in a question mark; the question word wrong verb form and the wrong word; ineligible means
what at the beginning of the sentence serves as a clue. “not entitled.”
Therefore, choice C is correct. Choice B incorrectly
62. The correct answer is J. The size of Haiti is completely
neglects to include end-of-sentence punctuation and is
irrelevant to the topic being discussed, so this under-
incorrect. Choice D incorrectly uses an em-dash, which
lined information should be deleted. Therefore, choice J
is not appropriate end-of-sentence punctuation.
is correct and choice F can be eliminated. Choices G and
56. The correct answer is J. This option avoids unnecessary H merely reword the irrelevant underlined phrase, so
wording and correctly conveys the writer’s feeling that both of those answer choices can be eliminated as well.
her complete honesty was inappropriate for her
63. The correct answer is D. The word Neighbors is part of
workplace. Choices F, G, and H would all leave the
a list and should be separated from the next item by a
sentence wordy and unclear.
comma. Choices A and B use incorrect punctuation, and
57. The correct answer is A. The sentence is correct as choice C uses no punctuation at all.
written and utilizes the correct form of the verb to share.
64. The correct answer is H. The willingness refers to that
The other answer choices utilize incorrect verb forms,
of the neighbors, friends, and relatives, so the pos-
given the context of the sentence.
sessive pronoun their is appropriate. Choices F and G
58. The correct answer is J. The opening sentence of the both use homonyms mistakenly: there means a
paragraph indicates that the writer has set up some particular spot, and they’re is a contraction of they and
kind of expectation that her work will not be first rate. are. Since they are does not make sense in this context
Therefore, in order for this paragraph to be most under any circumstances, choice J is incorrect.
effective, it should come at the end of the passage, after
65. The correct answer is D. The sentence describes the
the writer has shown us what she has done to set up
age of the author at the specified time, requiring the
such an expectation. In addition, the last line of the
simple past tense of the verb to be. Choice A would be
paragraph serves to point out the lesson that has been
used only if the subject did not get a chance to be
learned, concluding the essay. The paragraph would
something, which is not the case in this essay. Choice B
disrupt the flow of the essay if placed anywhere else, so
is a perfect gerund that indicates a state of being no
choices F, G, and H are wrong.
longer in effect, and it is not the clearest form to use in
59. The correct answer is A. In Paragraph 4, the writer sets this sentence. Choice C indicates an ongoing action that
up important, relevant information regarding her occurred in the past.
behavior that ultimately helped her to understand why
66. The correct answer is F. Because it logically follows the
she needed to put on a professional face. Choice B is
first sentence, the second sentence would not be as
incorrect because there are no historical details about
effective if moved elsewhere in the paragraph. It does
women in the workplace in the paragraph. The
not make sense to discuss the plot of Krik? Krak! before
paragraph mentions nothing about the writer’s male
the book is introduced in the first sentence, so choice G
colleagues (choice C) or friends (choice D) either.
is incorrect. It also does not make sense to introduce the
60. The correct answer is H. The writer is conveying an role of hardships in the plot after an example of such a
experience she had in her professional life that led to a hardship, so choice H does not make sense. Choice J
personal revelation. The paragraph is a personal essay, would split up the sentences that discuss the plot, so it
not a persuasive (choice F) or comparative (choice G) can be eliminated.
one. The writer’s personal integrity is not challenged in
67. The correct answer is C. No punctuation is needed
the essay, so choice J does not make sense.
before the prepositional phrase that begins with in, so
61. The correct answer is C. Illiterate means unable to read, choice C is correct and choice A can be eliminated. The
and population is a singular noun, so choice C is the sentence discusses plural families, so they must be
correct answer and choice D, which uses the plural verb seeking new lives, which eliminates choice D. An
are, can be eliminated. The original sentence is incorrect

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apostrophe is used to show possession, yet the lives
possess nothing in this sentence. Therefore, choice B
is wrong.
68. The correct answer is F. Since acclaim is a noun, it
should be modified by the adjective critical, not the
adverb critically (choice G) or the noun criticism (choice
J). Adding too in front of this adjective changes the
connotation, so choice H is not as strong an answer as
choice F.
69. The correct answer is B. The first word that follows the
comma should be the subject of the modifying phrase
born in Port-au-Prince in 1969. That would be Danticat,
which is not the first word in choices A, C, or D. Choice C
is also too wordy.
70. The correct answer is J. This option links Danticat’s
childhood behavior with her development as a writer.
Choices F and G do not create such a link. Choice H is
too vague.
71. The correct answer is A. This option notes the
similarity between Danticat and the heroine in the
clearest language. Like is the appropriate preposition to
use when comparing nouns. The wordiness of choices B
and D leaves the sentence unclear. Choice C suggests a
comparison between actions, not people.
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72. The correct answer is H. Only one author is being
discussed, and the possessive form is used to indicate
that the subject matter belongs to the author. Choices F
and G indicate more than one author. Choice J lacks the
elements needed to show possession.
73. The correct answer is D. This option is the most logical,
given the author’s subject matter. The proper negative
construction is neither . . . nor. The constructions in
choices A and B create sentences that contradict their
own intended meanings. Choice C disrupts the proper
negative construction by following neither with or.
74. The correct answer is F. This option introduces the
informative, impersonal tone of the essay and provides
an introduction to the theme of storytelling. Choice G is
too personal. Choice H is too vague. Choice J is too
informal and suggests the main theme of the essay is
illiteracy, not storytelling.
75. The correct answer is C. The essay does not provide
nearly enough information about Haiti to serve as a
detailed history, so choice C is the best answer. Choices
A and B may be true in themselves, but neither makes a
convincing argument that this essay could serve as a
detailed history of the hardships the people of Haiti
have endured. Choice D is simply untrue.
 Answer Keys and Explanations

Mathematics
1.   E 16.   J 31.   C 46.   G
2.   J 17.   A 32.   F 47.   A
3.   C 18.   J 33.   E 48.   F
4.   K 19.   A 34.   J 49.   B
5.   E 20.   H 35.   C 50.   H
6.   F 21.   C 36.   J 51.   D
7.   E 22.   K 37.   A 52.   G
8.   H 23.   C 38.   G 53.   D
9.   C 24.   J 39.   D 54.   G
10.   F 25.   C 40.   K 55.   A
11.   D 26.   F 41.   D 56.   H
12.   H 27.   E 42.   H 57.   B
13.   D 28.   J 43.   E 58.   J
14.   J 29.   C 44.   F 59.   D
15.   C 30.   G 45.   B 60.   G

1. The correct answer is E. Plug the given numbers into
the percent formula, where 32 is the part, 80 is the
whole, and x is the unknown percent:
32 x plying them. Choice D is incorrect because you
=
80 100
80 x = 3, 200
x = 40
Choice A is the result of an arithmetic error; you are
off by a multiple of 10. Choices B and C are incorrect
because when taken out of 100, both 16 and 24 give
32
a number less than , so these percentages
80
cannot be correct. Choice D would imply that the
whole part being used is 100, but it is actually 80.
2. The correct answer is J. The sum measure of a triangle’s
interior angles is 180°, so the missing interior angle
measures 180° – 40° – 55° = 85°. Since this angle
is supplementary to the angle measuring x°,
x = 180 – 85 = 95.
Choice A is incorrect because you should be
adding p and l, not multiplying them. In choice
B, you should be adding px and lx, not multi-
should be adding p and l, not multiplying them,
and you should multiply the resulting sum by x.
Choice E is just the cost per hour—you must
multiply by the number of hours, x.
4. The correct answer is K. This is the graph of y = 3x
shifted down 2 units. The shape remains the same
and the horizontal asymptote goes from y = 0 to y =
–2. This results in the graph of choice K. Choice F is
incorrect because this is the graph of a log function;
exponential functions do not have vertical asymp-
totes. Choice G is incorrect because this is the graph
of a log function; exponential functions do not have
vertical asymptotes. Choice H is incorrect because
the graph should increase from left to right. Choice
J is incorrect because the horizontal asymptote
should be y = –2.

Choice F is incorrect because the angles labeled x
and 55 in the diagram are not congruent alternate
interior angles. Choices G and K are the likely result
of an arithmetic error; you should be computing
180 – 85. Choice H is the measure of the third angle
in the triangle, not the one labeled x.
3. The correct answer is C. The machine costs p + l to
operate each hour, so if it operates for x hours, the
expression would be x(p + l).
5. The correct answer is E. Jacob uses a total of 7 ×
3 = 21 minutes, at a cost of $0.25 per minute, and
has to pay $1.00 for the card. 21 × 0.25 = $5.25, so
the total cost is $5.25 + $1.00 = $6.25.
Choice A only includes 1 of the 7 calls. Choice B
would be the cost if each call were 1 minute
long. Choice C does not include the $1 for the
calling card. Choice D results from adding the $1
to 21 before multiplying by 0.25.

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 Answer Keys and Explanations

6. The correct answer is F. The profit before fees is $125 9. The correct answer is C. Substitute the values for w
– $85 = $40. The fee charged by the merchant is and z into the expression and simplify:
0.03($125) = $3.75. So, the total profit is $40 – $3.75 =
36.25 2 1 6 1 5
$36.25. Thus, the percent profit earned is × 100%. − −
85 3 9 = 9 9 = 9
Choice G is incorrect because you should divide by 85,  2 1  6 1  7
2 +  2 +  2 
 3 9  9 9  9
not 125. Choice H is incorrect because while the profit
earned before the fee is applied is $40, this does not 5
5 14 5 9 5
represent the percent profit. Choice J is incorrect = 9 = ÷ = ⋅ =
14 9 9 9 14 14
because you did not subtract the fee. Choice K is 9
incorrect because while the actual profit earned is
$36.25, this does not represent the percent profit. In choice A, you added fractions incorrectly; you
7. The correct answer is E. Convert the fractions to must first get a common denominator. Choice B has
the wrong sign. In choice D, you canceled terms, not
2 1
decimals: = 0.4 and = 0.125. Now add the three factors, common to the numerator and denominator.
5 8
Choice E is the reciprocal of the correct answer;
decimals: 0.4 + 0.125 + 0.177 = 0.702.
when converting a quotient of fractions to a product,
In choice A, you dropped 0.177 from the sum. In flip the fraction after the division sign.
1
choice B, you dropped from the sum. To get 10. The correct answer is F. The asymptote for such a
8
choice C, you forgot to carry one to the tenths place logarithmic function occurs at the value of x that makes
when adding. For choice D, you neglected to carry the input of the logarithm equal to zero. Here, that is x =
one to the hundredths place when adding. –4. Choice G is incorrect because this is a horizontal line,
and logarithmic functions do not have horizontal
8. The correct answer is H. The area of triangle ABC is 5
asymptotes. Choice H is incorrect because this is a
square inches. Plug this area and the length of the base,
horizontal line, and logarithmic functions do not have
BC , into the area formula to solve for the height, AB : horizontal asymptotes. Choice J is incorrect because this
value of x does not make the input of the logarithm
1
A = bh equal to zero. Choice K is incorrect because this value of
2
x does not make the input of the logarithm equal to
1
5 = (2)( AB ) zero.
2
AB = 5 2x
11. The correct answer is D. Write g(x) as y = . To find
x −1
the inverse, switch the x and y and solve for y:
Triangle ACD has the same height as triangle ABC. To
find the length of its base, CD, subtract BC from BD: 2x
y=
x −1
10 − 2 = 8. Therefore, the area of triangle ACD is
2y
1 x=
(8)(5) = 20. Choice F is the length of CD, not the y −1
2
x ( y − 1) = 2 y
area. In choice G, you used 8 in place of 10 as the
xy − x = 2 y
length of the base ABD. Choice J is the area of tri-
xy − 2 y = x
angle ABD. In choice K, you should have subtracted
y ( x − 2) = x
the area of triangle ABC from the area of triangle
x
ABD, not added it. y=
x −2
x
So, g −1( x ) = .
x −2

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12. The correct answer is H. When whole numbers are
written as products of powers of prime numbers as is the
case here—the least common multiple (LCM) is formed
by using the highest power of each prime number that
occurs in any of the numbers. Applying that principle
here gives the LCM of p3q3r4. Choice F is the greatest
common factor. In choice G, you did not account for the
third whole number in the list. Choice J is a common
factor of all three whole numbers, but not a common
multiple. Choice K is a common multiple of all three
whole numbers, but not the least common multiple.
13. The correct answer is D. The difference between Colin’s
and Daryl’s average monthly salary is $500, so the
difference between their annual salaries is $500 × 12 =
$6,000. We don’t know who earns more, but the
difference between their annual salaries is C − D dollars.
Thus, C − D = 6 , 000.
Choice A is the difference of monthly salaries, not the
annual salaries. Choice B is incorrect because you
should be subtracting salaries, not adding them—
even so, the right side would represent the difference
of monthly salaries, not annual salaries. In choice C,
the average of the annual salaries is 6,000, which is
not given in the problem. In choice E, you should be
subtracting, not adding salaries.
14. The correct answer is J. Let x be the number of games
Mike played. Then, Stan played 2x – 3 games. Together,
they played x + (2x – 3) = 3x – 3 games. The cost of
playing this number of games is 0.25(3x – 3). Adding the
admission fee of 2($8.50) = $17, we get the equation
0.25(3x – 3) + 17 = 35. Solve for x:
0.25 (3 x − 3) + 17 = 35
3 x − 3 + 68 = 140
3 x + 65 = 140
3 x = 75
x = 25
The total number of games played is 3(25) – 3 = 72. 5
Choice F is incorrect because you did not multiply the
total number of games played by 0.25, the cost per
game. Choice G is incorrect because this is the
number of games Mike played. Choice H is incorrect
because this is the number of games Stan played.
Choice K is incorrect because this would imply that
Stan played exactly twice the number of games that
Mike did, which is not the case.
Answer Keys and Explanations
15. The correct answer is C. When parallel lines are cut by
a transversal, the alternate interior angles are equal.
Therefore, ∠DCE measures 60°. Since the measures of
the angles in a triangle add up to 180°, ∠CED measures
180° – 40° – 60° = 80°.
Choice A is incorrect because ∠CED is neither corre-
sponding nor alternate interior to ∠CDE, and so it is
not congruent to it in this scenario. In choice B, ∠CED
is neither corresponding nor alternate interior to
∠ABE, and so it is not congruent to it in this scenario.
For choice D, you must subtract this sum from 180
degrees to get the desired angle. Choice E is not true
since you can use the various relationships among
angles formed by two parallel lines cut by a
transversal.
16. The correct answer is J. There are 8 different faces on
which the red die can land. For each of these faces,
there are 8 faces on which the blue die can come to a
rest. Multiplying yields 8(8) = 64 different outcomes for
the faces on which both die can come to rest in a single
roll. Choice F is incorrect because it is the number of
different outcomes for a single die. Choice G is incorrect
because you should multiply the number of outcomes
for each die, not add them. Choice H is incorrect
because it is half the correct number. Choice K is
incorrect because the order in which the dice are
arranged does not affect the faces on which they come
to rest. So the correct number should be one-half this.
17. The correct answer is A. Rewrite the equation in
slope-intercept form:
2 x − 5 y − 1= 0
2 x − 1= 5y
2 1
y= x−
5 5
2 1
y= x−
5 5
2
So, the slope of the given line is . So, a line perpen-
5
dicular to it must have slope − . Choices B, D, and E
2
represent various errors based on using 2 as the
slope of the given line; you must first solve for y
before identifying the coefficient of x as the slope.
Choice C would be the slope of a line parallel to the
given line.
18. The correct answer is J. Each of the larger walls has an
area of 20 × 40 = 800 square feet, which requires 2
gallons of paint. Each of the smaller walls has an area of
1
20 × 30 = 600 square feet, which requires 1 gallons of
2
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 Answer Keys and Explanations

paint. The total area is 2,800 square feet, and the total In choices A and D, you did not apply the correct rule
1 1
number of gallons is 2 + 2 + 1 + 1 = 7. for simplifying quotients of powers of the same base;
2 2
Choice F is half of the correct answer, which may be the exponents should be subtracted, not multiplied
3
the result of only counting one of the smaller walls
or added. Choice B is incorrect because x 3 = x 2 ,
and one of the larger walls. Choice G results from
2
incorrectly calculating that each of the smaller walls not x 3 . In choice E, you did not compute the square
3
3
requires of a gallon of paint. Choice H may result root of a power correctly: x 3 = x 2 , not x 3 .
4
from a calculation error. Choice K is the number of 22. The correct answer is K. The total of the 6 original
gallons that would be needed if the total area were scores is (6)(80) = 480 points. The total of all 8 tests is (8)
24,000 square feet; 24,000 is the volume of the (85) = 680 points. Since the total of the 2 added tests
house, in cubic feet. must be 680 – 480 = 200, the average of these 2 tests is
19. The correct answer is A. Cross-multiply and then solve 200 ÷ 2 = 100. The values listed in choices F, G, H, and J
for w: will all result in an average lower than 85.
1
23. The correct answer is C. The area of a triangle is bh.
2w + 1 5 2
= We already know the height of the triangle, 9 centi-
3 6
(2w + 1)(6 ) = 5(3) meters. To find the base, use the Pythagorean theorem,
12w + 6 = 15 or recognize this as similar to a 3-4-5 right triangle:
12w = 9
9 3 9 2 + AC 2 = 15 2
w= =
12 4 81+ AC 2 = 225

Choice B is incorrect because this is the reciprocal of AC 2 = 144

the correct value of w. Choice C is incorrect because AC = 12
after cross-multiplying you did not apply the distrib-
utive property. Choice D is incorrect because you Since the base of the triangle is 12, the area of the
1
need to divide by 12, the coefficient of w, in the final triangle is (12)(9 ) = 54 square centimeters.
2
step of the solution. Choice E is incorrect because
Choice A is the length of the unknown side, in centi-
this is just the right side of the equation once you
meters. Choice B is the perimeter of the triangle, in
cross-multiplied. Now, solve for w.
centimeters. Choice D is double the area, which may
20. The correct answer is H. Set up a proportion between 1
result from forgetting the in the area formula.
similar sides: 2
24 x Choice E is the product of the two known sides,
=
30 40 which is not the area because side BC is neither the
30 x = 960 base nor the height of the triangle.
x = 32 1
24. The correct answer is J. Since the second file is 2
2
None of the values in choices F, G, J, and K retain the times as large as the first, multiply the amount of time
proportionality. 1
needed for the first file by 2 . You can do this either by
2
21. The correct answer is C. Use the exponent rules: converting 4 minutes and 26 seconds to seconds, then
converting back to minutes, or by multiplying both the
43 x 7 y 42 i 4 i x 3 1
2 4 3
= minutes and seconds by 2 , then combining the
3 x y 32 i y 2 2
results:
42 i 4i x3
=
32 i y2 1
4 minutes × 2 = 10 minutes
3 3 2
4 i 2 i x 2 8x 2
= = 1
3iy 3y 26 seconds × 2 = 65 seconds
2

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 Answer Keys and Explanations

10 minutes and 65 seconds = 11 minutes and 5 28. The correct answer is J. First calculate the area of the
seconds 1
four triangles. Since the area of a triangle is bh, each
2
Choice F results from replacing 65 seconds with 5 1 3
triangle has an area of (a)(3a) = a 2 . Thus, the total
seconds, ignoring the additional minute. Choice G 2 2
1 3
results from only multiplying the minutes by 2 , not area of all four triangles is 4 × a 2 = 6a 2 . The easiest
2 2
the seconds. Choice H results from multiplying the
1 way to calculate the area of the shaded region is to
minutes by 2 and the seconds by 2. Choice K is
2 subtract the area of the four triangles from the area of
likely the result of an arithmetic error when con- square WXYZ, each side of which has a length of a + 3a
verting between seconds and minutes. = 4a. The area of square WXYZ is (4a)2 = 16a2, so the area
of the shaded region is 16a2 – 6a2 = 10a2. Therefore, the
25. The correct answer is C. The current paths require a
ratio of the area of the 4 triangles to the area of the
trip of 200 feet. A diagonal path would form an isosceles
shaded region is:
right triangle with the existing paths. By the rules of 6a 2 3
45°-45°-90° triangles, the length of the path would be =
10a 2 5
100 2 feet, or approximately 140 feet. The new path
would shorten the route by about 200 – 140 = 60 feet. In choice F, you compared the area of four triangles to
the area of the square WXYZ, not the shaded region.
Choice A is likely the result of an arithmetic error. For Choice G is incorrect because the area of the four tri-
choice B, you used the wrong triangle relationship; angles is 6a2, not 4a2. Choice H is incorrect because
this is a 45-45-90 triangle, not a 30-60-90 triangle. the area of the four triangles is 6a2, not 5a2. In choice
Choice D is the approximate length of the path. For K, the area of the shaded region is 10a2, not 8a2.
choice E, you used the wrong triangle relationship;
this is a 45-45-90 triangle, not a 30-60-90 triangle, 29. The correct answer is C. Get a common denominator
and this would be the length of the path. in the top and bottom separately; then, divide the
resulting fractions:
26. The correct answer is F. Let x be the original price.
5, 400 1 1 10 1 9
Then, 0.70x = 5,400, so that x = dollars. Choice G − −
0.70 10 100 = 100 100 = 100
1 1 5 1 4
is incorrect because you should divide by 0.7, not − −
5 25 25 25 25
multiply by it. This represents 70% of 5,400. 9 4 9
25
Choice H is incorrect because this is 30% of 5,400. = ÷ = 9
i 4
=
100 25 4 100 16
Choice J is incorrect because you do not apply per-
Choice A is the result of multiplying the numerator
centages by adding the percent to a quantity. Choice K
and denominator of the complex fraction instead of
is incorrect because the denominator should be 0.7.
dividing them. In choice B you canceled terms, not
27. The correct answer is E. Each wall is 100 yards long and factors, common to the numerator and denominator.
15 yards high. Convert these yards to feet, since the Choice D is the reciprocal of the correct answer.
paint coverage is measured in square feet. There are 3 Choice E is the result of flipping the fraction before
feet in a yard, so each wall measures 300 feet by 45 feet, the division sign when converting the quotient of
and the total square footage is 2 × 300 × 45 = 27,000 two fractions to a product.
square feet. One gallon of paint covers an area of 150
30. The correct answer is G. Use the two labeled points to
square feet, so calculate the number of gallons needed
determine the slope of the line:
for this job:
−3 − ( −1) 2 1
m= =− =−
1 gallon 4 − ( −2) 6 3
27, 000 square feet × = 180
150 square feet
Using point-slope form with the point (–2, –1) yields
the equation
In choice A, you did not convert to feet when com- 1
puting square footage. In choice B, you did not y − ( −1) = − ( x + 2)
3
convert 100 yards to feet. In choice C, you did not 1 2
y + 1= − x −
account for the fact that there are two walls. Choice D 3 3
is the information given to you; you must determine 1 5
y=− x−
total square footage and then divide by 150. 3 3
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Peterson's ACT® Prep Guide 2018
 Answer Keys and Explanations

Choice F is incorrect because the slope is the change 33. The correct answer is E. If the average of x numbers is
in y divided by the change in x. Choice H is incorrect 15, then the total of these numbers is 15x. When two
because the slope is the change in y divided by the numbers are increased by y, 2y will be added to this
change in x, and you seemed to have eyeballed the total. The value of x does not change, so the new
y-intercept. Choice J is incorrect because you seemed 15 x + 2 y 2y
average will be = 15 + . This is an increase
to have eyeballed the y-intercept. Choice K is incorrect x x
because the sign of the constant term should be 2y
of over the original average.
negative. x

31. The correct answer is C. Construct a frequency table: Choice A is the amount added to the overall total
before averaging. Choice B is just the amount by
Data value Frequency which each of the two numbers increased, not the
0 3 amount by which the average increases. Choice C is
1 9 the reciprocal of the correct answer. The value given
2 3 in choice D should be doubled, since two numbers
were increased by y.
3 1
4 4 34. The correct answer is J. The unshaded sectors AOB and
5 5 2 1 11
BOC comprise a total of + = of the circle.
5 3 15
6 0
This means that the shaded region, sector AOC, takes up
7 2 4
the remaining of the circle. A circle has 360 total
8 3 15
degrees, so set up a proportion to find the measure of
The mode is the most frequently occurring data value,
∠AOC:
which is 1. The median is the average of the 15th and
2+2 4 m∠AOC
16th data value, namely = 2. The mean is the =
2 15 360°
average of all the data values: 15(m∠AOC ) = 1, 440°
m∠AOC = 96°
0(3) + 1(9 ) + 2(3) + 3(1) + 4( 4 ) + 5(5) + 6(0 ) + 7(2) + 8(3)
30 Choice F is incorrect because the number of degrees
97 7 in a circle is 360, not 180. In choice G, you seem to
= =3 . 1
30 30 have mistakenly said that the shaded region is of
4
the circle—don’t eyeball it! Choice H is close, but is
So mode < median < mean.
likely the result of eyeballing the region rather than
using the information provided in the problem.
32. The correct answer is F. First, find cosq using the
Choice K is the measure of 360 – ∠AOC, not just
identity sin2 q + cos2 q = 1 :
∠AOC.

sin2 q + cos2 q = 1 35. The correct answer is C. The ladder forms a right
 2
2
triangle with the house and the ground, so use the
  + cos q = 1
2

3 Pythagorean theorem to solve for the distance:

4 10 2 + b 2 = 12 2
+ cos2 q = 1
9
b 2 = 144 − 100
5
cos2 q =
9 b = 44
5 5 ≈ 6.6
cos q = ± =±
9 3 In choice A, when using the Pythagorean theorem,
you forgot to square the legs and hypotenuse. For
Since the terminal side of q is in the second quadrant,
choice B, you computed the squares of the legs and
5 hypotenuse incorrectly; note that a2 does not equal
−
5 cos q 3 5
use cos q = − . Now, cot q = = =− . 2a. For choice D, you treated the hypotenuse as a leg
3 sinq 2 2
3 in the Pythagorean theorem. For choice E, you forgot
to take the square root.

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 Answer Keys and Explanations

36. The correct answer is J. Since the diameter of the circle 40. The correct answer is K. Calculate as follows:
is 12 yards, the radius must be 6 yards. So, the area of
 4 2
the circle is 62π = 36π square yards. In choice F, you h  −  = 1−
 x  4
incorrectly squared π when computing the area. In 3 − 
 x
choice G, you used the wrong formula for area; it should 2  x
be πr2, where r is the radius. Choice H is the circum- = 1− = 1+ 2  
12  12 
−
ference of the circle. In choice K, you used the diameter x
instead of the radius when computing the area. x 6+ x x +6
= 1+ = =
6 6 6
37. The correct answer is A. There are 3(24) = 72 tea-
spoons in the jar of cough medicine. Divide the total x+6 x+ 6
Choice F is incorrect because ≠ . Choice
$4.50 6 6
cost by 72 to get the cost per teaspoon: ≈ $0.06.
72 G is incorrect because you did not simplify the
Choice B is incorrect because you divided by 30 instead complex fraction correctly. Choice H is incorrect
of 72, the number of teaspoons in the jar. Choice C is 2x 2x +1
because + 1≠ ; you must first get a
incorrect because you divided by 24; this is the cost per 12 12
tablespoon, not teaspoon. Choice D is incorrect because
common denominator. Choice J is incorrect because
you are off by a factor of 10. Choice E is incorrect
because you divided by 3, not 3(24). 4
it is the product of h(x) and − .
x
38. The correct answer is G. The given line is vertical since
it passes through two points having the same x-coor- 41. The correct answer is D. Use the second portion of the
dinate. So, the desired line must be horizontal. Since it function since that is the interval to which x = 0 belongs.
passes through the point (–1, 4), its equation must be Doing so yields F(0) = 4. Choice A is incorrect because
y = 4. In choices F, H, and K, you used the point (–1, 4) the portion of the function corresponding to the
when computing the slope of the given line, but it does interval containing zero is, in fact, defined at 0; so, the
not pass through this point. Choice J is parallel to the y-intercept does exist. Choice B is incorrect because this
given line. is the x-intercept. Choice C is incorrect because you
used the wrong portion of the function; 0 does not
39. The correct answer is D. Let x be the missing leg of the
belong to the interval for which the function is defined
triangle. Using the Pythagorean theorem yields 22 + x2
by the third expression. Choice E is incorrect because
= 52, so that x2 = 21. Thus, x = 21. The area of the you used the wrong portion of the function; 0 does not
1
( )
triangle is therefore (2) 21 = 21 square yards. In
2
belong to the interval for which the function is defined
by the first expression.
choice A, you did not square the lengths of the sides
when applying the Pythagorean theorem. In choices B 42. The correct answer is H. Three pairs of prime numbers
and C, you applied the Pythagorean theorem treating add to 24: 5 + 19, 7 + 17, and 11 + 13. The smallest
the hypotenuse as a leg. In choice E, you used the resulting product is 5 × 19 = 95, so 95 is the least
hypotenuse when computing the area, but you should possible value of xy.
use both legs. Choice F gives you a prime, so it cannot be a product
of prime numbers. You get choice G from the choice
2 + 22, but 22 is not prime. You get choice J from 7
and 17 and choice K from 11 and 13, but neither one
yields the least product.

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 Answer Keys and Explanations

43. The correct answer is E. The radius is the length of the ( )( )

segment connecting the two given points:
(2 − ( −4 ))2 + ( −2 − 3)2 = 62 + 52 = 36 + 25 = 61.
Using the center (h, k) = (–4, 3) and radius r =
61 in the standard form for the equation of
a circle (x – h)2 + (y – k)2 = r2 yields the equation
( 61)
2
( x − ( −4 ))2 + ( y − 3)2 = , which simplifies to
The area of the rectangle is 4 2 8 2 = 64.
For choice F, note that 2 • 2 = 2, not 2.
Choice H is the perimeter, not the area. Choice J is
the square of the length of a side of the rectangle.
For choice K, you seem to have assumed the rect-
angle was a square with side 12. You must use the
distance formula to find a side length.

( x + 4 ) + ( y − 3) = 61 . Choices A and B have the

2 2
47. The correct answer is A. In order for the expression to
signs of the center wrong, and the right side in
choice B should be squared. In choice C, you did not
square the differences in the x- and y-coordinates
when computing the distance between the given
points. In choice D, you used the wrong point for the
center and should square the right side.
44. The correct answer is F. Solve for z:
0.3 z − 0.24 = 1.2 (0.3 − z )
0.3 z − 0.24 = 0.36 − 1.2 z
1.5 z = 0.60
48. The correct answer is F. Since
0.60
z= = 0.4
1.5
0.60
z= = 0.4
1.5
So z i 10 −3 = (0.4 ) i 10 −3 = 0.0004 . All other choices
are off by various powers of 10.
45. The correct answer is B. Tangent equals opposite
divided by adjacent. In an isosceles right triangle, the
legs are equal. In this case, that means the opposite and
49. The correct answer is B. For x to have an inverse
adjacent sides are equal, so tan x° = 1. Choice A is either
sine or cosine of 45 degrees. Choice C is either the
secant or cosecant of 45 degrees. For choices D and E,
you used the wrong triangle relationships—this is a
45-45-90 triangle, not a 30-60-90 triangle.
46. The correct answer is G. Solve for the width and length
of the rectangle using the distance formula:
w = ( −5 − ( −1)) 2 + ( −2 − ( −6 )) 2
= 16 + 16
= 32
=4 2
be positive, x and z must either both be negative or
both be positive. Choice B would produce a quotient
involving an odd number of negative signs, which must
be odd. Choice C is incorrect because option II is
false—this would produce a quotient involving an odd
number of negative signs, which must be odd. Choices
D and E are incorrect because options II and III are false.
Option II is false because this would produce a quotient
involving an odd number of negative signs; option III is
false because if x = 0, then the quotient is 0.
1 1
= = 5−4 , it follows
625 54
 1 
that log5 
 625 
( )
= log5 5 − 4 = −4. Choice G is incorrect
1
because 5 − 3 = . In choice H, you applied the power
125
1
in the wrong way: , but 625 4 = 5. Choice J has the
wrong sign. In choice K, you incorrectly multiplied the
base times the power.
relationship with y, it must be in the denominator of the
right side. For z to have a direct relationship with y, it
must be in the numerator of the right side. Only the
z
equation y = does this.
x
Choice A is incorrect because the right side should
be the reciprocal of what is listed here. Choice C is
incorrect because it means y is inversely proportional
to both z and x. For choice D, applying the logarithm
rules, this would make log(y) inversely proportional
to z and proportional to log(x). For choice E, applying
the logarithm rules would make log(y) inversely pro-
portional to x and proportional to log(z).

l = ( −1− 7) 2 + ( −6 − 2) 2
= 64 + 64
= 128
=8 2

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50. The correct answer is H. Divide 114 feet into 3-foot 54. The correct answer is G. Begin by plugging in 100 for x.
segments to see that there are 38 such segments. The If 100 is increased by 20 percent, the result is 120. This
cost, before tax, is therefore 38($8.10) = $307.80. The 5% number is then decreased by 30 percent. Thirty percent
sales tax on this amount is 0.05($307.80) = $15.39. So, of 120 is 36, so the final result is 120 − 36 = 84. This is
the total cost is $307.80 + $15.39 = $323.19. the same as decreasing 100 by 16 percent. Choice F is
Choice F is incorrect because you subtracted 5% of the incorrect because the percentages are actually acting in
pre-tax cost instead of adding it to it. Choice G is different directions, so you cannot simply add them in
incorrect because you did not include the 5% tax. this manner. Choices H and J are incorrect because you
Choice J is incorrect because you used $8.10 as the cost cannot just add percentages; they must be applied to a
per foot, not per 3-foot segment, and did not include whole. For choice K, you assumed that x was initially
the 5% tax. Choice K is incorrect because you used $8.10 decreased by 20% and then applied 30% to 0.80x.
as the cost per foot, not per 3-foot segment.
55. The correct answer is A. As shown in the diagram
51. The correct answer is D. Solve for y: below, the height of the pole, x, is opposite a 70° angle,
and the hypotenuse of the triangle is 50.
3(1− 2 y ) 2 − 4 y
− =y
4 3
12(1− 2 y ) − 4(2 − 4 y ) = 12 y
12 − 24 y − 8 + 16 y = 12 y
4 − 8 y = 12 y
4 = 20 y
1
y= 50
5 x
−1
 1
So, y −1 =   = 5. In choices A, C, and E, you solved
 5
an equation of the form ay = b incorrectly (you should
divide both sides by a) and computed y–1 incorrectly. 70º
In choice B, you multiplied the base and exponent when
computing y–1.
Sine equals opposite divided by hypotenuse:
52. The correct answer is G. The period of a graph of the
2p x
form y = Acos(Bx + C) + D is . So, the period of the = sin 70°
B 50
 p 2p x = 50 sin 70°
graph of y = 4 cos  3 x −  + 1 is . Choice F is the
 2 3
phase shift. In choice H, you incorrectly identified the Choice B is the length of the unlabeled leg of the tri-
coefficient of x as the period. Choice J is the amplitude. angle. In choice C, you used an incorrect definition of
In choice K, you did not divide by the coefficient of x. tangent. In choices D and E, you used an incorrect
definition of cosine.
53. The correct answer is D. Let s be a side of the square.
Two adjacent sides and the corresponding diagonal 56. The correct answer is H. The inequality 2|3x + 1| > 8 is
form a right triangle. So, using the Pythagorean equivalent to |3x + 1| > 4. This implies that either 3x + 1
theorem yields s2 + s2 = 82, or equivalently, 2s2 = 64. So > 4 or 3x + 1 < –4. Solving the first inequality yields x > 1
s2 = 32 and hence, s = 4 2 inches. Therefore, the 5
and solving the second one yields x < − . So, the
( )
perimeter is 4 4 2 = 16 2 inches. Choice A is the
5
3
length of a side of the square. Choice B is one-half the solution set is {x: x > 1 or x < − }. In choices F and J,
3
perimeter. In choice C you did not use the Pythagorean you multiplied both sides of the original inequality by 2
theorem correctly to find the length of a side of the instead of dividing by 2. Choices F, G, and K only provide
square. Choice E is the area of the square. one of the two rays that comprise the solution set.

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57. The correct answer is B. For the lines to never intersect, 59. The correct answer is D. The outcomes that satisfy the
they must be parallel. So, they must have the same given criteria are as follows:
slope. The equation 2x – cy = 1 can be written equiva-
1 3 5 7 9 11 13 15 17 19 21 23 25 27 29 and 10 20 30
2 1 2
lently as y = x − . So its slope is . The slope of the So, 18 of the possible 30 outcomes satisfy the condition.
c c c
second line is 8c. Equating the slopes yields the 18
Thus, the probability is = 0.60. Choice A is wrong
2 30
equation = 8c . This is equivalent to 2 = 8c2, so that because while 18 outcomes satisfy the condition, you
c must divide this by the number of outcomes possible,
1 1 1
c = . Solving for c gives c = − , c = . Choice A
2
not by 100. Choice B is the probability of NOT selecting
4 2 2
would produce lines that are perpendicular. Choice C such a card. Choice C does not account for the cards
10, 20, or 30. In choice E, you double counted the out-
shows the reciprocals of the correct values of c. Choice comes 5, 15, and 25.
D is the result of solving an equation of the form ax = b
60. The correct answer is G. A shirt and two ties cost $105,
incorrectly; you should divide both sides by a, not
which translates to s + 2t = 105. Two shirts and one tie
multiply both sides by it. In choice E, you squared both
cost $135, which translates to 2s + t = 135. Multiply both
1 sides of the first equation by 2: 2s + 4t = 210. Then
sides when attempting to solve c2 = instead of taking
4 subtract the second equation from the first equation to
the square root of both sides.
solve for t, the price of one tie:
58. The correct answer is J. Find the slope of the given line.
5−2 2 s + 4t = 210
= 3 . Use the point-slope formula to find the
−1+ 2 −(2 s + t = 135)
equation of the line.
3t = 75
y − y1 = m( x − x1 ) t = 25
y − 5 = 3( x + 1)
In choice F, when solving the system you added the
y − 5 = 3x + 3
t-terms but should have subtracted them. In choice
y = 3x + 8
H, you likely made an arithmetic error. In choice J,
The equation for line m is y = 3x + 8. Since line n is you have the cost of two ties, not one. In choice K,
1 you calculated the cost of one shirt.
perpendicular to line m, it must have a slope of − .
3
By putting the given equations in slope-intercept
form, you can see that only the line represented by
1 1 14
3y = –x + 14 has a slope of − : y = − x + . The
3 3 3
1
slopes of the lines in choices F, G, and H are not − .
3
Remember, the product of the slopes of perpen-
dicular lines must be –1. Choice K is incorrect
because the slope of line m is 3. Since the product of
the slopes of perpendicular lines must be –1, this
cannot be the equation of line n.

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Reading
1.   D 11.   B
2.   H 12.   J
3.   B 13.   B
4.   G 14.   H
5.   B 15.   A
6.   J 16.   F
7.   C 17.   D
8.   F 18.   H
9.   D 19.   D
10.   H 20.   H
1. The correct answer is D. Paragraph 1 states that Mr.
Bennet addressed his second daughter, and the
following line finds him addressing Lizzy, so choice D is
correct and choice B can be eliminated. A second
daughter could be the youngest one if there are only
two daughters, but we know based on this passage that
5. The correct answer is B. The main purpose of lines
there are at least three daughters in the Bennet family
(Lizzy, Kitty, and Mary), so choice A is not the correct
answer. The only mention of anyone being sensible in
this passage refers to Mary, not Lizzy, and she fails in her
attempt to do so, so choice C is not the correct answer.
2. The correct answer is H. Mrs. Bennet uses this
figurative phrase in reference to her nerves and to
indicate that Kitty’s coughing is making her upset, so
choice H is the best answer. While physically tearing up
6. The correct answer is J. The sentence reads: “Celia
something is destructive, and perhaps even violent,
Kitty is not literally tearing up Mrs. Bennet’s nerves, so
choices F and G are not correct. Mrs. Bennet’s issue is
emotional, not physical, so choice J is not the best
answer.
3. The correct answer is B. After Mr. Bennet makes the
suggestion, Mrs. Bennet dismisses it as a breach of
etiquette, which is apparently very important in this
story. According to etiquette, Mrs. Bennet cannot make
the introduction when she does not know Mr. Bingley
7. The correct answer is C. In Passage A, Mrs. Bennet
personally. Although Mrs. Bennet believes Mr. Bennet
has made a poor suggestion, it is extreme to conclude
that she thinks he has lost his mind (choice A), he does
not understand her (choice C), or he does not love her
(choice D).
4. The correct answer is G. Although Miss Brooke’s
behavior toward Sir James may be interpreted as rude,
no one in the passage ever says she is too rude, so
choice F is not the best answer. Although the words
happy and scruples are used in the first paragraph,
Answer Keys and Explanations
21.   C 31.   C
22.   F 32.   J
23.   D 33.   C
24.   H 34.   F
25.   A 35.   D
26.   H 36.   H
27.   C 37.   A
28.   F 38.   H
29.   D 39.   D
30.   G 40.   G
neither word is used to describe Miss Brooke, so
you can eliminate choices H and J. However, both
Celia and Sir James are familiar with the notion that
Miss Brooke is too religious, so choice G is the best
answer.
28–30 is to reveal Sir James’ inner thoughts about
Miss Brooke, so choice B is the best answer. This is
not a quotation, though, so choice A cannot be
correct. The information in lines 28–30 does not
contradict the idea that Sir James is charming, so
choice C is incorrect. While lines 28–30 do reveal
some of Miss Brooke’s qualities that Sir James loved,
the lines’ main purpose is not structured as a list.
felt that this was a pity.” It is clear from this sentence
that the word pity is a noun, so you can eliminate
choice F since sorry can be used only as an
adjective. Compassion (choice G) and sympathy
(choice H) have the same meaning, so they most
likely cancel each other out. They also would not
make sense if used in place of pity in the original
sentence. The only answer choice that would
is shame.
has little patience for her daughters’ comments,
and Miss Brooke is abrupt and cold with Sir James,
so the answer that best describes both women is
short-tempered (choice C). Demure means shy, and
neither woman has any reservations about
expressing her opinions, so choice A does not make
sense. Disgusted may describe Miss Brooke since
she may “despise” Sir James, but it is too harsh a
word to describe Mrs. Bennet, so choice B is not the
best answer. The narrator of Passage B describes
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 Answer Keys and Explanations
Miss Brooke’s behavior as an amusing contrast to Sir
James’s solicitous amiability, but that word does not
really describe her in general, and it does not really
describe Mrs. Bennet either, so choice D is not the best
answer.
8. The correct answer is F. This is an inference question.
Kitty becomes fretful when her parents interpret her
coughing as impudence. This implies that she is
concerned about how others interpret her behavior.
However, Miss Brooke says exactly what is on her mind
no matter how others might interpret her words. So
choice F describes a difference between the two
characters. Choice G describes how Miss Brooke is
different from Kitty, not the other way around. Choice H
is Sir James’s interpretation of Miss Brooke’s behavior; it
is not anyone’s interpretation of Kitty’s. Mrs. Bennet
describes Ms. Long as selfish and hypocritical; no one
describes Kitty this way, so choice J is wrong.
9. The correct answer is D. At the end of Passage A, the
narrator reveals Mary’s unspoken wish “to say some-
thing sensible.” The first paragraph of Passage B reveals
Celia’s private thoughts. Choice D is the best answer.
Kitty’s inner thoughts are never revealed in Passage A,
so choice A is incorrect. Neither Elizabeth nor Miss
Brooke’s inner thoughts are known in these passages, so
choice B is wrong. Mr. Bingley never even appears in
Passage A, so choice C cannot be correct.
10. The correct answer is H. In Passage A, the Bennets
intend to introduce their daughter Lizzy to Mr. Bingley
in the hope that there will be a romantic connection
between them. In Passage B, Sir James expresses
romantic interest in Miss Brooke. Therefore, you can
infer that both men are unmarried. The other answer
choices are difficult to confirm. Mr. Bingley does not
actually appear in Passage A, so it is not possible to
know whether or not he is extremely charming (choice
F), uninterested in etiquette (choice G), or if he even
meets Lizzy (choice J).
11. The correct answer is B. The answer to this question
can be found in the second paragraph, which states,
“Sarah Andrews Spencer, Sarah E. Webster, and seventy
other women marched to the polls to register and vote
in the District of Columbia. Their ballots refused, they
brought suit against the Board of Election Inspectors,
carrying the case unsuccessfully to the Supreme Court
of the United States.” This supports choice B. Choice A
confuses the situation in the District of Columbia with
one in Detroit. While the passage states that the women
marched to the polls to register and vote, it does not say
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that organized a protest march (choice C). While at least
two women had voted successfully in the Washington
Territory, there is no implication that the women in
question were able to vote in that area after being
refused in the District of Columbia, so choice D is
incorrect.
12. The correct answer is J. In this passage, Susan B.
Anthony first successfully secures the right to vote by
invoking the Fourteenth Amendment of the US
Constitution, so choice J is the best answer. While
Anthony read a publication called The Revolution and
hoped for more militancy among women, such matters
do not necessarily support the conclusion in choice F,
since the passage never indicates Anthony took violent
measures to secure voting rights for women. While
Anthony did take her issue to the press, this was not the
action that was most successful for her cause, so choice
G is not as strong of an answer as choice J. Her actions
described in this passage are to secure the right to vote,
but voting, itself, is not one of those actions, so choice H
is not as strong of an answer as choice J.
13. The correct answer is B. The third paragraph describes
numerous other women who attempted to vote or
secure the right to vote in Susan B. Anthony’s time, so
choice B is the best answer. The beginning of the
paragraph specifically states that the actions it
describes only gave Anthony hope that more successful
militancy was to come, which suggests that a militant
effort to secure women the right to vote was not yet in
full force. Therefore, choice A can be eliminated. The
paragraph refers to several specific women who were
working to secure the right to vote, but it does not
support the extreme statement in choice C. The
paragraph also refers to the fact that some women took
their cases to the Supreme Court, but it does not quite
support the conclusion in choice D, since those cases
were unsuccessful.
14. The correct answer is H. While Susan B. Anthony is the
main focus of this passage, the passage describes the
actions of many people who worked toward enacting
social change, so choice H is the best answer. Choice F
would have been correct if the passage discussed only
Anthony. The passage focuses on securing the right to
vote, but using voting as a tool to enact social change is
not discussed in the passage, so there is no support for
choice G. Choice J is too specific, since taking cases to
the Supreme Court was just one of the numerous
methods for affecting change discussed in the passage.

15. The correct answer is A. The author indicates that it
was Susan B. Anthony’s persistence that caused Jones
and Marsh to consent to allowing the women to vote.
While she did read lines from the Fourteenth
Amendment, the author does not imply that this is what
inspired Jones and Marsh to consent. There is a
suggestion that Anthony stirred up an argument and
that Jones and Marsh broke from their colleagues when
they decided to consent to allowing Anthony and the
other women, but there is not enough evidence to
support the very specific conclusion in choice C.
Anthony only rounded up more women to vote after
Jones and Marsh allowed them the right to vote, so
choice D is incorrect.
16. The correct answer is F. Choice F, relevant, is the
answer choice that would make the most sense if used
in place of pertinent in line 61. While interesting
(choice G) would make sense, it does not fit the specific
meaning of line 61 as well as choice F. Persistent (choice
H) may be spelled similarly to pertinent, but the two
words have very different meanings. Choice J seems to
confuse pertinent for penitent, the latter of which means
“sorry or remorseful.”
17. The correct answer is D. According to the seventh
paragraph, the news media reported on the registration
of women voters in Rochester after Susan B. Anthony
had successfully gotten sixteen women to register to
vote (choice D). Choice A describes something that
most likely happened after the news media reported
Anthony’s accomplishment. Choice B describes
something that definitely happened after it. Choice C
describes something that Anthony only says will
happen in the future in this passage, so the passage
does not even make clear whether Post went through
with her plans to sue the registrars.
18. The correct answer is H. While the passage is not
specifically about the difficulties women faced in
becoming lawyers during Susan B. Anthony’s time, it is
about difficulties women faced during that period, and
the details about Myra Bradwell are relevant to that
particular theme, so choice H is the best answer. Myra
Bradwell was denied admission to the Illinois bar
because she was a woman, not because she was
unqualified, so choice F is incorrect. There is no
exaggeration in this passage; women really did face
major challenges during Susan B. Anthony’s time, so
choice G is a weak answer. While it is likely that Myra
Bradwell was bright, choice J does not explain why the
author discusses her difficulties in the third paragraph.
Answer Keys and Explanations
19. The correct answer is D. According to the ninth
paragraph, the Chicago Tribune suggested that Anthony
should hold public office, which indicates that the paper
supported her, rather than criticized her. Therefore,
choice D is the best answer. The New York Graphic
(choice A), however, contained editorial cartoons that
“caricatured her unmercifully.” And since the paragraph
points out that such critical cartoons were very
common, choice C is not the best answer either. The
Rochester Union and Advertiser criticized Anthony as
lawless and charged that her actions “. . . proved women
unfit for the ballot.”
20. The correct answer is H. The first line of the eighth
paragraph states that “Election day did not bring the
general uprising of women for which Susan had hoped,”
which supports the conclusion in choice H. Choice F is
not the best answer, since Lillie Devereux Blake and
Matilda Joslyn Gage only tried to vote; they did not do
so successfully. Choice G is not a strong answer either,
since Stanton only seemed to lack motivation; there is
no evidence in this passage that she actually criticized
Anthony. Choice J is wrong because it is too extreme;
while some news media outlets did mock Anthony, the
ninth paragraph proves that not all news media outlets
mocked her.
21. The correct answer is C. Each answer choice can be
used as a synonym for inspired, but choice C makes the
most sense in this particular context. A single painted
canvass cannot really be animated, so choice A does not
make much sense. Encouraged does not make sense in
this context either, so choice B can also be eliminated.
There is no real indication that education is what
inspired Monticelli to use color in a particular way, so
choice D is not the best answer, either.
22. The correct answer is F. The author clearly appreciates
Impressionism, and in the third paragraph, he writes
that Impressionism rejects symbols. Therefore, choice F
is a logical conclusion. The author indicates that
Impressionism is different from Romanticism and
Classicism, but that does not mean he would necessarily
agree with the statement in choice G. The author states
that Impressionistic art is “aloof from mythology,” which
implies the opposite of choice H. The author implies
that Impressionists were technically advanced, but
nothing he writes really supports the extreme con-
clusion in choice J.
23. The correct answer is D. The author compares
Monticelli’s use of color to a musical theme to indicate
that such basic elements of art and music can still have
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 Answer Keys and Explanations
great emotional impact, so choice D is the best answer.
Choices A and C take the comparison between
Monticelli’s use of color and musical themes too literally.
There is no evidence that Monticelli actually used music
as an inspiration for his art (choice A) or that he actually
composed music (choice C). Choice B is too extreme;
28. The correct answer is F. The author describes
while Monticelli may have emphasized one particular
color in each of his paintings, there is no evidence that
he never used more than one color in his paintings.
24. The correct answer is H. In the third paragraph, the
author writes that the Impressionists occupy them-
selves with consideration of light (statement II) and
picturesqueness (statement III), but have an antipathy
to abstraction, which means that they rejected abstract
imagery (statement I). Therefore, the correct answer
must include statements II and II and eliminate
statement I, and that is what choice H does. Choice F
only includes the false statement. Choice G includes
only one of the two true statements. Choice J includes
29. The correct answer is D. A fact is a statement with
both the false statement and the two true ones.
25. The correct answer is A. The author’s use of strong,
emotional words such as delight, astonishment, and joy
support the inference in choice A. While the author
states that Monticelli has an entirely personal tech-
nique, he immediately follows this by stating that
Monitcelli’s work can be “compared with that of Turner,”
so choice B is not the best answer. The author explains
in the paragraph that Monticelli painted landscapes, so
choice C is incorrect. Choice D is a conclusion that can
be reached after reading the first paragraph, not the
30. The correct answer is G. Choice G is the best interpre-
second one.
26. The correct answer is H. In the fourth paragraph, the
author writes, “Manet, who, by his spirit and by the
chance of his friendships, grouped around him the
principal members, commenced by being classed in the
ranks of the Realists . . .,” which supports choice H. The
author does not offer choice F as an explanation and
never implies that Impressionist art does not depict
contemporary scenes, so choice G is incorrect. While
their names are similar, the author never implies that
31. The correct answer is C. In the third paragraph, the
Manet and Monet were confused with each other, nor
does the author imply that Monet was a Realist.
Therefore, choice J is incorrect.
27. The correct answer is C. The first three paragraphs deal
with the gradual development of Impressionism, while
the fourth paragraph deals with how it has been
unfairly judged. The author’s own descriptions of
Impressionist art indicates that it is an exciting form. So
there is sufficient support for choice C. Choice A only
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describes the first two paragraphs, so it is not a very
complete explanation of the primary purpose of the
passage as a whole. Choices B and D each reflect
specific details in the passage and both fail to capture
the purpose of the entire passage.
Monticelli’s brush as “full, fat and rich,” which supports
statement I. However, the author only compares
Monticelli’s reliefs to jewels and his construction of color
to musical themes; he does not actually suggest that
Monticelli painted jewels (statement II) or was directly
influenced by music (statement III). Therefore, the best
answer should include statement I and eliminate
statements II and II, and only choice F accomplishes this.
Choice G includes one true statement and one false
one. Choice H includes only the two false statements.
Choice J includes the one true statement as well as the
two false ones.
which no one can argue, and this can be said only of
choice D. The author states choice A in the second
paragraph, but it is only an opinion, since not everyone
may agree that Monticelli’s use of color was inspired.
Choice B is not a fact, since the author compares
Monticelli to both Watteau and Turner, which implies
that Monticelli’s style was not actually entirely personal.
Not everyone may agree with the author’s statement
that “Every picture by Monticelli provokes aston-
ishment,” so choice C is incorrect.
tation of this line, especially since the author empha-
sizes the role of spontaneity in creating Impressionistic
art. While the phrase does imply that Impressionists
were reluctant to discuss their art, it does not support
the extreme conclusion in choice F. Since the author
discusses the role of spontaneity in impressionism,
choice H is not true. Choice J is a statement the author
makes in the paragraph, but it has nothing to do with
the phrase in question.
author explains that “The form of a coast, the configu-
ration of the interior of a country, the existence and
extent of lakes, valleys, and mountains, can often be
traced to the former prevalence of earthquakes and
volcanoes,” which supports choice C. The author states
only that such cataclysms may have occurred in areas
that are currently undisturbed, not that such undis-
turbed areas are the direct causes of Earth’s features, so
choice A is not the best answer. The author mentions
 Answer Keys and Explanations

land elevation in the paragraph, but does not indicate moral and political science, so the geologist should
that it is the cause of Earth’s features, so choice B is avail himself of the aid of many naturalists . . ., “ which
incorrect. Choice D may be true, but it is not something supports the conclusion in choice H. There is nothing
the author discusses in the passage, so it cannot be the about the difficulty of excavation in the passage, so
correct answer. choice F is incorrect. The passage does not imply that
geologists withhold information from each other
32. The correct answer is J. In the fourth paragraph, the
either, so choice G similarly lacks support. Choice J
author writes that “. . . a geologist should be well versed
refers to historians, not geologists.
in chemistry [statement III], natural philosophy,
mineralogy, zoology, comparative anatomy (statement 37. The correct answer is A. At the end of the third
II) [and] botany (statement I) … .” Therefore, the correct paragraph, the author writes that “. . . many distin-
answer should include all three statements, which is guishing features of the surface may often be
what choice J does. Choice F only accounts for one of ascribed to the operation, at a remote era, of slow and
the three true statements. Choices G and H each only tranquil causes—to the gradual deposition of
account for two of them. sediment in a lake or in the ocean, or to the prolific
increase of Testacea and corals,” which supports
33. The correct answer is C. In the sixth paragraph, the
choice A. This contradicts choice B. Increases in
author writes, “. . . at the close of the eighteenth century,
Testacea and coral are just examples of events that
geology appears to have been regarded as little other
may alter Earth’s surface, and there is no implication
than a subordinate department of mineralogy,” which
that one affects the other, so choice C is incorrect. The
supports choice C. Therefore, choices A and B cannot be
author merely uses an increase in coral as an example
true. Choice D seems to assume that the eighteenth
of a tranquil cause of Earth’s features and does not
century and 1800s are the same period.
imply that such a thing would make the Earth a more
34. The correct answer is F. The final sentence of the tranquil place (choice D).
passage specifies that “geology was in nowise con-
38. The correct answer is H. In the fifth paragraph, the
cerned ‘with questions as to the origin of things,’” so
author explains that “. . . the Egyptian mummies throw
choice F is the best answer. The author draws many
light on the art of embalming, the rites of sepulture,
comparisons between geology and history throughout
or the average stature of the human race in ancient
the passage, so choice G is not the best answer. At the
Egypt . . .,” which supports the conclusion in choice H.
beginning of the fourth paragraph, the author writes,
The author uses the study of coins, not mummies, as
“Geology is intimately related to almost all the physical
an example of ways to learn about rulers (choice F).
sciences,” which eliminates choice H. At the beginning
The author uses the study of ancient encampments,
of the second paragraph, the author writes that by
not mummies, as an example of way to discover the
studying geology, “. . . we acquire a more perfect
districts once occupied by armies (choice G). Choice J
knowledge of its present condition . . .,” which elimi-
is not implied in the passage; generally, mummifi-
nates choice J.
cation is a way to preserve the dead, not cure the
35. The correct answer is D. Each answer choice can be living.
used as a synonym for trace, but choice D makes the
39. The correct answer is D. The author states that
most sense in this particular context, because the
geologists, not historians, should have an under-
author is discussing finding and following a series of
standing of natural philosophy, so choice D is the best
events. Choices A and B refer to creating a drawing, not
answer. The author states that historians need
tracking events. The author uses trace as a verb, but
knowledge of ethics and politics (choice A) in
choice C suggests a noun.
Paragraph 4. In that same paragraph, the author
36. The correct answer is H. In the fourth paragraph, the explains that historians often rely on antiquaries,
author writes, “ . . . as such extensive acquisitions are which implies that historians must have working
scarcely within the reach of any individual, it is nec- relationships with other academics. He says they need
essary that men who have devoted their lives to insight into human affairs (choice C) in Paragraph 4.
different departments should unite their efforts; and as
the historian receives assistance from the antiquary, and
from those who have cultivated different branches of

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 Answer Keys and Explanations

40. The correct answer is G. In the second paragraph, the

author refers to such antecedent changes—violent past
events that affect the nations of today. Therefore, choice
G is the best example. Choice F can be eliminated
because it refers to geology rather than history. Choice
H is incorrect because current wars are not past events.
Choice J is incorrect because an unfortunate presi-
dential election is not as inherently violent as a
revolution.

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Science
1.   C 11.   D
2.   H 12.   F
3.   D 13.   C
4.   J 14.   G
5.   D 15.   A
6.   F 16.   G
7.   B 17.   A
8.   G 18.   J
9.   A 19.   C
10.   J 20.   H
1. The correct answer is C. From the table, at 4.5 V the
current for Resistor B is 420 mA at either temperature.
Choice A would be correct if the question asked about
Resistor C. Choice B would be correct if the question
asked about Resistor C at 23°C. Choice D would be the
current for Resistor A.
2. The correct answer is H. Resistor A does not appear to
be affected by external temperature. While 27°C is not
within the tested temperatures, it is a small change, and
it’s reasonable to assume that Resistor A would show a
similar current compared to the other tested tempera-
tures. The current of Resistor A is linear with response to
voltage, with 100 mA/volt. Therefore, 350 mA is the
expected current at 3.5 V. Choice F is the expected
current of Resistor C at 23°C and 3.5 V. Choice G is the
expected current of Resistor C at 25°C and 3.5 V. Choice
J is the approximate expected current of Resistor B at
3.5 V.
3. The correct answer is D. Both Resistor A and C behave
linearly, while Resistor B does not. The amount to which
the current of Resistor C depends on voltage is different
at different temperatures, but in a linear fashion in both
cases. Therefore, choice A is insufficient, and choices B
and C are incorrect.
4. The correct answer is J. At a given applied voltage, a
thermistor produces different currents at different
external temperatures. Choices F and H do not address
temperature at all. Choice G is incorrect because the
definition of a thermistor does not depend on absolute
currents produced, nor on comparison to other
resistors.
5. The correct answer is D. For a thermistor, a change in
current is observed when external temperature is
changed. At a given voltage with Resistor C, the
observed current at 25°C is lower than that at 23°C.
Answer Keys and Explanations
21.   C 31.   B
22.   H 32.   F
23.   B 33.   D
24.   G 34.   J
25.   A 35.   D
26.   H 36.   J
27.   D 37.   D
28.   F 38.   H
29.   C 39.   B
30.   J 40.   J
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because no
additional information is necessary to conclude
that Resistor C is a thermistor.
6. The correct answer is F. Resistor A seems to be an
ohmic device because there is a linear relationship
between voltage and current. If Resistor A released
heat into the water, it would not be considered an
ohmic device. Choice G is incorrect because
according to the table, Resistor B is not affected by
temperature change. Choice H is incorrect because
temperature change would not affect this
outcome. Choice J is incorrect because according
to the table, temperature does affect the current of
Resistor C.
7. The correct answer is B. The difference in
sediment bulk density between years 0 and 10 at
Site 2 is 0.31 g/cm3. Choice A (between years 0 and
4 at Site 1) is a difference of only 0.09 g/cm3. Choice
C (between the two unplanted sites) is a difference
of only 0.08 g/cm3. Choice D (between the two
planted sites) is a difference of only 0.17 g/cm3.
8. The correct answer is G. The % nitrogen at the
10-year mark is more than 4 times greater than
what was measured in the seagrass-free control.
The greatest change in Table 1 between years 0
and 10 is the seagrass density; however that is not
one of the choices. Choice F (% carbon) is less than
twice as high at the 10-year measurement. Choice
H (% organic matter) is less than 1.5 times as high
at the 10 year measurement. Choice J (bulk
density) decreases by approximately 20% at the
10-year measurement.
9. The correct answer is A. The ecologists cannot go
back in time to test the original sediment compo-
sition before seagrass planting, nor can they go
back to test the sediment of each replanted
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 Answer Keys and Explanations
meadow over time. The original sediment composition
under each of the two meadows may have been
different, so it is important to collect a separate “year
zero” for each of the meadows. Choice B is incorrect
because nothing in the passage indicates how sediment
composition changes with water depth. Choice C is
incorrect because the ecologists have not experimen-
tally controlled seagrass density in their experiments.
Choice D is incorrect because the ecologists have not
conducted multiple measurements in unplanted
seabeds over time.
10. The correct answer is J. Larger amounts of trapped
sediment were found in areas with greater seagrass
surface area. The ecologists did not experimentally
change one physical characteristic at a time, so Table 2
looks at correlations, not causations. For the data to
support each hypothesis, there should be a clear trend
between increasing sediment weight and an increase or
decrease of the seagrass characteristic. Choice F would
be correct if seagrass height increased consistently
down the table; however, there is no clear trend. Choice
G would be correct if seagrass density decreased down
the column; however, there is no clear trend. Choice H
would be correct if seagrass mass decreased down the
column; however there is no clear trend.
11. The correct answer is D. The data in Table 1 shows little
or no change in % carbon and % nitrogen between 0
and 4 years, followed by significant change by 10 years.
Choice A is incorrect because the passage has no record
of the original seagrass density, nor how the replanted
areas compare. Choice B is similarly incorrect because
there is no record of % organic matter in the original
meadow before seagrass removal. Choice C is incorrect
because Table 1 shows little or no change in % carbon
and % nitrogen between years 0 and 4.
12. The correct answer is F. The data in this passage
indicates that older seagrass meadows are more
productive at storing carbon in the sediment than
younger meadows, at least up to (and perhaps beyond)
10 years. Choice G could be correct if there was a
demonstrated connection between added nutrients
and seagrass uptake and storage of atmospheric
CO2—however, none of that is demonstrated in this
passage. Choice H is incorrect, since the data in Table 1
indicates that meadows 4 years or younger are less
effective at storing carbon than those at least 10 years
old. Choice J is incorrect—while planting native plants
along the shore may help overall ecosystem health,
there is no indication in the passage of how the
presence or absence of shore plants changes carbon
storage by the seagrass meadows.
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13. The correct answer is C. The element with an atomic
radius of 88 pm is krypton, which has a boiling point of
–153°C. Choice A is the boiling point of radon. Choice B
is the boiling point of xenon. Choice D is the boiling
point of neon.
14. The correct answer is G. Neon has an atomic weight of
20.2 amu. Four times that weight is 80.8 amu, which is
close to the atomic weight of krypton: 83.8 amu. Choice
F (helium) has an atomic weight of 4 amu, which is
approximately one fifth that of neon. Choice H (xenon)
has an atomic weight of 131.3 amu, more than six times
that of neon. Choice J (radon) has an atomic weight of
approximately 222 amu, which is more than ten times
that of neon.
15. The correct answer is A. As the atomic number
increases from 2 to 86 down the column, the boiling
point increases from –269 to–62°C. All boiling points in
the table are below 0°C, but they approach zero as the
atomic number increases.
16. The correct answer is G. The only pair of elements in
the table that does not support the hypothesis is neon
and argon (option I). All of the other pairs, including
both options II and III, support the hypothesis.
17. The correct answer is A. As the elements progress
down the column, atomic number, atomic radius, and
boiling point all increase. With an atomic number of
118, oganesson lies below radon and therefore is
expected to have both a greater atomic radius and a
greater boiling point than those of radon.
18. The correct answer is J. There is no systematic
relationship between thickness and depth of rock
layers—the thickest layer (4) is found at less than 800 m,
and one of the thinnest layers (6) is below that. Choices
F and G are incorrect. Choice H is incorrect because
layer 6 is 40 m thick, at depths of 960–1,000 m.
19. The correct answer is C. Limestone is formed in marine
environments, so the layers containing limestone give
the age at which the region of the canyon was covered
by sea. The time periods 130 million years and 220–260
million years contain limestone, but the latter time
period is not one of the choices. Choice A is incorrect
because there is no layer corresponding to 60 million
years ago. Choices B and D are incorrect because they
do not contain limestone.
20. The correct answer is H. Choice F is incorrect because
temperature is not listed at all in Figure 1. Choice G (age
of rock) is related to depth (the vertical axis), but that is
not the measurement shown on the figure. Choice J

(thickness of rock layers) can be inferred from the figure,
but it is not the vertical axis.
21. The correct answer is C. The uranium ore (carnotite) is
found around petrified wood, which is found in layer 8.
That is at a depth of 1,110–1,270 m, which includes
1,200 m. Choice A is incorrect because it refers to the
thickness of layer 8, not the depth. Choice B is incorrect
because layer 4 (500 m) does not contain petrified
wood. Choice D is incorrect because there is no
information for rock composition at 2,000 m.
22. The correct answer is H. The data does not show what
range of ages are found in each layer, only the approx-
imate age difference between the different layers. The
thickest layer (4) occurs between a separation of less
than 20 million years, while one of the thinnest ones (3)
occurs between a separation of 40 million years. In
reality, the thickness of a layer depends on a number of
factors, including the rate of sedimentation, the length
of time the region experienced a particular envi-
ronment, and the amount of weathering the rock layer
experienced before being covered by a new layer.
23. The correct answer is B. Layers found at the top of the
canyon are youngest, so rocks at the surface were
deposited there less than the age of the highest
layer—100 million years. The extreme temperatures
necessary to form welded tuff are indicative of a
volcano. Choice A could be true, but a tropical climate is
not hot enough by itself to produce welded tuff. Choice
C is true based on the data in Table 1, but is not related
to the existence of welded tuff. Choice D would be
correct if the welded tuff was found at the lowest layer
of the canyon, not the very surface.
24. The correct answer is G. Paleontologist A believes that
morphological (body) similarities can just as reasonably
be assumed to represent the effects of convergent
evolution on distant lineages inhabiting similar
environments. Choice F is incorrect—this paleontologist
does not mention a failed experiment of evolution.
Choice H is incorrect because even though the paleon-
tologist does not think birds evolved directly from
dinosaurs, a connection is acknowledged. Choice J is
incorrect—there is no discussion of what caused the
thecodonts to survive extinction.
25. The correct answer is A. Paleontologist A believes that
dinosaurs and birds share a common ancestor. A fossil
find from before the age of the dinosaurs with common
features would support this view. An intermediate form
between dinosaurs and birds (choice B) or an avian
prototype before dinosaur dominance (choice C) would
Answer Keys and Explanations
not directly support the position of a common ancestor.
Examining theropod remains (choice D) does not relate
to Paleontologist A’s theory—he or she talks
about thecodonts.
26. The correct answer is H. Paleontologist B assumes that
the body similarities between dinosaurs and early birds
must be evidence that birds came forth from the
dinosaur lineage. This view does subscribe to the idea of
transitional forms. Mass extinction is not relevant to this
view. Choice F is incorrect because Paleontologist B
directly discusses transitional forms—shared features
from immediate ancestors. Choice G is incorrect
because extinction is not a main feature of
Paleontologist A’s argument. Choice J is incorrect—
neither paleontologist thinks the lineages are distant.
27. The correct answer is D. Paleontologist B believes that
birds arose from a lineage of dinosaurs, which makes
choice C incorrect. Choice A is incorrect—Paleontologist
B does not believe in convergent evolution. Choice B is
the view of Paleontologist A.
28. The correct answer is F. This contradicts the theory of
Paleontologist B, who suggests that birds arose from
dinosaurs (making choices G and H incorrect).
Paleontologist A suggests that the two arose from an
extremely distant ancestor, and the theory of con-
vergent evolution is not inconsistent with birds
appearing before dinosaurs. Paleontologist A’s view is
present, so choice J is incorrect.
29. The correct answer is C. Paleontologist A postulates
the existence of a very distant common ancestor for
birds and dinosaurs. The development of birds much
later than that of dinosaurs might seem to refute this
argument. However, the rate of evolutionary change is
not constant across different lineages. Dinosaurs may
have developed relatively rapidly from thecodonts, for
example, whereas birds did not evolve until much later.
Choice D is the opposite of this correct answer. Choices
A and B are unrelated to the timing of the appearance
of birds and dinosaurs.
30. The correct answer is J. The dependent variable is the
condition the experimenter is measuring throughout
the experiment—in this case, that is the number of
cultures with surviving paramecia. Choice F (the
number of species of bacteria) and choice G (the
number of species of Paramecium) were both inde-
pendent variables in this experiment. Choice H (the
length of time) could have been another independent
variable if the researchers had examined the cultures at
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 Answer Keys and Explanations

multiple points in time; since they were examined only 37. The correct answer is D. Mercury has an orbital
once, the length of time is a constant. inclination of 7.000 degrees and an orbital eccentricity
of 0.2056. Therefore, Mercury would be reclassified.
31. The correct answer is B. Examining the results in Tables
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because none of these
2 and 3 shows that increasing the number of species of
planets have an orbital inclination greater than 5 or an
their food sources, the bacteria, did produce a relative
orbital eccentricity greater than 0.2.
increase in the survival rate of paramecia. Choice A
states the opposite, so it is incorrect. Choice C is 38. The correct answer is H. The orbital eccentricity of
incorrect because there is a definite increase. Choice D Venus is 0.0068; its orbit is the most circular in the solar
is incorrect—the only variable being observed is system. Mercury has an orbital eccentricity of 0.2056; its
paramecia, which increased. egg-shaped orbit exhibits the greatest eccentricity in
the solar system and thus deviates the most from a
32. The correct answer is F. Looking at Tables 2 and 3, it
circular orbit. Choice F is incorrect—there is a planet
appears that increasing the number of species of
with an orbital eccentricity closer to 0 than Earth.
Paramecium from one to two was most detrimental to
Choice G is incorrect—there is a planet with an orbital
their overall survival. The number decreased, making
eccentricity closer to 0 than Neptune. Choice J is
choice J incorrect. Choice G is incorrect because it
incorrect—there is a planet with an orbital eccentricity
cannot be confirmed—the only variable being
further from 0 than Neptune.
observed is paramecia. Choice H is incorrect—according
to Table 3, the number of species did have an effect on 39. The correct answer is B. The gaseous planets would be
paramecia survival. expected to be less dense than the ones made of solid
material. Choices A and D are incorrect—temperature
33. The correct answer is D. Experiment 3 added a
and rotation period should not be affected whether a
predator of paramecia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect;
planet is a solid or a gas. Choice C is incorrect because
the number of bacteria species remained at 3, and we
these planets do not have greater masses than
have no information that the time or the culture
the others.
method was changed.
40. The correct answer is J. Mercury has the lowest mass
34. The correct answer is J. The results of this experiment
(3.3 x 1023 kg) and the highest orbital eccentricity
suggest that increasing diversity in terms of trophic
(0.2056°). The trend described in choice F is the opposite
levels was ultimately harmful to the survival of the
of what is observed; while not a perfect trend, more
Paramecium species under study. Choices F and G are
massive planets typically have shorter rotation periods.
incorrect; it was not beneficial to all species because of
Choice G is incorrect, because the two planets with the
the decreasing survival rates for the paramecia, and it
highest mass (Jupiter and Saturn) are not the two
definitely had an effect on paramecia. Choice H is
planets with the lowest densities (Saturn and Uranus).
incorrect, as we do not know the effect the experiment
Choice H would appear to be correct if the exponent in
had on Amoebae.
the mass term is ignored, since Earth and Mars have the
35. The correct answer is D. At 8.7 x 1025 kg, Uranus has the closest rotational period, less than an hour different. The
fourth greatest mass of the planets in the solar system. two planets with the closest relative mass (Uranus and
Jupiter, Saturn, and Neptune all have greater masses; Neptune) have rotational periods that differ by more
therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect. It is important than an hour.
to note the size of the exponent; otherwise, any of the
choices could appear correct.

36. The correct answer is J. Neptune has the lowest

temperature; based on that measure, it would seem to
be the farthest from the sun. Mercury (choice F), Uranus
(choice G), and Jupiter (choice H) all have higher
black-body temperatures and so are closer to the sun.

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 Answer Keys and Explanations

Sample Essay: Score 1

Ideas and Analysis: Score = 1
Development and Support: Score = 1
Organization: Score = 1
Language Use and Conventions: Score = 1

I’m not sure I don’t use fossils for anything not something I care about even. I only plug in the stuff I used my phone and
my laptop and I think my TV they’re all plugged into the wall and I don’t bother anybody with them. Keep the sound
down low especially when its late and its late at night my parents say, so I do that and I know how to take care of my
stuff! If anybody wants to use anything they want to make theyre stuff work and as long as theyre not hurting anybody
its ok with me. If thyre hurting everybody they should stop and be nice people and use just the wall to plug theyre stuff
in, it is safe and I use it all the time and noone gets hurt so everybody should do that.

Scoring Explanation
Ideas and Analysis: Score = 1

This essay reflects a poor grasp of the essay task and a weak understanding of the role of fossil fuels and available energy sources.
As a result, ideas are scattered and confusing, the writer’s argument fails to address the questions provided, and the argument
veers off in a largely unrelated direction regarding his or her use of electricity and favorite electronic devices.

Development and Support: Score = 1

This argument suffers from a significant lack of development and support for a discernible perspective regarding the use of
alternative energy versus fossil fuels. This lack of idea development hinders comprehension and results in a disjointed essay
that does not address the essay task at hand.

Organization: Score = 1

The writer provides a disjointed set of loosely connected thoughts with little or no thought given to effective essay construction
or organization. There is no assertion of a clear perspective regarding the essay task, and the ideas provided don’t follow a
natural and coherent flow or support a unifying essay theme. The end result is a confusing piece of writing that falls off topic.

Language Use and Conventions: Score = 1

This essay demonstrates poor use of fundamental grammar and a deficient understanding of core English language rules. As a
result, this piece of writing, which is full of errors in usage and mechanics, fails to competently address the given essay task.

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 Answer Keys and Explanations

Sample Essay: Score 6

Ideas and Analysis: Score = 6

Development and Support: Score = 6
Organization: Score = 6
Language Use and Conventions: Score = 6

Let’s be honest. It’s nice to be able to drive to the beach on a warm summer day. It’s a wonderful luxury to have air conditioning
in our homes, heat during the winter, and enough electricity to power all of the electronic gadgets that make our lives more
comfortable. But is it worth any cost? Is it worth the destruction of our environment, the safety and well-being of future gener-
ations who have not yet had the opportunity to enjoy the natural wonders of our world, the very future of our planet? Each of
us can pretend that our use of energy doesn’t matter much, that it doesn’t have a huge impact on the Earth, but this is the sort
of apathetic mindset that keeps us from meaningful change.

The hard truth is that fossil fuels power our planet and are weaved into our social fabric; extricating ourselves from such a complex
intertwining won’t be easy. But that doesn’t mean it’s an issue we should avoid, or push off onto future generations. However,
calls for an immediate, rash, or unrealistic abatement of fossil fuel usage are unrealistic and prevent us from intelligently addressing
the challenge at hand.

What might a realistic, considered approach look like? There needs to be vastly increased incentives for individuals and businesses
of all sizes that are both utilizing renewable energy sources and working on innovative green energy solutions for society,
including tax breaks, monetary compensation, and government support. Towns, cities, and states need to galvanize and energize
their citizens, adopt greater alternative energy programs, and execute expanded information campaigns. Local and state gov-
ernments need to offer realistic strategies for reduced fossil fuel consumption and increased use of alternative energy that are
not cost prohibitive. Local, state, and federal budgets need to shift towards greater investment in this effort or we will surely
stall before we make any further progress.

Our country needs to keep energy consumption change at the forefront of our list of challenges to overcome. How can each of
us help make this happen? The power of the vote is a great place. We need to demand that our elected officials at all levels tackle
these issues—if they want to stay in office. Our collective concern can continue to be made known to our elected officials through
social media campaigns, petitions, and voting patterns. Nations around the world work together all the time and tackle tough
issues. Worldwide collaboration to effect positive climate change and reduce carbon emissions have already begin, but it needs
to move beyond its careful early steps and into larger and more audacious strategies. It’s too important an issue to not face it
bravely and boldly.

Here’s the bottom line: we need to figure out a realistic approach for decreasing fossil fuel reliance at every level—individuals,
towns, cities, states, countries, and nations working in unison can reduce non-renewable fuel consumption, advocate for and
invest in alternative fuel use, and—perhaps most importantly—acknowledge that we’re all responsible for the welfare of our
planet. Until we decide to make the hard decisions to effect positive change we’re placing our world in peril. Will it be easy?
Certainly not. But, the cost of continued complacency is much larger and more onerous—for each of us, for our children, and
for future generations.

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 Answer Keys and Explanations

Scoring Explanation
Ideas and Analysis: Score = 6

The writer of this essay provides a well-reasoned, insightful argument in support of a realistic, unilateral approach to reducing fossil
fuel dependency and increasing investment, exploration, and use of alternative sources of fuel. The ideas are carefully considered
and represent a confident perspective on the issue. Progressive ideas for taking bolder steps are provided at every level—from
individuals to countries and political entities in-between, resulting in a cohesive, thoughtful piece of writing that clearly tackles
this issue with the seriousness it deserves.

Development and Support: Score = 6

This argument is a capably structured response to a challenging essay task, one that touches on hot-button social and political
issues and requires the writer to think on both micro and macro scales, which this response does quite well. From the provocative
opening question about fossil fuels (is it worth any cost?), through the detailed exploration of possible strategies for reducing our
non-renewable energy reliance and concluding plea for future generations, this essay demonstrates an impressive ability to develop
and support a clear perspective.

Organization: Score = 6

This argument is a well-organized, cogent piece of writing that serves the writer’s thoughts on the issue of alternative energy quite
well. It contains a clear perspective and sharp focus, from the mature and realistic introduction to the thought-provoking conclusion.
It does an especially admirable job of outlining what “ a realistic, considered approach” aligned with the writer’s thoughts on tapering
off from fossil fuels might look like.

Language Use and Conventions: Score = 6

This essay demonstrates an impressive command of standard language use and conventions, especially pertaining to argumentative
writing. The grammar and mechanics are strong throughout, and a wide array of engaging sentences and transitions are displayed.
The varied, thoughtful word choices and careful construction all lead to a thorough and effective essay that more than meets the
task at hand.

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