BIOPHARMACEUTICS (PACOP BLUE)

1. Passive diffusion of a drug molecule across a cell membrane depends on the

I. Lipid solubility of the drug
II. Extent of ionization of the drug
III. Concentration difference on either side of the cell membrane
a. I only d. II and III
b. III only e. I, II and III
c. I and II

2. The rate of dissolution of a weakly acidic drug may be increased by

I. Increasing the pH of the medium
II. Increasing the particle size of the solid drug
III. Increasing the viscosity of the medium
a. I only d. II and III
b. III only e. I, II and III
c. I and II

3. The initial degradation of drug by liver enzymes after oral administration of a drug is
known:
a. Enzymatic degradation d. Fick’s degradation
b. First pass metabolism e. absolute bioavailability
c. Relative bioavailability

4. Which of the following parameters can evaluate bio equivalency of drugs?

I. Time to reach peak concentration
II. AUC
III. Concentration of drug at plateau level
a. I only d. II only
b. I and II only e. I,II and III
c. II and III only

5. The following statements are not true except:

a. Amorphous form is more soluble than crystallized form d. hydrates are equivalent to
solvates
b. Hydrous form is more soluble then anhydrous e. none of the above
c. Polymorph is more soluble then enantiomorph

6. A measure of the quantity of drug in the body:

a. Vd d. Ko/w
b. AUC e. t1/2
c. pH

7. Study of what the body does to the drug:

a. Biopharmaceutics d. pharmacology
b. Pharmacokinetics e. pharmaceutics
c. Pharmacodynamics

8. Two different oral formulations of the same drug having equal areas under respective
serum-concentration time curves
a. Deliver the same total amount of drug d. are bioequivalent if they both
meet
to the body and are, therefore bioequivalent USP disintegration standards
b. Deliver the same total amount of drug e. are therapeutically equivalent
in the body but are not necessarily bioequivalent
c. Are bioequivalent by definition

9. Gastric emptying rate is slowed down by all of the ff. except:

a. Vigorous exercise d. hunger
b. Fatty foods e. lying on the left side
c. Hot meals

10. An absorption mechanism for Sabin pollo vaccine:

a. Passive diffusion d. convective transport
b. Ion-pair transport e. vesicular
c. Active transport

11. Drug products that contain the identical therapeutic moiety, the same dosage form with
the same strength and administered by the same route:
a. Pharmaceutical equivalents d. frequency
b. Bioequivalents e. Half-life
c. Pharmaceutical alternatives

12. A drug given intravenously results in an identical therapeutic moiety, the same dosage
form with the same strength and administered by the same route:
a. 50% d. 30%
b. 20% e. 60%
c. 100%

13. The time required to reach the minimum effective drug concentration in the blood is
known as:
a. Duration of action d. Frequency
b. Onset of action e. Half-life
c. Intensity of action

14. The phenomenon where a drug could exist in more than one crystal form
a. Thixothropy d. complexation
b. Polymorphism e. amorphism
c. Solvate formation

15. The following is true about the ko/w of β-estradiol:

a. Decreases being a nonpolar drug d. increases being a polar drug
b. Decreases being a polar drug e. decreases being a neutral
substance
c. Increases being a nonpolar drug

16. Drugs can be administered by IM route except:

a. When the drug cannot be administered IV d. for prolonged formulation
b. For drugs with high solubility e. for hydrophilic drugs
c. When rapid rate of absorption is desired

17. Indication for IV rout

a. Blood transfusion d. for kidney dialysis
b. For self-medication e. for peritoneal administration
c. For administration of small volumes in tissues

18. Best route for liquefying thick empyemas

a. IV d. inhalation
b. Intrapleural e. intrathecal
c. IM

19. The following promotes better absorption except:

a. Longer residence time in the small intestine d. decreased peristalsis
b. Longer residence time in the stomach e. enhance propulsive contractions
c. Mixing movements

20. True about pharmaceutical equivalents

I. Same active ingredient
II. Same dosage form
III. Same dosage strength
a. I only d. II and III
b. III only e. I, II and III
c. I and II

21. The following best describes the effect of propantheline on the absorption of
paracetamol:
a. Delayed GER d. increased intestinal transit
b. Increased GER decreased acid secretion
c. Enhanced absorption

22. Describes diffusion of drug solutions across biological membranes

a. Henderson-Hasselbach d. ideal Gas Law
b. Fick’s Law e. pH partition theory
c. Noyes-Whitney Equation
23. Which of the following is/are considered carrier-mediated transport process/es?
I. Facilitated diffusion
II. Active transport
III. Passive diffusion
a. I only d. I and III only
b. I and II only e. I, II and III only
c. II and III only

24. True for all drug products administered by all routes except IV:
a. Absorption d. excretion
b. Liberation e. toxic kinetics
c. Metabolism

25. Describes the relationship between dissolution rate and drug particle surface area
a. Henderson-Hasselbach d. ideal Gas Law
b. Fick’s Law e. pH partition theory
c. Noyes-Whitney Equation

26. Route of drug administration where hepatic metabolism is completely by passed:

a. Buccal d. rectal
b. Sublingual e. both A&B
c. Topical

27. Non-linear pharmacokinetics:

I. First order kinetics
II. Michaelis-Menten kinetics
III. Enzyme kinetics
IV. Saturation kinetics
a. I only d. II, III and IV only
b. I and IV only e. all of the above
c. II and III only

28. These are drugs that primarily undergo Phase II metabolism:

I. Phenols
II. Barbiturates
III. Corticosteroids
IV. Sulfonamides
a. I only d. II, III and IV only
b. I and IV only e. all of the above
c. II and III only
29. This is the route of administration employed for chemotherapeutic drugs in order to
maximize drug concentrations at the tumor site before distribution occurs throughout the
body.
a. Intravenous d. intracardiac
b. Intramuscular
c. Intraarterial

30. The maximum dose of drug that can be administered subcutaneously is:
a. 0.5 ml d. 2.0 ml
b. 1.0 ml
c. 1.5 ml

31. This type of membrane allows the passage of lipophilic drugs only:
I. Blood capillaries
II. Blood-brain barrier
III. Renal glomerular membrane
IV. Renal tubule
a. II and IV only d. I, II and III only
b. II and III only
c. II only

32. This is the only transport process that does not require a drug to be in aqeous solution to
be adsorbed:
a. Passive diffusion d. carrier-mediated transport
b. Convective transport e. Vesicular Transport
c. Ion-pair formation

33. The following factors increase gastric emptying thereby increases absorption of most
drugs:
I. Intake of warm food instead of cold food
II. Lying on the left side
III. Exercise
IV. Stress
a. I only d. II and III only
b. I and III only e. II, III and IV
c. I and IV only

34. The following statements about drug absorption are true:

I. In order to maximize drug absorption, the drug needs to be highly
soluble.
II. In order to maximize drug absorption, the drug needs to be in the
unionized form.
III. In order to maximize drug available for absorption, the drug needs to
be highly soluble.
 IV. In order to maximize drug available for absorption, the drug needs to
be in the unionized.
a. I and III d. II and III
b. II and IV e. I only
c. I and IV

35. In general, the salt form of weak acids and weak bases:
I. Faster dissolution and faster absorption
II. Longer duration of action
III. Greater stability
IV. Less local irritation and less systemic toxicity
a. I, III and IV d. II, III and IV
b. I, II and III e. AOTA
c. I, II and IV

36. For conventional oral dosage forms, this is the slowest and rate-limiting step in the
series of processes of drug absorption:
a. Liberation d. Diffusion
b. Disintegration
c. Dissolution

37. The following pathological factors decrease drug absorption:

I. Diarrhea
II. Constipation
III. Parkinson’s Disease
IV. Hyperthyroidism
a. III and IV d. II only
b. II, III and IV e. I only
c. II and IV only

38. Pharmaceutically equivalent drugs should have similar

I. Active chemical ingredient
II. Dosage strength of active chemical ingredient
III. Dosage form
IV. Intensity and duration of action
V. Therapeutic effect
a. II, IV, and V d. AOTA
b. I, II and III e. NOTA
c. I, II, III and V

39. Therapeutically equivalent drugs should have similar:

I. Active chemical ingredient
II. Dosage strength of active chemical ingredient
III. Dosage form
 IV. Intensity and duration of action
V. Therapeutic effect
a. II, IV, and V d. AOTA
b. I, II and III e. NOTA
c. I, II, III and V

40. Pharmaceutical alternatives drugs should have similar:

I. Active chemical ingredient
II. Dosage strength of active chemical ingredient
III. Dosage form
IV. Intensity and duration of action
V. Therapeutic effect
a. II, IV, and V d. AOTA
b. I, II and III e. NOTA
c. I, II, III and V

41. Therapeutic alternatives should have similar:

I. Active chemical ingredient
II. Dosage strength of active chemical ingredient
III. Dosage form
IV. Intensity and duration of action
V. Therapeutic effect
a. II, IV, and V d. AOTA
b. I, II and III e. NOTA
c. I, II, III and V

42. Bioequivalent drugs should have similar:

I. Active chemical ingredient
II. Dosage strength of active chemical ingredient
III. Dosage form
IV. Intensity and duration of action
V. Therapeutic effect
d. II, IV, and V d. AOTA
e. I, II and III e. NOTA
f. I, II, III and V

43. The ff. statements are true for plasma albumin:

I. Major binding protein for acidic drugs
II. Concentration is low and saturation may occur
III. Concentration is increased in MI and RA
a. I only d. II and III
b. I and III e. AOTA
c. I and II
44. The ff. statements are true for α-acid glycoprotein:
I. Major binding for acidic drugs
II. Concentration is low and saturation may occur
III. Concentration is increased in MI and RA
a. I only d. II and III
b. I and III e. AOTA
c. I and II

45. The ff. statements are true regarding drug protein binding:
I. A tightly bound drug has α value.
II. The fraction unbound is determined by concentration of both the drug
and binding protein and affinity of the drug for the protein.
III. Highly protein bound drugs require more frequent dosage
administration.
a. I only d. II and III
b. I and III e. AOTA
c. I and II

46. The renal clearance of a drug that is filtered, secreted and reabsorbed is approximately:
a. 120 ml/min d. NOTA
b. <120 ml/min
c. >120 ml/min

47. For adults with unstable renal function, creatinine clearance may be computed using this
equation:
a. Cockroft & Gault d. Levey
b. Jellife
c. Salazar and Corcoran

48. A creatinine clearance of 40 is indicative of:

a. Normal kidney function d. severe renal failure
b. Mild renal failure
c. Moderate renal failure

49. Half-life of a drug may be decreased by:

I. Hepatic insufficiency
II. Cardiogenic shock, heart failure and hemorrhage
III. Increased extraction ratio
IV. Displacement of the drug by another substance
a. I only d. I and IV
b. III only e. I, II and III
c. II and III

50. Phase II Clinical Studies deal with:

a. Pharmacokinetics in healthy participants d. Dosage ranging and linearity
b. Drug interactions
c. Formulation Development

51. The Biopharmaceutics Classification System (BCS) is a drug development tool that
allows correlation of in vitro drug dissolution and in vivo bioavailability correlation. It is
based on the following parameters which affect the rate and extent of drug absorption
from solid oral dosage forms:
I. Liberation
II. Dissolution
III. Solubility
IV. Permeablity
a. I and II d. II, III and IV
b. II and III e. all of the above
c. I and III

52. Biopharmaceutics is the study of :

I. Factors that influence the release of drug from a drug product, the
rate of dissolution of the drug, and the eventual bioavailability of drug.
II. Interrelationship of the physicochemical properties of the drug, the
dosage form in which the drug is given, and the route of
administration on the rate and extent of systemic drug absorption.
III. Kinetics of drug absorption, distribution, and elimination
a. I and II d. AOTA
b. II and III
c. I and III

53. Compared to normal adults, infants have:

I. Slower absorption
II. Smaller Vd
III. Slower metabolism
IV. Shortened elimination time
a. I and II d. I, II and IV
b. III and IV e. AOTA
c. I and III

54. The only metabolic process present in an infant is:

a. Redox d. Glucoronidation
b. Sulfation
c. Acetylation

55. The following statements describe the pharmacokinetic profile of geriatric patients:
I. Decreased absorption rate
II. Increased Vd
 III. Decreased metabolism
IV. Decreased half-life
a. I and II d. I, II and IV
b. III and IV e. AOTA
c. I and III

56. Compared to normal adults, renally impaired patients have:

I. Decreased absorption rate
II. Increased Vd
III. Decreased metabolism
IV. Decreased half-life
a. II only d. I, II and IV
b. III and IV e. AOTA
c. I and III

57. Bioavailability of these drugs is decreased in patients with renal disease:

I. Erythromycin
II. Digoxin
III. Furosemide
IV. D-xylose
a. I and II d. I and IV
b. II and III e. AOTA
c. III and IV

58. Compared to normal adults, obese patients have:

I. Increased renal blood flow
II. Increased GFR
III. Increased Vd
IV. Decreased metabolism
a. I and II d. I, II and IV
b. III and IV e. AOTA
c. I and III

59. Theraputic Drug monitoring (TDM) is employed for drugs with :

I. Marked pharmacokinetic variability
II. Narrow therapeutic window
III. Undefined therapeutic range
IV. Desired therapeutic effect that is difficult to monitor
a. II and IV d. I, II and IV
b. I and II e. AOTA
c. II, III and IV

60. Aspirin is best absorbed by this transport mechanism

a. Passive diffusion d. Convective Transport
b. Carrier-Mediated Transport e. Vesicular Transport
c. Ion-Pair Formation

61. Drug penetration is enhanced if the drug

I. Is in solution
II. Has a high lipid-water partition coefficient
III. Is ionized
a. I only d. I, II, III
b. I and II
c. I and III

62. In Fick’s Law, the slope indicates the rate of

a. Absorption d. adsorption
b. Diffusion
c. Penetration

63. Which of the following is/are true about passive diffusion?

I. It is the principal process for movement of drugs across membranes
II. The driving force is electrochemical gradient.
III. It involves a carrier protein as a component of the membrane
a. All of the above d. I only
b. I and II
c. II and III

64. These are drugs that undergo extensive first pass effect:
I. PABA
II. Terbutaline
III. Verapamil
IV. Cimetidine
a. I and II d. AOTA
b. II and III
c. I, II and IV

65. These are drugs that inhibit metabolism of other drugs:

I. Allopurinol
II. Warfarin
III. Meperidine
IV. Phenytoin
a. I and II d. I, II and III
b. II and III e. AOTA
c. I, II and IV

66. Transdermal route of administration is administered in/through/on the:

a. Epicutaneous d. subcutaneous
b. Intracutaneous
c. Percutaneous

67. At physiologic pH, a drug with pKa=5.4 is approximately

a. 100% unionized, 0% ionized d. 91% unionized, 9% ionized
b. 100% ionized, 0% unionized e. 91% ionized, 9% unionized
c. 50% unionized, 50% ionized

68. The ff. diagram shows the comparative of rate of drug absorption from oral dosage forms
fastest to slowest:
a. Suspensions>emulsions>uncoated tablets>capsules
b. Emulsions>suspensions>uncoated
tablets>capsules
c. Emulsions>suspensions>capsules>
uncoated tablets
d. suspensions>emulsions>uncoated tablets>capsules

69. What is the administration rate of theophyliine, representing 0.8 of the administered
dose, when aminophylline is infused at 75 mg/hr?
a. 40mg/h d. 70mg/h
b. 50mg/h
c. 60mg/h

70. Four hours following the IV administration of a drug, a patient (70kg) was found to havea
plasma concentration of 5.6 mcg/ml. assuming the Vd is 10% of body weight, what is the
amount of drug, in mg. present in body fluids?
a. 35.7 d. 32.9
b. 37.5
c. 39.2

71. What is the rate of IV administration for aminophylline which would produce a steady
state plasma theophylline concentration of 15mg/L if the estimated theophylline
clearance is 2.8 L/h?
a. 50.5 d. 53.5
b. 51.5
c. 52.5

72. If Lidocaine IV is infused continually at a rate of 2mg/min and if the steady state
concentration of lidocaine is 3mg/L, what is the total clearance?
a. 0.67 L/min d. 0.47 L/min
b. 0.57 L/min
c. 0.87 L/min
73. The extent of distribution of drugs is affected by:
I. Blood perfusion
II. Plasma protein binding
III. Membrane permeability
IV. pH
a. I and III d. AOTA
b. II and IV
c. II, III, and IV

74. The rate of distribution of drugs is affected by:

I. Blood perfusion
II. Plasma protein binding
III. Membrane permeability
IV. pH
a. I and III d. AOTA
b. II and IV
c. II, III, and IV

75. The rate of zero-order reactions

a. Changes constantly d. holds only for light-catalyzed
reaction
b. Is independent temperature e. holds only for radioactive
compounds
c. In independent of concentration

76. What will result if the distribution of drugs is slower than the process of biotransformation
and elimination?
a. High blood levels of drug d. potentiation
b. Low blood levels of drug e. failure to attain diffusion
equilibrium
c. Synergism

77. Which of the following types of tissues frequently stored drugs?

a. Fatty tissues d. A and B
b. Muscle tissue e. A and C
c. Protein tissue

78. Which of the following drugs undergoes marked hydrolysis in the GI tract?
a. ASA d. Hydrocortisone
b. Penicillin G e. Chlortetracycline
c. Acetaminophen

79. If a CNS drug is extensively ionized at pH of blood, it will

a. Penetrate the BBB slowly d. be eliminate slowly
b. Penetrate the BBB rapidly e. not be distributed to any tissue
sites
c. Not penetrate the BBB barrier

80. The buffer equation is also known as

a. Young’s equation d. Stoke’s Law
b. Charle’s Law e. AOTA
c. Henderson-Hesselbach equation

81. To calculate a loading dose, one must first determine

a. Half-life d. Vd
b. Body clearance e. AOTA
c. ]fraction protein bound

82. To achieve the same steady-state plasma concentration (for a drug that is excreted by
the kidney) in renal failure patients with normal renal function, you should
a. Increasing the dosing interval d. do any of the above, depending
on pharmacodynamic properties of the drug
b. Decrease the dose e. not adjust the dosing regimen
unless the patient shows sign of toxicity
c. Adjust both the dose and dosing interval

83. Which of the following factors make it necessary to give lower doses of drugs to geriatric
patients?
a. Reduced enzyme activity d. A and B only
b. Reduced kidney function e. A, B and C
c. Enhanced absorption

84. The Noyes-Whitney Equation describes

a. Zero-order kinetics d. dissolution rate
b. First-order kinetics e. renal clearance
c. Mixed-order kinetics
85. A prime consideration in biopharmaceutics is a drug’s “bioavailability” which refers to the
relative amount of drug that reaches the
a. Small intestine d. liver
b. Stomach e. kidneys
c. Systemic circulation

86. The AUC can be described as

I. A theoretical value
II. A measure of drug concentration-time curve
III. Having units of weight and time.volume
a. I only d. II and III only
b. III only e. AOTA
c. I and II only

87. What is the potentially first rate-limiting process when a tablet dosage form is
administered?
a. Ionization of the drug d. dissolution of the drug in the blood
b. Diffusion of the through the GI epithelium e. disintegration in the tablet
c. Dissolution of the drug in the GI fluids

88. Which of the following could be the rate-limiting steps for drug absorption from an orally
administered drug product?
I. Disintegration of the unit
II. Dissolution of the active drug
III. Diffusion of the active drug through the intestinal wall
a. I only d. II and III only
b. III only e. AOTA
c. I and II only

89. The AUC of a drug can be determined from a graph by using which of the following
methods?
I. Law of diminishing returns
II. Rule of nines
III. Trapezoidal rule
a. I only d. II and III only
b. III only e. AOTA
c. I and II only

90. The peak of the serum concentration versus time curve approximates the
a. Point in time when the maximum pharmacologic d. time required for essentially all of
the
pharmacologic effect occurs. Drug to be absorbed from the GI
tract.
b. Point in time when absorption and elimination e. point in time when the
drug begins to
have equalized be metabolized.
c. Maximum concentration of free drug in the urine.
91. In which of the following sites may drugs be metabolized?
I. Skin
II. Lungs
III. Liver
a. I only d. II and III only
b. III only e. AOTA
c. I and II only

92. When compared to their parent compound, metabolites usually have

a. Greater water solubility d. no therapeutic activity
b. Lower water solubility e. greater diffusion through
c. Greater therapeutic activity the blood brain barrier

93. Differences in bioavailability are most frequently observed with drug products
administered by which one of the following routes?
a. Subcutaneous d. sublingual
b. Intravenous e. intramuscular
c. Oral

94. When graphed, nonlinear pharmacokinetics are characterized by dat that

a. Does not yield a straight line at any time d. follows first-order kinetics
b. Exhibits a straight line only when plotted e. will have a negative slope
as log-log functions
c. Is dose-dependent

95. The “F” value for a drug product is ideally compared to its
a. Absolute bioavailability d. relative bioavailability
b. Dosing rate e. route of administration
c. Clearance rate

96. If an oral capsule formulation of the drug A produces a serum-concentration time curve
having the same AUC as that produced by an equivalent dose of drug A given IV, it can
generally be concluded that
a. The IV route is preferred to the oral route. d. All oral forms of drug A will be
b. The capsule formulation is essentially completely bioequivalent
absorbed
c. The drug is very rapidly absorbed. e. there is no advantage to the IV
route

97. The term therapeutic window refers to the

a. Time interval between administration d. concentration versus time curve
And the beginning of activity
b. Concentration differential between drug’s e. time period before administration
of
MTC and MEC the next dose
c. Concentration which must be reached
Before activity begins

98. For two drug products to be considered “pharmaceutical equivalents” the products must
have
I. Have the same active drug (therapeutic moiety)
II. Consist of the same salt
III. Contain the same excipients
a. I only d. II and III only
b. III only e. all
c. I and II only

99. Requirements for the drug products to be considered “pharmaceutical alternatives”

includes having the same
I. Active drug
II. Dosage form
III. Salt or ester
a. I only d. II and III only
b. III only e. all
c. I and II only

100. Based upon the pH partition theory, weakly acidic drugs are most likely to be absorbed
from the stomach because
a. The drugs will exist primarily in the d. the ionic form of the drug
facilitates
unionized, more lipid soluble form dissolution
b. The drugs will exist primarily in the ionized, e. weak acids will further depress pH
more water soluble form
c. Weak acids are more soluble in acid media

101. Gastric emptying time except:

a. Vigorous exercise d. hunger
b. Fatty foods e. emotional stress
c. Hot meals

102. Reducing drug particle size to enhance drug absorption is limited to those situations in
which the

a. Absorption process occurs by active transport d. drug is very potent

b. Absorption process is rate limited by e. drug is irritating to the GI tract
the dissolution of drug in the GI fluids
c. Drug is very water soluble

103. Drugs that are absorbed from the GI tract are generally

a. Absorbed into the portal circulation and d. not affected by liver

enzymes
pass through the liver before entering the general circulation
b. Filtered form the blood by the kidney, e. Stored in the liver
then reabsorbed into the general circulation
c. Absorbed into the portal circulation
and are distributed by an enterohepatic cycle

104. The volume of distribution (Vd) of a particular drug will be

a. Greater for drugs that concentrate in d. independent of plasma
concentration
tissues rather than in plasma
b. Greater drugs that concentrate in plasma e. approximately the same for all
drugs
rather than in tissues. In a giiven individual
c. Independent of tissue concentration

105. A knowledge of Vd for a given drug is useful because it alloews to

a. estimate the elimination rate constant d. determine the best dosing

interval

b determine the biological half-life e. determine the peak plasma

c. calculate a reasonable loading dose concentration

106. Estimate the plasma concentration of a drug when 50 mg is given by IV bolus to a 140
lb patien if her volume of distribution is 1.6 L/kg

a. 0.1 mg/L d. 5 mg/L

b. 0.5 mg/L e. 31 mg/L
c. 1 mg/L

107. the time needed to achieve a steady-state plasma level for a drug administered by
infusion will depend upon

I. Amount of drug being infused

II. Volume of distribution of drug
III. Half-life of drug
a. I only d. II and III only
b. III only e. all of the above
c. I and II only

108. the time needed to reach optimum drug blood levels (the plateau portion of curve III)
during constant rateintravenous infusion is

a. Directly proprtiona to the rate of infusion d. independent of the biological half-

life
b. Inversely proportional to the rate of infusion e. not related to either the infusion
rate
c. Independent of rate of infusion or the biological half-life

109. What factor besides the desired steady-state concentration (Css) is most important for
determining an infusion rate of a parenteral solution?

a. half-life of the drug d. total clearance

b. Metabolism rate e. volume of distribution
c. Renal elimination

110. Compartmental models are often used to illustrate the various principles of
pharmacokinetics. a compartment is best definded as

a. any anatomic entity that is capable of absorbing drug d. any body fluid-such as
blood or urine
b. a kinetically distinguishable pool of drug that may contain drug
c. specific body organs or that e. any component of the
blood, tissues can be assayed for drug including
blood proteins that would
have tendency to absorb drug

111. which of the following is/are true of non-linear pharmacokinetics

I. follows zero order kinetics

II. elimination half-life will change as the dose is increased
III. half-life is expressed in terms of fraction per unit time
a. I only d. II and III only
b. III only e. I, II and III
c. I and II only

112. The difference between peak and trough concentrations greatest when the is given at
dosing intervals

a. Much longer than the half-life
b. About equal to the half-life
c. Much shorter than the half-life
reach
d. equal to the half-life times serum
creatinine
e. equal to the time it takes to
peak concentration following a single
oral dose

113. which of the following pharmacokinetic parameters is (are) likely to decrease) in the
geriatric population when compared to average population?

I. Renal elimination
II. Drug metabolism
III. Volume of the distribution
a. I only d. II and III only
b. III only e. I, II and III
c. I and II only

114. the pharmacokinetic property known as clearance is essentially the

a. Rate at which the plasma is cleared of d. rate at which the drug is

removed
 all waste materials and foreign substances (e.g drug) (cleared) from its site of
absorption
b. Volume of blood that passes through the e. volume of blood that is completely
kidneys per unit of time cleared of drug per unit of
time
c. Volume of blood that passes through the liver
per unit of time

115. a knowledge of the clearance (CL) of a given drug is useful because it allows the

a. Calculation of the maintenance dose required to d. decision whether a loading dose

sustain a desired average steady-state plasma
concentration
b. Determination of a loading dose but not the
maintainance dose
c. Determination of the ideal dosing interval
is necessary
e. determination if the drug is
metabolized or excreted unchanged

116. In dosing drugs that are primarily excreted by the kidneys, one must have an idea of
the patient’s renal function. A calculated pharmacokinetic parameter that gives us a
reasonable estimate of renal function is the

a. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) d. urine creatinine (Ucr)

b. Serum creatinine (Scr) e. free water clearance
c. Creatinine clearance (CLcr)

117. if the rate of elimination of a drug is reduced because of impaired renal function, the
effect on the drug half-life and the time required to reach steady-state concentrations
(Css) will

a. Both increase d. be a decrease in half-life but an

b. Both decrease increase in the time to reach Css
c. Be an increase in half-life and a e. be negligible
decrease in the time to reach Css

118. For many drugs, bioavalibilty can be evaluated using urinary excretion data. This is
based on the assumption that

a. Bioavailability studies can be done only d. all of the administered

dose can be
on drugs that are completely excreted recovered from the urine
unchanged by the kidneys
b. Drug levels can be measured more accurately e. only drug metabolites are
excreted in
in urine than in blood the urine
c. A drug must first be absorbed into the systemic
circulation before it can be appear in the urine
 119. Estimating bioavailability from urinary excretion data is less satisfactory than
estimated based on blood level data because accurate urinary excretion studies require

I. Complete urine collections

II. Normal or near normal renal function
III. That the drug be completely excreted unchanged by the
kidney
a. I only d. II and III only
b. III only e. I, II and III
c. I and II only

120. The half-life of an anti-bacterial drug has been reported as ranging between 4 and 10
h. what is the estimated clearance of this drug in a patient receiving a 50-mg bolus dose
of a drug at 1000? A blood sample drawn at 1400 assays at 10 mg/L

a. 0.8 L/h d. 2.5 L/h

b. 1.25 L/h e. 5 L/h
c. 1.6 L/h

121. Which of the following factors is (are) included in the Cockroft and Gault equation for
estimating creatinine clearance?

I. Patient’s age
II. Patient’s height and weight
III. Patient’s calculated BEE
a. I only d. II and III only
b. III only e. I, II and III
c. I and II only

122. What is the approximate creatinine clearance in a 140-lb, 50yr old patient if the lab
reports a serum creatinine value of 1.5 mg/dL?

a. 50-55 mL d. 120-125 mL
b. 100-105 mL e. 130-140 mL
c. 110-118 mL

123. The patient in the previous problem is a female. What correction, if any should be
made in calculating her creatinine clearance value?

a. The value will be 50% of the male value d. the value will be 85% of
the male
b. The value will be 75 % of the male value value
c. The value will be 80% of the male value e. no correction is needed

124. all of the following drugs are believed to undergo significant First-Pass hepatic
metabolism EXCEPT:

a. Lidocaine d. phenytoin
 b. Morphine e. propranolol
c. NTG

125. The science that examines the inter-relationship of the physicochemical propertis of the
drug, the dosage form in which the drug is given, and the route of administration on
drug’s bioavaibility

a. Pharmacology
b. Biopharmaceutics
c. Pharmacokinetics
d. Toxicolgy

126. The application of pharmacokinetic principles in the safe and effective treatment of
individual patients, and in the optimization of drug therapy.

a. Clinical pharmacy
b. Clinical pharmacology
c. Clinical pharmacokinetics
d. Clinical biopharmaceutics

127. The IV route of administration may be preferred over the preoral route for some
systemic-acting drugs because:

a. The drug does not have to be absorbed

b. Absorption is predictable and complete
c. A portion of the absorbed drug pass through the liver before entering the systemic
circulation
d. First-pass effect is avoided

128. The route of administration which will by-pass the GIT degradation and hepatic
metabolism is

a. IV injection d. b and c
b. Sublingual e. all of the above
c. Buccal

129. Advantages of systemic drug administration by rectal suppository

a. Partial avoidance of first-pass effects

b. Suitability when the oral route is not feasible
c. Predictable drug release and absorption
d. a and b only
e. all of the above

130. The process with the slowest rate constant in a system of simultaneous kinetic process

a. lag time
b. rate limiting step
c. bioequivalence
d. accumulation

131. A rate limiting step factor in the dissolution of tablet is

a. disintegration of the tablet

b. thickness
c. content uniformity
d. local effect

132. Which of the following series in kinetic processes may be the rate-limiting step for
drugs that are poorly soluble in aqeous media?

a. Disintegration and dissolution of the unit

b. Diffusion of active drug through the intestinal wall
c. Dissolution of the active drug
d. Disintegration only
e. All of the above

133. The equation that best describe the overall rate of drug dissolution

a. Henderson-Hasselbach equation d. Fick’s law of diffusion

b. Michelis-Menten equation e. NOTA
c. Noyes-Whitney equation

134. Which of the following factor/s is inversely proportional to the rate of dissolution in the
lipid membrane of lipid soluble unionize substances?

a. Particle size d. diffusion coefficient

b. Lipid/water partition coefficient e. NOTA
c. Surface area

135. Dissolution rate tests can be used to predict bioavailability if

a. Dissolved drug remains free in the GIT

b. Dissolved drug is decomposed in the GIT
c. Drug is hydrolyzed in the GIT
d. AOTA

136. Which of the following factors affect the dissolution in the lipid membrane of the lipid
soluble unionized fluid compartment

a. pH
b. pKa
c. lipid/water partition coefficient
d. AOTA
137. The ratio of drug concentration in the lipid phase over the concentration of the drug in
the aqueous phase is equal to

a. APC
b. pKa
c. pH
d. Concentration gradient

138. The lipid phase which is usually employed in the determination of apparent partition
coefficient

a. Buffer solution at pH 7.4

b. Corn oil
c. Cottonseed oil
d. Octanol

139. Decreasing oil/water partition coefficient, the polarity of drug increases due to the
presence of hydrophilic functional groups, thus water solubility

a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. No change
d. Polarity is not related

140. The ionization constant of a drug is important in bioavailability since it determines the
following except

a. Its aqeous solubility

b. Dissolution rate
c. pH of the medium
d. extent of protein binding

141. The extent of ionization of a weak electrolyte drug is dependent on the

a. pH of the media and pKa of the drug d. Noyes-Whitney equation of the

drug
b. particle size and surface area of the drug e. polymorphic form of the drug
c. oil water partition coefficient of the drug

142. The pH of a buffer system can be calculated with the

a. Noyes-Whitney equation d. Young equation

b. Henderson-hasselbach equation e. Stokes equation
c. Michealis-Menten equation

143. The pH value is calculated mathematically as the

a. log of the Hydroxyl ion (OH-) d. negative log of the H+ concn

b. negative log of the OH- concn e. Ratio of H+ / OH-
c. log of the hydrogen ion (H+)

144. A change of pH in the aqueous phase alters the _______ of electrolytes

a. Degree of dissociation d. NOTA

b. Degree of acidification e. AOTA
c. Degree of purification

145. The mathematical equation used in determining the ratio between ionized and
unionized drug include

a. Noyes-Whitney equation d. NOTA

b. Fick’s First Law of diffusion e. AOTA
c. Henderson Hasselbach equation

146. Which of the following alkaloids exhibits good water solubility?

a. Morphine SO4 d. lidocaine

b. Cocaine e. AOTA
c. Atropine

147. pH is equal to pKa when the ionized form is

a. Greater than unionized

b. Less than unionized
c. Neither greater or less than unionized
d. Equal to unionized
e. AOTA

148. Which of the following is a characteristic of strong electrolytes?

a. Exist entirely as ions

b. Exist both as ionic and a molecular form
c. Exist entirely in molecular form
d. May be undissociated

149. Characteristics of salts of electrolytes include

a. Higher solubility
b. More rapid dissolution rate
c. Both
d. NOTA

150. Acids are ______ , when nonprotonated

a. Charged d. non polar

b. Unchanged e. NOTA
c. unionized
151. Significant site of absorption of many acidic and neutral compounds but not for basic
compounds.

a. Kidney c. Stomach
b. Liver d. AOTA

152. According to pH partition theory, q weakly acidic drug will most likely be absorbed from
the stomach because.

a. The drug will exist primarily in the ionized, more lipid soluble form
b. The drug will exist primarily in the ionized, more water-soluble form
c. Weak acids are more soluble in acid medium
d. The ionic form of the drug facilities dissolution

153. What is the pH does weak acids greatly ionized?

a. High pH c. Neutral pH
b. Low pH d. AOTA

154. The excretion of weak acid will be more rapid in alkaline urine than in acidic urine
because:

a. All drugs are excreted in alkaline urine

b. The drug will exist primarily in the unionized form
c. The drug will exist primarily in the ionized form
d. Weak acids cannot be reabsorbed from the kidney tubules

156. When does weak acids reabsorbed not the bloodstream?

a. If the urinary pH is high

b. If the urine is made alkaline
c. If the urinary pH is low
d. All situations apply

157. Based on the relation between the degree of ionization and the gastric solubility of a
weak aced, the drug aspirin (pKa 3.49) will be most soluble at.

a. pH 1.0 d. pH 4.0
b. pH 2.0 e. pH 6.0
c. pH 3.0

158. The concentration of the ionic moiety of weak acids increases with
 a. Decreasing pH of aqueous solution c. Increasing pOH of aqueous
solution
b. Increasing pH of aqueous solution d. AOTA

159. What is the reason behind why Morphine sulfate most likely absorbed is the small
intestine

a. The molecular form will be more lipid soluble

b. The drug will exist primarily in the ionized and more water soluble form
c. The ionic form of the drug facilitates dissolution
d. Basic drugs are lipid soluble in alkaline media

160. Which condition usually increases the rate of drug dissolution from a tablet?

a. Increases in the particle size of the drug

b. Use of Ionized or salt form of the drug
c. Decrease in the surface area of the drug
d. Use of free acid or free base form of the drug
e. Use of sugar coating around the tablet

161. It is the phenomenon when organic substituted ammonium salts or salts of various
inorganic acids are added to mixtures of organic non-electrolytes causing the dissolution of the
undissolved solutes

a. Chelation c. Solvation
b. Clathrate formation d. Salting-In

162. These are formed when a substance is capable of forming channels or cages which
can take up another substance into the intraspace of the structure

a. Co – precipitates d. Hydrates
b. Solvates e. NOTA
c. Drug – Clathrate complexes

163. Which of the following is a clathrate forming substance

a. Urea c. Melt of mannitol

b. Mucin d. Theobroma oil

164. Polymorphism is generally defined as

a. Substance that may exist in more than one crystalline form or amorphous form
b. Substance that may exists only in metastable form
 c. Substance that has different viscosity time to time
d. Substance that reduces interfacial tension

165. Different polymorphs of the same drug exhibit differences in all aspects except

a. Chemical structure d. Molecular sizes

b. Melting points e. None
c. Solubilities

166. These are addition compounds of drug and water

a. Hydrates c. polymorphs
b. Solvates d. Chelates

167. Which of the following crystal form gives the best dissolution rate?

a. Meta-stable polymorph c. Stable polymorph

b. Amorphous d. a and b

168. Ability of chemical compound to exist as optically active stereoisomers or enantiomers

is known as.

a. Polymorphism c. Chemical Variation

b. Chirality d. Chelation

169. Which of the given properties has the property of absorbing moisture from the
atmosphere?

a. Micronization c. Viscosity
b. Hygroscopicity d. Ionization

170. The following is/are factor/s affecting biological performance of drugs

a. Viscosity d. Adsorption
b. Polymorphism e. AOTA
c. Solubilizing agents

171. Those multiple source drug products that contain identical amount of the identical
active ingredients in identical dose forms are called

a. Chemical equivalents or pharmaceutical equivalents

b. Biologic equivalents
c. Therapeutic equivalents
d. Pharmaceutical alternates
 e. Therapeutic alternates

172. Drug products that contain the identical therapeutic moiety, or its precursor but not
necessarily in the same amount or dosage forms or as the same salt ester

a. Pharmaceutical alternates c. Bioequivalent drug products

b. Pharmaceutical equivalents d. NOTA

173. Dose pumping is defined as

a. An intended sudden release of large amounts of drugs into systemic circulation

b. Unintended sudden release of large amounts of drugs into systemic circulation
c. Slow release of the drug into systemic circulation
d. Slow absorption of the drug into the systemic circulation

174. A portion of a prolonged release dosage form which liberates the drug from the form at
a slower rate that is unrestricted absorption rate

a. Depot phase d. AOTA

b. Release phase e. NOTA
c. Dissolve phase

175. In general, various oral dosage forms can be ranked in which of the following expected
order of availability (fastest to slowest)

a. Aqueous solution, capsule, tablet, powder, coated tablet, suspension

b. Capsule, tablet, coated tablet, powder, suspension, aqueous solution
c. Aqueous solution, suspension, powder, capsule, tablet, coated tablet
d. Suspension, aqueous solution, powder, capsule, coated tablet, tablet

176. Process of transferring chemical substances from the GIT through its wall into the
blood and lymphatic stream

a. Distribution c. Absorption
b. Adsorption d. Exocytosis

177. Collective term used to describe penetration and permeation include

a. Disposition c. Sorption
b. Distribution d. Adsorption
178. If drug moves into the deeper layers of the skin or mucosa and yet does not reach the
capillary walls

a. Adsorption c. Penetration
 b. Permeation d. Absorption

179. One of the mechanism by which drugs containing sorption promoters penetrate the
skin is by widening of either lipid or aqueous phase or both phases found in the intercellular
matrix. Which of the following sorption is used?

a. Surfactants c. Viscosity-decreasing
agents/thinners
b. Absorption d. AOTA

180. A second substance tends to accumulate to the surface of a first substance due to
intermolecular forces of attraction is a phenomenon of

a. Penetration c. Adsorption
b. Absorption d. AOTA

181. Obtained when the drug product is administered at the site where pharmacological
response is desired and when the drug released from the product acts by absorption to the skin
or mucosa or penetrates into the skin or mucosa, but does not enter the systemic circulation or
lymphatic system

a. Systemic effect c. Mean transit time

b. Local effect d. Micro constants

182. The theory which states that cell membrane is made up of bi-lipid layers and fluid
protein molecules interspersed between 2 layers of lipid layer

a. Fick’s law d. Stroke’s law

b. Fluid Mosaic e. NOTA
c. Ariens and Stephenson

183. Membranes are responsible for which of the following process?

a. Uptake of fluid material c. Extrusion of waste material

b. Uptake of solid material d. OATA

184. Membrane potential is due to the:

a. Adsorption of protein to the outside of lipid layer

b. Different distribution of ions in the extracellular and intracellular fluid
c. Both a and b
d. pH of the medium
 185. Absorption is not involved when a drug is administered by which of the following
routes?

a. IV c. Intracardiac
b. Intra – arterial d. AOTA

186. Which of the following is the first process that must occur before a drug can become
available for GI absorption from a tablet dosage form?

a. Dissolution of the drug in the GI fluids

b. Ionization of the drug
c. Disintegration of the tablet
d. Dissolution of the drug in the blood
e. Adsorption of the drug on the mucosal surface of the skin

187. The value of particle size reduction to enhance drug absorption is limited to the
situation in which the

a. Absorption process occurs by active transport

b. Absorption process is rate limited by the dissolution of the drug in the GIT
c. Drug is very soluble
d. Drug is very potent

188. In general, the form of a drug that can be absorbed faster is a/an

a. Ionized form c. Bound form

b. Unionized form d. A and C

189. In general, the form of a drug that can be absorbed faster

a. pKa value of the drug and pH of the drug product

b. Perfusion rate
c. Osmotic pressure
d. Both a and b
e. NOTA

190. Due to their anatomical structure, the organ that is considered as the most important
site of drug absorption is

a. Large intestine c. Small intestine

b. Stomach d. Mucus membrane of the mouth

191. In what part of GIT, is where no absorption of food takes place but large amount of
water are absorbed
 a. Rectum d. Small intestine
b. Large intestine e. Stomach

192. What is the specific organ of animal used for In vivo testing of active transport
mechanism

a. Duodenum c. Iluem
b. Ascending colon d. Transverse colon

193. As soon as drug has passed the epithelium of the GI mucosa, it can reach the systemic
circulation by

a. Entering through the villi c. Both

b. Entering through the lacteals d. None

194. Drugs that are absorbed in the GIT are generally

a. Absorbed in the portal of circulation and passed through the liver before entering the
general circulation
b. Filtered from the blood by the kidney, the reabsorbed into the general circulation
c. Not affected by the liver enzymes
d. Stored in the liver

195. Absorption of Vitamin A from the GI tract depends on

a. The presence of bile in the intestine d. Needs of the patient

b. By which salt is used e. pH of the intestine
c. Acid-base balance

196. Factor affecting gastric emptying time of a drug

a. Age of a person d. AOTA

b. Time of the day e. a and c only
c. Body pressure

197. Rate of gastric emptying is slowed down by the following except

a. Vigorous exercise d. Hunger

b. Fatty foods e. Emotional stress
c. Hot meals

198. In the oral administration of drugs for aged people, the possible consequence/s when
the gastric emptying time is increased is/are
a. Reduce mixing of intestinal content d. A and C
b. Delayed transfer to small intestine e. A and B
c. Change in epithelial transfer

199. A condition that may increase the time of gastric emptying

a. Depression c. lying on the left side

b. Stressful d. A and C

200. Which of the following statement is the least that could increase drug absorption?

a. Increase blood flow to the site of administration

b. Decrease particle size
c. Increase surface area dedicated to absorption
d. Increase lipid solubility
e. Decreased pH when the drug is a weak base

200. Which of the following statement is the least that could increase drug absorption?

d. Increased blood flow to the site of administration

e. Decreased particle size
f. Increased surface area dedicated to absorption
g. Increased lipid solubility
h. Decreased pH when the drug is a weak base

201. Factors affecting membrane transport include all except

d. pKa d. Presence or absence of a change

e. Diffusivity e. Surfactants
f. Partition coefficient

202. The transfer of most drugs across biologic membranes occurs by

d. Passive diffusion d. Pinocytosis

e. Active transport e. Ion-pair transport
f. Facilitated transport

203. Equation followed by passive diffusion

d. Noyes-whitney d. Henderson-Hasslebalch
e. Van Slyke e. NOTA
f. Fick’s law

204. In the diffusion controlled system, the initial rate of dissolution is directly proportional to
the

d. pKa d. Solubility of the drug in the dissolution medium

e. pH
f. Quantity of the free acid

205. All of the following statements about Fick’s law as it pertain to simple diffusion are true
except

d. The greater the concentration gradient, the greater the rate of absorption
e. The smaller the surface area the greater the drug flux
f. The greater the lipid-water partition coefficient, the greater the drug flux
g. Diffusion constant is directly proportional to the temperature
h. Diffusion constant is inversely related to the molecular size

206. The driving force for passive absorption of a drug is the

d. Specific carrier of proteins and shows saturation kinetics Pharmacokinetics

e. Concentration gradient across a membrane separating body compartment

f. Both
g. NOTA

207. The ratio of drug concentration in two phases separated by a semi-permeable

membrane fluid is called:

d. APC d. Elimination half-life

e. pKa e. AOTA
f. Concentration gradient

208. The rate of diffusion of drugs across biological membrane is:

a. Independent on the concentration gradient

b. Directly proportional to the concentration gradient

c. Dependent on the availability of carrier substrate

g. Dependent on the route of administration

209. The cell membrane is capable of forming vesicles which may engulf drug substances
outside the cell membrane to transport drug (via the engulfed drug) into the compartmen

d. Ion-pair d. Pinocytosis
e. Passive diffusion e. Active transport
f. Convective transport

210. A transport mechanism in which drugs moves from an area of high concentration to an
area of low concentration include except

d. Passive transport d. Facilitated diffusion

e. Active transport e. Ion-pair
f. Convective transport

211. Arrange the mechanism of absorption of drugs in order their importance

d. Active-passive-convective transport
e. Passive diffusion-convective-active transport
f. Convective-active-passive transport
g. Active-pinocytosis-passive

212. Sodium pump is special type of

d. Convective transport d. Ion-pair

e. Active transport
f. Passive transport

213. When active transport system becomes saturated, the rate process will be

d. Zero order d. Pseudo-first order

e. Pseudo-order
f. First order

214. The following are characteristics of active transport except

d. Against concentration gradient d. Requires expenditure of ATP

e. Follows saturation kinetics e. NOTA
f. Carrier mediated

215. A carrier mediated transport of absorption that does not proceed against a
concentration gradient includes:

d. Facilitated transport d. Ion-pair transport

e. Active transport e. NOTA
f. Active transport

216. The following are the characteristics of facilitated diffusion transport except

d. Against concentration gradient d. AOTA

e. Follows saturation kinetics e. NOTA
f. Carrier mediated

217. All phenomenon characteristics are associated with the process of facilitated diffusion
of drugs, except

d. The drug crosses the membrane against a concentration gradient

e. The process is selective for certain ionic or structural configuration of the drug

f. Competitive inhibition if two compounds are transported by the same mechanism

g. The transport mechanism becomes saturated at high drug

218. Facilitated transport is similar to active transport in a sense that it:

d. Is a carrier mediated
e. Utilizes ATP
f. Is against concentration gradient
g. Is moving from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration

219. Which of the following is a feature common to all carrier-mediated transport process?

a. Movement is along the concentration gradient d. Display a Michaelis-

Menten kinetics
b. Involve non-specific binding to carriers e. Non-energy requiring
c. Can be characterizes by allosteric inhibition

220. Formation of pairs (For highly ionized compounds) with endogenous substrate present
at the GIT to form a neural complexes that are absorbed by passive diffusion

d. Pinocytosis d. Facilitated transport

e. Convective transport
f. Ion-pair transport

221. Which of the following statement is/are Carrier-mediated transport systems

characteristic/s?

d. Consume energy d. AOTA

e. Are structure specific
f. May be adversely affected by certain chemicals

222. A type of transport where by drug molecules dissolved in aqueous medium at the
absorption site move along with the solvent through the pore.

d. Active transport d. Facilitated transport

e. Convective transport
f. Ion-pair

223. When considering drug transport, passive diffusion involves drug movement from area
of

d. High concentration to an area of higher concentration

e. High concentration to an area of lower concentration
f. Low concentration to an area of higher concentration
g. High concentration to an area of equally high concentration
h. No concentration to an area of higher concentration

224. Lipid/water partition coefficient permits

d. Convective transport c. Passive transport

e. Active transport d. Ion-pair transport

225. Which statement best describes bioavailability?

d. Relation between the physical and chemical properties of a drug and its systemic
absorption
e. Measurement if the rate and amount of therapeutically active drug that reaches the
systemic circulation
f. Movement of drug into the body tissue over period of time
g. Dissolution of the drug in the GIT E. amount of drug destroyed by the liver before
systemic absorption from the GIT occurs

226. The primary proof of a drug’s bioavailability is

d. Production of its pharmacologic effect d. Appearance of metabolites in

urine
e. Production of high blood levels e. Appearance of metabolites in
blood
f. Production of high urine levels
227. To determine the relative bioavailability of a drug given as an oral extended-release
tablet, the bioavailability of the drug must be compared to the bioavailability of the drug form

d. An immediate-release oral tablet containing the same amount of active ingredient

e. An oral solution of the drug in the same dose
f. A parenteral solution of the drug given by IV bolus or IV infusion
g. A reference drug that is bioequivalent
h. An immediate-release HGC containing the same amount of active drug and lactose

228. If the extent and rate of absorption is similar to the standard drug, it has achieved the

d. Bioequivalence of the drug d. a and b

e. Pharmaceutical equivalence
f. Pharmaceutical alternative

229. Possible approaches to measure the bioavailability:

d. Blood level data d. AOTA

e. Urinary excretion data
f. Clinical data

230. In all quantitative work for bioavailability, the concentration at the site of action and
pharmacologic response.

g. Blood/plasma d. a and b
h. Urine
i. Gastric fluid

231. The relation between the drug concentration at the site of action and pharmacologic
response

d. Pharmacokinetics d. none
e. Pharmacology
f. Pharmacodynamics

232. These conditions require immediate increase in the blood levels of the drug except:

d. Hypertensive attack d. none

e. Chronic asthma
f. Sudden increase in blood glucose
233. In vitro dissolution rate studies for drug products are useful for evaluating bioavailability
only if they can be correlated with

d. Disintegration rates
e. The chemical stability
f. In vivo studies in humans
g. In vivo studies in at least 3 species of animals
h. none

234. Drug products can be also evaluated by comparing curves of serum concentration vs.
time (blood level curve). The most important parameters that can be obtain from such
curves are

d. Peak concentration, biologic concentration, half life, elimination rate constant

e. Biologic half time, peak concentration, total AUC

f. Peak concentration, peak time, total AUC
g. Average serum concentration, AUC, absorption rate constant

235. Is the difference between the EMC and MTC

d. Minimum effective concentration

e. Minimum toxic concentration
f. Minimum inhibitory concentration
g. Therapeutic plasma concentration
h. none

236. Which of the following equations may be useful to find out the plasma concentration of
drug?

d. VD x DB = CP d. VD = CP/DB
e. DB x CP =VD
f. VD = DB/ CP

237. Clinical effectiveness often depends on

d. Maximum serum drug concentration

e. Minimum serum drug concentration
f. Time after the administration to reach the onset of concentration
g. AOTA
h. NOTA

238. The intensity of the pharmacologic action of a drug is most dependent on the
d. Concentration of the drug at the receptor site
e. t ½ of the drug
f. MTC of the drug in plasma
g. Onset time of the drug after oral administration
h. MEC of the drug in the body

239. Which of the following refers to the intensity of pharmacologic response?

d. Cmax d. AUC
e. Tmax
f. AUC

240. Cmax is the peak drug concentration in the

g. Plasma d. Bile
h. Urine
i. Muscle

241. The onset time for a drug given orally is the time for

a. Drug to reach the peak plasma drug concentration

b. Drug to reach the MEC
c. Drug to begin to be eliminated from the body
d. Drug to reach the MTC
e. Drug to begin to be absorbed from the small intestine

242. For drugs that are given at constant rate, the time to reach steady state concentration
is dependent on

d. I only d. II and III

e. I and III e. AOTA
f. I and II

243. The Biological half-life of a

d. Is a constant physical property of a drug

e. Is the time for one half of the therapeutic activity to be lost
f. Is a constant chemical property of the drug
g. Depends entirely on the route of administration

244. Which of the following is a half-life equation for first-order reaction?

d. t½= 0.0693/k d. t½= 1/ak
e. t½= 0.963/k e. t½= 0.693/k
f. t½= a/2k

245. In which kinetic reaction, the rate of reaction is dependent on concentration?

d. First order d. Second order

e. Zero order
f. Pseudo first order

246. Which equation is true for a zero-order reaction rate of a drug?

d. dA/dt= -k d. dC/dt= -kC

e. t½= 0.693/k e. C= -k0t + C0
f. A=A0e-kt

247. Refers to a change of one or more of the pharmacokinetic parameters during

absorption, distribution metabolism, and excretion by overloading of processes due to
increased dose sizes

d. Nonlinear kinetics d. both a and b

e. Linear kinetics e. both b and c
f. Saturation kinetics

248. Which equation is true for absorption rate constant of a drug?

d. kA= 0.693
t1/2 d. log C = -kt
e. kA= In C1diff – In C2diff 2.3
t2 – t1
f. kA= log v2 – log v2
t2 - t1

249. Tmax means

d. Time of great solubility of the drug d. AUC values

e. Peak height concentration
f. Time of peak concentration

250. This pharmacokinetic property is representative of the amount of a drug absorbed

d. t1/2 d. Kel
e. T90 e. VD
f. AUC

251. The integral of drug level over time from zero to infinity is

d. Biologic half-life d. Biopharmaceutics

e. Area under the curve
f. Bioavailability

252. Two different formulation of the same drug having equal areas under their respective
serum concentration time curve

d. Deliver the same total amount of drug to the body and are therefore bioavailability
e. Deliver the same total amount of drug to the body but are not necessarily bioavailability
f. Are bioequivalent by definition
g. Are bioequivalent if they meet USP standards

253. An entity which can be described by a definite volume and concentration of drug
contained in that volume

d. Compartment d. Blood stream

e. Serum level
f. receptor

254. Drug concentration in systemic circulation rises to a peak followed by steep fall

d. Open one compartment IV d. Open two compartment EV

e. Open one compartment EV
f. Open two compartment IV

255. In compartmental analysis of serum drug concentration versus time plots, which of the
following findings confirm a one compartment model of drug behavior?

d. An AUC above the extrapolated line that is less than 10% of the total AUC
e. An AUC above the extrapolated line that is less than 5% of the total AUC
f. Slope of the last 3 terminal points differing by more than 10% from the first 3 terminal
points
g. Slope of the last 3 terminal points differing by more than 20% from the first 3 terminal
points
h. Cmax that is above the line extrapolated from terminal points

256. If VD is 40 liters, the drug is confined in?

d. Intracellular fluid d. Whole body fluid
e. Circulatory system e. Deeper tissues
f. Extracellular fluid

257. The dose size used in initiating therapy so as to yield therapeutic concentration which
will result in clinical effectiveness include all the following except

d. I and II d. I, II and IV
e. III and IV e. AOTA
f. I and III

258. The term systemic circulation refers primarily to

d. Veins d. a and b
e. Arteries e. b and c
f. Hepatic portal Vein

259. The term oftenly used to described drug distribution and elimination

d. Elimination only d. Metabolism only

e. Disposition e. NOTA
f. Absorption

260. The principal place for exchange and interchange of biological fluid include

d. Heart d. Body fluids

e. Capillary network e. Lymphatic system
f. Lymphatic vessels

261. The whole body fluid in man comprises approximately

d. 10% of the body weight d. 20% of the total body weight

e. 60% of the total body weight e. 40% of the total body weight
f. 90% of the total body weight

262. Compartments of total body water include

d. Vascular fluid d. Intracellular fluid

e. Extracellular fluid e. AOTA
f. Salivary fluid

263. Test used for determination of plasma volume include

d. Thiosulfate d. Evans blue
e. VD of any nonelectrolyte dissolved in water e. Inulin
f. Bromsulpthalein

264. Test used for determination of whole body fluid include

d. Bromolein
e. VD of any nonelectrolyte dissolved in water
f. Bromsulfthalein
g. Evans Blue
h. Inulin

265. A chemical indicator used in determination of ECF whose action of this drug is
dependent on a colligative property include

d. Mannitol d. Thiosulfate
e. Evans blue e. inulin

131
f. l-albumin

266. The system concerned with the recirculation of the interstitial fluid to the bloodstream
and the maintenance of the consistency of the blodd

d. Lymphatic system d. Circulatory system

e. Respiratory system e. AOTA
f. Digestive system

267. Which of the following physiologic factor is the least influencing drug distribution?

e. Osmotic pressure
f. Particle size
g. Tissue perfusion
h. Diffusional barrier
i. NOTA

268. Maintenance of a steady state which characterized the internal environment of the
healthy organism

d. Steady state d. Maintenance dose

e. Depot phase e. Distribution equilibrium
f. Homeostasis
269. The most common entry of drug into the cell is through:

d. Infusion c. Active transport

e. Levigation d. Diffusion

270. Which of the following statement concerning hydrostatic pressure and absorptive
pressure is true?

d. Represents a pressure gradient between the arterial end of the capillaries entering the
tissue and the venous capillaries leaving the tissue

e. Responsible for the penetration of relatively ionized drugs

f. Allows small drug molecules to be filtered at the glomerulus
g. A and B only
h. AOTA

271. Drugs that are poorly lipid soluble. Polar, or extensively ionized at the pH of the blood
generally

a. Penetrate the CNS very slowly and may essentially be eliminated from the body before a
significant concentration in the CNS is reached
b. Achieved adequate CNS concentration only if given IV
c. Must be metabolized to a more polar form before they can gain access to the CNS
d. Can gain access to the CNS if other drugs are used to modify the blood pH

272. If drug A is more lipophilic than drug B, then

a. Drug A will be better distributed than drug B

b. Drug B will be better distributed than drug A
c. Drug A is an agonist
d. NOTA
e. Either A and B

273. Which of the following poorly perfuse organ or tissues is potential site of drug
accumulation of drugs that has been ingested?

a. Liver d. Lungs
b. Brain e. Blood
c. Bone

274. All the following statements are true concerning drug distribution except
a. Brain capillaries are not fenestrated
b. Hydrophobic drugs given IV would be transported rapidly to the brain
c. A hydrophilic IV drug would be distributed rapidly to the kidneys
d. Fetal placenta limit drug distribution more than the blood brain barrier
e. NOTA
275. To produce its characteristic pharmacologic action/s, a drug must always

a. Reach high blood levels

b. Be absorbed from the GIT
c. Achieve adequate concentration at its site/s of action
d. Be excreted unchanged in the urine
e. NOTA

276. Which if the following factors does not affect the protein binding of drug?

a. The availability of protein for binding

b. The presence of competing substance for protein binding
c. Binding affinity of protein to the drug
d. The concentration of a drug at its receptor site
e. NOTA

277. The extent of protein binding is determined in vitro by the following mechanism except

a. Ultracentrifugation d. electrophoresis
b. Dialysis e. NOTA
c. Endocytosis

278. The major plasma protein involved in the distribution of weak acids is

a. Albumin d. Gelatin
b. Glycoprotein e. Ceruloplamin
c. Glycine

279. Weak bases generally bind to

a. Plasma albumin d. Erythrocytes

b. Alpha 1-acid glycoprotein e. LDL
c. Plasma lipoprotein

280. Which of the following statements is not true about displacement of drug from plasma
protein binding sites?

a. Results is transient increased volume of distribution

b. Makes more free drug available for glomerular filtration
c. Displacement of a potent drug that is normally more than 95% bound may cause toxicity
d. Increases tissue levels of the drug
e. Generally has a smaller VD compared with drugs that are highly bound to plasma
proteins
281. All of the following may shorten the duration of drug effects except

a. Extensive plasma protein binding of the drug

b. Renal excretion of the drug
c. Redistribution of the drug
d. Metabolism of the drugs
e. NOTA

282. Which of the following drugs do not bind to plasma protein to any significant extent

a. Lithium d. Diazepam
b. Digoxin e. AOTA
c. Amitriptyline

283. When comparing a highly protein-bound drug to its less- or nonprotein-bound analog,
the higly protein-bound drug will be probably

a. Have a shorter biologic half-life

b. Have delayed elimination from the body
c. Have decreased pharmacological response
d. Are free drug

284. Consequence resulting from an increased plasma protein binding include all except

a. Increased toxicity as result of displacement

b. Shorten elimination half-life
c. Provides a depot upon chronic dosing
d. Remain inactive until free
e. NOTA

285. Which of the following statements is correct?

a. Reduced binding to plasma protein by the drug molecule will decrease the therapeutic
effect of the drug
b. Saturation of binding produces linear pharmacokinetics
c. Only the unbound drug may be available for metabolism and excretion
d. Increase binding will increase free drug concentration

286. If sulfonamide has greater affinity to plasma protein than tolbutamide, what will be the
consequence of taking the 2 drugs concomitantly
a. Increase plasma concentration of tolbutamide
b. Sulfonamide will be displaced bu tolbutamide
c. Increase pharmacologic effect of sulfonamide
d. Increase distribution of sulfonamides
e. AOTA

287. What is the major mechanism of interaction between digoxin and quinidine as a result
of competitive inhibition?

a. Decreased binding of digoxin from plasma protein binding sites

b. Decreased hepatic metabolism of digoxin
c. Decreased renal clearance of digoxin
d. Increased binding of digoxin with ion transporters in the myocardium
e. Increased intestinal absorption of digoxin

288. A neonate is given drug A, a compound with a high affinity for plasma proteins, in a
dose that does not exceed the binding capacity of albumin, Later, a second drug B that
binds strongly to albumin is given in amounts that greatly exceed albumin’s binding capacity.
Which of the following sentences is most likely to be true?

a. The free plasma concentration of drug A is decreased

b. The relative free drug concentration of both compounds is unchanged
c. The concentration of drug A in tissues is likely to be increased
d. The concentration of drug B in tissues is likely to be increased
e. The free plasma concentration of drug B would likely be markedly increased if a drug A
were given second rather than first

289. The volume of distribution of a particular drug will be

a. Greater for drugs that concentrate in the tissues rather than in plasma
b. Greater for drugs that concentrate in the Plasma rather than in plasma
c. Independent of tissue concentration
d. Independent of plasma concentration
e. Approximately the same for all drugs in a given individual

290. The larger the volume of distribution

a. The more extensive the distribution

b. The higher the physiological significance
c. The slower the distribution
d. a and b only
e. AOTA
Problem Solving:
For numbers 291-293
A. A drug with an elimination half-life of 1 hour was given to a male patient (80 kg) by IV infusion
at a rate of 300 mg/hr. At 7 hours after infusion, the plasma drug concentration was 11 µg/mL.

291. What is the rate constant of elimination?

a. 0.093/hr d. 0.693 mcg/hr

b. 1/hr e. none
c. 0.693 mg/hr

292. Calculate the VD

a. 39 L d. 3.9 L
b. 39 mL e. none
c. 3,935 mL

293. Predict what body compartment the drug might occupy

a. ECF d. Deep tissue

b. ICF e. Circulatory system
c. Whole body fluids

For Numbers 294-296

B. Following the IV administration of a drug, a patient weighing 70 kg was found to have 70,000
mcg/mL of drug present in the blood. Assuming apparent volume of distribution is 10% of body
weight, elimination rate constant is 0.231/hr and following first-order kinetics.

294. Calculate the plasma concentration after 4 hours

a. 700 mg/mL d. 700 mvg/mL

b. 27.785 mg/mL e. none
c. 10 mcg/mL

295. What is the half-life?

a. 0.231/h d. 3 hours
b. 3 days e. none
c. 2.310/day

296. Assuming the drug is no longer effective when levels decline to less than 10,00 ug/mL.
When should you administer the next dose?
a. 6 hours d. 10 hours
b. 4 hours
c. 8 hours

297. Immediately after an IV dose of 5 mg, the apparent volume of distribution of

chlordiazepoxide has been determined to be 34 liters. Calculate the expected drug plasma
concentration of the drug in mcg/mL.

a. 0.1471 mg/L d. 0.1471 mg/mL

b. 0.1471 mcg/L e. none
c. 0.1471 mcg/mL

298. Phenobarbital if the drug is given to a 60 kg patient as a 65mg tablet once daily with
bioavailablity of 90%. The drug has a volume of distribution of 0.5L/kg body weight and a
half-life of 100 hrs. What is the concentration at steady state?

a. 13.027 mcg/L d. 13.027 mg/mL

b. 13.027 mg/mL e. none
c. 13.027 mcg/mL

299. Mr. Jones is admitted to the hospital with pneumonia due to gram-negative bacteria.
The antibiotic tobramycin is ordered. The ClT andVD of tobramycin in Mr. Jones are 80
mL/min and 40 L respectively. What maintenance dose should be administered IV every 6
hours to eventually obtain average steady-state plasma concentrations at 4mg/L?

a. 115.2 mg d. 115.2 mg.min

b. 115.2 mcg
c. 115.2 g

300. A new broad- spectrum antibiotic was administered by rapid in injection to a 50-kg
woman at a dose of 3mg/kg. The apparent volume of distribution was equivalent to 5% of
the body weight. The elimination half-life for this drug is 2 hours. If 90% the total amount of
unchanged drug was recovered in the urine, what is the renal excretion rate constant?

a. 0.312/hr d. 0.021/hr
b. 0.0021/hr e. none
c. 0.0312/hr