FJDC

PHARMA OSPE
2017

Prepared by : Qunoot
 Levomet

Spot 1
Q.1 State the condition in which shown above is used?
Parkinson's disease
Q.2 Why levodopa is combined with carbidopa?
without carbidopa, much of the drug is decarboxylated to
dopamine in periphery, resulting in nausea, vomiting, cardiac
arrhythmias etc and with carbidopa, dosage of levodopa is
reduced and peripheral metabolism is decreased.
Q.3 Name the drug used in the treatment of Alzheimer’s disease
and demensia associated with parkinsons disease?
Rivastigmine
Q.4 Write down the Dopamine receptor agonist that can be given
transdermally?
Rotigotine
Q.5 Write down the adverse effects associated with the use of
levodopa?
 Phenobarbital
Spot 2
Q.1 Patients with sleep disorder can be treated with which drug?
Temazepam
Q.2 Name the barbiturate which have longer duration of action.
Phenobarbital
Q.3 Which drug would be best for acute management of anxiety?
Clonazepam, lorazepam, diazepam
Q.4 Write down the name of drug that rapidly reverse the effect of
benzodizepines?
Flumezanil
Q.5 write down the mechanism of action of anxiolytic and hypnotic.
The target for anxiolytic + hyonotic drugs is GABAa receptors. Binding of GABA
receptor causes the chloride ion channels to open, leading to hyperpolarization of
the cell. Binding of GABA is enhanced by benzodiazepines, resulting in greater
entry of Cl ions. Entry of Cl hyperpolarizes the cell, making it difficult to
Spot 3
Isoniazid
 
Q.1 Identify the class of the drug shown in the above picture?
Antimycobacterial drug (TB)
Q.2 Write down the 1st line drugs for the treatment of TB.
Ethambutal + Isoniazid + Pyrazinamide + Rifabutin + Rifampin + Rifapentine
Q.3 If patient fails to respond tp 1st line drug treatment write down the alternative choice
of drugs.
Aminoglycosides ( streptomycin, kanamycin, amikacin) or capreomysin
Flouroquinolones ( levofloxacin moxifloxacin ciprofloxacin)
Q.4 Peripheral neuropathy is the adverse effect of which of the anti tuberculosis drug.
Isoniazid
Q.5 HIV +ve patient is being trrated for TB, stsrted complaining of uveitis, skin hyper
pigmentation, Blood serology, showed neutropenia.
Which drug is most likely the cause of this condition?
Rifabutin
 Receptors
Spot 4

Q.1 Define receptors.

Any biological molecule to which a drug binds and produces a measurable
response.
Q.2 Write down example of each receptor shown above.
1. Ligand gated ion channels -> example: cholinergic nicotinic receptors.
2. G protein coupled receptors -> example: alpha and beta adreno
receptors.
3. Enzyme linked receptors -> example: Insulin receptors.
4. Intracellular receptors -> example: steroid receptors.
Q.3 Write down the types of G protein coupled receptors.
Gs, Gi, Gq
Q.4 What is the duration of response of enzyme linked receptor?
Mins to hours.
Q.5 Write down the MOA of Gs protein.
 
 Phenytoin
Spot 5
Q.1 MoA of phenytoin?
It blocks voltage gated Na+ channels and slows the rate of
recovery.
Q.2 Effect of phenytoin on gingival tissues?
Gingival hyperplasia
Q.3 Why phenytoin is not given by IV route?
It precipitates out at the injection site and is absorbed slowly and
erratically.
Q.4 Adverse effects of anti epileptic drug?
Cognitive impairment, skin rashes, weight gain, blurred vision,
nausea, headache.
Q.5 Name other conditions in which phenytoin can be used?
1. Focal and generalized tonic clonic seizures
2. Status epilepticus.
Spot 6 Anesthetics
Q.1 Define General anesthetics and give its classification?
A drug that binds about reversible loss of consciousness.
General anesthetics inhaled
Genral: anesthetics intravenous:
1. Desflurane 1. Barbiturates
2. Halothane 2. Benzodiazepines
3. Sevoflurane 3. Ketamine
4. Nitrous oxide 4. Propofol
Q.2 Why epinephrine is added to local anesthetics?
It increases the duration of local anesthetics by producing vasoconstriction at the site of
injection.
Q.3 Antidote for malignant hyperthermia?
Dantrolene
Q.4 Local anesthetics with rapid onset of action?
5. Lidocaine
6. Procaine
7. Chloroprocaine
Q.5 Name the drugs used to facilitate tacheal intubatuon?
 Omeprazole

Spot 7
Q.1 Name the class of the given drug and give its 2 examples?
PPIs -> example: esomeprazole, lansoperazole.
Q.2 Write down the triple therapy?
PPI + amoxicillin + clarithomycin (metronidazole instead of amoxicillin)
Q.3 Adverse effects of the given drug?
Bone fracture, GI disturbance, Headache, Low vit B12.
Q.4 Which mucosal protective agent causes discoloration of tongue and black
stool?
Bismuth subsalicyate
Q.5 Name the drug that binds with ulcer bed but not with tissue and forms a gel to
provide the ulcer to heal?
Sucralfate
 Claritin

Spot 8
Q.1 H1 receptors blockers used for anti motion sickness?
Diphenhydramine
Q.2 Clinical uses of H2 receptor blocker?
Inhibits gastric acid secretion in the treatment of ulcers and heartburn.
Q.3 Name the non sedating 2nd generation H1 blocker?
Desloratadine, fexofenadine, loratadine
Q.4 What are adverse effects associated with use of H1 blocker?
Sedation, fatigue, drowsiness, tremors, dryness in nasal passage,
blurred vision, dry mouth.
Q.5 which H1 blocker is not suitable with Alzheimer’s disease?
Diphenhydramine
 Reye’s syndrome
Spot 9
Q.1 Name the drug that leads the child to this life threatening condition?
Aspirin
Q.2 MoA of NSAIDs?
NSAIDS act by inhibiting the cyclooxygenase enzymes that catalyze the first
step in prostanoid biosynthesis. This leads to decreased prostaglandin
synthesis with both beneficial and unwanted effects.
Q.3 Adverse effects of aspirin?
Bleeding, dyspepsia, edema, headache, tinnitus, dizziness.
Q.4 Name the NSAID classified as selective COX2 inhibitor?
Celecoxib
Q.5 Which NSAID have more analgesic property but less anti inflammatory
property and have no effect on bleeding time?
Celecoxib
 
 Acyclovir

Spot 10
Q.1 Name the drug that treat Herpes simplex virus infection?
Acyclovir, penciclovir, famciclovir
Q.2 MoA of Acyclovir?
Acyclovir is monophosphorylated by thymidine kinase & converted to the di &
triphosphate forms by all kinases. Acyclovir triphosphate competes with deoxyguanosine
triphosphate as substrate for viral DNA polymerase & itself incorporated in viral DNA
causing premature DNA chain termination.
Q.3 Antivirals that are contraindicated in pregnancy?
Ribavirin, amantadine, rimantadine
Q.4 Adverse effects of acyclovir?
Headache, diarrhea, vomiting, transient renal dysfunction, local irritation.
Q.5 Name the antiviral for parkinsons treatment?
Amantadine