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CLEP Psychology

Practice Test
Time—90 Minutes For each question below, choose the best answer from the
100 Questions choices given.

1. Psychologists who are interested in behavioral 4. If a researcher wished to determine whether heat
similarities and differences between causes an increase in aggression, the best ap-
species are proach would be to
(A) biological psychologists (A) observe people in a public park on hot and
(B) experimental psychologists cold days
(C) comparative psychologists (B) compare and cross-reference weather
(D) animal psychologists reports with crime statistics
(E) physiological psychologists (C) recruit participants, put half in a cold room
and half in a hot room, and observe their
2. Employee morale and staff cooperation would be behavior
the concern of a(n) (D) compare crime rates in countries that are
warm and cool
(A) clinical psychologist (E) ask people if they feel irritable and prone to
(B) forensic psychologist aggression in the hot weather
(C) social psychologist
(D) industrial and organizational psychologist
(E) business psychologist 5. In an experiment, subjects given various amounts
of alcohol drive a course marked by orange
pylons. The independent variable in this experi-
3. To determine if people are coming to a full stop ment is the
at an intersection with a new stop sign, the best
research method would be a(n) (A) various amounts of alcohol
(B) subjects’ driving ability before alcohol
(A) naturalistic observation consumption
(B) experiment (C) subjects’ driving ability after alcohol
(C) case study consumption
(D) correlation (D) the number of orange pylons hit
(E) survey (E) speed through the obstacle course

6. Scientists use replication in order to


(A) increase validity
(B) increase research grants
(C) show cause and effect
(D) become more confident about their conclu-
sions across a variety of situations
(E) satisfy ethics requirements

1
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CLEP PSYCHOLOGY PRACTICE TEST

7. The psychological perspective that includes the 12. The spinal cord is part of the
assumption that people are often unaware of the
(A) peripheral nervous system
real motives behind their behavior is
(B) cerebellum
(A) psychoanalysis (C) central nervous system
(B) trait theory (D) reticular activating system
(C) behaviorism (E) parasympathetic system
(D) cognitive psychology
(E) humanistic psychology
13. The brain’s relay station, which receives incom-
ing sensory messages and passes
8. The theorist who claimed that he could make any them on to the cerebral cortex, is the
dozen healthy babies into anything he wished
(A) corpus callosum
through conditioning was
(B) hypothalamus
(A) Wilhelm Wundt (C) limbic system
(B) Sigmund Freud (D) thalamus
(C) Carl Rogers (E) basal ganglia
(D) B. F. Skinner
(E) John Watson
14. The part of the brain chiefly responsible for
emotion is the
9. The primary job of most brain cells is
(A) limbic system
(A) transmitting messages (B) reticular activating system
(B) picking up sensations from the environment (C) thalamus
(C) thinking and reasoning (D) corpus callosum
(D) providing the brain with nutrients (E) hippocampus
(E) maintaining homeostasis
15. The sympathetic division of the autonomic
10. The neuron’s “senders” are the nervous system is MOST likely to
(A) myelin sheaths be activated when you are
(B) dendrites (A) sleeping
(C) axon terminal buttons (B) frightened
(D) pons (C) studying
(E) receptor sites (D) talking to a good friend
(E) dreaming
11. Activity within a cell is _____; activity between
cells is _______. 16. The association area of the cortex, which seems
(A) positive, negative to play a role in planning and
(B) electrical, chemical problem solving, is located in the
(C) chemical, electrical (A) amygdala
(D) electrical, electrical (B) frontal lobes
(E) chemical, chemical (C) temporal lobes
(D) occipital lobes
(E) parietal lobes

2
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CLEP PSYCHOLOGY PRACTICE TEST

17. Sarah and James both have brown eyes, but their 21. The LEAST efficient of the human senses is
daughter has blue eyes. What is
(A) taste
the MOST likely explanation for this?
(B) touch
(A) The child is adopted. (C) hearing
(B) James is not the child’s father. (D) vision
(C) Eye color is not determined by the domi- (E) smell
nant-recessive principle.
(D) The child’s eye color will change when she 22. Movements of the head are detected by
is older.
(E) Both James and Sarah carry a recessive (A) rods and cones
gene for blue eyes. (B) the semicircular canals
(C) free nerve endings
(D) Krause end bulbs
18. The minimum amount of stimulus energy
(E) the ear bones in the middle ear
required to stimulate a receptor is the
(A) just noticeable difference (j.n.d.) 23. Todd is shown a card with the stimuli
(B) wavelength AAABBBCCC and is asked to report what he
(C) absolute threshold sees. Todd states that there are three groups of
(D) pattern theory different letters. This illustrates the rule of
(E) stimulus-receptor prompt perceptual organization known as
(A) similarity
19. Which of the following is TRUE about perceiv-
(B) gestalt
ing objects?
(C) closure
(A) Sensory adaptation allows us to focus on (D) continuation
one stimuli among many. (E) proximity
(B) Our eyes must continuously quiver in order
to counteract the effects of sensory 24. Binocular vision provides clues regarding
adaptation.
(C) Weber’s law is another term for the absolute (A) depth and distance
threshold. (B) brightness and hue
(D) Perception occurs independently of expecta- (C) timber and pitch
tions. (D) color and size
(E) Perception is the same as sensation. (E) complexity and shape

20. Cones, unlike rods, will respond to 25. You have met and seen Juan Perez only in your
psychology class. You are MOST likely to
(A) movement but not color recognize Juan if you see him
(B) color but not movement
(C) movement but not brightness (A) as a patrolman directing traffic
(D) brightness but not movement (B) studying in the library
(E) both movement and color (C) swimming at the beach
(D) close up
(E) eating at an expensive restaurant

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CLEP PSYCHOLOGY PRACTICE TEST

26. Each one of the sleep stages can be objectively 31. Which of the following is TRUE about hypnosis?
identified as different from the other stages by
(A) Under hypnosis, people can be forced to do
means of
things that violate their morals.
(A) specific body positions (B) Everyone can be hypnotized.
(B) the amount of eye movement (C) Psychologists generally agree that hypnosis
(C) heart and breathing rates is indeed a divided state of consciousness.
(D) EEG recordings (D) Hypnosis has enabled some people to go
(E) blood pressure through surgical procedures without anes-
thetic.
27. Our most vivid dreams occur during (E) Recovered memories retrieved under
hypnosis are usually reliable.
(A) stage 1 sleep
(B) stage 2 sleep
32. “Learning is any relatively permanent change in
(C) stage 3 sleep
behavior” is an incomplete definition of learning
(D) stage 4 sleep
because it does not include the role of
(E) None of the above
(A) growth
28. Which of the following does NOT occur during (B) conditioning
REM sleep? (C) cognition
(D) experience
(A) Sleepwalking (E) reinforcement
(B) Heightened physiological arousal
(C) Sexual arousal – erections in males, lubrica-
33. Pavlov caused dogs to salivate to a neutral
tion in females
stimulus through a process known as
(D) Irregular heartbeat
(E) All of the above (A) classical conditioning
(B) operant conditioning
29. Delirium tremens are associated with (C) insight conditioning
(D) successive approximations
(A) addiction to any drug (E) cognitive learning
(B) Parkinson’s disease
(C) withdrawal from alcohol
34. In classical conditioning, the unconditioned
(D) anxiety disorders
response occurs when the
(E) withdrawal from stimulants
(A) reward is available
30. Which of the following drugs is a stimulant? (B) unconditioned stimulus is presented
(C) conditioned stimulus is presented
(A) Alcohol (D) conditioned response is blocked
(B) Heroin (E) unconditioned stimulus is removed
(C) Barbiturates
(D) LSD
(E) Cocaine

4
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35. Presenting the conditioned stimulus (CS) repeat- 39. In general, learning takes place more rapidly with
edly without an accompanying unconditioned
(A) continuous reinforcement
stimulus (UCS) generally results in
(B) partial reinforcement
(A) punishment (C) random reinforcement
(B) generalization (D) no reinforcement
(C) discrimination (E) intermittent reinforcement
(D) the conditioned response
(E) extinction 40. Systematically applying principles of operant
conditioning to influence and change behavior is
36. When a child learns not to use swear words in referred to as
front of his parents, but does so in front of
(A) observational learning
friends, the child is exhibiting the principle of
(B) mind control
(A) stimulus discrimination (C) classical conditioning
(B) classical conditioning (D) psychotherapy
(C) stimulus generalization (E) behavior modification
(D) selective extinction
(E) response generalization 41. Jenna is very frustrated because her cat keeps
jumping up on the counter, even though she had
37. It is often suggested that classically conditioned spent a lot of time trying to train him not to do
responses are _____, whereas operantly condi- so. Which concept of learning should Jenna
tioned responses are _____. MOST be aware of?
(A) voluntary, involuntary (A) Negative reinforcement
(B) aversive, appetitive (B) Positive reinforcement
(C) aversive, reflexive (C) Instinctual drift
(D) reflexes, voluntary (D) Preparedness
(E) appetitive, aversive (E) Latent learning

38. A psychology student is training a rat to climb a 42. A parent who deliberately ignores a child’s
ladder. She first rewards the rat for any move- temper tantrum is attempting to discourage
ment it makes toward the ladder, and then only tantrums by
when the rat actually makes contact with the
(A) negative reinforcement
ladder. Eventually, the rat must successfully
(B) extinction
climb the ladder in order to obtain the reward.
(C) positive reinforcement
This student has used the behavioral technique of
(D) operant avoidance
(A) shaping (E) learned helplessness
(B) stimulus discrimination
(C) negative reinforcement
(D) positive reinforcement
(E) modeling

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CLEP PSYCHOLOGY PRACTICE TEST

43. Being aware of the sound presently being made 48. The speech sounds made by infants
in this room is an example of
(A) are specific to the language of their culture
(A) recall (B) represent sounds from two or three different
(B) sensory memory languages
(C) retroactive interference (C) include speech sounds used in virtually all
(D) flashbulb memory languages
(E) short-term memory (D) are unrelated to eventual language develop-
ment
44. Ishmael wishes to remember the phone number (E) are different from those used in any lan-
of an attractive woman he just met. The MOST guage
likely strategy he will use is
49. In the Stanford-Binet test, IQ is defined as
(A) mnemonics
(B) semantics (A) ability to learn and adapt
(C) relearning (B) MA/CA x 100
(D) rehearsal (C) CA/MA x 100
(E) recall (D) the sum of the verbal and non-verbal scales
(E) the person’s mental age
45. A “fill in the blank” type of examination would
usually measure 50. Studies of identical twins do not provide conclu-
sive evidence of the effect of genetics on intelli-
(A) explicit memory
gence, because
(B) recognition
(C) relearning (A) identical twins reared apart are usually
(D) recall selectively placed in environments that are
(E) chunking as similar as possible
(B) the studies are too few in number to be
46. If you memorize the letters FBIKEGUCLA as conclusive
FBI-KEG-UCLA, you have used a (C) identical twins reared together do not share
technique known as exactly the same environment
(D) the twins who are subjects in such studies
(A) chunking typically have not been separated soon
(B) recognition enough to rule out environmental effects
(C) relearning (E) identical twins share only about 75 percent
(D) encoding visual characteristic of the same genes
(E) RNA
51. If a test measures what it is intended to measure,
47. The basic sounds of a language are called it has
(A) morphemes (A) objectivity
(B) semantics (B) reliability
(C) syntax (C) replicability
(D) vocabulary (D) validity
(E) phonemes (E) standardization

6
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CLEP PSYCHOLOGY PRACTICE TEST

52. An emotion is comprised of all of the following 56. The correct order of Masters’and Johnson’s
EXCEPT stages of sexual response is
(A) arousal, plateau, resolution, orgasm
(A) changes in physiology
(B) excitement, plateau, resolution, orgasm
(B) cognitive awareness
(C) excitement, resolution, orgasm, plateau
(C) possible changes in feeling
(D) arousal, resolution, plateau, orgasm
(D) goal-directed behavior
(E) excitement, plateau, orgasm, resolution
(E) All of the choices are part of an emotion

57. Good advice to parents who want to encourage


53. When people of varying cultures were asked to
high achievement in their children is to
match facial expressions with specific emotions
(A) reward good performance, admonish bad
(A) there was little agreement, even among
performance
people from the same culture
(B) let children learn on their own the value of
(B) there was agreement within a specific
achievement
culture, but not across cultures
(C) let children learn their lessons “the hard
(C) people from underdeveloped societies had
way”
responses not seen in industrial societies
(D) don’t let children know about your personal
(D) there was remarkable agreement among
hardships or dissatisfactions with life
members of all cultures
(E) don’t hold high achieving people up as
(E) all cultures had exactly the same expres-
models
sions

58. The correct order of Maslow’s needs hierarchy is


54. The regulation of temperature in humans and
other mammals provides a good example of the (A) physiological needs, safety, love and
general physiological process of belonging, esteem, self-actualization
(B) safety, physiological needs, love and
(A) arousal
belonging, esteem, self-actualization
(B) habituation
(C) physiological needs, safety, esteem, love
(C) homeostasis
and belonging, self-actualization
(D) object incentive
(D) physiological needs, safety, love and
(E) metabolism
belonging, esteem, self-actualization
(E) physiological needs, love and belonging,
55. The sex hormone in females is _____ and the sex safety, esteem, self-actualization
hormone in males is _____.
(A) estrogen, androgen 59. At conception, the original fertilized cell consists
(B) endorphins, androgens of forty-six
(C) estrogen, endorphins
(A) chromosomes
(D) androgen, estrogen
(B) genes
(E) androgen, glycogen
(C) molecules of DNA
(D) gametes
(E) nuclei

7
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CLEP PSYCHOLOGY PRACTICE TEST

60. A harmful substance that can cross the placenta 64. It is likely that the cause of anorexia is
and harm the fetus is called a(an)
(A) social messages toward thinness
(A) contaminant (B) hormone or other biological imbalances
(B) teratogen (C) a desire to control one’s body
(C) carcinogen (D) low self-esteem
(D) enzyme (E) All of the choices are correct
(E) pathogen
65. According to Erik Erikson, adolescents are
61. Jean Piaget was a Swiss psychologist who was primarily dealing with concerns related to
interested PRIMARILY in children’s
(A) generativity versus self-absorption
(A) physical development (B) identity versus confusion
(B) sexual development (C) trust versus mistrust
(C) cognitive development (D) ego integrity vs despair
(D) emotional development (E) intimacy versus isolation
(E) moral development
66. Severe intellectual and emotional impairment in
62. Joe is four years old. He watches as you pour out older people is MOST likely to be caused by
the same amount of juice into two identical
(A) Alzheimer’s disease
glasses, one for him and one for his friend. He
(B) diabetes
correctly tells you that there is the same amount
(C) Parkinson’s disease
of juice in each glass. However, if you pour the
(D) atherosclerosis
contents of one of the glasses into a taller,
(E) Huntington’s disease
thinner glass, he says he wants that one “because
there’s more juice in it.” Joe has not yet mastered
the principle of 67. Psychodynamic theory was originally
developed by
(A) egocentrism
(B) object permanence (A) Carl Rogers
(C) conservation (B) Carl Jung
(D) correspondence (C) Alfred Adler
(E) concreteness (D) Erich Fromm
(E) Sigmund Freud
63. Secondary sex characteristics are those that
68. Freud compared the unconscious mind to an
(A) appear near the end of puberty iceberg because it is
(B) make pregnancy possible in pubescent girls
(C) tend to occur only in females (A) cold and calculating
(D) are generally not noticeable (B) unpredictable
(E) are not directly related to reproductive (C) very old
organs (D) mostly hidden from view
(E) very large

8
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69. Which of the following statements BEST 73. Social learning theory emphasizes the phenom-
describes the structure of personality as enon of
Sigmund Freud saw it?
(A) observational learning
(A) The ego originates from the superego. (B) positive reinforcement
(B) The id mediates between the superego and (C) self-actualization
the ego. (D) introversion-extroversion
(C) The superego is the most powerful unit in (E) personality types
the personality.
(D) The ego mediates between the id and the 74. If you would enjoy roaming around the world
superego. but would also enjoy the rewards of settling
(E) The id originates from the superego. down, you are experiencing a(n)
(A) bi-dimensional conflict
70. According to Freudian theory, the Oedipus
(B) approach-approach conflict
complex is resolved through the process of
(C) avoidance-avoidance conflict
(A) regression (D) approach-avoidance conflict
(B) identification (E) double approach-avoidance conflict
(C) modeling
(D) repression 75. A characteristic typically possessed by stress-
(E) sublimation resistant individuals is a(n)
(A) Type A personality
71. In breaking away from Freud, Alfred Adler
(B) pessimistic explanatory style
proposed that people
(C) sense of personal control
(A) inherit the learned behaviors of their ancestors. (D) tendency to attribute successes to good
(B) suffer from fixations in the early psycho- fortune
sexual stages (E) active pituitary gland
(C) attempt to overcome feelings of inferiority.
(D) suffer from strong biological urges 76. What is the role of genes in the development of
(E) have an ancestral memory called the collec- most mental disorders?
tive unconscious
(A) Genetic factors can predispose us to develop
mental disorders.
72. Jim is able to accept his friend despite the fact that
(B) Genetic factors cause mental disorders.
he doesn’t approve of some of the things his friend
(C) There is no way to determine whether
does. Carl Rogers would say that, in accepting
various mental disorders have any genetic
his friend regardless of his flaws, without closed-
bases.
minded judgment, Jim is displaying
(D) Genetic factors typically only cause disor-
(A) conditions of worth ders if they are found on “both sides” of
(B) self-actualization the family.
(C) an incongruence (E) The environment is a more important factor
(D) social approval than genes in predicting whether or not a
(E) unconditional positive regard mental disorder will develop.

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77. Schizophrenics have been found to have an 82. The psychodynamic approach to the treatment of
excess of the neurotransmitter psychological disorders is based on the assump-
tion that maladaptive behavior
(A) dopamine
(B) thorazine (A) is learned, and therapy should teach the
(C) noradrenaline client more adaptive behavior
(D) endorphins (B) is caused by imbalances in biochemical
(E) serotonin functioning of the brain
(C) occurs when the client no longer feels that
78. A person who is overly energetic and hyperac- life is meaningful
tive, makes grandiose plans, and (D) is the result of problems in living
experiences feelings of omnipotence is (E) is related to unresolved childhood conflicts
(A) schizoid 83. Compared with traditional Freudians, modern
(B) hysterical psychodynamic therapists tend to give greater
(C) manic emphasis to the
(D) obsessive
(E) anal-retentive (A) patient’s social and cultural environment
(B) patient’s early childhood experiences
79. People diagnosed as having a(n) _______ (C) patient’s unconscious conflicts
disorder outnumber all other groups of mentally (D) use of applied behavior analysis
ill individuals. (E) role of self-actualization

(A) conversion 84. The ability to understand accurately the feelings


(B) psychotic of a client is called
(C) affective
(A) sympathy
(D) anxiety
(B) reflection
(E) personality
(C) unconditional positive regard
(D) empathy
80. A seemingly charming, candid, generous person
(E) congruence
who lies freely, forms no close ties, and is selfish
and remorseless, is probably a(n) 85. Aversive conditioning is a form of
(A) antisocial personality (A) behavior therapy
(B) histrionic personality disorder (B) cognitive therapy
(C) narcissistic personality (C) desensitization
(D) schizoid personality (D) dissonance
(E) autistic personality (E) learning by observation

81. Dissociative identity disorder is synonymous 86. Imagining fearful situations while remaining
with relaxed involves a technique called
(A) multiple personality disorder (A) systematic desensitization
(B) schizophrenia (B) extinction
(C) hysteria (C) catastrophizing
(D) pathological impulse control (D) flooding
(E) sexual dysfunction (E) aversive conditioning.

10
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CLEP PSYCHOLOGY PRACTICE TEST

87. Self-help groups are effective for all of the 91. If the source of information is judged to be of
following reasons EXCEPT low credibility, most people will
(A) the bonds with others (A) be persuaded anyway
(B) the insight offered by a trained therapist (B) experience cognitive dissonance
(C) the availability of models with whom to (C) disregard the information
identify (D) ask for proof to support the source’s position
(D) the feeling that one is not alone in his or her (E) feel altruistic toward the speaker
problem
(E) the reassurance that most stress reactions 92. When a person’s behavior is assigned to an external
are normal cause, the type of attribution made is _____; when
a person’s behavior is assigned to an internal cause,
88. Since the introduction of drug treatment approxi-
the type of attribution made is _____.
mately twenty-five years ago, the percentage of
the population in the United States that is (A) stable, unstable
hospitalized for mental disorders has (B) dispositional, situational
(C) global, specific
(A) increased substantially
(D) situational, dispositional
(B) increased slightly
(E) specific, external
(C) remained constant
(D) decreased
(E) fluctuated vastly 93. A mother who is certain her children cannot
make decisions encourages dependent behavior
89. Electroconvulsive shock that confirms her opinion of them, exemplifying
(A) is most often used to treat severely depressed (A) self-perception theory
patients (B) the theory of social comparison.
(B) is largely ineffective (C) expedient conformity.
(C) has no known undesirable side effects (D) a self-fulfilling prophecy.
(D) is most often used to treat schizophrenic (E) cognitive dissonance
patients
(E) has no therapeutic value for treating mental 94. Research suggests that a tendency to conform is
illness greater for _____ than for Americans.

90. Cognitive dissonance is BEST described as (A) Austrians


(B) French
(A) feelings of discomfort generated by incon- (C) Canadians
sistency between a person’s beliefs and (D) Japanese
actions (E) Mexicans
(B) negative feelings generated when someone
unduly threatens one’s freedoms
(C) a denial of a discrepancy between beliefs
and actions
(D) negative feelings generated when exposed
to arguments against one’s attitudes
(E) a state of heightened self-awareness that
motivates one to perform an objective
self appraisal

11
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CLEP PSYCHOLOGY PRACTICE TEST

95. Among Stanley Milgram’s subjects who were 98. The results of IQ testing suggest that
pressured to give “electrical shocks” to a
(A) the average IQ is well above 100
“learner” (actually an actor)
(B) IQ cannot be tested reliably
(A) almost none would shock the subject at all (C) IQ scores approximate a normal distribution
(B) about 30 percent delivered some level of (D) IQ is an excellent predictor of emotional
electrical shock adjustment
(C) about 30 percent delivered an apparently (E) IQ tests are a direct measure of intelligence
painful shock
(D) nearly two thirds delivered an apparently 99. A normal curve of distribution is a set of scores
painful shock with
(E) nearly 90 percent delivered an apparently
painful shock (A) a high standard deviation
(B) most scores near one end of the range
(C) approximately equal numbers of scores
96. In which case would social loafing MOST likely
from one end of the range to the other
occur?
(D) most scores in the middle of the range
(A) Two friends decide to share the driving on a (E) most scores at the high and low ends of the
road trip. range
(B) Five students are assigned to do a group
project. 100. For a representative sample of identical twins,
(C) Students decide to study together for the law the correlation coefficient between their IQs
school entrance exam. was found to be .80. Hence, we can say that
(D) Several skydiving instructors share joint
responsibility for safety checks. (A) 80 percent of IQ is inherited
(E) All of the choices are equally likely to (B) 80 percent of IQ is due to environmental
create social loafing. effects
(C) IQ and inherited genes are strongly related
(D) identical twins usually have identical IQs
97. Which of the following is TRUE about the
(E) IQ is barely related to heredity
relationship between frustration and aggression?
(A) Frustration always causes aggression.
(B) Biological factors are more important than
social factors in aggressive behavior.
(C) Whether or not frustration will result in
aggression depends on cognitive appraisal.
(D) Frustration is likely to cause aggression in
children but depression in adults.
(E) Aggression is always a sign that frustration
and depression are present in an individual.

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