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TISSNET & TISSMAT 2021

QUIZTOPIA
COMPILED VERSION

Table of Contents
General Knowledge...................................................................................................................................................................2

Mathematics ............................................................................................................................................................................. 56

English ........................................................................................................................................................................................ 86

HRM .......................................................................................................................................................................................... 107

1 Aspirants Relations Committee, HRM & LR, TISS Mumbai


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General Knowledge

Q-1 Which of these visionaries was the architect of Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus (CST)?

a) GG Scott
b) FW Stevens
c) Charles Stevens
d) William Emerson

Q-2 Name of the 2nd edition of India-Bangladesh Navy Bilateral Exercise?

a) BIMSTEC
b) VARUNA
c) BONGOSAGAR
d) SAMPRITI

Q-3) Which Bank has decided to sell two of its wholly owned subsidiaries to GPL Finance and
Investments Limited?

a) HDFC Bank
b) ICICI Bank
c) Yes Bank
d) Kotak Mahindra Bank

Q-4) Human Rights group Amnesty International has announced to quit from which country?
a) United States
b) India
c) China
d) North Korea

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Q5) Which Indian actor has been conferred with UNDP’s SDG Special Humanitarian Action
Award?
a) Amitabh Bachchan
b) Shah Rukh Khan
c) Sonu Sood
d) Deepika Padukone

Q6) ‘Swachhata Ke 6 Saal, Bemisaal’ is a tagline used to commemorate six years of completion
of which scheme?
a) Swachh Bharat Mission-Urban
b) Swachh Bharat Mission-Gramin
c) Namami Gange
d) Gandagi Mukt Bharat

Q7) Who has been appointed as the new Labour secretary to the Government of India?
a) Rajesh Kumar
b) Apurva Chandra
c) Rakesh Sharma
d) Rajeev Shukhla

Q8) What is the name of the typhoon that hit North Korea recently?
a) Maysak
b) Camphene
c) Haishen
d) Lisa

Q9) Which state has launched the scheme named YSR Sampoorna Poshana?
a) Telangana
b) Andhra Pradesh
c) Madhya Pradesh
d) Odisha

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Q10) Who has been elected as the new head of Japan's ruling party?
a) Yoshihide Suga
b) Shinzo Abe
c) Kazushige Ugaki
d) Tanaka Giichi

Q11) Which airline is the first Indian carrier to offer Wi-Fi inside flights?
a) Air India
b) Indigo
c) Spice Jet
d) Vistara

Q12) UAE starts its first-ever nuclear reactor "Barakah" at Abu Dhabi in a joint venture with the
Emirates Nuclear Energy Corporation (ENEC) and __________.

a)Siemens
b)KEPCO
c)Enel
d) KT Corporation

Q13 )JIMEX is a maritime exercise between which two nations?


a) USA and UK
b) India and Japan
c) India and Jamaica
d) India and Russia

Q14) Who won the Eifel Grand Prix in Germany?

a) Lewis Hamilton

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b)Valteri Bottas
c)MaxVersteppen
d)None of these

Q15) World obesity day will now onwards be observed on which date
a) 18 January
b) 25 February
c) 4 March
d) 20 October

Q16) Who approved 300 million US dollar loan for Rajasthan's water supply

a) World Bank
b)NABARD
c)RBI
d)ADB

Q17) Who has been named as UEFA Men's Player Of The Year?
a) Lionel Messi
b)Cristiano Ronaldo
c)Robert Lewandowski
d)Neymar

Q18) Who launched "Earthshot Prize" to boost climate innovation


a) Narendra Modi
b) Prince William
c) Donald Trump
d) Vladmir Putin

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Q19) How many new species were added to India's diversity in 2019
a) 544
b) 492
c) 344
d) 287

Q20) Which state/ UT has become the 1st 'Har Ghar Jal' state by providing FHTCs to every
rural household?
a) Uttar Pradesh
b) Goa
c) Punjab
d) Haryana

Q21) What is the Current Repo Rate of India?


a) 3.5%
b) 4.4%
c) 4%
d)3.8%

Q22) Which state partnered with India Post to enrol 1,000 farmers in the Pradhan Mantri
Kisan Samman Nidhi scheme?
a)Gujrat
b) Kerala
c) Maharashtra
d)Goa

Q23) Aava Murto assumed the post of prime minister of which country for 1 day on
occasion of UN International Day of Girl Child on 11th October,2020?
a) Sweden
b) Russia
c) Finland
d)Norway

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Q24) Eddie Van Halen, who was passed away was a renowned person of which field
a) Environment
b) Choreography
c) Music
d) Literature

Q25) International Day of the Girl Child is being observed on which date?
a) 9 October
b) 10 October
c) 11 October
d)12October

Q26) What is the name of the World War II bomb that was detonated underwater in
Poland?
a)Fat Man
b)Little Boy
c)Tall Boy
d)Small Man

Q27) What is the latest IMF forecast for global growth in the wake of COVID-19
pandemic?

a)-4.4percent
b)-4.8percent
c)-5.1percent
d)-3.7 percent

Q28) Which country will launch the world’s first asteroid mining robot into space in
November2020?
a)US
b)Japan

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c)Russia
d)China

Q29) The United States has announced fresh sanctions against individuals from which
nation?
a)North Korea
b)Iraq
c)Turkey
d)Syria

Q30) What is a zombie fire?

a)Fire that has no known source


b)Fire that smoulders underground and reignites when weather warms
c)Fire that is caused by zombies, aliens
d)Fire that blazes in uninhabited areas

Q31) Who has won the Nobel Peace Prize 2020?


a)The World Health Organization
b)Jacinda Ardern
c)Donald Trump
d)World Food Programme

Q32) The Nobel Prize for Physiology or Medicine has been awarded to three scientists for
the discovery of which virus?

a)Hepatitis C
b)Ebola
c)H1NI
d)COVID-19

Q33) Which state government has passed a Tree Transplantation Policy?

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a)Delhi
b)Uttar Pradesh
c)Karnataka
d)Kerala

Q34) India will be launching a constellation of maritime surveillance satellites along with
which nation?
a)Israel
b)US
c)France
d)Russia

Q35) Which nation’s government has resigned ahead of General Elections 2020?
a)Qatar
b)UAE
c)Bahrain
d)Kuwait

Q36) Which nation has agreed to work with India towards operationalization of Sittwe Port in
the first quarter of 2021?
a)Myanmar
b)Iran
c)Bangladesh
d)Sri Lanka

Q37) Who has given scarcity definition of economics?

a) Adam Smith
b) Marshall
c) Robbins
d) Robertson

Q38) Marginal utility is equal to average utility at that time when average utility is

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a)Increasing
b) Maximum
c) Falling
d) Minimum

Q39) Total utility of a commodity is measured by which price of that commodity?

a) Value in use

b)Value in exchange

c) Both of above

d) None of above

Q40) The concept of Five year Plans in India was introduced by

a) Lord Mountbatten

b) Jawaharlal Nehru

c) Indira Gandhi

d) Lal Bahadur Shastri

Q41) India has:

a) Socialistic economy

b) Gandhian economy

c) Mixed economy

d) Free economy

Q42) National Development Council was set up in:

a) 1948

b) 1950

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c)1951

d)1952

Q43) For internal financing to Five Year Plans, the government depends on:

a) taxation only

b) taxation and public borrowing

c) public borrowing and deficit financing

d) taxation, public borrowing and deficit financing

Q44) A tax burden of which increases as income increases is called:

a) Regressive Tax
b)Income Tax
c) Higher Tax
d) Progressive Tax

Q45) More than 65% of working population of India is engaged in:

a) public sector
b) primary sector
c)secondary sector
d)tertiary sector

Q46) Economic survey is published by

a) Ministry of Finance

b) Planning Commission

c) Govt of India

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d) Indian Statistical Institute

Q47) The number of major ports in India is

a) 5
b) 8
c) 13
d) 15

Q48)Jadugoda mines are famous for

a) Iron ore
b) Mica deposits
c) Gold deposits
d) Uranium Deposits

Q49)India meets most of the requirements of fertilizer through imports.

a) nitrogenous
b) potassic
c) phosphatic
d) chemical

Q50) Paraffin is a by-product of :

a) petroleum
b) copper industry
c) steel industry
d) Coking coal

Q51) Which city is called the 'Boston of the east ?

a) Mumbai
b) Ahmedabad
c) Coimbatore
d) Madurai

Q52) Which city is called the Manchester of South India ?

a) Coimbatore
b) Sholapur

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c) Madurai
d) Chennai

Q53) Rana Partap Sagar Plant ( Rajasthan) is associated with:

a) nuclear power
b) solar energy
c) hydroelectricity
d) irrigation

Q54) The Matatia multipurpose project is located in :

a) Punjab
b) Madhya Pradesh
c) Uttar Pradesh
d) Arunachal Pradesh

Q55) The largest shipyard of India is located at

a) Mumbai
b) Haldia
c) Vishakhapatnam
d) Kochi

Q55) Which region has a well-developed petrochemical industry ?

a) Gujarat- Maharashtra
b) Madhya Pradesh -Bihar
c) Tamil Nadu- Karnataka
d) kolkata- Asansol

Q56) Which of the following is the oldest atomic power station ?

a) Kalpakkam
b) Tarapur
c) Narora
d) Kota

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Q57) Which coalfield is the largest producer in India ?

a) Talcher
b) Raniganj
c) Bokaro
d) Jharia

Q58)Through which port is the iron ore from Bailadia exported ?

a) Marmagao
b) Haldia
c) Chennai
d) viskhapatnam

Q59) Which one of the following States of India is the largest producer of Lignite coal ?

a) Maharashtra
b) Gujarat
c) Madhya pradesh
d) Tamil Nadu

Q60) Korba Thermal power is located in :

a) Madhya Pradesh
b) Chhattisgarh
c) Tamil Nadu
d) Assam

Q61) The colour of the star is an indication of its

a) Distance from the earth


b) Distance from the sun
c) Temperature
d) Luminosity

Q62) The Asteroid belt is found between which of the following?

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a) Earth and Mars


b) Jupiter and Saturn
c) Mars and Jupiter
d) Saturn and Uranus

Q63) Which one of the following is the largest satellite in the solar system?

a) Ganymede
b) Titan
c) Europa
d) Triton

Q64) The distance of Moon from the Earth is

a) 384 thousand kms.


b) 300 thousand kms.
c) 350 thousand kms.
d) 446 thousand kms.

Q65) Which one of the following planets rotates clockwise?


a) Earth
b) Mars
c) Venus
d) Mercury

Q66) The equator passes through


a) Cameroon
b) Costa Rica
c) Kenya
d) Venezuela

Q67) 90° E Ridge lies in

a) Atlantic ocean
b) Indian ocean
c) Pacific ocean
d) Mediterranean ocean

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Q68) The intersection point of the Prime Meridian and the Equator

lies in

a) Atlantic ocean
b) Ghana
c) Morocco
d) Pacific ocean

Q69) Which river of Africa crosses the Tropic of Capricorn twice?

a) Congo
b) Limpopo
c) Niger
d) Zambezi

Q70) Isopleth depicting the same mean value of sun shine is termed

a) Isonephs
b) Isorums
c) Isohels
d) Isohyets

Q71) Which of the following two countries are separated by the 38th

parallel?

a) France and Germany


b) USA and Canada
c) North Korea and South Korea
d) Mexico and USA

Q72) International Date line is


a) equator
b) 0° longitude
c) 90° east longitude
d) 180° east-west longitude

Q73) Which continent of the world does not have a desert?

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a) Australia
b) Europe
c) Asia
d) North America

Q74)The leading producer of both rice and wheat in the world is

a) China
b) India
c) Russia
d) U.S.A.

Q75) Which one of the following is the wettest place in India?

a) Udhagamandalam
b) Mahabaleshwar
c) Cherrapunji
d) Mawsynram

Q76) In which part of India is Dandakaranaya situated ?

a) Northern
b) Eastern
c) Central
d) Western

Q77)The highest peak of south india is

a) Dodabeta
b) Anamudi
c) Mahendragire
d) Yercaud

Q78) Pir Panjal Range in the Himalayas is a part of

a) Shiwalik
b) Trans Himalaya
c) Central Himalaya
d) Lesser Himalaya

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Q79)The hill station of Coonoor is located in which one of the

following states?

a) Karnataka
b) Andhra Pradesh
c) Kerala
d) Tamil Nadu

Q80) In which State of India, Fulhar Lake is situated ?

a) Madhya Pradesh
b) Uttarakhand
c) Uttar Pradesh
d) Bihar

Q81) Which amongst the following States gets the highest average annual rainfall?

a) Arunachal Pradesh
b) Sikkim
c) Kerala
d) Jammu & Kashmir

Q82) Which of the following passes is in Arunachal Pradesh?

a) Bomdila Pass
b) Rohtang Pass
c) Bara Lachan Pass
d) Shipki La Pass

Q83)The reservoir GB Pant Sagar is located on which river?

a) Betwa
b) Ghaghara
c) Kosi
d) Rihand

Q84)Which crop is afflicted by the disease called red rot ?

a) Rice
b) Wheat

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c) Bajra
d) Sugarcane

Q85) In India more than half of the production of soyabean comes from

a) Andhra Pradesh
b) Madhya Pradesh
c) Maharashtra
d) Rajasthan

Q86 )Which one of the major source of irrigation in India?

a) Canals
b) Tanks
c) Wells and Tubewells
d) Other sources

Q87)Which state has per hectare highest consumption of fertilizers in India?

a) Punjab
b) Gujarat
c) Uttarakhand
d) Goa

Q88) ‘Pusa Sindhu Ganga’ is a variety of—

a) Wheat
b) Paddy
c) Lentil
d) Gram

Q89) Where is the First Biosphere Reserve of India is located?

a) Nilgiri
b) Nanda Devi
c) Sunder van
d) Great Nicobar

Q90) The mineral oil was first discovered in India in

a) Naharkatiya
b) Mumbai

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c) Ankleshwar
d) Digboi

Q91) The largest reserve of crude oil in India is found in

a) Assam
b) Gujarat
c) Eastern offshore
d) Western offshore

Q92) Taranjeet Singh was appointed as the Country Director for India for this company.

a) Twitter
b) Facebook
c) Flickr
d) Tumblr

Q93) When did the World Heart Day being Celebrated?

a) 27 September
b) 28 September
c) 29 September
d)30 September

Q94) Airtel Payments Bank partnered with this insurance company to offer "Smart Plan Shop
Package Policy".

a) Bajaj Allianz General Insurance


b) Bharti AXA General Insurance
c) TATA AIG Insurance Company
d) HDFC ERGO General Insurance Company

Q95) Where is Rani Jhansi Marine national park situated?

a) Uttarakhand
b) Gujarat
c) Andaman and Nicobar
d) Himachal Pradesh

Q96) Which of the below following is the creative factor of production?

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a) Consumers
b) Human Resources
c) Land
d) Capital

Q97) Which financial institution releases the ‘Consumer confidence Survey’?

a) RBI
b) SEBI
c) SIDBI
d) MUDRA

Q98) Which Indian wrestler won the Gold medal at the Rome Ranking Series 2020 event, held
recently?
a) Geeta Phogat
b) Babita Phogat
c) Vinesh Phogat
d) Sakshi Malik

Q99)Which of the following is not a SAARC country?


a) Maldives
b) Myanmar
c) Afghanistan
d) Bhutan

Q 100) The largest lift irrigation project Kaleshwaram project is in which state?

a)Andhra Pradesh
b)) Telangana
c) Kerala
d) Karnataka

Q 101) India shares the longest international boundary with which country?

a)Bangladesh
b) Bhutan

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c) China
d) pakistan

Q102) C.K. Naidu Cup is associated with which of the following sporting events?

a) Hockey
b) Cricket
c) Golf
d) Badminton

Q103) With Which of the following sports M Vijayakrishna Memorial Cup is related to ?
a) Badminton
b) Table Tennis
c) Horse Races
d) Polo

Q104)“National Football Museum” which keeps FIFA collection is located in which country?
a) Switzerland
b) Canada
c) England
d) France

Q105)Which among the following is played on a synthetic hard court?


a) French Open
b) Wimbledon
c) US open
d) Australia open

Q106) Which is the highest governing body of Badminton in the world?


a) International Badminton Association
b) Badminton Association of the World
c) Badminton World Federation
d)International Badminton Federation

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Q107) 73rd Amendment of the Constitution of India, is related to which among the following?
a) Townships
b) Panchayats
c) Municipalities
d) District Boards

Q108) Which of the following is the first and the oldest federation in the world?
a) Canada
b) Japan
c) USA
d) India

Q109) Which of the following are the unitary features of the government of India?
1. Strong Centre
2. No Equality of State Representation
3. Emergency Provisions
4. All-India Services
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
a) Only 1
b) Only 1 & 3
c) Only 1, 2 & 3
d) All of the above

Q110) How many electors are needed for nomination of a candidate for election to the office of
Vice-President?
a) 10
b) 20
c) 30
d) 50

Q111) Which of the following is not one of the essential qualifications for the candidature of
President?

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a) Citizen of India
b) Qualified for election as a member of the house of people
c) Completion of 35 years of age
d) Tenth pass

Q112) Hornbill Festival is celebrated in which state of India?


a) Manipur
b)Nagaland
c)Meghalaya
d) Mizoram

Q113)Famous sufi saint Nizamuddin Auliya settled in Delhi during the time of __:
a) Akbar
b) Jahangir
c) Shahjahan
d) Aurangjeb

Q114) Pancha mahal is located in:


a) Agra
b) Delhi
c) Fatehpur Sikri
d) Sikandara

Q115) Which state of India is associated with the Folk Dance Teratali?
a) Haryana
b) Rajasthan
c) Punjab
d) Gujarat

Q116) Which Institution has the final authority to interpret the Constitution of India?

a) President
b) Supreme Court

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c)Prime minister
d) Attorney General of India

Q117) Golden Revolution in India refers to growth of

a) Oil seeds
b) Horticulture
c) Fish
d)Militancy in the north-east

Q118) What is the meaning of "Public Interest Litigation"?

a) Anything of public interest


b) A case brought by the victim to court, involving public interest.
c)A case brought by anyone to the court involving public interest
d)A directive issued by Supreme Court involving public interest

Q119) .Which title, given by the British Government to Mahatma Gandhi, was surrendered
during the non- cooperation movement?

a)Hind Kesari
b)Rai Bahadur
c)Rt. Honourable
d)Kaiser - e Hind

Q120) Which of the following groups of rivers have their source of origin in Tibet?

a)Brahmaputra, Indus, Sutlej


b)Ganga, Sutlej & Yamuna
c)Brahmaputra, Ganga & Sutlej
d)Chenab, Ravi & Sutlej

Q121). HRIDAY scheme launched by Urban Development Ministry aims at


a) Education of girl child

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b) Development of smart cities


c) Urban sewage treatment
d). Development of heritage sites

Q122) Who introduced the "Doctrine of Lapse" to expand British territories in India?
a) Lord Hastings
b). Lord Wellesley
c). Lord William Bentinck
d). Lord Dalhousie

Q123) The most ideal region for the cultivation of cotton in India is
a) The Brahmaputra Valley
b) The Deccan Plateau
c) The Indo-Gangetic Valley
d) The Rann of Kutch

Q124) The Reserve Bank of India has extended the Interest subvention on MSME loans till
which date?
a) November 30, 2020
b) December 31, 2020
c) March 31, 2021
d) June 30, 2021

Q125) Which among the following personalities is known for publishing the Mooknayak (Leader
of the Silent) in Mumbai ?

a) GG Agarkar
b) K. M. Munshi
c) Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar
d) Shyamji Krishna Varma

Q126) Striped Bubble-nest frog (Rohanixalus vittatus) was recently in new as a new genus of
treefrog found in which State/Union territory?

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a) Kerala
b) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
c) Assam
d) Tamil Nadu

Q127) Which state governor gave assent to 7.5% NEET quota Bill?

a) Maharashtra
b)Goa
c)Gujarat
d)Tamil Nadu

Q128) Which nation's army launched indigenous mobile application SAI?

a)USA
b)Indian
c)China
d)Russian

Q129)Which state CM Chandrasekhar Rao launched 'Dharani' Portal?

a)Andhra Pradesh

b)Chattisgarh

c)Telangana

d)Goa

Q130) When was World Cities Day being observed?

a) 29 October
b)30 October
c)31 October
d)1 November

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Q131) Which country hosted the 19th Meeting of SCO Ministers of Foreign Economy?

a) India
b)USA
c)Russia
d)UK

Q132) GARIMA scheme has been launched by which state for the core sanitation workers to
ensure their economic and social security?

a) Uttar Pradesh
b) Odisha
c) Gujarat
d) Andhra Pradesh

Q133) Name the player who has won the women’s single 2020 US Open Tennis tournament.

a) Naomi Osaka
b) Ashleigh Barty
c) Karolina Plískova
d) Bianca Andreescu

Q134) Feni Bridge is connecting India with which country?


a) Nepal
b) Sri Lanka
c) Bangladesh
d) Myanmar

Q 135) Who takes the final decision on whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not?

a) Finance Minister
b) Speaker
c) Vice President
d) Prime Minister

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Q 136) Which bank released the migration and development brief report?

a) RBI
b) WHO
c) World Bank
d)IMF

Q 137) What is the theme of World Cities Day 2020?

a) Building sustainable and resilient cities


b) Better City, Better Life
c) Valuing Our Communities and Cities
d) Innovative Governance, Open Cities

Q 138) Which company inked INR 400 Crore 'Project Parivartan' contract with Hindustan
Aeronautics Limited?

a) Reliance
b) Tech Mahindra
c) TATA
d) Birla

Q 139) Where did Super Typhoon Goni hit recently?

a) Texas
b) Los Angeles
c) Philippines
d) Barbados

Q 140) Which IIT developed "IITM COVID Game" to raise awareness?

a) IIT Guwahati
b) IIT Delhi

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c) IIT Madras
d) IIT Kanpur

Q 141) Which country's Naval Ship 'Airavat' reached Port Sudan under 'Mission Sagar-II'?

a) China
b) USA
c) India
d) Russia

Q 142) Ganga Utsav-2020 has been organised by the National Mission for Clean Ganga
(NMCG) jointly with which ministry?

a) Ministry of Jal Shakti


b) Ministry of Home Affairs
c)Ministry of Health
d) None of these

Q 143) Which insurance company launched a 'Life + 36 critical illness Insurance' plan on
Flipkart?

a) Aegon Life Insurance


b) LIC
c) Bharti AXA
d) ICICI Lombard

Q 144) Bangladesh and which nation launched the joint naval exercise CARAT Bangladesh
2020?

a) India
b)Pakistan
c) US
d) UK

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Q 145) Who won the International Children's peace prize 2020?

a) Divina Maloum
b) Licypriya Kangujam
c)Greta Thunberg
d) Sadat Rahman

Q 146) Which company launched the Make Small Strong campaign?

a) Microsoft
b) Google India
c) Facebook
d) Twitter

Q 147) Which of the following delivered the first hardware for Gaganyaan Launch Vehicle to
ISRO?

a) International Aerospace Manufacturing


b) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
c) Larsen & Toubro
d) Godrej Aerospace

Q 148)India's first maritime museum is to be established at which of the following sites?

a) Navinal
b) Amri
c) Lothal
d) Bet Dwarka

Q 149) The Bru/Rheang Tribe which was in the news, not found in which state from the
following?

a) Mizoram
b) Assam
c) Manipur
d) Nagaland

Q 150) 30th CORPAT exercise is being held between which countries?

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a) India- Sri Lanka


b) India- South Korea
c) India- Japan
d) India-Thailand

Q 151) Who is the author of the book named- The commonwealth of cricket?

a) Ramachandra Guha
b) Arundhati Roy
c) Khushwant Singh
d) Vikram Seth

Q 152) World Fisheries Day 2020 was recently celebrated in Meghalaya, what is the theme of
the program?

a) Social responsibility in the fisheries value chain


b) Innovation for Fisheries
c) Partnership and Innovation for Climate Resilient Fisheries
d) None of above

Q 153) Which company started Project Kirana with the United States Agency for International
Development?
a) Microsoft
b) MasterCard
c) Facebook
d) Goldman Sachs

Q 154) Douglas Stuart won the Booker prize 2020 for which novel?

a) Shuggie Bain
b) This Mournable Body
c) Burnt Sugar
d) The New Wilderness

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Q 155) Which organization organized the Para-Cycling expedition Infinity Ride 2020?

a) Border Security Force


b) Indian Mountaineering Foundation
c) Border Roads Organization
d) Military Engineer Services

Q 156) What is the theme of World Antimicrobial Awareness Week 2020 for the human health
sector?

a) Antimicrobials: handle with care


b) Antimicrobial Awareness for human health
c) Antimicrobial Awareness
d) United to preserve antimicrobials

Q 157) 'Natya - Shastra' the main source of India's classical dances was written by

a) Nara Muni
b) Bharat Muni
c) Abhinav Gupt
d) Tandu Muni

Q 158) Mohiniattam dance developed originally in which state?

a) Tamil Nadu
b) Orissa
c) Kerala
d) Karnataka

Q 159) Tripitakas are sacred books of

a) Buddhists
b) Hindus
c) Jains
d) None of the above

Q 160) The theory of economic drain of India during British imperialism was propounded by

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a) Jawaharlal Nehru
b) Dadabhai Naoroji
c) R.C. Dutt
d) M.K. Gandhi

Q 161) Under an agreement with which of the following countries did Subhas Chandra Bose
organized the Indian soldiers, taken as prisoners by the Axis Powers, into the Azad Hind Fauj?

a) China
b) Germany
c) Italy
d) Japan

Q 162) The use of Kharoshti in ancient Indian architecture is the result of India's contact with

a) Central Asia
b) Iran
c) Greece
d) China

Q 163) The minimum age to qualify for election to the Lok Sabha is

a) 25 years
b) 21 years
c) 18 years
d) 35 years

Q 164) The pension of a high court judge is charged to the

a)Consolidated Fund of India


b) Consolidated Fund of the state where he last served
c) Consolidated Funds of the different states where he has served
d) Contingency Fund of India

Q 165) The Objectives Resolution which laid down the main objectives to guide the
deliberations of the Assembly was moved by

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a) Sardar Patel
b)Jawaharlal Nehru
c) K.M. Munshi
d) B.R. Ambedkar

Q 166) The Parliament can restrict or abrogate by law, fundamental rights with respect to

a) the members of the armed forces


b) the forces charged with the maintenance of public order
c) the persons employed in any bureau or other organization established by the state for purpose
of intelligence
d) All of the above

Q 167) Preamble enshrines the ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity - ideals inspired by the

a) Russian Revolution
b) Irish Revolution
c) French Revolution
d) US Constitution

Q 168) The minimum number of members that must be present to hold the meeting of the Lok
Sabha is

a) one-fourth of the total membership


b) one-tenth of the total membership of the Houses
c) 50 percent strength of the Lok Sabha
d) at least 100 members

Q 169) The power to prorogue the Lok Sabha rests with

a) the speaker
b) the president
c) the prime minister
d) the minister for parliamentary affairs

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Q 170) The power of Supreme Court of India to decide the dispute between the centre and states
falls under its

a) advisory jurisdiction
b) appellate jurisdiction
c) original jurisdiction
d) constitutional jurisdiction

Q 171) The minimum age required to become a member of Rajya Sabha is

a) 21 years
b) 25 years
c) 30 years
d) 35 years

Q 172) Which short film has been selected as India’s official entry at the 93rd Academy
Awards?

a)Trapped
b)Shameless
c)Sound Proof
d)Natkhat

Q 173) Where is Hemsa national park situated?

a) Uttarakhand
b)Jammu and Kashmir
c) Tamil Nadu
d) Karnataka

Q 174) India signed a loan agreement worth USD 133 million with ADB to strengthen power
distribution in which state?

a)Meghalaya
b)Manipur
c)Assam
d)Tripura

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Q 175) The ”Marquess of Queensberry rules” is a code of generally accepted rules in which of
the following sports?
a) Chess
b) Boxing
c) Hockey
d) Tennis

Q 176) Which of the following industries is the not covered in the Index of Eight Core
Industries?

a) Electricity
b) Crude Oil
c) Natural Gas
d) Pharmaceuticals

Q 177) Rainfall in India depends on which among the following?


1. Distance from sea
2. Orographic profile
3. The latitudinal and longitudinal position
Choose the correct option from the codes given below :
a) 1 & 2
b) 1 & 3
c) 2 & 3
d) 1, 2 & 3

Q 178) Which tri-state sanctuary has been declared as an eco-sensitive zone (ESZ) recently?

a) National Chambal Sanctuary


b) Gir Wildlife Sanctuary
c) Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary
d) Corbett National Park

Q 179) As per the recent ‘Inclusive Internet Index 2020’ of the Economist Intelligence Unit
(EIU), which is the best-performing country in the world?
a) New Zealand
b) Sweden
c) Switzerland
d) United States

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Q 180) The government has invoked Epidemic Disease Act to make the health advisories
enforceable. When was the act enacted?
a) 1897
b) 1921
c) 1947
d) 1987

Q 181) Double fault, Fore hand, Back Hand, Smash are terms related to which of the following
sports?
a) Badminton
b) Volleyball
c) Basketball
d) Table Tennis

Q 182) Consider the following pairs:


Diwan-i-Kohi? Department of Agriculture
Diwan-i-Bandagan? Department of Slaves
Diwan-i-Risalat? Department of Appeals
Diwan-i-Arz? Military Department
Which of the above are correct?

a) 1, 2 & 3 Only
b) 2, 3 & 4 Only
c) 1, 3 & 4 Only
d) 1, 2, 3 & 4

Q 183) The Chauri Chaura Incident paved the way for the end of which among the following
movements?

a) Civil Disobedience Movement


b) Non-Cooperation Movement
c) Quit India Movement
d) Kheda Satyagraha

Q 184) In which of the following sessions Indian National Congress was split between two
groups: moderates and extremists?

a) Surat

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b) Lucknow
c) Delhi
d) Bombay

Q 185) Who was the Viceroy of India when Simon commission visited India?

a) Lord Hardinge II
b) Lord Chelmsford
c) Lord Irwin
d) Lord Minto II

Q 186) Who published the newspaper titled “Al-Hilal”?

a) Mahatma Gandhi
b) Jawaharlal Nehru
c) Md. Ali Jinnah
d) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad

Q 187) Consider the following journals/newspapers:


1. Young India
2. Indian Opinion
3. The Hitavada
Which of the above was/were published by Mahatma Gandhi?
a) 1 & 2 Only
b) 3 Only
c) 2 & 3 Only
d) 1, 2 & 3

Q 188) Consider the following statements about the Vernacular Press Act:
1. It was enacted by Lord Lytton
2. It came to be known as a “Gagging Act”
3. The Act was repealed by Lord Ripon
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 & 2 Only
b) 2 & 3 Only
c) 1 Only
d) 1, 2 & 3

189) Poona Pact was signed between which of the following?

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a) Gandhiji and Ramsay Macdonald


b) Gandhiji and B.R. Ambedkar
c) Gandhiji and Lord Irwin
d) B.R. Ambedkar and Lord Irwin

Q 190) The Santhals used to call the outsiders by which of the following names?

a) Chenchus
b) Kayali
c) Diku
d) Damin

Q 191) Which stock exchange was the first in Asia?


a) Bombay Stock Exchange
b)National Stock Exchange
c) Shanghai Stock Exchange
d) Tokyo Stock Exchange

Q 192) Which country will host The World Economic Forum 2021?

a) Iraq
b) Iran
c) Singapore
d) Bangladesh

Q 193) Which dance form will make its debut in the Olympics at the Paris games in 2024?

a) Jazz
b) Pole Dance
c) Break dancing
d) Aerobics

Q 194) Which is the first UT declared as 100% Organic?

a) Ladakh
b) Jammu and Kashmir
c) Delhi

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d) Lakshadweep

Q 195) For which purpose Kaspersky and CERT-In has announced a strategic partnership?

a) Improving Cyber Security


b) Atmanirbhar Krishi
c) Atmanirbhar Bharat
d) Improving Farming Sector

Q 196) According to GTI 2020, which country was affected most by Terrorism?

a) Afghanistan
b) Iraq
c) Nigeria
d) Syria

Q 197)Which of the following is the largest brackish water lagoon in Asia?

a) Chilika Lake
b) Loktak Lake
c) Wular Lake
d) Nal Sarovar

Q 198) The Buxa Tiger Reserve (BTR) is located in which state?

a) Odisha
b) Assam
c) Manipur
d) West Bengal

Q 199) Who wrote the famous novel ‘Anandamath’?

a) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar


b) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
c) Rabindranath Tagore
d) None of these

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Q 200) Which among the following Plan was known as the partition plan?

a) Macaulay Plan
b) Atlee Announcement
c) Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms
d) Mountbatten Plan

Q 201) Justice Hima Kohli has been sworn in as the first woman Chief Justice of which High
Court?

a) Bombay
b) Madras
c) Allahabad
d) Telangana

Q 202) About 90% of the world’s earthquakes and 80% of the world’s largest earthquakes occur
along the Ring of Fire. In which sea this Ring of Fire lies ?

a) Himalayan Area
b) Atlantic Ocean
c) Pacific Ocean
d) Mediterranean Area

Q 203) The term “Isopycnic” is most closely defined by which among the following?

a) Two places with same atmospheric pressure


b) Two liquids with same viscosity
c) Two liquids with same density
d) Two places with same temperature

Q 204) Which among the following a unit of measurement is known as paper gold?

a) S. D. R
b) Euro-dollar
c) G. D. R
d) Petro-dollar

Q 205) Introduction of provincial Autonomy is related to which of the following acts?

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a) The Government of India Act, 1858


b) The Government of India Act, 1909
c) The Government of India Act, 1919
d) The Government of India Act, 1935

Q 206) Kambala Sport is held in which state?

a) Karnataka
b) Gujarat
c) Tamilnadu
d) Kerala

Q 207) Bohag Bihu is a festival in North East India, mainly in the state of ____?

a) Assam
b) Manipur
c) Meghalaya
d) Tripura

Q 208) 'Madhubani', a style of folk paintings, is popular in which of the following states in
India?

a) Uttar Pradesh
b) Rajasthan
c) Madhya Pradesh
d) Bihar

Q 209) Which among the following rivers is an example of a superimposed drainage system?

a) Banas
b) Chambal
c) Saraswati
d) Gomti

Q 210) Which among the following is a riverine (Inland River) port?

a) Chennai

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b) Kandla
c) Kolkata
d) Tuticorin

Q 211) Which of the following neighbouring countries of India is not a landlocked country?

a) Afghanistan
b) Myanmar
c) Nepal
d) Bhutan

Q 212) Which one of the following rivers of India does not form a delta?

a) Narmada
b) Kaveri
c) Mahanadi
d) Ganga

Q 213) The Adichunchanagiri Wildlife Sanctuary (AWLS) is located in which state/UT?

a) Karnataka
b) Nagaland
c) Tripura
d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Q 214) The Woods dispatch of 1854 is related to which of the following?

a) Setting up of some universities in India


b) Introduction of the India Post
c) Abolition of the Sati
d) Establishment of Administration Services in India

Q 215) Which among the following is the correct set of G4 nations?

a) India, Brazil, Russia, China


b) India, Brazil, China, Japan
c) India, Brazil, Russia, Germany
d) India, Brazil, Germany, Japan

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Q 216) Sandstone is which of the following type of rock?


a) Sedimentary Rock
b) Metamorphic Rock
c) Igneous Rock
d) Calcareous Rock

Q 217) Which of the following is also called as soot?

a) A poisonous gas
b) Water repellent solvent
c) Black carbon
d) None of the above

Q 218) Which city will be hosting the 2030 Asian Games?

a)Riyadh
b)Dubai
c)Doha
d)Sharjah

Q 219) The representatives of the state in the Rajya sabha are elected by which one of the
following?

a) Chief minister of the state


b) Elected members of the state legislative assembly
c) Governor
d) President

Q 220) Which state is Valmiki National Park situated in?

a) Madhya Pradesh
b) Bihar
c) Rajasthan
d) Tamil Nadu

Q 221) Among the four dynasties listed below, which one minted coins made of lead ?

(a) Mauryas
(b) Satavahanas

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(c) Western Kshatrapas


(d) Guptas

Q 222) International Court of Justice is situated at

(a) The Hague


(b) New York
(c) Geneva
(d) London

Q 223) India has been ranked at which position in the Human Development Index 2020?

a)111
b)131
c)123
d)108

Q 224) Which pharma company will become the world's first company to produce a 'green
vaccine'?

a) Pfizer
b) Serum Institute of India
c) Roche
d) Cadila Healthcare

Q 225) The Pulie Badze Wildlife Sanctuary, which is the natural habitat of Grey-bellied
Tragopan, is located in which state??

a) Arunachal Pradesh
b) Tripura
c) Manipur
d) Nagaland

Q 226) Which among the following empires was located on the banks of the Tungabhadra River?

a) Vijayanagar empire
b) Chalukyas of Vatapi

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c) Chalukyas of Badami
d) Bahamani Kingdom

Q 227) Which of the following biosphere reserves was first established by the Government of
India?

a) Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve


b) Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve
c) Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve
d) Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve

Q 228) How many Mahajanapada existed in the seventh and sixth centuries BCE during the life
of Lord Gautama Buddha?

a) 11
b) 13
c) 17
d) 16

Q 229) Which state’s government has collaborated with UN women to set up India’s first gender
hub?

a) Goa
b) Karnataka
c) Kerala
d) Maharashtra

Q 230) Where is India's first Lithium refinery planned to be established?

a) Gujrat
b) Madhya Pradesh
c) Jharkhand
d) Chattisgarh

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Q 231) Who is the author of the book 'Reporting India', which was recently launched?

a) S Jaishankar
b) Prem Prakash
c) Sushant Sareen
d) Sheela Bhatt

Q 232) What is the rank of India in the Doing Business Report 2020, after the recent update of
the World Bank?

a) 63
b) 64
c) 65
d) 66

Q 233) To which field of literature is the ‘Booker Prize’ awarded every year ?

a) Fiction
b) Autobiography
c) Religion
d) Philosophy

Q 234) The Vedas, Upanishads, Puranas and Dharmasutras are all written in which language?

a) Hindi
b)Prakrit
c)Pali
d) Sanskrit

Q 235) Who wrote the book “The Paradoxical Prime Minister”

a) Khushwant Singh
b) Shashi Tharoor
c) Arundhati Roy
d) Vikram Seth

Q 236) In which Indian state “Thoubal multipurpose project” is inaugurated?


a) MANIPUR
b) TRIPURA

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c) ASSAM
d) NAGALAND

Q 237) In which country archaeological site Pompeii is located?

a) BRAZIL
b) AUSTRALIA
c) U.S.A
d) ITALY

Q 238) Recently tested MRSAM (Medium Range Surface to Air Missile) has been developed in
collaboration with which country?

a) ISRAEL
b) JAPAN
c) U.S.A
U.K.

Q 239) “Trade unions” is listed in the __________ list given in the Seventh Schedule of the
Constitution of India.

a) Union
b) State
c) Global
d) Concurrent

Q 240) The side mirrors of vehicles are of which type of mirrors…

a) Concave
b) Convex
c) Plain
d) Inverted

Q 241) What is the process of melting also called?

a) Fusion
b) Galvanisation
c) Crystallization
d) Evaporation

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Q 242) Which is the Capital of Cuba?

a) Vienna
b) Laos
c) Havana
d) Port Louis

Q 243) Which Article of the Constitution provides for the institution of Panchayati Raj

a) Article 36
b) Article 42
c) Article 44
d) Article 40

Q 244) Who was the President of Indian National Congress at the time of Indian independence?

a) JB Kriplani
b) Jawahar Lal Nehru
c) Rajendra Prasad
d) V Reddy

Q 245) India’s first hot air balloon wildlife safari has been launched in which state?
a) Gujarat
b) Madhya Pradesh
c) Kerala
d) Assam

Q 246) The fighter jets of India and which other country is to organise an exercise named
‘SKYROS’?
a) France
b) Germany
c) United Kingdom
d) Russia

Q 247) Which organisation releases “Report on Trend and Progress of Banking in India”?
a) NITI Aayog

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b) Reserve Bank of India


c) Finance Ministry
d) Finance Commission

Q 248) Which bank has ranked first in UPI transactions?

a) SBI
b) Yes Bank
c) Bank of Baroda
d) HDFC Bank

Q 249) Which country has announced to establish a ‘Friendship Association’ with India, to
strengthen its ties?
a) Saudi Arabia
b) Oman
c) Brazil
d) United Kingdom

Q 250) Which state has approved a bill to make Bodo an associate official language of the state?

a) Mizoram
b) Assam
c) Meghalaya
d) Sikkim

Q 251) Which among the following types of cultivations is known as Ladang in Indonesia?

a) Plantations
b) Shifting Cultivation
c) Mixed farming
d) Gardening

Q 252) Mars Atmosphere and Volatile Evolution Mission (MAVEN) is a space probe developed
to study the atmosphere of Mars. It has been developed by _?

a) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)


b) China National Space Administration (CNSA)
c) National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA)
d) Russian Federal Space Agency (RFSA)

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Q 253) Khetri mines in Rajasthan is famous for which of the following?

a) Limestone

b) Copper

c) Mica

d) Aluminium

Q 254) Estuaries, salt marshes, mangrove swamps and forests come under which of the
following aquatic ecosystems?

a) Fresh water ecosystems


b) Marine ecosystems
c) Brackish water ecosystems
d) None of the above

Q 255) Which type of body was the Planning Commission of India?

a) Constitutional body
b) Extra constitutional body
c) Statutory body
d) None of the above

Q 256) Omega Mission Hills World Cup is related to which game?

a) Tennis
b) Golf
c) Hockey
d) Polo

Q 257) Rovers Cup is related to which of the following sports?

a) Football
b) Cricket
c) Hockey

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d) Tennis

Q 258) Which is the largest coral reef in the world?

a) Kingman Reef
b) The Great Barrier Reef
c) Lansdowne Bank
d) Lyra Reef

Q 259) The Caspian Sea is not surrounded by which among the following countries?

a) Kazakhstan
b) Russia
c) Iraq
d) Iran

Q 260) What is the name of the new digital payment application launched by India Post
Payments Bank?

a) Post Pay
b) Dak Pay
c) IPPB Pay
d) Dak Digital

Q 261) K-9 Journal, which was recently released, is associated with which field?

a) Medicine
b) Policing
c) Pandemic
d) Robotics

Q 262) Asian Waterbird Census 2021, which was seen in the news recently, is to be conducted
in which state?

a) Kerala
b) Tamil Nadu
c) Arunachal Pradesh
d) Gujarat

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Q 263) Deepor Beel, which was seen in the news recently, is the only Ramsar site of which
state?

a) Assam
b) West Bengal
c) Nagaland
d) Manipur

Q 264) As a part of Mission SAGAR-III, Indian Naval Ship INS Kiltan has reached which
country to deliver relief materials?

a) Madagascar
b) Philippines
c) Cambodia
d) Laos

Q 265) Which application has been launched by the External Affairs Ministry to connect with
Indian diaspora?

a) Bharat Connect
b) Global Pravasi Rishta
c) Hindustan Hamara
d) Bharat Communicate

Q 266) In which of the following climates pine trees grow?

a) Wet Deciduous
b) Coniferous
c) Tundra
d) Monsoon

Q 267) Capitalism is based upon “Laissez-faire system”. What is “Laissez-faire system”?

a) No governmental intervention
b) Maximum governmental intervention
c) Role of Market Forces is Minimum
d) Limited government Intervention

Q 268) The Trishna Wildlife Sanctuary (TWS) is located in which state?

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a) Odisha
b) Jharkhand
c) West Bengal
d) Tripura

Q 269) Which of the following European trading companies adopted the “Blue Water Policy” in
India?

a) Dutch company
b) French company
c) Portuguese company
d) British East India company

Q 270) Which of the following annual fairs of Rajasthan is famous for its camel trading event?

a) Pushkar Mela
b) Kumbha Mela
c) Sonepur Mela
d) Suraj Kund Mela

Q 271) Euro Cup is related to which sports?

a) Badminton
b) Football
c) Table Tennis
d) Hockey

Q 272) In which year “Poorna Swarajya” resolution was adopted by the Indian National
Congress?

a) 1927
b) 1928
c) 1929
d) 1930

Q 273) Which among the following articles speaks about impeachment of the President of India?

a) Article 60
b) Article 61

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c) Article 62
d) Article 63

Q 274) TRIFED is a federation under which ministry?

a) Ministry of Human Resources


b) Ministry of Social Justice
c) Ministry of Agriculture
d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs

Q 275) The “hawker culture” that has been recognised by UNESCO for its cultural significance,
is the tradition of which country?

a) Japan
b) Singapore
c) China
d) India

Mathematics

Q-1 A and B can do a job together in 7 days. A is 1.75 times as efficient as B. The same job can
be done by A alone in :

A.9.33 days B.11 days C.12.25 days D.16.33 days

Q-2 The ratio between the length and the breadth of a rectangular park is 3 : 2. If a man cycling
along the boundary of the park at the speed of 12 km/hr completes one round in 8 minutes, then
the area of the park (in sq. m) is:

A.15360 B.153600 C.30720 D.307200

Q.3 A train covers 200 km in 3 hours 30 minutes. If it maintains 40 kmph for the first and last
half an hour, then at what speed should it travel so as to maintain the same time for the whole
distance?

A. 50 kmph B.60 kmph C. 64 kmph D. None of these

Q.4 A boat covers 24 km upstream and 36 km downstream in 6 hours while it covers 36 km


upstream and 24 km downstream in 6 ½ hours. The velocity of the current is

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A. 1 kmph B. 1.5 kmph C. 2 kmph D. 2.5 kmph

Q5. A wheel with a diameter of 3ft makes a revolution every 2 min. How many feel will the
wheel travel in 30 min?

A. 3𝝅 B. 6𝝅 C. 45𝝅 D. 30𝝅

Q.6 Prakash gave one-fourth of the amount he had to Samir. Samir in turn gave half of what he
received from Prakash to Jayesh. If the difference between the remaining amount with Prakash
and the amount received by Jayesh is Rs. 500, how much money did Samir receive from
Prakash?

A. Rs. 100 B. Rs. 400 C. Rs. 200 D. Data inadequate

Q.7 20 buckets fill a tank when the capacity of each bucket is 13.5 litres. How many buckets will
be needed to fill the same tank if the capacity of each bucket is 9 litres?

A. 30 B.32 C.60 D. None of these

Page 1

Q8. Shyam Transport plans to purchase 102 trucks. One truck costs Rs.19 lakh. Shyam transport
has a budget of Rs.12 crores, what percentage of trucks can be successfully purchased?

A. 62% B. 61.76% C. 63.26% D. 72%

Q9. Jyoti's monthly expense on shopping is 25%, travelling is 20%, food is 45% and 10% on
other recreational activities. What is the total amount she spent on travelling and food together?

A. Rs.15,000 B.Rs.18,000 C.Rs.12,050 D.Cannot be determined

Q10. Two towns A and B are 60 km apart. A cyclist going from A to B covers half of the
distance at twice his usual speed and the rest of the distance at half of his usual speed. If he has
taken 75 minutes longer than his usual time to complete the journey, then find the usual speed of
the cyclist.

A. 12 km/hr B.15 km/hr C.20 km/hr D.10 km/hr

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Q11 . A train travels at a uniform speed of 25 km/hr and covers the distance between two
stations A and B. Had its speed been 15 km/hr more, it would have taken 3 hours less for the
same journey. What is the distance (in km) between A and B?

A. 100 B.200 C.250 D.300

Q12 Rajesh can check the quality of 1000 items in 5 hours and Rakesh can complete 75% of the
same job in 3 hours. How much time is required for both of them to check 1300 items, if Rakesh
stops checking after 2 hours ?

A) 1 hour B) 2 hours C) 4 hours D) 3 hours

Q13. A, B and C together completed some work. A and B did of the work. If A, B and C together
received an amount of Rs. 5,000 for the complete work, then the share of C would be

A. Rs. 2,000 B. Rs. 3,000 C.Rs. 1,000 D.Rs. 4,000

Q14 . The monthly salaries of two persons A and B are in the ratio of 3 : 5 respectively. If both
of them received an increment of 250, then the ratio becomes 2 : 3. What were their respective
salaries before the increment?

A. 850 & 1,275 B. 700 & 1,050 C. 750 & 1,250 D.650 & 975

Q15. A Quadratic function f(x) attains a maximum of 3 at x = 1. The value of the function at x =
0 is 1. What is the value of f(x) at x = 10?

A) -180 B) -105 C) -110 D) -159

Q16 In a mixture 60 litres, the ratio of milk and water 2 : 1. If this ratio is to be 1 : 2, then the
quantity of water to be further added is:

A. 20 litres

B. 30 litres

C. 40 litres

D. 60 litres

Q17 A library has an average of 510 visitors on Sundays and 240 on other days. The
average number of visitors per day in a month of 30 days beginning with a Sunday is:

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A. 250

B. 276

C. 280

D. 285

Q18 What is the difference between the compound interests on Rs. 5000 for 1 years at 4% per
annum compounded yearly and half-yearly?

A. Rs. 2.04 B.Rs. 3.06 C.Rs. 4.80 D.Rs. 8.30

Q 19 Let N be the greatest number that will divide 1305, 4665 and 6905, leaving the same
remainder in each case. Then sum of the digits in N is:
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 8

Q 20 The cost price of 20 articles is the same as the selling price of x articles. If the profit is
25%, then the value of x is:
A. 15 B. 16 C. 18 D. 25

Page 3
Q 21 The difference of two numbers is 1365. On dividing the larger number by the smaller, we
get 6 as quotient and the 15 as remainder. What is the smaller number ?
A. 240
B. 270
C. 295
D. 360

Q 22 A two-digit number is such that the product of the digits is 8. When 18 is added to the
number, then the digits are reversed. The number is:
A. 18
B. 24
C. 42
D. 81

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Q 23 In a two-digit, if it is known that its unit's digit exceeds its ten's digit by 2 and that the
product of the given number and the sum of its digits is equal to 144, then the number is:
A. 24
B. 26
C. 42
D. 46

Q 24 In the first 10 overs of a cricket game, the run rate was only 3.2. What should be the
run rate in the remaining 40 overs to reach the target of 282 runs?
A. 6.25
B. 6.5
C. 6.75
D. 7

Q 25 A can contains a mixture of two liquids A and B is the ratio 7 : 5. When 9 litres of
mixture are drawn off and the can is filled with B, the ratio of A and B becomes 7 : 9. How
many litres of liquid A was contained by the can initially?
A. 10 B. 20 C. 21 D. 25

Q 26 If a person walks at 14 km/hr instead of 10 km/hr, he would have walked 20 km more.


The actual distance travelled by him is:
A. 50 km
B. 56 km
C. 70 km
D. 80 km

Q 27 66 cubic centimetres of silver is drawn into a wire 1 mm in diameter. The length of the
wire in metres will be:
A. 84
B. 90
C. 168
D. 336

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Q 28 A person's present age is two-fifth of the age of his mother. After 8 years, he will be one-
half of the age of his mother. How old is the mother at present?
A. 32 years
B. 36 years
C. 40 years
D. 48 years

Q 29 The least number of complete years in which a sum of money put out at 20% compound
interest will be more than doubled is:
A. 3
B. 4

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C. 5
D. 6

Q 30 It was Sunday on Jan 1, 2006. What was the day of the week Jan 1, 2010?
A. Sunday
B. Saturday
C. Friday
D. Wednesday

Q 31 A, B, C subscribe Rs. 50,000 for a business. A subscribes Rs. 4000 more than B and B
Rs. 5000 more than C. Out of a total profit of Rs. 35,000, A receives:
A. Rs. 8400
B. Rs. 11,900
C. Rs. 13,600
D. Rs. 14,700

Q32 The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock when the time is 4.20, is:
A. 0°
B. 10°
C. 5°
D. 20°
Q33 Two students appeared at an examination. One of them secured 9 marks more than the
other and his marks was 56% of the sum of their marks. The marks obtained by them are:
A. 39, 30
B. 41, 32
C. 42, 33
D. 43, 34

Q 34 The length of the bridge, which a train 130 metres long and travelling at 45 km/hr can
cross in 30 seconds, is:
A. 200 m
B. 225 m
C. 245 m
D. 250 m

Page 5
Q35 A and B can complete a work in 15 days and 10 days respectively. They started doing the
work together but after 2 days B had to leave and A alone completed the remaining work. The
whole work was completed in :

A. 8 days
B. 10 days
C. 12 days
D. 15 days

Q36

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The present ages of three persons in proportions 4 : 7 : 9. Eight years ago, the sum of their ages
was 56. Find their present ages (in years).

A. 8, 20, 28
B. 16, 28, 36
C. 20, 35, 45
D. None of these

Q. 37. Walking at 3/4th of his normal speed, Bharat takes 45 minutes more than the normal
time to reach the office. Find his normal time.
A. 2¼
B. 3 hours
C. 4 hours
D. 5 hours

Q. 38. Three cubes of iron whose edges are 6 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm respectively are melted and
formed a single cube. The edge of the new cube formed is?

A. 12 cm
B. 14 cm
C. 16 cm
D. 18 cm
E.
Q. 39 The average of runs of a cricket player of 10 innings was 32. How many runs must he
make in his next innings so as to increase his average of runs by 4 ?
A. 76
B. 79
C. 85
D. 87

Q. 40 The average of five consecutive odd numbers is 61. What is the difference between the
highest and lowest numbers :
A) 4 B) 8
C) 12 D) 16
Page 6

Q 41 In what ratio must a grocer mix two varieties of tea worth Rs. 60 a kg and Rs. 65 a kg so
that by selling the mixture at Rs. 68.20 a kg he may gain 10%?

A. 3:2
B. 3:4
C. 3:5

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D. 4:5

Q. 42 A began a business with Rs. 85,000. He was joined afterwards by B with Ks. 42,500. For
how much period does B join, if the profits at the end of the year are divided in the ratio of 3 : 1

A. 4 months
B. 5 months
C. 6 months
D. 8 months

Q. 43 If 4 (A's capital) = 6 (B's capital) = 10 (C's capital), then out of a profit of Rs. 4650, C will
receive ____

A. Rs. 700
B. Rs. 800
C. Rs. 900
D. Rs. 1000

Q. 44. In a lottery, there are 10 prizes and 25 blanks. A lottery is drawn at random. What is the
probability of getting a prize?

A. 2/7
B. 5/7
C. ⅕
D. 1/2

Q. 45 A man and his wife appear in an interview for two vacancies in the same post. The
probability of husband's selection is (1/7) and the probability of wife's selection is (1/5). What is
the probability that only one of them is selected ?

A. 2/7
B. 1/7
C. 3/4
D. 4/5

Page 7

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Q. 46 Reena took a loan of Rs. 1200 with simple interest for as many years as the rate of interest.
If she paid Rs. 432 as interest at the end of the loan period, what was the rate of interest?

A. 3.6
B. 6
C. 18
D. Cannot be determined

Q. 47 The percentage increase in the area of a rectangle, if each of its sides is increased by 20%

A. 22%
B. 33%
C. 44%
D. 55%

Q. 48 The area of the largest circle that can be drawn inside a rectangle with sides 18cm by 14cm
is

A. 49
B. 154
C. 378
D. 1078

Q. 49 By selling 45 lemons for Rs 40, a man loses 20%. How many should he sell for Rs 24 to
gain 20% in the transaction ?

A. 16
B. 18
C. 20
D. 22

Q. 50 Tarun got 30% concession on the labelled price of an article and sold it for Rs. 8750 with
25% profit on the price he bought. What was the labelled price ?

A. 10000
B. 12000
C. 13000
D. 14000

Q. 51 In a 100 m race, A beats B by 10 m and C by 13 m. In a race of 180 m, B will beat C by

A. 5.4 m B. 4.5 m
B. 5m C. 6m

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Page 8

Q. 52 A can finish a work in 18 days and B can do the same work in 15 days. B worked for 10
days and left the job. In how many days, A alone can finish the remaining work?

A. 5 B. 5.5 C. 6 D. 8

Q.53 Four men and three women can do a job in 6 days. When five men and six women work on
the same job, the work gets completed in 4 days. How many days will a woman take to do the
job, if she works alone on it?

A. 18 B. 36. C. 54 D. None

Q. 54 Alvira does a work in 90 days, Siya in 40 days and Madhav in 12 days. They work one
after another for a day each, starting with Alvira followed by Siya and then by Madhav. If the
total wages received are Rs 360 and Alvira, Siya, Madhav share them in the ratio of the work
done, find their respective individual wages.

A. Rs 40, Rs 60 and Rs 260


B. Rs 36, Rs 81 and Rs 243
C. Rs 42, Rs 86 and Rs 232
D. Rs 38, Rs 88 and Rs 234

Q 55. If a/b = 1/3, b/c = 2, c/d = 1/2 , d/e = 3 and e/f = 1/4, then what is the value of abc/def ?

A 3/8 B 27/8 C 3/4 D 27/4

Q. 56 Find the compound interest on Rs. 16,000 at 20% per annum for 9 months, compounded
quarterly
A)2422 B) 2522
C)2622 D) 2722

Q. 57 On a sum of money, the simple interest for 2 years is Rs. 660,while the compound interest
is Rs.696.30,the rate of interest being the same in both the cases. The rate of interest is
A) 10% B) 11%
C) 12% D) 13%

Q. 58 A bag contains 600 coins of 25 p denomination and 1200 coins of 50 p denomination. If


12% of 25 p coins and 24% of 50 p coins are removed, the percentage of money removed from
the bag is nearly :
A) 21.6 % B) 15.3 %
C) 14.6 % D) 12.5 %

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Q 59. 5/9 of the part of the population in a village are females. If 30 % of females are married.
The percentage of unmarried males in the total males is ?
A) 62.5 % B) 125 % C) 84.32 % D) 46.87 %

Q.60 If the given two numbers are respectively 7% and 28% of a third number, then what
percentage is the first of the second?

A) 24% B) 29%
C) 34% D) 25%

Q 61. What was the day on 15th august 1947 ?

A) Friday B) Saturday
C) Sunday D) Thursday

Q 62. If today is Saturday, what will be the day 350 days from now ?

A) Saturday B) Friday
C) Sunday D) Monday

Q 63. A number when divided by 296 leaves 75 as remainder. When the same number is divided
by 37,the remainder will be:

A) 1 B) 3
C) 5 D) 2

Q 64. The difference between the squares of two consecutive odd integers is always divisible by
?

A) 8 B) 2
C) 6 D) 4

Q 65. How many zeros are there from 1 to 10000 ?

A) 2893 B) 4528
C) 6587 D) 4875

Q 66. If selling price is doubled, the profit triples. Find the profit percent ?

A) 100% B) 200%
C) 300% D) 400%

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Q 67. By selling 45 lemons for Rs 40, a man loses 20%. How many should he sell for Rs 24 to
gain 20% in the transaction?

A) 16 B) 18
C) 20 D) 22

Q 68. A Shopkeeper sells two articles at Rs.1000 each, making a profit of 20% on the first article
and a loss of 20% on the second article. Find the net Profit or loss that he makes?
A) 4% B) 5%
C) 6% D) 8%

Q 69. Three numbers which are co-prime to each other are such that the product of the first two
is 551 and that of the last two is 1073. The sum of the three numbers is:

A. 75
B. 81
C. 85
D. 89

Q 70. Excluding stoppages, the speed of a bus is 54 kmph and including stoppages, it is 45
kmph. For how many minutes does the bus stop per hour?

A)9 B)10 C)12 D)20

Q 71. One pipe can fill a tank three times as fast as another pipe. If together the two
pipes can fill the tank in 36 minutes, then the slower pipe alone will be able to fill the
tank in:

A. 81 min.
B. 108 min.
C. 144 min.
D. 192 min.

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Q 72. Three pipes A, B and C can fill a tank in 6 hours. After working at it together
for 2 hours, C is closed and A and B can fill the remaining part in 7 hours. The
number of hours taken by C alone to fill the tank is:

A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 16

Q 73. A clock is started at noon. By 10 minutes past 5, the hour hand has turned through:

A. 145°
B. 150°
C. 155°
D. 160°

Q 74. From a group of 7 men and 6 women, five persons are to be selected to form a committee
so that at least 3 men are there on the committee. In how many ways can it be done?

A. 564
B. 645
C. 735
D. 756

Q 75 Two trains running in opposite directions cross a man standing on the platform in 27 seconds and 17
seconds respectively and they cross each other in 23 seconds. The ratio of their speeds is:
A. 1 : 3
B. 3 : 2
C. 3 : 4

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D. None of these

Q 76 A train overtakes two persons who are walking in the same direction in which the train is going, at the
rate of 2 kmph and 4 kmph and passes them completely in 9 and 10 seconds respectively. The length of the
train is:
A. 45m
B. 50m
C. 54m
D. 72m

Q 77 A train 240 m long passes a pole in 24 seconds. How long will it take to pass a platform 650 m long?

A. 65 sec
B. 89 sec
C. 100 sec
D. 150 sec

Q 78 A jogger running at 9 kmph alongside a railway track in 240 metres ahead of the engine of
a 120 metres long train running at 45 kmph in the same direction. In how much time will the
train pass the jogger?

A. 3.6 sec B. 18 sec


C. 36 sec D. 72 sec

Q 79 A goods train runs at the speed of 72 kmph and crosses a 250 m long platform in 26
seconds. What is the length of the goods train?

A. 230 m
B. 240 m
C. 260 m
D. 270 m

Q 80 Two trains, each 100 m long, moving in opposite directions, cross each other in 8 seconds.
If one is moving twice as fast the other, then the speed of the faster train is:

A. 30 km/hr
B. 45 km/hr
C. 60 km/hr
D. 75 km/hr

Q 81 A train 110 metres long is running with a speed of 60 kmph. In what time will it pass a man
who is running at 6 kmph in the direction opposite to that in which the train is going?

A. 5 sec

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B. 6 sec
C. 7 sec
D. 10 sec

Q 82 A train 800 metres long is running at a speed of 78 km/hr. If it crosses a tunnel in 1 minute,
then the length of the tunnel (in meters) is:

A. 130
B. 360
C. 500
D. 540

Q 83 A train speeds past a pole in 15 seconds and a platform 100 m long in 25 seconds. Its length
is:

A. 50 m
B. 150 m
C. 200 m
D. Data inadequate

Q 84 A sum of Rs. 12,500 amounts to Rs. 15,500 in 4 years at the rate of simple interest. What is
the rate of interest?

A. 3%
B. 4%
C. 5%
D. 6%

Q 85 Three fair dices are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability that the sum is 5?
A) 1/36 B) 1/6
C) 1/54 D) 1/72

Q 86 Two train travel in the opposite directions, one at 30 kmph and the other at 42 kmph. A
man sitting in the slower train passes the faster train in 6 s. what is the length of the faster train?
A) 120 m B) 126 m
C) 140 m D) 118 m

Q 87 An automobile financier claims to be lending money at simple interest, but he includes the
interest every six months for calculating the principal. If he is charging an interest of 10%, the
effective rate of interest becomes:

A. 10%

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B. 10.25%
C. 10.5%
D. None of these

Q 88 A man took out a loan from a bank at the rate of 12% p.a. simple interest. After 3 years he
had to pay Rs. 5400 interest only for the period. The principal amount borrowed by him was:

A. Rs. 2000
B. Rs. 10,000
C. Rs. 15,000
D. Rs. 20,000

Q 89 Seats for Mathematics, Physics and Biology in a school are in the ratio 5 : 7 : 8. There is a
proposal to increase these seats by 40%, 50% and 75% respectively. What will be the ratio of
increased seats?

A. 2:3:4

B. 6:7:8

C. 6:8:9

D. None of these

Q 90 A sum of money amounts to Rs. 9800 after 5 years and Rs. 12005 after 8 years at the same
rate of simple interest. The rate of interest per annum is:

A. 5% B. 8%
C. 12% D. 15%

Q 91 What will be the ratio of simple interest earned by a certain amount at the same rate of
interest for 6 years and that for 9 years?

A. 1:3
B. 1:4
C. 2:3
D. Data inadequate

Q 92 The cost price of 20 articles is the same as the selling price of x articles. If the profit is
25%, then the value of x is:

A. 15
B. 16
C. 18

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D. 25

Q 93 If the selling price is doubled, the profit triples. Find the profit percent.

A. 66.67
B. 100
C. 105.67
D. 120

Q 94 Rajesh can check the quality of 1000 items in 5 hours and Rakesh can complete 75% of the
same job in 3 hours. How much time is required for both of them to check 1300 items, if Rakesh
stops checking after 2 hours ?

A) 1 hour B) 2 hours C) 4 hours D) 3 hours

Q 95 In a building there are 30 cylindrical pillars. The radius of each pillar is 35 cm and the
height is 5 m. Find out the cost of painting the curved surface of half the number of pillars. The
rate of painting is Rs. 10 per m^2.

A) Rs. 16,500 B) Rs. 8250 C) Rs. 1650 D) Rs. 4125

Q 96 In a certain store, the profit is 320% of the cost. If the cost increases by 25% but the selling
price remains constant, approximately what percentage of the selling price is the profit?

A. 30%
B. 70%
C. 100%
D. 250%

Q 97 A vendor bought toffees at 6 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell to gain 20%?
A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6
Q 98 The average weight of A, B and C is 45 kg. If the average weight of A and B be 40 kg and
that of B and C be 43 kg, then the weight of B is:

A. 17 kg
B. 20 kg
C. 26 kg
D. 31 kg

Q 99 The average weight of 16 boys in a class is 50.25 kg and that of the remaining 8 boys is
45.15 kg. Find the average weights of all the boys in the class.

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A. 47.55 kg
B. 48 kg
C. 48.55 kg
D. 49.25 kg

Q 100 If the average marks of three batches of 55, 60 and 45 students respectively is 50, 55, 60,
then the average marks of all the students is:

A. 53.33
B. 54.68
C. 55
D. None of these

Q 101 A pupil's marks were wrongly entered as 83 instead of 63. Due to that the average marks
for the class got increased by half (1/2). The number of pupils in the class is:

A. 10
B. 20
C. 40
D. 73

Q 102 In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'MATHEMATICS' be arranged so
that the vowels always come together?

A. 10080
B. 4989600
C. 120960
D. None of these

Q 103 Three pipes A, B and C can fill a tank in 6 hours. After working at it together for 2 hours,
C is closed and A and B can fill the remaining part in 7 hours. The number of hours taken by C
alone to fill the tank is:

A. 10 B. 12
C. 14 D. 16

Q 104 3 pumps, working 8 hours a day, can empty a tank in 2 days. How many hours a day must
4 pumps work to empty the tank in 1 day?

A. 9
B. 10
C. 11

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D. 12

Q 105 Running at the same constant rate, 6 identical machines can produce a total of 270 bottles
per minute. At this rate, how many bottles could 10 such machines produce in 4 minutes?

A. 648
B. 1800
C. 2700
D. 10800

Q 106 39 people can repair a road in 12 days, working 5 hours a day. In how many days will 30
persons, working 6 hours a day, complete the work?

A. 10
B. 13
C. 14
D. 15

Q 107 If a quarter kg of potato costs 60 paise, how many paise will 200 gm cost?

A. 48 paise
B. 54 paise
C. 56 paise
D. 72 paise

Q 108 A wheel that has 6 cogs is meshed with a larger wheel of 14 cogs. When the smaller
wheel has made 21 revolutions, then the number of revolutions made by the larger wheel is:

A. 4
B. 9
C. 12
D. 49

Q 109 36 men can complete a piece of work in 18 days. In how many days will 27 men complete
the same work?
A. 12 B. 18 C. 22 D. 24

Q 110 In a 100 m race, A can give B 10 m and C 28 m. In the same race B can give C:

A. 18 m
B. 20 m
C. 27 m

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D. 9m

Q 111 A and B take part in 100 m race. A runs at 5 kmph. A gives B a start of 8 m and still beats
him by 8 seconds. The speed of B is:

A. 5.15 kmph
B. 4.14 kmph
C. 4.25 kmph
D. 4.4 kmph

Q 112 In a 500 m race, the ratio of the speeds of two contestants A and B is 3 : 4. A has a start of
140 m. Then, A wins by:

A. 60 m
B. 40 m
C. 20 m
D. 10 m

Q 113 In a 300 m race A beats B by 22.5 m or 6 seconds. B's time over the course is:

A. 86 sec
B. 80 sec
C. 76 sec
D. None of these

Q 114 X and Y can do a piece of work in 20 days and 12 days respectively. X started the work
alone and then after 4 days Y joined him till the completion of the work. How long did the work
last?

A. 6 days
B. 10 days
C. 15 days
D. 20 days
Q 115 At what angle the hands of a clock are inclined at 15 minutes past 5?

A. 58.5°

B. 64°

C. 67°

D. 72.5°

Q 116 In how many ways can the letters of the word 'LEADER' be arranged?

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A. 72
B. 144
C. 360
D. 720

Q 117 How many 3-digit numbers can be formed from the digits 2, 3, 5, 6, 7 and 9, which are
divisible by 5 and none of the digits is repeated?

A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20

Q 118 In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'DETAIL' be arranged in such a
way that the vowels occupy only the odd positions?

A. 32
B. 48
C. 36
D. 60

Q 119 In how many ways can a group of 5 men and 2 women be made out of a total of 7 men
and 3 women?

A. 63
B. 90
C. 126
D. 45

Q 120 In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'OPTICAL' be arranged so that
the vowels always come together?

A. 120

B. 720

C. 4320

D. 2160

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Q 121 Three times the first of three consecutive odd integers is 3 more than twice the third.
The third integer is:

A. 9
B. 11
C. 13
D. 15

Q 122 The sum of the squares of three numbers is 138, while the sum of their products taken
two at a time is 131. Their sum is:

A. 20
B. 30
C. 40
D. None of these
Q 123 January 1, 2008 is Tuesday. What day of the week lies on Jan 1, 2009?

A. Monday
B. Wednesday
C. Thursday
D. Sunday

Q 124 An error 2% in excess is made while measuring the side of a square. The percentage of
error in the calculated area of the square is:

A. 2%
B. 2.02%
C. 4%
D. 4.04%

Q 125 A towel, when bleached, was found to have lost 20% of its length and 10% of its breadth.
The percentage of decrease in area is:

A. 10%
B. 10.08%
C. 20%
D. 28%

Q 126 A tank is 25 m long, 12 m wide and 6 m deep. The cost of plastering its walls and bottom
at 75 paise per sq. m, is:

A. Rs. 456
B. Rs. 458
C. Rs. 558

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D. Rs. 568

Q 127 Three partners shared the profit in a business in the ratio 5 : 7 : 8. They had partnered for
14 months, 8 months and 7 months respectively. What was the ratio of their investments?
A. 5:7:8
B. 20 : 49 : 64
C. 38 : 28 : 21
D. None of these

Q 128 Arun, Kamal and Vinay invested Rs. 8000, Rs. 4000 and Rs. 8000 respectively in a
business. Arun left after six months. If after eight months, there was a gain of Rs. 4005, then
what will be the share of Kamal?

A. Rs. 890
B. Rs. 1335
C. Rs. 1602
D. Rs. 1780

Q 129 In one hour, a boat goes 11 km/hr along the stream and 5 km/hr against the stream. The
speed of the boat in still water (in km/hr) is:

A. 3 km/hr
B. 5 km/hr
C. 8 km/hr
D. 9 km/hr

Q 130 How many 4-letter words with or without meaning, can be formed out of the letters of the
word, 'LOGARITHMS', if repetition of letters is not allowed?

A. 40
B. 400
C. 5040
D. 2520

Q 131 10 women can complete a work in 7 days and 10 children take 14 days to complete the
work. How many days will 5 women and 10 children take to complete the work?

A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. Cannot be determined

Q 132 Find the greatest number that will divide 43, 91 and 183 so as to leave the same remainder
in each case.

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A. 4
B. 7
C. 9
D. 13

Q 133 A man walked diagonally across a square lot. Approximately, what was the percent saved
by not walking along the edges?

A. 20

B. 24

C. 30

D. 33

Q 134 Let N be the greatest number that will divide 1305, 4665 and 6905, leaving the same
remainder in each case. Then sum of the digits in N is:

A. 4

B. 5

C. 6

D. 8

Q 135 The sum of the present ages of a father and his son is 60 years. Six years ago, father's age
was five times the age of the son. After 6 years, son's age will be:

A. 12 years

B. 14 years

C. 18 years

D. 20 years

Q 136 What percentage of numbers from 1 to 70 have 1 or 9 in the unit's digit?

A. 1

B. 14

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C. 20

D. 21

Q 137 A, B, C rent a pasture. A puts 10 oxen for 7 months, B puts 12 oxen for 5 months and C
puts 15 oxen for 3 months for grazing. If the rent of the pasture is Rs. 175, how much must C pay
as his share of rent?

A. Rs. 45 B. Rs. 50 C. Rs. 55 D. Rs. 60

Q 138 From a point P on a level ground, the angle of elevation of the top tower is 30°. If the
tower is 100 m high, the distance of point P from the foot of the tower is:

A. 149 m

B. 156 m

C. 173 m

D. 200 m

Q 139 A works twice as fast as B. If B can complete a work in 12 days independently, the
number of days in which A and B can together finish the work in :

A. 4 days

B. 6 days

C. 8 days

D. 18 days

Q 140 A cistern 6m long and 4 m wide contains water up to a depth of 1 m 25 cm. The total area
of the wet surface is:

A. 49 m2

B. 50 m2

C. 53.5 m2

D. 55 m2

Q 141 The cost of Type 1 rice is Rs. 15 per kg and Type 2 rice is Rs. 20 per kg. If both Type 1
and Type 2 are mixed in the ratio of 2 : 3, then the price per kg of the mixed variety of rice is:

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A. Rs. 18

B. Rs. 18.50

C. Rs. 19

D. Rs. 19.50

Q 142 What decimal of an hour is a second ?

A. .0025 B. .0256 C. .00027 D. .000126

Q 143 A trader mixes 26 kg of rice at Rs. 20 per kg with 30 kg of rice of other variety at Rs. 36
per kg and sells the mixture at Rs. 30 per kg. His profit percent is:

A. No profit, no loss

B. 5%

C. 8%

D. 10%

Q 144 What is the remainder when 445 × 460 × 475 × 490 is divided by 33?

A) 0 B) 32 C) 19 D) 1

Q. 145 Abhishek Jain typed 50 pages at the rate of 30 pages per hour on Sunday. On Monday, he
could only type 50 extra pages at the rate of 20 pages per hour. What has his average rate of
typing been overall. Calculate in pages per hour?

A. 24 B)30 C)48 D) 25

Q. 146 Walking at 3/4 of his usual speed, a main is 3/2 hours late. His usual time to cover to the
same distance, in hours, is
(a) 9/2
(b) 4
(c) 11/2
(d) 5

Q 147 In a school 70% of the students are girls. The number of boys is 510.

Then the total number of students in the school is:

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A) 850 B) 1700

C) 1830 D) 1900

Q 148 The profit earned by a shopkeeper by selling a bucket at a gain of 8% is Rs. 28 more then
when he sells it at a loss of 8%. The cost price (in Rupees) of the bucket is
A) 170
B) 190
C) 175
D) 150
Q 149 A truck covers a distance of 384 km at a certain speed. If the speed is decreased by 16 km/h,
it will take 2 hours more to cover the same distance. 75% of its original speed (in km/h) is:
(1) 45
(2) 54
(3) 48
(4) 42
Q 150 The ratio of the ages of A and B four years ago was 4 : 5. Eight years from now, the ratio
of the ages of A and B will be 11 : 13. What is the sum of their present ages?
(1) 80 years
(2) 96 years
(3) 72 years
(4) 76 years

Q 151 The ratio of the efficiencies of A, B and C is 2 : 5 : 3. Working together they can complete
a work in 27 days B and C together can complete 4/9th part of that work in:
(1) 27 days
(2) 15 days
(3) 17 1/7 days
(4) 24 days

Q 152 The average of twelve numbers is 42. The average of the last five numbers is 40 and that of
the first four numbers is 44. The 6th number is 6 less than the fifth and 5 less than the 7th
number. The average of the 5th and the 7th numbers is:
(1) 44
(2) 44.5
(3) 43
(4) 43.5

Q 153 A solid cube of volume 13824 cm3 is cut into 8 cubes of equal volumes. The ratio of the
surface area of the original cube to the sum of the surface areas of three of the smaller cubes is:
(1) 2:3
(2) 4:3
(3) 8:3
(4) 2:1

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Q 154 3 pumps, working 4 hours a day, can empty a tank in 2 days. How many hours a day
must 4 pumps work, to empty the tank in one day?
a. 7 hours
b. 8 hours
c. 6 hours
d. 5 hours

Q 155 5 mat-weavers can weave 5 mats in 5 days. At the same time, how many mats would
be woven by 10 mat- weavers in 10 days?

a. 10 mats
b. 15 mats
c. 20 mats
d. 30 mats

Q 156 18 men bind 900 books in 10 days. Find how many binders will be required to bind 600
books in 12 days?

a. 10 b. 11
c. 13 d. 15
Q 157 A cyclist covers a distance of 800 meter in 4 minutes 20 seconds. What is the speed in
km/hr of the cyclist?

a) 6.2 km/h
b) 8.4 km/hr
c) 11.05 km/hr
d) 16.07 km/hr

Q 158 Two buses start at the same time, one from P to Q and the other from Q to P. If both buses
reach after 4 hours and 16 hours at Q and P respectively after they cross each other, what would
be the ratio of speeds of the bus starting from P and that of the one starting from point Q?

a. 2 : 1
b. 1 : 2
c. 2 : 2
d. 1 : 4

Q 159 An aeroplane flying 1000 km covers the first 200 km at the rate of 200 km/hr, the second
200 km at 400 km/hr, the third 200 km at 600 km / hr & last 200 km at the rate of 800 km/hr.
Determine the average speed of the aeroplane.

a. 250 km/hr
b. 300 km/hr
c. 480 km/hr
d. 600 km/hr

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Q 160 Jennifer travels the first 4 hours of her journey at a speed of 80 miles/hr and the remaining
distance in 6 hours at a speed of 30 miles/hr. What is her average speed in miles/hr?

a. 50 miles / hr
b. 60 miles / hr
c. 75 miles / hr
d. 92 miles / hr

Q 161 What day of the week was 31st July, 1993?


a) Monday
b) Sunday
c) Saturday
d) Tuesday

Q 162 Find a positive number which when increased by 11 is equal to 60 times the reciprocal of
the number
a. 3
b. 4
c. 6
d. 9

Q 163 What is the least number of squares tiles required to pave the floor of a room 15 m 17 cm
long and 9 m 2 cm broad?
A. 814
B. 820
C. 840
D. 844

Q 164 A alone can do a work in 24 days. B is 60 % more efficient than A & C is 50 % more
efficient than B. All
three of them working together will do the same work in how many days?
a) 3 days
b) 5 days
c) 7 days
d) 8 days

Q 165 The population of a town increased from 1,75,000 to 2,62,500 in a decade. The average
percent increase of population per year is:

A. 4.37%

B. 5%

C. 6%

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D. 8.75%

Q 166 Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 15 minutes and 20 minutes respectively. Both the pipes
are opened together but after 4 minutes, pipe A is turned off. What is the total time required to fill
the tank?

A) 10 min. 20 sec. B) 11 min. 45 sec.


C) 12 min. 30 sec. D) 14 min. 40 sec.

Q 167 If the sum of two numbers is 55 and the H.C.F. and L.C.M. of these numbers are 5 and 120
respectively, then the sum of the reciprocals of the numbers is equal to:
A) 55/601 B) 601/55
C) 11/120 D) 120/11

Q 168 A rectangular park 60 m long and 40 m wide has two concrete crossroads running in the
middle of the park and the rest of the park has been used as a lawn. If the area of the lawn is 2109
sq. m, then what is the width of the road?

A) 1 B) 2

C) 3 D) 4

Q 169 A clock is set right at 5 a.m. The clock loses 16 minutes in 24 hours.What will be the true
time when the clock indicates 10 p.m. on the 4th day?

A) 11pm B) 12pm

C) 1pm D) 2pm

Q 170 The average of 20 numbers is zero. Of them, at the most, how many may be greater than
zero?

A. 0 B. 1

C. 10 D. 19

Q 171 The speed of a boat in still water in 15 km/hr and the rate of current is 3 km/hr. The distance
travelled downstream in 12 minutes is:

A. 1.2 km B. 1.8 km

C. 2.4 km D. 3.6 km

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Q 172 Two tailors X and Y are paid a total of Rs. 550 per week by their employer. If X is paid 120
percent of the sum paid to Y, how much is Y paid per week?

A. Rs. 200

B. Rs. 250

C. Rs. 300

D. None of these

Q 173 A bag contains 6 white and 4 black balls .2 balls are drawn at random. Find the probability
that they are of the same colour.

A) 1/2 B) 7/15
C) 8/15 D) 1/9

English
Q-1) By the end of the week, he ------- the first stage of the treatment, and we'll know then if he -
------ well to it.
A) would have completed / responded
B) has completed / was responding
C) will have completed / is responding
D) is completing / has responded

Q-2) Which is a synonym of vituperate?

A) exaggerate
B) berate
C) energize
D) placate

Q-3) She _______ has to hurry in the morning because she gets up late
A) Always has to hurry
B) has always to hurry
C) has to always hurry
D) has to hurry always

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Q-4) The question below consists of a related pair of words. Select the pair that expresses the
relationship similar to the one expressed in the original pair.

Arena: Conflict

A)Mirage:Reality
B) Forum: Discussion
C) Asylum: Pursuit
D) Utopia: Place

Q-5) Click the best synonym for haul:


A) explore
B) drag
C) release
D) achieve

Q-6) ________ the Civil War, those years turned out to be golden era for the manganese
industry.

A) Despite
B) Obviously
C) Although
D) Pertaining to

Q-7) Select the most appropriate synonym of guile.


A) Honest
B) Hot
C) Chicanery
D) Charming

Q-9) We’ve had some pretty good directors over the years, but Dr. Radcliff is ________ the most
capable of them.
A) by far
B) over all
C) just so
D) as much

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Q-10) Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.


Fleeting
(A) Transient
(B) Transparent
(C) Tranquil
(D) Tepid

Q-11) Leaves _________ in autumn


A)Fall off
B) Fall down
C) Fall on
D) Fall of

Q-12) Which of the following does not make a sensible word/phrase when added to the given
word?
FIRE

A) Fly
B) Engine
C) Stick
D) Escape
Q-13) The question below consists of a related pair of words. Select the pair that expresses the
relationship similar to the one expressed in the original pair.
Brook: River

A) Vein: Artery
B) Path: Highway
C) Yard: Alley
D) Pen: Paper

Q-14) Choose the word with correct spelling


A) Catagories
B) Diarrhoea
C) Ommission
D) Inaugarate

Q-15) What is the synonym of INEXPLICABLE


A) Confusing
B) Unaccountable

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C) Chaotic
D) Disconnected

Q-16) Which one of the following alternatives is spelt correctly?


A) Extacy
B) Ecstasy
C) Ecstasy
C) Extasy

Q-16) Choose the alternative closest in meaning to the given word


Virtuoso
A) Skilled performer
B) Amateur
C) Good person
D) Professional

Q-17) Find the odd one out


A) Latent
B) Natural
C) Inborn
D) Inherent

Q-18) If leaf is to leaves and knife is to knives then belief is to ____

A) Beliefs
B) Believes
C) Belief
D) Believing

Q-19) Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.

PROMINENT
A) Obscure
B) Obdurate
C) Obligatory
D) Objection

Q-20) Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.

INOPPORTUNE

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A) Problematic
B) Convenient
C) Ghoulish
D) Jaunty

Q-21)Chemical industry in the world developed very quickly from 1935 ------, especially in the
organic sector of the industry.

A) Onwards
B) upwards
C) Afterwards
D) outwards

Q-22) Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.


CAPTIOUS
A) Niggling
B) Forgiving
C) Carping
D) Fretful

Q-23)------ what extent does her book deal ----- the problem
of light pollution?
A) To / with
B) On / to
C) With / about
D) For / in

Q-24)Select the wrongly spelt word.


A) Deleterious
B) Connivence
C) Chauvinist
D) Encomium

Q-25)The laboratory team endeavours ------ to generate power as efficiently and cheaply as
possible, ----- to apply it economically.
A) so / unless
B) even / just as
C) not only / but also

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D) as much / as if

Q-26) Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.
A story that expresses ideas through symbols
A) Almanac
B) Axiom
C) Anomaly
D) Allegory

Q-27) Fumble is to Finesse as Malign is to


A) Slander
B) Extol
C) Criticize
D) Assurance

Q-28) They were all shocked at his failure in the competition.


A.were shocked at all
B. had all shocked by
C. had been all shocked on
D. No correction required

Q-29) _ pompous he was an entertaining person.


A) Though
B) Never
C) Despite
D) Before

Q-30) Select the synonym of incinerate


A) parch
B) moderate
C) ignite

Q-31) In the following the questions choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the
given word.
WRETCHED
A) Poor
B) Foolish
C) Insane

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D) Strained

Q-32) In the following questions choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the given
word.
QUIESCENT

A) ACTIVE
B) Dormant
C) Weak
D) Unconcerned

Q-33) To show or state that someone or something is not guilty of something


A) escape
B) pardon
C) charge
D) vindicate

Q-34)The grandmother __________ that her grandson _________ in the school.


A) told ------ was taken good care of
B) was told ------ had taken good care of
C) has told ------ taken good care of
D) was told ------ had been taken good care of

Q-35) Choose the most appropriate passive construction of the sentence


‘He is doing his job well’

A) His job is done well by him


B) HIs job is being done well
C) He has been doing his job well
D) His job is being well done

Q-36) Four words are given, out of which only one word is spelt correctly. Choose the
correctly spelt word out of the given options.
A) Externimating
B) Extreminating
C) Exterminating
D) Exertminating

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Q-37) In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which best
expresses the meaning of the following word
Misanthrope

A) Buttress
B) Cynic
C) Diversify
D) Petrify

Q-38) In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is
opposite in meaning to the word given in bold.

Consternation

A) Absolve
B) Altruitst
C) Compose
D) Condense

Q-39) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the
given word
Prosaic

A) Banal
B) Exciting
C) Allergy
D) Alleviation

Q-40) Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the answer sheet.
Trite
A) Bovine
B) Feral
C) Appealing
D) Pedestrian

Q-41) Choose the correct meaning of proverb/idiom:

To play second fiddle

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A) To be happy, cheerful and healthy


B) To reduce importance of one's senior
C) To support the role and view of another person
D) To do back seat driving

Q-42) Choose the correct meaning of proverb/idiom:


To leave someone in the lurch

A) To come to compromise with someone


B) Constant source of annoyance to someone
C) To put someone at ease
D) To desert someone in his difficulties

Q-43) Find the opposite of the following word

FLAGITIOUS

A) Innocent
B) Vapid
C) Ignorant
D) Frivolous

Q-44) Find the opposite of the following word

HIRSUTE
A) Scaly
B) Bald
C) Erudite
D) Quiet

Q-45) Find the opposite of the following word


EQUANIMITY

A) Resentment
B) Dubiousness
C) Duplicity
D) Excitement

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Q-46) Replace the underlined part of the text with the most appropriate option.
The man to who I sold my house was a cheat.

A) to whom I sell
B) to who I sell
C) who was sold to
D) to whom I sold

Q-47) Replace the underlined part of the text with the most appropriate option.
The intruder stood quietly for few moments

A) for few time


B) for the few moments
C) for moments
D) for a few moments

Q-48) Replace the underlined part of the text with the most appropriate option.
He admired the speed with which he completed the work and appreciating the method adopted
by him

A) appreciate the method being adopted


B) appreciated the method adopted
C) appreciate the method of adoption
D) appreciated the method adopting method

Q-49) Replace the underlined part of the text with the most appropriate option.
Acquisition of certain specific skills can be facilitated from general awareness, education to
novel situations

A) can be facilitated by
B) may facilitate through
C) can be felicitated with
D) may be felicitated with

Q-50) In the following the questions choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the
given word.

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GARRULITY

A) Credulity
B) Senility
C) Loquaciousness
D) Speciousness

Q-51) Choose the correct meaning of proverb/idiom:


A man of straw

A) A man of no substance
B) A very active person
C) A worthy fellow
D) An unreasonable person

Q-52) Choose the correct meaning of proverb/idiom:


To put one's hand to plough

A) To take up agricultural farming


B) To take a difficult task
C) To get entangled into unnecessary things
D) Take interest in technical work

Q-53) Choose the correct meaning of proverb/idiom:


To set one's face against

A) To oppose with determination


B) To judge by appearance
C) To get out of difficulty
D) To look at one steadily

Q-54) Find the correctly spelt words.


A) Bouquete
B) Bouquette
C) Bouquet
D) Boqquet

Q-55) Find the correctly spelt words.


A) Itinarery

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B) Itinerary
C) Itenary
D) Itinarary

Q-56) Find the correctly spelt words.


A) Klaptomania
B) Klepptomania
C) Kleptemania
D) Kleptomania

Q-57)Find the correctly spelt words.


A) Inoculation
B) Innoculation
C) Inocculation
D) Inocullation

Q-58 )Choose one of the following options that means the opposite of the given word;
Copious:
A)Reverse
B) Scarce
C) Abundant
D) Short

Q-59) Give the meaning of the idiom : At one's fingertips


A) feeling extremely angry
B) matter of shame
C) readily available
D) none of the above

Q-60) In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best
expresses the meaning of the given word.
Mounted
A) gathered
B) descended
C) organized
D) jumped

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Q-61) In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best
expresses the meaning of the given word.
Somnolent
(a) irritate
(b) provoke
(c) drowsy
(d) enrage

Q-62) In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best
expresses the meaning of the given word.
Invidious
A) mournful
B) slowly
C) indifferent
D) hateful

Q-63) In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best
expresses the meaning of the given word.
Haughty
A) inborn
B) fearful
C) skillful
D) arrogant

Q-64) In the following question, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.
Bountiful
A) generous
B) meager
C) copious
D) teeming

Q-65) In the following question, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.
Renaissance
A) decadence
B) pestilence
C) prehistory
D) immorality

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Q-66) In the question, four words are given, out of which only one word is incorrectly spelt.
Find the incorrectly spelt word.
A) ignominious
B) illumination
C) inquitous
D) immediately

Q-67) In the question, four words are given, out of which only one word is incorrectly spelt.
Find the incorrectly spelt word.
A) perpetuity
B) preferential
C) predecesor
D) percussive

Q-68) In the question, four words are given, out of which only one word is incorrectly spelt.
Find the incorrectly spelt word.
A) fabricated
B) facsination
C) forerunner
D) forebear

Q-69) Out of the four alternatives choose the one which can be substituted for the given
words/sentence.

To break up into small parts as the result of impact or decay


A) to disintegrate
B) disharmony
C) to disinherit
D) to denigrate

Q-70) Out of the four alternatives choose the one which can be substituted for the given
words/sentence.

To be indecisive
A) to vex
B) to dither

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C) tiff
D) to stew

Q-71) Out of the four alternatives choose the one which can be substituted for the given
words/sentence.
Very rude or coarse; vulgar
A) gross
B) adipose
C) porcine
D) corpulent

Q-72) What is the meaning of idiom :


To cry wolf

A) To listen eagerly
B) To give false alarm
C) To turn pale
D) To keep off starvation

Q-73) Rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence.
Choose the proper sequence
I read an advertisement that said
P : posh, air-conditioned
Q : gentleman of taste
R : are available for
S : fully furnished rooms

The Proper sequence should be:


A) PQRS
B) PSRQ
C) PSQR
D) SRPQ

Q-74) In the following the questions choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the
given word.
CONNOISSEUR
A) Ignorant
B) Lover of art
C) Interpreter

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D) Delinquent

Q-75) Select the most appropriate synonym of the word: Verve


A) Bitter
B) Vacant
C) Zest
D) Miserable

Q-76) Find the correctly spelt word


A) Armeliorite
B) Amarliorate
C) Ameliorate
D) Ameliorite

Q-77) Select the wrongly spelt word.

A) calander
B) career
C) callous
D) carriage

Q-78) Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.


Around sixty bands in colourful took part in the Notting Hill Carnival.

A) clothings
B) costumes
C) apparels
D) dressing

Q-79) Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.
A person, animal or plant much below the usual height

A) wizard
B) dwarf
C) creature
D) witch

Q-80) Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence. If no substitution is required, select No improvement.
The workers of this textile factory demand higher wages for a long time.

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A) have been demanding higher wages


B) demanded higher wages
C) No improvement
D) has demanded higher wages

Q-81) Choose the response which is the most appropriate expression of the idiom:
"Cost a bomb"
A) To be very arrogant
B) To be with rich people
C) To be very expensive
D) To be stingy

Q-82) Choose the correctly spelt word.


Wellful
Wilful
Wilfull
Willfull

Q-83) He shows great ability _________ Mathematics.


In
For
About
At

Q-84) Select the synonym of the given word.


COERCE
(1) enchant
(2) pressurize
(3) cajole
(4) leave

Q-85)Select the correctly spelt word.


(a) Battallion
(b) Batalion
(c) Battalion
(d) Batalian

Q-86) Select the antonym of Spurious


(a) Original

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(b) Scanty
(c) Love
(d) Relief

Q-87) The peasant refused to grovel ________ the feet of his master.
A) on
B) by
C) upon
D) at

Q-88) Select the option which gives correct meaning of the given idiom/phrase.
To weather the storm
A) survive a difficult situation
B) create difficulty for others
C) victim of crisis
D) unsuccessful attempt

Q-89) Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.


To play ducks and drakes
A) to use recklessly
B) to change places
C) to be friendly
D) to act cleverly

Q-90) Select the antonym of the given word.


EXPANSION

A) inflation
B) augmentation
C) extension
D) compression

Q-91) Select the antonym of the given word.


SCARCE

A) scanty
B) few

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C) seldom
D) plentiful

Q-92) Choose the synonym for : VERBATIM


A) Word for word
B) In secret
C) At will
D) In summary

Q-93) Choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the given word
A) Object
B) Refuse
C) Grant
D) Accede

Q-94) In 1994, seven countries signed and accord, agreeing to guidelines designed to minimize
the ------ of salmon farming on wild fish in the north Atlantic.
A) relevance
B) establishment
C) impact
D) perception

Q-95) In the following question, a word has been written in four different ways out of which
only one is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word
A) Innoculate
B) Inoculate
C) Inouclulate
D) Inoculait

Q-96) Select the correctly spelt word.


A) Proximat
B) Proxximate
C) Proximate
D) Proxxmiat

Q-97) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it.

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A) I could not put up in a hotel


B) because the boarding and lodging charges
C) were exorbitant
D) No error

Q-98) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it.

A)The students were


B) awaiting for
C) the arrival of the chief guest
D) No error

Q-99). In the following questions choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the
given word: RELINQUISH

A) Abdicate
B) Renounce
C) Possess
D) Deny

Q-100) Complete the following sentence


Practically, very little work could be completed in the last week as it was ......

A) full of working days


B) a very hectic week
C) full of holidays
D) a very busy week

Q-101) Fill in the blank


Catching the earlier train will give us the ...... to do some shopping.

A) chance
B) luck
C) possibility

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D) occasion

Q-102) What is the Antonym of EXODUS

A) Influx
B) Home coming
C) Return
D) Restoration

Q-103) What is the Antonym of BELITTLE

A) Criticize
B) Flatter
C) Exaggerate
D) Adore

Q-104) We demonstrated to them how we were prepared the artistic patterns.

A) are prepared
B) have prepared
C) are preparing
D) had prepared

Q-105) Choose the one which can be substituted for the given word/sentence. : A remedy for all
diseases

A) Stoic
B) Marvel
C) Panacea
D) Recompense

Q-106) Select the pair which has the same relationship.


DISTANCE:MILE

A) liquid:litre
B) bushel:corn
C) weight:scale
D) fame:television

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HRM

Q-1) Section ________ of the Industrial Disputes Act 1947, states that an employer should only
retrench employees who have been most recently hired

A) 24-F
B)24-G
C)25-F
D)25-G

Q-2) Union leaders at different levels & at federations are elected on ________

A) democratic principle
B) political considerations
C) employer’s recommendation
D) seniority basis

Q-3) The needs hierarchy theory of needs is associated with

A) Vroom
B) Maslow
C) McClelland
D) None

Q-4) Which of the following factor would be relatively low if supply of labour is higher than
demand.
A) production
B) labour cost
C) wage
D) all of the above

Q-5) Which of the following expands the number of related tasks in the job
A. Job Specification
B. Job Description
C. Job Enlargement
D. Job Analysis

Q-6) For closure, every worker is to be compensated with ________ of average pay for every
year of service completed
A) 15 days
B) 20 days
C) 25 days

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D) 30 days

Q-7)The following person has suggested the new concept which takes into account various key
factors that will tell the overall performance of a job.
A) Elliot Jecques
B) Fred Luthas
C) Juran
D) None of the above

Q-8)Which of the following is not a physiological need?


Food
Water
Shelter
Confidence

Q-9)Human Resource Management does not include?


A. Training
B. Cost control
C. Recruitment
D. None of the above

Q-10)Majority of the disputes in industries is (are) related to the problem on


A. Wages
B. Salaries
C.Benefits
D.All of the above

Q-11)The basic managerial skill(s) is(are)


A. To supervise
B. To stimulate
C. To motivate
D.All of the above

Q-12)Human resource management helps improve


A. Profits
B. Productivity
C.Production
D. Power

Q-13)The following is (are) concerned with developing a pool of candidates in line with the
human resources plan
A. Development
B. Training
C. Recruitment
D. All of the above

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Q-14) The following is (are) the objective(s) of inspection:


A. Quality product
B. Defect-free products
C. Customer satisfaction
D. All of the above

Q-15)The following is (are) concerned with developing a pool of candidates in line with the
human resources plan
A. Development
B. Training
C.Recruitment
D. All of the above

Q-16) ___ driven companies are always successful in the long run.
(A) management
(B) worker union
(C) value
(D) profit

Q-17)Ethics is a conception of ___ conduct.


(A) bad
(B) good
(C) right
(D) right and wrong

Q-18) What is true about a professional


(A) The professional has to have autonomy
(B) He cannot be supervised by the client
(C) He should not subject to political control
(D) All of the above

Q-19) Which of the below term is used before the language of modern HRM
A. Personnel Management
B. Industrial Management
C. Labour Relations
D. All of the above

Q-20) ______ is the simple act of comparison & learning for organisational improvement
A. Benchmarking
B. Feedback
C. Ranking
D.Job evaluation

Q-21)Human Resource Development process variable include


A. Role clarity

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B. Work planning
C. Better communication
D. All of the above

Q-22) A key HR role in the firm will be multidisciplinary consulting around


A. Individual
B.Team
C.Business unit
D.All of the above

Q-23) 360 -Degree Feedback enhances the quality of ________ decisions.


A. HR
B.Management
C.HRD
D. All of the above

Q-24) Human capital refers to:


A) education of firm's workers
B) training of firm's workers
C) skills and expertise of firm's workers
D) all of above

Q-25) ESOP stands for_____________ .


A) Employee Stock Ownership Plans
B) Employees Share Ownership Plans
C) Employer Stock Ownership Plans
D) Employer Share Ownership Plan

Q-26) Employee's general belief that their organisation values their contribution and cares about
their well - being is called __________.
A) Behaviour
B) Workplace misbehaviour
C) Organizational behaviour
D) Perceived organizational support

110 Aspirants Relations Committee, HRM & LR, TISS Mumbai

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