Oral Patho For DR ARA Khan Soft Form PDF

BOOK# Dr ARA khan (Guide o Fcps -1 in dentistry)
7. Multiple unerupted, supernumerary

teeth & retained deciduous are
ORAL PATHOLOGY characteristic feature of:
A) Cranio facial dysostosis
SECTION 1 B) Cleidocranial dysostosis
C) Down’s syndrome
1. Teeth that erupt within 30 days of birth D) Treacher collin’s syndrome
are called: ANS (B)
A) Natal teeth 8. Mandibular tori are commonly found
B) Neonatal teeth to be present in the following:
C) Primary teeth A) Molars
D) Prenatal teeth B) Premolars
ANS (B) C) Anteriors
2. Turners hypoplasia is? D) None of the above
A) Hypoplasia due to systemic ANS (B)
infection 9. In the taurodontism, the teeth exhibit:
B) Hypoplasia due to Congenital A) Elongated, large pulp chambers
syphilis and short roots
C) Hypoplasia due to Local B) Elongated, small pulp chambers
trauma/infection and short roots
D) Hypoplasia due to Flouride C) Elongated, small pulp chambers
ingestion and large roots
3. What is the other name Nasoalveolar D) Short small pulp chambers and
cyst: large roots
A) Klestadt’s cyst ANS (A)
B) Nasopalatine duct cyst 10. Which one of the following is the
C) Median palatal cyst cause of dilacerations?
D) Epstein’s pearls A) Trauma to the tooth germ during
ANS (A) root development
4. Deficiency of which of the following B) Abnormal displacement of tooth
vitamin causes generalized hypoplasia germ during root development
of teeth? C) Abnormal proliferation of enamel
A) Vitamin A deficiency epithelium during tooth
B) Vitamin B deficiency development
C) Iron deficiency D) Abnormal displacement of
D) Vitamin E deficiency ameloblasta during tooth formation
ANS (A) ANS (A)
5. Dentinogenesis imperfecta is? 11. Which of the following is not
A) Autosomal dominant responsible for endogenous staining of
B) Autosomal recessive teeth during development?
C) X-linked dominant A) Tetracyleine
D) X-linked recessive B) Rh incompatibility
ANS (A) C) Neonatal liver disease
6. The caries of enamel surface leads to D) Vitamin C deficiency
accentuation of? ANS (D)
A) Incremental lines of retzius 12. Dens in dente is most commony seen
B) Perikymata in:
C) Imbrications lines of pickerill A) Premolars
D) Wickham’s stroae B) Paramolars
ANS (A) C) Lateral incisors
BOOK ARA KHAN(Dentogist basic ) Page 1

D) Maxillary canine ANS (B)

ANS (C) 19. Which of the following is most
13. Taurodontism is usually seen seen in: common development cyst:
A) Mesiodens A) Nasoplatine duct
B) Incisor with talon/cusp B) Median mandibular
C) Mandibular first molar C) Globulomaxillary
D) Maxillary premolars D) Median palate cyst
ANS (C) ANS (A)
14. The term refers to a type of fusion in 20. Which of the following primary teeth
which the formed teeth are joined only are most commonly ankylosed?
along the line of cementum: A) Maxillary molars
A) Germination B) Mandibular incisors
B) Fusion C) Maxillary premolars
C) Concreasence D) Mandibular 2nd molars
D) Dilacerations ANS (D)
ANS (C) 21. Which of the following is most
15. Which is a degeneration disorder commonly missing teeth?
characterized by atrophic changes of A) Maxillary canines
the deeper structures (fat, muscle, B) Mandibular premolars
cartilage and bone) involving one side C) Mandibular incisors
of face: D) Maxillary molars
A) Scleroderma ANS (B)
B) Parry Romberg syndrome 22. The oral lesion called mucous patches
C) Miescher syndrome is usually multiple grayish white
D) Peutz jegher’s syndrome plaque associated with:
ANS (B) A) Pain
16. Which of the following dentitlons B) No pain
shows the highest frequency of C) Itching
occurrence of supernumerary teeth: D) Burning sensation
A) Maxillary deciduous dentition ANS (B)
B) Maxillary permanent dentition 23. Of the following syndromes,
C) Mandibular deciduous dentition taurodontism is associated with:
D) Mandibular permanent dentition A) Rubinstein Taybi syndrome
ANS (B) B) Klinefelter syndrome
17. Enamel hypoplasia is not a feature of: C) Ascher’s syndrome
A) Osteopetrosis D) Gardner’s syndrome
B) Down’s syndrome ANS (B)
C) Some types of epodermolysis 24. The melkersson Rosenthal syndrome is
bullosa characterized by facial paralysis,
D) Cleidocranial cheilitis granulomatosa and:
ANS (D) A) Hairy tongue
18. Marked reduction in amount of dentin, B) Scrotal tongue
weidening or predentin layer, presence C) Geographic tongue
of large areas of interglobular dentin D) None of the abov e
and irregular pattern of dentin is aseen ANS (B)
in: 25. Conditions which may present
A) Hypocalcified dentin markedly different radiographic
B) Odonto dysplasia appearances depending upon their
C) Dentin dysplasia stage of development include all the
D) Dentinogensis imperfect following except:

A) Dilacerations 31. Hereditary brown opalescent teeth is

B) Central cementifying the term for:
C) Fibrous dysplasia A) Amelogenesis imperfect
D) Paget’s disease B) Dentinogenesis imperfect
ANS (A) C) Hypolastic enamel
26. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is: D) None of the above
A) Hereditary intenstinal polyposis ANS (A)
syndrome 32. Turner’s teeth is a condition caused by:
B) Cheilitis granulomatosa A) Enamel hypoplasia due to
C) Facial hemiatrophy hypocalcemia
D) None of the above B) Due to birth injuries
ANS (A) C) Enamel hypoplasia due to
27. A patient presenting with small yellow congenital syphilis
spots bilaterally symmetrical on the D) Enamel hypoplasia due to local
mucosa of the cheeks could be infection or trauma
diagnosed as having: ANS (B)
A) Koplik’s sports 33. The optimum level of fluoride in
B) Fordyce’s granules drinking water is:
C) Occupational stains A) 0.4 to 0.6 ppm
D) Minor salivary glands B) 0.9 to 1.0 ppm
ANS (B) C) 0.8 to 1.2 ppm
28. The term ‘Atresia’ refers to one of the D) None of the above
following conditions in relation to ANS (B)
salivary glands: 34. Kelstadt’ s cyst is same as:
A) Unusual localized hyperplasia of A) Median mandibular cyst
minor salivary gland B) Nasoalveolar cyst
B) Congenital absence of the major C) Thyroglossal tract cyst
salivary gland D) Globulomaxillary cyst
C) Congenital occlusion or absence of ANS (B)
one or more of the major salivary 35. Which of the following is a fissural
gland ducts cyst?
D) None of the above A) Dentigerous cyst
ANS (C) B) Dermoid cyst
29. One of the following is not a feature of C) Keratocyst
lingual mandibular bone cavity: D) Globulomaxillary cyst
A) Aberrant salivary gland tissue ANS (D)
adjacent to the lingual surface of 36. Out of the following which is not a
the body of the mandible feature of gorlin and Goltz syndrome:
B) A trure cyst A) Jaw cyst basal cell nevus bifid rib
C) Same as stafine cyst syndrome
D) Lies below the mandibular canal B) Cutaneous anomalies
ANS (B) C) Dental and osseous anomalies
30. An angulation or a sharp bend or curve D) Sexual abnormalities
in the root or crown of the formed E) None of the above
tooth is termed as: ANS (E)
A) Talon’s cusp 37. A large double crowned maxillary
B) Taurodontism central incisor having a single root and
C) Dilacerations canal is probably the result of:
D) None of the above A) Fusion
ANS (C) B) Dens in dente

C) Taurodontism A) Temporary suppression of

D) Concrescence amelogensis
ANS (A) B) Loss of enamel cuticle
38. Which of the following conditions C) Failure of ameloblast mitosis
affect both deciduous and permanent D) Failure of odontoblast mitosis
dentition: ANS (A)
A) Congenital syphilis 44. Concrescence is:
B) Erythroblastosis fetalis A) Union between the dentin and or
C) Amelogenesis imperfect the enamel of two more separate
D) None of the above developing teeth
ANS (C) B) Partial development of two teeth
39. Obliteration of pulp chambers or root from a single tooth bud following
canals is characteristics of all of the incomplete division
following except: C) Roots of one or more teeth united
A) Ageing by cementum alone after formation
B) Trauma of the crowns
C) Taurodontism ANS (C)
D) Dentinal dysplasia 45. “Screw driver” shaped incisors are
ANS (C) seen in:
40. Multiple supernumerary or impacted A) Congenital syphilis
teeth are often associated with which B) Crouzon syndrome
of the following conditions? C) Amelogenesis
1. Garner’s syndrome ANS (A)
2. Cleidocranial syndrome 46. Shell tooth is
3. Marfan’s syndrome A) An example of dentinogenesis
4. Mandibulofacial dysostosis imperfect
A) 1 and 2 only B) Hypocalcified tooth
B) 1,2 and 4 C) An artificial crown
C) All of the above D) A dentimal disturbance in which
ANS (1) dentin is extremely thin and pulp
41. The characteristic oral clinical feature chambers are enormous
of Peutzjeghers syndrome is: ANS (A)
A) Melanin pigmentation of the lips 47. “rootless teeth” is:
B) Yellowish spots on the oral mucosa A) Ankylosed deciduous tooth
C) A rhomboid shaped red patch on B) Dentinogenesis imperfect
the dorsum of the tongue C) Dentin dysplasia type II
D) Small, papillary lesions on the D) Permanent teeth having normal
palate crowns associated with roots
ANS (A) com[posed of dysplastic dentin
42. Which of the following conditions is ANS (D)
characterized by abnormally large pulp 48. An inverted pear shaped radiolucent
chambers? area between the roots of the lateral
A) Amelogenesis imperfect incisor and cuspid causing divergence
B) Regional odontodysplasia of the roots of these teeth on X-ry is:
C) Dentinogenesis imperfect A) Nasoalveolar cyst
D) None of the above B) Kerato cyst
ANS (B) C) Globulomaxillary cyst
43. Enamel hypoplasia is a disturbance ANS (C)
resulting from: 49. This cyst does not have radiographic
evidence:

A) Nasoalveolar cyst A) Amelogenesis imperfect

B) Median palatal cyst B) Dentinogenesis imperfect
C) Nasolabial cyst C) Shell teeth
ANS (A) D) Regional odotodysplasia
50. A patient exhibiting a brownish gray ANS (D)
discoloration of teeth which fluoresce a 56. Rediographically the midpalatine
bright yellow under ultraviolet light globulomaxillary and median
may have been affected by: mandibular cysts are most similar in
A) Dentinogenesis imperfect respct to their:
B) Porphyria A) Degree of radiolucency
C) Tetracycline staining B) Having a characteristic location
D) Erythroblastosis fetalis C) Size
ANS (C) D) Having a characteristic
51. Prolonged antibiotic administration is configuration
known to result in the presence of: ANS (B)
A) Fissured tongue 57. The histological features of benign
B) Agranulocytosis migratory glossitis has been described
C) Black hairy tongue to be reminiscent of:
D) None of the above A) Submucous fibrosis
ANS (C) B) Psoriasis
52. Fovea palantinae located in the C) Pemphigus
middline at the junction of the soft and D) Leukoedema
hard palate, are the result of: ANS (B)
A) Fistula formation 58. Dens evaginatus represents a:
B) Coalescence of mucous gland ducts A) Neoplasia
C) Nicotinic stomatitis B) Choristoma
D) None of the above C) Hamartoma
ANS (D) D) Teratoma
53. Persistence of the tuberculum impar in ANS (C)
the course of development results in 59. Neonatal teeth can be defined as those
the presence of a smooth red diamond deciduous teeth:
shaped area on the posterior dorsal A) That appear at birth
aspect of the tongue. These are B) That appear prematurely within 30
characteristic of: days of life
A) Median Rhomboid glossitis C) Those which appear after one year
B) Circumvallate papillae of life
C) Foliate papillae ANS (B)
D) Lingual tonsils 60. The cause of the tapering and notching
ANS (A) of maxillary incisor in congenital
54. Defects in tooth structure in syphilis can be explained on the bases
amelogenesis imperfacta are limited to of:
the: A) Increase in heterogenous
A) Crown and root form nucleation during mineralization
B) Crown and pulp chamber B) Absent calcification centres
C) Dentin and pulp C) Persistence of cell rests of
D) Color, shape and size of the crown Malassez’s
ANS (D) D) Increase in phospholipids binding
55. Unerupted teeth which present a ghost of calcium during mineralization
like radiographic appearance represent ANS (B)
a form of:

61. The concept of genesis of fissural cyst 67. Which on eo fthe following is oral
that arises along the lines of fusion precancer?
during embryogenesis is questionable A) Oral hairy leukoplakia
because: B) White sponge naevus
A) Tissues that are entrapped do not C) Hairy B cell leukemia
show cellular proliferation D) Speckled leukoplakia
B) Tissues that are entrapped show ANS (D)
cells in a resting phase 68. Which of the following is the
C) The mesoderm underlying diagnostic characteristic of peripheral
embryonic grooves smoothens it by giant cell granuloma?
proliferation A) Mass of granulation tissue
ANS (C) B) Multinuclear giant cells
C) Keloid like enlargement
BENING AND MALIGNANT TUOMR D) Epithelium is atrophic in some area
ANS (B)
62. Keratoacanthoma is found most 69. The most common benign tumor
commonly on? occurring in oral cavity is:
A) Lip A) Papilloma
B) Gingiva B) Fibroma
C) Tongue C) Adenoma
D) Hard palate D) Epulis
ANS (A) ANS (B)
63. Patient comes with pain in pharyngeal 70. Hodgkin’s diseases is diagnosed by
region & is having carcinoma of finding which cells in the bipsy from
nasopharynx the diagnosis is? lymph glands:
A) Homer’s syndrome A) Racquet cells
B) Glossopharyngeal neuralgia B) Tzank cell
C) Trotter’s syndrome C) Reed Sternberg cell
D) Eagles syndrome D) Lacunar cell
ANS (C) ANS (C)
64. White radiating lines on buccal mucosa 71. In which of the following perineural
is characteristic of: invasion in head and neck cancer is
A) Erythema multiforme most commonly seen:
B) Pemphingus A) Adenocarcinoma
C) Leukoplakia B) Adenoid cystic carcinoma
D) Lichen planus C) Basal cell adenoma
ANS (D) D) Squamous cell carcinoma
65. Stag horn pattern is a feature of ANS (B)
A) Nemagiopericytoma 72. A 2 cm Squamous Cell CA of
B) Neurofibroma retromolar trigone invading the
C) Hemagioma mandible & medial pterygiod muscle,
D) None of the above do not show any lumph node
ANS (A) enlargement & metastasis to distant
66. Antinuclear antibodies are seen in: site, it is at what TNM Stage?
A) Systemic lipus erythematosus A) Stage-I
B) Leukoplakia B) Stage-II
C) Recurrent apthous stomatitis C) Stage-III
D) NOMA D) Stage-IV
ANS (A) ANS (A)

73. Cases of Hemangioma are present D) Human herpes virus 4

most commonly in which region? ANS (C)
A) Bones 80. The benign neoplasm of ‘brown fat’
B) Head An Neck noted in oral/pharyngeal region is:
C) Gastrointestinal Tract A) Lipoma
D) Liver B) Hibernoma
ANS (B) C) Teratoma
74. The type of carcinoma develop in D) Brown tumor
Marjolin Ulcer is? ANS (B)
A) Basal cell carcinoma 81. Squamous cell carcinoma has tendency
B) Fibrogenic Sarcoma to metastasize through:
C) Adeno Carcinoma A) Blood stream
D) Non e B) Lymphatic system
ANS (A) C) Direct contact
75. Peripheral giant cell granuloma occurs D) None of the above
most commonly on the: ANS (B)
A) Gingiva 82. The multiple lesions seen in patients
B) Alveolar ridge with von Recklighausen’s disease of
C) Palate skin are:
D) Floor of the mouth A) Hemangiomas
ANS (A) B) Ameloblastomas
76. One of the following lesions has C) Neurofibromas
extremely high rate of malignant D) Giant cell tumours
transformation: ANS (C)
A) Verrucous leukoplakia 83. Dysplastic lestions of squamous
B) White spongy nevus epithelium occur most often on the:
C) Nodular luekplakia A) Palate
D) Target of iris lesion B) Gingiva
ANS (C) C) Floor of the mouth
77. Venous malformations involving the D) All of the above
leptomeninges of the cerebral cortex is ANS (C)
a salient feature of: 84. A bilateral gray white lesion of the
A) Rendue Osler Weber disease buccal mucosa disappears when the
B) Maffuci’s syndrome mucosa is stretched. The most likely
C) Angiosteohypertrophy condition is:
D) Sturge weber syndrome A) Leukoedema
ANS (D) B) Leukoplakia
78. The most common neoplasm among C) Lichen planus
HIV positive homosexual males: D) White sponge nevus
A) None Hodgkin’s lymphoma ANS (A)
B) Glomus tumor 85. Tumour metastic to the jaw bones are
C) Kaposi’s sarcoma most likely to be found in the:
D) None of the above A) Mandibular condyle
ANS (C) B) Posterior molar region
79. Which of the following viruses appears C) Anterior maxilla
to be involved in the pathogenesis of D) Maxillar tuberosity
Kaposal’s sarcoma: ANS (B)
A) Human herpes virus 3 86. The most common neoplasia of the
B) Human herpes virus 1 oral cavity is:
C) Human herpes virus 8 A) Sarcoma

B) Squamous cell carcinoma A) EBY virus is casually related to

C) Osteosarcoma Burkitt’s lymphoma
D) Fibrosarcoma B) Primarily involves lymphoid tissue
ANS (B) C) Histologically ‘starry sky’ effect is
87. Out of the following features of characteristic of this tumour
erythroplakia which is not true: D) Primarily occurs in children and
A) It appears as a bright red, soft young adults
velvety lesion with well ANS (B)
demarcated margin 92. Histologically ‘Reed Sternberg’ cells
B) It not precancerous are seen in:
C) May be found interspersed with A) Burkitt’s lymphoma
patches of leucoplakia B) Hodgkin’s disease
D) None of the above C) Multiple myeloma
ANS (B) D) Plasmacytoma
88. Which of the following virus/viruses ANS (B)
has not been known to cause malignant 93. Bence Jones protein in urine is a
diseases in man? feature of:
A) EBV A) Hodgkin’s disease
B) CMV B) Multiple myeloma
C) HSV type II C) Leukemia
D) VZV D) Plasmacytoma
ANS (D) ANS (B)
89. A patient presenting with tumor size 3- 94. One of the following is not a criterion
5 cm involving the homolateral for establishing a diagnosis of solitary
cervical lumph nodes that are not fixed plasma cell myeloma:
but clinically palpable with metastasis A) Presence of a solitary bone tumour
suspected will be staged according to B) A biopsy showing plasma cell
TNM classification as: histology
A) T2N0M0 C) Absence of myeloma cells in bone
B) T1N1M0 marrow Examination
C) T2N1M1 D) Absence of anaemia,
D) T2N2M0 hypercalcemia or renal
ANS (C) involvement
90. Which of the following is not true of E) None of the above
malignant melanoma? ANS (E)
A) It is a neoplasm of epidermal 95. Leiomyoma is a benign tumour derived
melanocytes from:
B) It is one of more biologically A) Vascular tissue
unpredictable and deadly of all B) Skeletal muscles
human neoplasms C) Smooth muscles
C) Two phases of growth are seen D) Fatty tissue
radial growth phase and vertical ANS (C)
growth phase 96. Which of the following is not a type of
D) Nodular melanoma type is non rhabdo myosarcoma?
malignant A) Pleomorphic
ANS (D) B) Alveiolar
91. One of the following feature of C) Embryonal
endemic Burkitt’s lymphoma is not D) Nodular
true: ANS (D)
97. A hamartoma is best defined as:

A) An over zealous repair process C) Bubonic plague

B) An over production of tissue D) None of the above
normal to a particular area ANS (B)
C) A degenerative process of 104. Osteoclastoma is:
connective tissue A) Peripheral giant cell granuloma
D) None of the above B) Central giant cell granuloma
ANS (B) C) Paget’s disease
98. One of the following should not be D) None of the above
considered in the differential diagnosis ANS (A)
of a white oral lesion suspected to 105. Rhabdomyoma is a:
being leucoplakia: A) Tumour of nerve tissue origin
A) Leukoedema B) Tumour of striated muscle origin
B) Lichen planus C) Tumour of smooth muscle origin
C) Silver nitrate bum D) Tumour of vascular tissue origin
D) Stevens johson syndrome ANS (B)
ANS (D) 106. One of the following lesions is
99. One of the following signs/symptoms not strongly associated with HIV
is most suggestive of metastatic infection:
disease: A) Hairy leucoplakia
A) Sudden swelling B) Melanotic hyperpigmentation
B) Gradual weight loss C) Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma
C) Paresthesia D) Kaposi’s sarcoma
D) Sudden onset of tooth mobility ANS (B)
ANS (C) 107. The following is not a feature
100. Which of the following lesions of multiple myeloma:
most commonly occurs on the tongue? A) Bence jones protein
A) Leiomyoma and myxoma B) Multiple radiopaque jaw lesions
B) Rhabdomyoma and ossifying C) Multiple radiolucent lesions
fibroma ANS (B)
C) Granular cell tumour and 108. “Onion Skin” appearance is
lymphangioma common feature of:
D) None of the above A) Fibrous dysplasia
ANS (C) B) Osteosarcoma
101. The most uncommon C) Ewing’s sarcom a
malignancy in the oral cavityis: D) Chondrosarcoma
A) Mucoepidermoid carcinoma ANS (C)
B) Squamous cell carcinoma 109. Osteosarcoma characteristically
C) Basal cell carcinoma may develop in some cases of:
D) Metastatic carcinoma A) Osteopetrosis
ANS (C) B) Osteogenesis imperfect
102. Histologically seen abtropfung C) Acromegaly
or dropping off effect is seen in: D) Osteitis deformans
A) Intradermal nevus ANS (D)
B) Junctional nevus 110. Which of the following clinical
C) Compound nevus lesions is most likely to harbor
D) A and B dysplastic changes, carcinoma in situ
ANS (B) or even early invasive cancer:
103. Rodent ulcer is same as: A) Erythroplakia
A) Squamous cell carcinoma B) Lichen planus
B) Basal cell carcinoma C) Leucoplakia

D) Stomatitis nicotina parakeratin plugging extending into

ANS (A) epithelium
111. Bifid ribs, multiple radiolucent ANS (C)
lesionsof the maxilla and the mandible, 116. Spindle cell carcinoma is lesion
multiple skin lesions and calcification commonly seen upper respiratory tract,
of the falx cerebri are characteristics of which the histo-pathological
of: features can be:
A) Homer’s syndrome A) Epitheloid cells
B) Basal cell nevus syndrome B) Corps or ronds the dyskeratotre
C) Gardner’s syndrome benign cells
D) None of the above C) Pleomorphic well differentiated
ANS (B) spindle cells alongwith tumour
112. Keratoacanthoma appears to be giant cells are seen
histologically as epidermoid carcinoma ANS (C)
because of: 117. The terms sanaplasia denotes:
A) Destroyed basement membrane A) A feature of well differentiation
B) Keratin pearls and individual cell B) Lack of differentiation
keratinisation C) Focal atypism
C) Bizarre mitosis ANS (B)
D) The deep invasine leading margins 118. The oral precancerous
ANS (D) conditions are:
113. Erythroplakia histologically in A) Leukoplakia and candiasis
large percentage of cases shows B) Lichen planus and syphilitic
following features: glossitis
A) Mild dysplasia C) Erythroplakia and dyskeratosis
B) Mild to immoderate dysplasia congenita
C) Mild to carcinoma in situ changes ANS (B)
and even invasive carcinoma 119. The difference between
ANS (C) fibroma and peripheral ossifying
114. Patients with oral submucous histopathologically is:
fibrosis show initially excessive A) Presence of calcifications in the
salivation followed by dryness of latter
mouth at a later stage. It can be due to: B) Giant cells may be only present in
A) Degeneration of salivary gland ossifying fibroma
ducts C) The peripheral ossifying fibroma
B) Calculus formation shows predominant cellularity
C) Thickening of collagen in the when compared to usual fibroma
connective Tissue stroma ANS (C)
surrounding ducts and thereby 120. Junvenile
stenosing them hemangioendothelioma is believed to
ANS (C) be in mature stage of hemangioma
115. The hallmark of the because of:
histopathological feature of verrucous A) Extensive fibrosis
carcinoma can be: B) Extensive cellularity
A) Epithelial proliferation showing C) Extensive cellularity and its
exophytic growth occurrence during early life
B) Vagarant islands of epithelium in ANS (C)
connective tissue 121. The soft tissue myxoma and
C) Downward growth of epithelium oral focal mucinosis differ clinically
into connective tissue with and histopathologically in a sense that:

A) The former is non invasive C) Presence of of centrioles in the

B) Both the lesions are invasive and individual vicinity of nuclei
lack reticulin fibres in stroma ANS (B)
C) The soft tissue myxoma is invasive 126. The starry sky appearance seen
and shows delicate reticulin fibres in Burkitt’s lymphoma
while oral focal mucinosis lacks histopathologically is seen due to:
reticulin and is non invasive A) Plasma cells
ANS (C) B) Macrophages
122. The histopatholigical difference C) Lymphocytes
between a fibrous dysplasia and ANS (B)
ossifying fibroma is difficult but the 127. Reed Sternberg cells are seen
lesions can be distinguished on the in:
bases of: A) Non hodgkin’s lymphoma
A) Only radiographic examination B) Burkitt’s lymphoma
B) Clinical and radiographic C) Hodgkin’s lymphoma
examination ANS (C)
C) Clinical, radiographic and 128. Leiomyoma, a benign tumour
appearance of biopsy from central derived from smooth muscle shows:
part of lesion and nature of growth A) Blunt ended spindle shaped nuclei
pattern B) Vesiculated blunt ended spindle
ANS (C) shaped nuclei
123. The cementum in a cement C) Cells with granulocytoplasm
ossifying fibroma lesion can be seen in ANS (B)
H and EO section as: 129. Melanotic neuroectodermal
A) Acidophilic rounded calcified tumour of an infant shows the
masses following histological feature:
B) Brown rounded calcified masses A) Encapsulated, infiltrating tumour
C) Basophilic amorphous round cells, that are cuboidal in shape
calcified structures B) Cells containing pigments in an
ANS (C) alveiolus like spaces
124. The characteristics feature of C) Non encapsulated, infiltrating cells
veruciform xanthoma is: arranged in a pattern of alveolus
A) Presence of xanthoma cells or foam like spaces lined by cubiodal cells.
cell throughout the connective The central portions of alveolar
tissue spaces amy contain neuroblast like
B) Presence of xanthoma cell in cells
papillary regions between the ANS (C)
epithelial pegs with no extension 130. One of the consistent and
beneath the pegs conspicuous alteration regarding the
C) Presence of xanthoma cell only in histopathological features seen in
deeper parts of connective tissue carcinoma in situ is:
ANS (B) A) Keratin pearls
125. One of the characteristic B) Mitotic activity (bizarre)
microscopic features of ordered C) Loss of orientation of cells and loss
multinucleated Glant cells is: of their normal polarity
A) Randomly nuclei dispersed ANS (C)
throughout the cytoplasm
B) A nuclei dispersed in a horse shoe SALIVARY GLAND
shaped pattern at the outer
circumference of cell

131. Acinic cell carcinomas of the A) Pseudo epitheliomatous

salivary gland arise most often in the: hyperplasia
A) Parotid salivary gland B) Necrosis
B) Minor salivary glands C) Ductal squamuos metaplasia
C) Submandibular salivary gland D) All of the three a,b,c
D) Sublingual salivary gland ANS (D)
ANS (A) 138. The stem cells or precursor
132. Mixed tumours of the salivary cells of salivary gland neoplasm are:
glands are: A) Excretory duct with reserve cells
A) Most common in submadibular B) Excretory duct reserve cells and
gland intercalated duct cells
B) Usually malignant C) Excretory duct reserve cells,
C) Most common in parotid gland intercalated ducts cells and
D) Associated with calculi myoepithelial cells
ANS (A) ANS (B)
133. Which of the following is a 139. The term malignant mixed
tumor of odontogenic epithelium with tumour and carcinoma expleomorphic
ductlike structures and well adenoma are:
encapsulated lesion the prevents need A) Two different histopathological
for block resection entities
A) Adenomatoid odontogenic tumour B) Same entities
B) Pindborg tumour C) Sae as carcinosarcoma
C) Odontogenic myxoma ANS (A)
D) Ameloblastic fibroma 140. Adenoid cystic of
ANS (A) cylindromatous type shows:
134. The Etiology of Mickulicz A) Necrosis of stromal connective
Disease is? tissue surrounding the tumour cells
A) Autoimmunity B) Exaggerated or pronounced
B) Heredity development of basement
C) Viral infection membrane material
D) Inflammatory Disease C) Pronounced production of mucins
ANS (A) ANS (B)
135. Which of the following 141. Mucoepidermoid carcinomas
condition do not manifest Xerostomia? may be composed of:
A) Radiation around head and neck A) Maternal cells, intermediate cells
region for neoplasm B) Maternal cells, intermediate cells,
B) Sjogren syndrome epidermoid cells, clear cells,
C) Vitamin C chewing gum columnar cells and mucous cells
D) Atrophy of glandular tissue C) Only mucous and epidermoid cells
ANS (C) ANS (A)
136. The sialogogues used in 142. The great tendency for
xerostomia is: recurrence in benign salivary gland
A) Hyoscine tumours is largely due to:
B) Pilocarpine A) An inherent tendency of the patient
C) Hyaluronidase to develop tumours
D) Vitamin C B) Invasive nature of the tumour
ANS (B) C) Presence of tumour cells in the
137. Necrotizing silometaplasia can capsule
be mistakenly diagnosed as epidermoid D) The inductive effect in the
carcinoma because of: connective tissue

143. Most common malignant BACTERIAL VIRAL & MYCOTIC

tumour of salivary gland in posterior INFECTION (MICROBIAL)
palatal area is:
A) Warthin’s tumour 149. Monocytes are seen in
B) Malignant mixed tumour tuberculosis, monocytic leukemia,
C) Adenoid cystic carcinoma typhoid and?
D) Mucoepidermoid carcinoma A) Pemicious anaemia
ANS (C) B) Hodgkin’s desease
144. A mixed tumour of intraoral C) Parasitic infection
accessory glands most frequently D) Sub acute bacterial endocarditis
occurs on the: ANS (D)
A) Tongue 150. The Green discoloration
B) Palate frequently seen on children’s teeth is
C) Buccal mucosa caused by:
D) Retromolar area A) Actinomyces Viscosus
ANS (B) B) Streptococcus mutans
145. Which of the following may C) Streptococcus viridians
result from injury to the D) Lactobacillus
auroculotemporal nerve during ANS (A)
removal of a parotid tumour? 151. The Green discoloration
A) Facial palsy frequently seen on children’s teeth is
B) Orolingual paresthesia caused by:
C) Gustatory sweating A) Materia alba
D) None of the above B) Enamel defects
ANS (C) C) Dentinal defects
146. Warthin’s tumour is: D) Chromogenic bacteria
A) Basal cell adenoma ANS (D)
B) Papillary cystadenoma 152. Unilateral vescular eruptions
lymphomatosum along the course of the nerve in oro
C) Pleomorphic adenoma facial region are:
D) Mixed tumour A) Herpes zoster
ANS (B) B) Herpes simplex
147. A patient with symptoms of C) Molluscum contagiosum
keratoconjunctivis sicca, xerostomia D) Infections mononucleosis
and rheumatoid arthritis could be a ANS (A)
case of: 153. Which one of the following
A) Mikulicz’s disease does not commonly survive in
B) Sjogren’s syndrome periapical lesion?
C) Hand Schuller Christian disease A) Pseudomonas
ANS (B) B) Streptococuss
148. Sialoiths are most commonly C) Porphyromonas
found during radiographic examination D) Actinomyces
of the: ANS (A)
A) Submandibular duct 154. The best laboratory test to use
B) Sublingual gland duct in the diagnosis of lupus vulgaris in
C) Minor salivary glands oral cavity is:
D) Parotid duct A) Bacterial smear
ANS (A) B) Blood studies
C) Biopsy
D) Blood chemistry

ANS (C) ANS (D)

155. Infectious mononucleosis is 161. Periapical granuloma is a:
caused by the virus: A) Anaerobic infection
A) CMV B) Aerobic infection
B) EB C) Mixed infection
C) HIV D) Sterile
D) Herpes simples ANS (D)
ANS (B) 162. Majority of flora in the human
156. Critical pH for dental Caries oral cavity are:
is: A) Facultative anaerobe
A) 5.4 – 5.5 B) Microaerophillic
B) 5.7 – 5.8 C) Obligate aerobic
C) 5.8 – 6.0 D) Obligate anaerobic
D) 6.0 – 6.2 ANS (A)
ANS (A) 163. If a sinus tract in the cheek
157. Which of the following is the extrudes yellow granules this is
main reason for resistant of enamel suggestive of:
surface to demineralization? A) Yaws
A) Increased Phosphate content of B) Furunculosis
surface layer. C) Actinomycosis
B) Decreased magnesium content of D) Syphilis
surface layer ANS (C)
C) Increased fluoride content of 164. Positive Paul Bunnel test is
surface layer characteristic and pathognomonic of:
D) Decreased Carbonate content of A) Infectious mononucleosis
surface layer B) Leukemia
ANS (C) C) Pernicious anaemia
158. Ludwig’s Angina, untrue is? D) Netrophilia
A) Involves submandibular sublingual, ANS (A)
submental space 165. Strawberry tongue and
B) Involves bilateral mandibular stomatitis scarlatina with diffuse,
spaces & lumphadenopathy bright scarlet skin rashes is seen in:
C) Bilateral Submandibular, A) Diphtheria
sublingual, submental space along B) Tularemia
with salivary gland enlargement C) Scarlet fever
D) None D) None of the above
ANS (C) ANS (C)
159. In Turku Study sucrose is 166. Klebs Loffler bacillus causes:
replaced by? A) Diphtheria
A) Mannitol B) Syphilis
B) Xylitol C) Sarcoidosis
C) Aspartame D) Tuberculosis
D) Saccharin ANS (A)
ANS (B) 167. Scrofula is seen in association
160. Phycomycete causing infection with:
in man: A) Tuberculosis
A) Rhizopus B) Scarlet fever
B) Mucor C) Uveoparotid fever
C) Absidia D) None of the above
D) All ANS (A)

168. Most common type of ANS (A)

actinomycosis is: 175. Which of the following is
A) Cervicofacial caused by coxsackie group A viruses
B) Abdominal A) Haemorrhagic fever
C) Pulmonary B) Herpangina
D) Miliary C) Rubella
ANS (A) D) Yellow fever
169. Risus sardonicus is seen in: ANS (B)
A) Hypercalcemia 176. Which of the following is a
B) Tetanus viral disease?
C) Tularemia A) Tularemia
D) Syplary B) Leishmaniasis
ANS (B) C) Hand, foot and mouth disease
170. A lesion most commonly seen D) Sarcoidosis
in pregnant women is: ANS (C)
A) Pregnancy tumour 177. Herpes zoster may resemble the
B) Gramuloma lesions of herpes simplex, but the two
C) Hypertrophy of gingival diseases can be separated:
D) None of the above A) Herpes simplex does not involve
ANS (A) the nervous system
171. One of the following is not a B) Zoster virus cannot be transmitted
DNA virus: to animals
A) Herpes virus C) Vesicular eruptions are only seen
B) Pox virus in herpes simplex infection
C) Picoma virus D) None of the above
D) Parvo virus ANS (B)
ANS (C) 178. Clinical diagnosis of
172. The tissues preferentially candidiasis is confirmed by:
involved by the herpes simplex virus A) Characteristic odour
are derived from: B) Response to injection of vit B 12
A) Ectoderm C) Demonstration of mycelia and
B) Mesoderm spores in scrapings
C) Endoderm D) Demonstration of a sun ray
D) A and B arrangement of fungal filaments in
ANS (A) gingival fluid
173. Histologically ‘Lipschutz ANS (C)
bodies’ are seen in: 179. The feature that frequently
A) Herpes simlex distinguish herpes zoster from other
B) Herpes zoster vesiculobullous eruptions is:
C) Aphthous ulcers A) Unilateral occurrence
D) Carcrum oris B) Severe burning pain
ANS (A) C) Seasonal pattern of development
174. A patient with recurrent D) None of the above
ulcerations which were seen on oral ANS (A)
mucosa tightly bound to perosteum can 180. A patient with a severe mycotic
be diagnosed as having: infection of the head and neck
A) Herpetic stomatitis characterized by the triad of
B) Aphthous stomatitis uncontrolled diabetes, orbital
C) Vitamin B 12 deficiency infections of meningoecephalitis most
D) None of the above probably has:

A) Candidiasis B) Sucrose
B) Mucormycosis C) Dextran
C) Actinomycosis D) Glycogen
D) Histoplasmosis ANS (C)
ANS (B) 186. The first clinical sign of early
181. White lesions that can be caries of enamel is:
stripped away from the tongue leaving A) Cavitation
a red surface in an elderly patient on B) Sensitivity
oral penitent on oral penicillin can be C) Loss of translucency
diagnosed as: D) A brown or black pigmented spot
A) Candidiasis ANS (C)
B) Lichen planus 187. The greatest degree of lateral
C) Histoplasmosis spreading in a carious lesion is at:
D) White sponge nevus A) Enamel lamellae
ANS (A) B) Dentino enamel junction
182. Which of the following is C) Striae of Retzius
essential to the development of caries? D) Sclerotic dentin
A) High carbohydrate diet ANS (B)
B) Genetic predisposition to the 188. The routine use of oral
disease penicillin as an anticariogenic agent in
C) Presence of bacterial plaque on the human is not recommended because:
tooth A) It is not a particularly effective anti
D) None of the above cariogenic agent
ANS (C) B) There is the possibility of
183. An experimental finding that developing penicillin resistant
strongly implicates bacteria as pathogenic microbes
etiologic agents in dental caries is the: C) The patient may become
A) Absence of dental caries in hypersensitive to the drug
gnotobiotic animals D) All of the above
B) Decreased incidence of caries ANS (D)
when good oral hygiene is 189. The most widely accepted,
practiced theory for the aetiology of dental caries
C) Decreased incidence of caries is the:
when animals are fed through a A) Proteolytic theory
tube that bypasses the mouth B) Proteolysis chelation theory
D) None of the above C) Acidogenic theory
ANS (A) D) Lactobacillus theory
184. Which of the following regions ANS (C)
in the crown of a tooth is often 190. Which of the following are the
mistaken for caries in a radiograph: suggested methods for control of
A) Pulp horn dental caries?
B) Marginal ridge A) Chemical measures
C) Cementoenamal junction B) Nutritional measures
D) Secondary dentin C) Mechanical measures
ANS (C) D) All of the above
185. The gummy substance that ANS (D)
facilitates plaque abherence to the 191. Which of the following is most
tooth surface is produced by bacterial often associated with a non vital tooth?
conversion of a carbohydrate to: A) Periapical cyst
A) Levan B) Periapical cementoma

C) Hyperplastic pulpitis C) Sclerosing osteomyelitis

D) Internal resorption D) Condensing osteitis
ANS (A) ANS (B)
192. Phoenix abscess is: 199. Ludwig’s angina involves:
A) Abscess in relation to mandibular A) Submaxillary space
molars B) Submental space
B) Chronic abscess C) Sublingual space
C) An acute flare up in a previously D) All of the above
chronic lesion such as a granuloma ANS (D)
or apical cyst 200. Which of the following is a true
D) None of the above cyst:
ANS (C) A) Aneurismal bone cyst
193. Chronic Osteomyelitis with B) Traumatic cyst
proliferative periostitis of the mandible C) Gingival cyst of the newborn
is characterized clinically by marked: D) None of the above
A) Endosteal bone formation ANS (C)
B) Periosteal bone formation 201. Which of the following tissue is
C) Resorption of cortical bone radioresistant?
D) Resorption of medullary bone A) Growing bone
ANS (B) B) Conjunctiva
194. Noma is: C) Salivary gland
A) Cancrum oris D) Liver
B) Pyogenic granuloma ANS (D)
C) Vincent’s disease 202. Secondary syphilis may be
D) Denture stomatitis manifested clinically by:
ANS (A) A) Lip ulceration
195. The following is not viral B) Perforation of the palate
disease: C) Vesicles involving the oropharynx
A) Cold sores and soft palate
B) Herpangina D) Oral mucous patches and a
C) Cat scratch fever maculopappular
D) Tularemia ANS (D)
ANS (D) 203. Oral ulcers which are
196. Darling’s disease is: characteristically painless are those
A) Histoplasmosis associated with:
B) Blastomycosis A) Trauma
C) Candidiasis B) Tuberculosis
D) Coccidioidomycosis C) Primary herpes
ANS (A) D) Primary syphilis
197. The area of greatest ANS (D)
demineralization in enamel caries is: 204. Specific immunologic tests for
A) Zone 1 syphilis include all the following
B) Zone 2 except:
C) Zone 3 A) FTA
D) Zone 4 B) Reiter protein complement fixation
ANS (C) C) Treponema pallidum
198. Garre’s osteomyelitis is: immobilization
A) Chronic osteomyelitis D) VDRL
B) Chronic osteomyelitis with ANS (D)
proliferative periostitis

205. Clinically the most definitive ANS (B)

indication of the presence of ANUG is: 211. The tuberculous lesion of head
A) History of spontaneous gingival and neck may be of which types:
bleeding A) Primary, secondary
B) A fetid breath odour B) Primary
C) Marginal gingivitis C) Primary, secondary and allergic
D) Necrosis of interdental papillae type
ANS (D) ANS (C)
206. A clinical feature most helpful 212. Tuberculous granulation in oral
in differentiating an oral tuberculous cavity refers to:
ulcer from a lesion of syphilis is that A) Lesions involving extraction
the tuberculous ulcer: sockets
A) Has a rolled border B) Lesions involving when tooth
B) Invariably involves the lower lip extraction sockets are involved.
C) Has washed leather appearance The healing is delayed and socket
D) Is usually considerably more is filled with pink to red
painful granulation tissue
ANS (D) C) Lesion involving the tongue
207. The HSV virus remains latent ANS (B)
in nerve ganglia until reactivated. 213. Difficulty in deglutition,
HSV-2 virus remains latent in: regurgitations, rhinolalia aperta may be
A) Trigeminal ganglion observed in oral lesions of:
B) Lumbosacral ganglion A) Tuberculosis
C) Both of the above B) Leprosy
D) None of the above C) Actinomycosis
ANS (B) ANS (C)
208. A coxsackie virus is implicated 214. Syphilic glossitis that is
in etiology of: characterized by atrophy of filliform
A) Herpes zoster and fungiform papillae results due to:
B) Measles A) Circulatory deficiency due to
C) Small pox obliterative endarteritis
D) Hand, foot and mouth disease B) Due to desquamation or
ANS (D) dyskeratosis
209. One of the following is not a C) Due to deficiency of vitamin A
feature of nursing bottle caries ANS (A)
A) Most commonly the four maxillary 215. The bacteria of the genus
incisors are involved actinomyces and fungi can be
B) Mandibular incisors are usually compared or distinguished on the basis
involved of:
C) Nursing bottle caries is caused by A) Presence of chitin in Actinomyces
use of nursing bottle bacteria
D) None of the above B) Absence of nuclear membrane in
ANS (B) fungi
210. The most prevalent type of C) Presence of chitin in fungi cell wall
carious lesion in both the deciduous and presence of nuclear membrane.
and permanent dentitions is: Both these structures are not seen
A) Proximal caries in bacteria of the genus
B) Occlusal caries actinomyces
C) Buccal caries ANS (C)
D) Lingual caries

PULP & PERIAPICAL TISSUE A) Pain on biting

B) Extreme pain on percussion
216. A radiopaque area is found at C) Increased and persistent pain on
the root apex of an asymptomatic application of cold
young permanent tooth involved with D) None of the above
deep caries. The most probable ANS (C)
involved with deep caries. The most 222. Pulpal pain as a response to
probable diagnosis is? injury or disease is probably the result
A) Condensing osteitis of:
B) Acute Apica! Periodontitis A) Increased pressure on nerve
C) Chronic Periodontitis endings
D) Cementoma B) Irritation of nerve endings by toxic
ANS (A) products of inflammation
217. Puplitis may terminate readily C) The pressure of active pulp stones
in: D) A and B
A) Hyalinization ANS (D)
B) Cyst formation 223. A tooth is characterized by
C) Granulomatous change in pulp slight extrusion from the socket, pain
D) Pulp necrosis and thickening of the periodontal
ANS (D) ligament. The most likely diagnosis is:
218. The first indication of the A) Periapical cyst
presence of juvenile periodontitis is B) Periapical abscess
most often: C) Periapical granuloma
A) Tooth ache D) Condensing osteitis
B) Traumatic occlusion ANS (B)
C) Sudden drifting of the teeth 224. Which of the following lesions
D) Marginal gingivitis in 1st molar precedes a periapical cyst?
region A) Periapical granuloma
ANS (C) B) Cementoma
219. Which of the following has the C) Chronic focal scelrosing
greatest significance in determining osteomyelitis
whether or not a pulp will survive an D) None of the above
episode of injury? ANS (A)
A) Open pulpitis 225. A young adult patient
B) A large apical formation complained of a “soft piece of skin
C) Presence or absence of microbes growing out of my tooth”. On the
D) Presence or absence of reparative clinical examination mandibular first
dentin molar was carious exposed with
ANS (C) granulation tissue extending from the
220. One of the following is seen as exposed pulp chamber. The correct
a radiolucency with the apex of a diagnosis is:
single vital tooth: A) Chronic suppurative pulpitis
A) Periapical cyst B) Pulp polyp
B) Traumatic bone cyst C) An irritation fibroma involving the
C) Periapical granuloma pulp
D) Residual cyst D) None of the above
ANS (B) ANS (B)
221. Which of the following is a 226. Which of the following is
major symptom of acute normally characterized by pain?
nonsuppurative pulpitis? A) Periapical dental granuloma

B) Pulp polyp A) Gingivitis

C) Acute periapical abscess B) Periodonitis
D) Radicular cyst C) Juvenile periodonitis
ANS (C) D) Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
227. The colour of normal gingiva ANS (D)
is: 234. Tobacco smoking is thought to
A) Red be a predisposing or a contributing
B) Pink factor in which of the following
C) Coral pink conditions?
D) None of the above A) Cyclic neutropenia
ANS (C) B) Juvenile periodontitis
228. Odniolithiasis is: C) Chediak Higashi Syndrome
A) Stone in salivary gland D) Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
B) Stone in maxillary antrum ANS (D)
C) Caculus deposits on teeth 235. In juvenile periodontitis the
D) There is no such term teeth with the earliest and most servere
ANS (C) destruction are usually:
229. In gingivitis the radiographic A) Incisors and first premolars
picture shows: B) Incisors and second premolars
A) Breakdown of interdental bone C) Incisors and first molars
B) Breakdown of lamina dura D) Incisors and second molars
C) Early bony changes are seen ANS (C)
D) None of the above 236. The bacterial flora in
ANS (D) periodontal pockets associated with
230. An inflammatory condition juvenile periodontitis is predominantly:
involving primarily the free gingival A) Gram positive aerobic cocci
margin the crest of the gingiva and the B) Gram negative anaerobic rods
interdental papillae and seen in C) Gram negative aerobic rods
malnourished patients is: D) Gram positive anaerobic cocci
A) Noma ANS (B)
B) Acute necrotizing uncreative 237. Gingival involvement is an
gingivitis unusual finding in patients with which
C) Syphilitic gingivitis of the following conditions?
D) None of the above A) Recurrent aphthae
ANS (B) B) Pemphigiod
231. Gingival hyperplasia is due to C) Pyogenic granuloma
inflame mation: D) Primary herpetic infection
A) True ANS (A)
B) False 238. One of the common side effects
ANS (B) seen in the oral cavity of patients on
232. Giant cell lesions of the dilantin therapy is:
periodontium are best considered as: A) Stains in lower anteriors
A) Benign neoplasms B) Hairy tongue
B) Malignant neoplasms C) Gingival hyperplasia
C) Non neoplastic reactive conditions D) There are no such side effects of
D) None of the above dilantin
ANS (C) ANS (C)
233. The role of microbial blaque is 239. Stillman’s cleft is:
most obscure in which of the following A) Development cleft on lingual
diseases? surface of maxillary lateral incisors

B) Gingival recession in mandibular C) Trisomy 13

molar region D) Turner
C) Gingival recession often beginning ANS (C)
as a thing break in the face gingiva 244. Blue sclera is characteristic of:
adjacent to the centre of a tooth A) Amelogenesis imperfect
D) None of the above B) Tetracycline hypolasia
ANS (C) C) Fluorosis
D) Osteogenesis imperfect
PHYSICAL & CHEMICAL INJRY ANS (D)
245. Ground glass appearance in
240. A 9 yr old child’s mother bone is seen in:
comes to dental clinic with the A) Hyperparathyroidism
complaint of oral ulceration, fever and B) Fibrous dysplasia
shedding of skin of palms and soles; C) Condensing osteities
she is giving history of premature D) Osteopetrosis
shedding of teeth, teething and E) Both A and B
increased sweating, she is also giving ANS (E)
one month history of using any new 246. Pierre robin syndrome is
teething gel available in market. The associated with:
child is suffering from. A) Micrognathia
A) Acrodynia B) Cleft lip or palate
B) Pemphigus vulgaris C) Tetralogy of fallot
C) Epidermolysis Bullosa D) Sundactyly
D) Erosive lichen planus ANS (A)
ANS (A) 247. Hypercementosis of entire
241. Solitary unceration of the oral dentition is a feature of:
mucosa is most often the result of: A) Albers Schonberg disease
A) Chemical burns B) Paget’s disease
B) Intake of excessively hot liquids or C) Lathyrism
foods D) Low grade periapical inflammation
C) Radiation therapy ANS (B)
D) Trauma 248. In treacher cllin’s syndrome,
ANS (D) there is:
A) Upward sloping of the palpebral
BONE & JOINT fissure
B) Poorly developed or absent malar
242. Mosaic pattern of bone is seen bones
in radiographic features of? C) Progeria and mandibular
A) Fibrous dysplasia prognathisms
B) Osteitis deformans D) No loss of hearing
C) Osteopetrosis ANS (B)
D) Osteogenesis imperfect 249. Café-au-lait spots are in seen
ANS (B) in:
243. A infant with cleft lip, cleft A) Paget’s diseases of bone
palate, polydactyl, microephaly with B) Cherubism
phloprosencephaly, microcephaly with C) Von Recklinghausen’s disease
holoprosencephaly, ectodermal scalp D) Von Williebrand’s disease
defect is suffering from? ANS (C)
A) Trisomy 21 250. A 9 yr old child has increased
B) Trisomy 18 horizontal anterior bone loss, less

cementum and on test shows excretion A) Bilateral enlargement of the angle

of phosphoethanolamine in the urine. region of mandible
The child is suffering from: B) Multiple soap bubble like
A) Hypophosphatasia radiolucencies
B) Vit, D resistant Rickets C) An apparent upward tilt of the eyes
C) Juvenile periodontitis D) Paresthesia of the lower lip
D) Osteomalacia ANS (D)
ANS (A) 257. Presence of Heberden;s node
251. Floating teet are present in: (as indicated by swelling of the
A) Cherubism terminal finger joints) is most
B) Ameloblastoma characteristic of:
C) Cleidocranial dysplasia A) Albright’s syndrome
D) Cleft plate B) Fibrous dysplasia
ANS (A) C) Rheumatoid arthritis
252. Which of following is most D) Osteoarthritis
Radioresistant tumor? ANS (D)
A) Ewing’s Sarcoma 258. A patient presents with history
B) Ameloblastoma of proneness to fracture of bone since
C) Carcinoma maxillary sinus childhood with pale blue sclera may be
D) Carcinoma alveolus a case of:
ANS (B) A) Osteogenesis imperfect
253. Plydactyly, craniosynostosis, B) Osteoporosis
late closure of fon-tanelles is a feature C) Calcium deficiency
of: D) None of the above
A) Apert’s syndrome ANS (A)
B) Crouzon’s syndrome 259. Cleidocranial dysostosis is
C) Pierre Robin syndrome characterized by which of the
D) Down’ syndrome following signs on a dental
ANS (A) radiograph?
254. Absence of cementum is a A) Osteoporosis
feature of: B) Hypercementosis
A) Vitamin D resistant rickets C) Supermumerary teeth
B) Hyupocalcaemia D) Multiple periapical radiolucencies
C) Hypophosphastasia ANS (C)
D) Osteoporosis 260. Which of the following is the
ANS (C) most frequent cause of ankylosis of the
255. A patient 18 years of with temporomandibular joint?
sebaceous cysts on the scalp and back A) Osteoarthritis
of the neck an osteoma on the right B) Traumatic injury
mandible; Radiographs reveal multiple C) Congenital syphilis
impacted supernumerary teeth in both D) Traumatic occlusion
jaws. These findings suggest: ANS (B)
A) Cleidocranial dysostois 261. ‘Cotton Wool’ appearance of
B) Ectodermal dysplasia the skull on roentenograms is typical
C) Gardner’s sysndrome of:
D) Osteogenesis imperfect A) Osteitis deformans
ANS (C) B) Achondroplasia
256. Following are the features of C) Osteopetrosis
cherubism except: D) None of the above
ANS (A)

262. Fibrous dysplasia involving 267. President Abraham Lincoln of

nearly all bones in the skeleton and United Status suffered from:
accompanied by pigmented lesions of C) Pierre Robin syndrome
the skin and in addition D) Down syndrome
endocrinopathies are seen in: E) Marfan’s syndrome
A) Gorham syndrome F) None of the above
B) Van buchem syndrome ANS (C)
C) Albright’s syndrome 268. Marble bone disease is the
D) None of the above other name for:
ANS (C) A) Osteogenesis imperfect
263. The most common B) Osteopetrosis
complication of rheumatoid arthritis C) Fibrous dysplasia
involving the temporomandibular joint D) Paget’s disease
is: ANS (B)
A) Ankylosis 269. In the older literature one of the
B) Osteoma of the condyle classic initial complaints of patients
C) Synovial chondromatosis need to buy hats of increasingly larger
D) Subluxation size because of the skull enlargements
ANS (A) was generally a case of:
264. Osteogenesis imperfect is A) Paget’s disease
manifested clinically by: B) Osteopetrosis
A) Punched out radiolucencies of the C) Osteogenesis imperfecta
jaw D) None of the above
B) Numerous unerupted ANS (A)
supermumerary teeth 270. In addition to four positive
C) Osteoporosis laid a history of findings in myofascial pain
anaemia dysfunction syndrome one of the
D) A history of multiple fractures and typical negative feature is an absence
a blue tint to the sclera of clinical reontgenographic or
ANS (D) biochemical evidence of organic
265. A patient with featrures of changes in the joint the other is:
abnormalities of the skull, teeth, jaws A) Pain
and shoulder girdle and hyper mobility B) Muscle tendermess
of shoulder because of absence of C) Lack of tendermess in the joint
clavicles may be a case of: D) Limitation of jaw movements
A) Marfan’s syndrome ANS (C)
B) Cleidocranial dysplasia 271. The following is not a giant cell
C) Craniofacial dysostosis lesion of the jaw:
D) None of the above A) Peripheral giant cell granuloma
ANS (B) B) Brown’s tumour
266. A patient with congenital cleft C) Osteitis deformans
palate, micrognathia and glossoptosis D) Cherubism
and respiratory difficulty with birth ANS (C)
face could be a case of: 272. The treatment for a patient of
A) Pierre robin syndrome cherubsim is:
A) Hemifacial microsomia A) Surgical excision
B) Treacher Collins syndrome B) Dissectior enoloc
B) Crouzon disease C) Cosmetic surgery
ANS (A) D) Radiation therapy
ANS (C)

273. The difference between the development of carcinoma of oral

WHO type and simple type of nucous
odontogenic fibroma Membrane is:
histopathologically is: A) Garner’s syndrome
A) WHO type consists of a relatively B) Oster Rendu Wber syndrome
matured but quite celluar fibrous C) Sturge Wber syndrome
connective tissue while simple type D) Plummer Vinson syndrome
is characterized by immature ANS (D)
cellular fibrous connective tissue 277. Disease characterized by
B) WHO type is characterized by a normal platelet Count but increased
cellular fibrous tissue with no bleeding time?
islands of odontogenic epithelium A) Hemophilia – A
while simple type has matured B) Hemohillia – B
fibrous tissue with osteoid, C) Aplastic Anemia
dysplastic dentin or cementum D) Glanzmann Disease
C) The simple type is histologically ANS (D)
characterized by a tumour mass 278. Bleeding time and
made up of matured colleague prothrobmbin time is prolonged in:
fibres interspersed usually by many A) DIC
plump fibroblasts while the WHO B) Thrombocytopenia
type shows cellular fibrous tissue C) Hemophilia
which is matured relatively. D) Von Willebrand’s disease
Osteoid, dysplastic dentin or ANS (A)
cementum like may be also present 279. The most common neoplasm
material among HIV positive homosexual
ANS (C) males:
274. One of the Vicker’s and A) Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma
Gorlin’s criteria is: B) Glomus tumor
A) Hypochromatism of basal cell C) Kaposi’s sarcoma
nuclei D) None of the above
B) Loss of polarity of cells ANS (C)
C) Keratin pearls formation 280. A necrotizing ragged mucosal
D) Hyperchormatism of basal cells ulceration with no apparent
ANS (D) inflammatory response is indication of:
A) Leucocytosis
B) Agranulocytosis
BLOOD DISEASE C) Sickle cell anaemia
D) Infectious mononucleosis
275. Disease characterized by ANS (B)
insidious onset and by an absolute 281. Which of the following
increase in number of circulating disorders is likely to result in a
RBC’s & in total blood volume? prolonged bleeding time?
A) Polycythemia A) Hemophilia A
B) Osier’s disease B) Thrombocytopenia
C) Mediterranean disease C) Hemophilia B
D) Aplastic anaemia D) Hemophilia C
ANS (B) ANS (B)
276. The syndrome which is 282. Erythroblastic anaemia is also
associated with predisposition to the known as:
A) Cooley’s anaemia

B) Permicious anaemia ANS (B)

C) Sprue 288. A condition characterized by an
D) Aplastic anaemia increase in the number of circulating
ANS (A) blood platelets is known as:
283. A hereditary type of chronic A) Thrombocytopenia
hemolytic anaemia transmitted as B) Thrombocytasthenia
mendelian dominant, non sex linked C) Thrombocythemia
characteristic which occurs almost D) None of the above
exclusively in blacks because of ANS (C)
substitution of valine for glutamine at 289. The disease of Kings is:
the sixth position of the β globulin A) Hemophilia
chain is: B) Von Willebrand’s disease
A) Pernicious anaemia C) Hypofibrinogenopenia
B) Thalassemia D) Sarcoma
C) Sickle cell anaemia ANS (A)
D) None of the above 290. Haemophilia B is due to
ANS (C) deficiency of the following clotting
284. A child with green, brown or factor:
blue hue coloured teeth, ground A) Plasma thromboplastinogen
sections of which test positive for B) Plasma thromboplastin component
bilirubin can be diagnosed as a case of: C) Plasma thromboplastin atecendent
A) Progeria D) Factor VII
B) Erythroblastosis fetalis ANS (B)
C) Iron deficiency anaemia 291. In hemophilic patients, the
D) None of the above following lab findings are seen:
ANS (B) A) Prolonged clotting time
285. A patient with elevated red B) Prolonged bleeding time
blood cells, deep purplish red oral C) Prolonged prothrombin time
mucous membranes and cyanosis with D) Defective platelet aggregation
reduced hemoglobin in amounts ANS (A)
exceeding 5gm/dl could be diagnosed 292. In von Willebrand’s disease the
as: lab findings show:
A) Iron deficiency anaemia A) Prolonged bleeding time
B) Polycythemia vera B) Normal platelet count
C) Pernicious anaemia C) Normal clotting time
D) None of the above D) All of the above features
ANS (B) ANS (D)
286. The most common cause of 293. Parahemophilia is a rare
cosinophilia in India is: haemorrhagic disorder caused by
A) Allergic disorders deficiency of:
B) Worm infestation A) Factor VIII
C) Chronic myelocytic leukemia B) Factor VII
D) Rheumatoid arthritis C) Factor IX
ANS (B) D) Factor V
287. The factor III in the blood ANS (D)
clotting mechanism is: 294. A serious disease involving the
A) Prothrombin white blood cells secondary to
B) Tissue thromboplastin ingestion of any one of aconsiderable
C) Lonized calcium variety of drugs and seen more
D) Labile factor commonly in health care personnel is:

A) Lymhocytosis 300. Prolonged clotting time is

B) Monocytosis manifestation of all the following
C) Agranulocytosis except:
D) None of the above A) Fibrinogen deficiency
ANS (C) B) Hempphilia A
295. Thalassemia group of anaemias C) Hageman deficiency
is characterized by diminished D) Scurvy
synthesis of: ANS (D)
A) Iron 301. A vitamin K deficnecy is
B) Α globin chair of hemoglobin A indicated by:
C) Β globin chain of hemoglobin A A) A low platelet count
D) B and C B) Ah increase PT
ANS (D) C) A decreased prothormbin time
296. A patient gives history of D) None of the above
spontaneous appearance of purpuric or ANS (B)
haemorrhagic lesions of the skin and 302. Paget’s disease, fibrous
exhibits a bruising tendency with non dysplasia and hyperparathyroidism are
papable spleen may be a case of: most likely to provide blood chemistry
A) Leukemia findings of an elevated:
B) Thrombocytopenic purpura A) Serum calcium
C) Thrombocytosis B) Srum calcium phosphatase
D) None of the above C) Serum glutamic oxalacetic trans
ANS (B) aminase
297. An abnormal increase in the D) Uric acid
number of circumlating white blood ANS (B)
cells is called:
A) Leucopenia SKIN DISEASE
B) Leukocytosis
C) Eosinophilia 303. Saw tooth rete pags are seen
D) Lymphocytosis in?
ANS (B) A) Lichen planus
298. Atrophy of the oral pharyngeal B) Erythema multiforme
and gastric mucosa, koilonychias and C) Psoriasis
predisposition to oral carcinoma in D) Leukoplakia
post menopausal women are features ANS (A)
of: 304. Pemphigus vulgaris is
A) Iron deficiency anaemia characterized by:
B) Pernicious anaemia A) Acanthosis
C) Sturge Weber Dimitri syndrome B) Acantholysis
D) Plummer Vison syndrome C) Auspitz’s sign
ANS (D) D) Wickham’s striae
299. Cooley’s anaemia presents the ANS (B)
following features: 305. Ectodermal dysplasia is:
A) Hypochromic microcytic type of A) Autosomal recessive
anaemia B) Autosomal dominant
B) “safety pin” cells C) X-linked dominant
C) Hair-on-end appearance of the D) X-linked recessive
skull on X-rays ANS (D)
D) All of the above 306. Photosensitive rash, reynaud’s
ANS (D) phenomenon, autoimmune disorders,

and arthritis are included in the 313. The LE cell inclusion

spectrum of: phenomenon is specific test generally
A) Sclerdoema for:
B) Sle A) Systemic lupus erythematosus
C) Sjogren’s syndrome B) Discoid lupus erythematosus
D) Psoriasis C) A and B
ANS (B) D) Pemphigus vulgaris
307. Monro’s abscess is seen in the ANS (A)
histological picture of: 314. A patient with hyper elasticity
A) Darriers disease of skin, hyper extensibility of the
B) Psoriasis joints, termed rubber man may be a
C) Systemic lupus erythematosus case of:
D) Behcets disease A) Ehlers Danlos syndrome
ANS (B) B) Kawasaki disease
308. Wickham’s straiae striace are C) Scleroderma
seen in: D) None of the above
A) Leucoplakia ANS (A)
B) Erythoplakia 315. Which of the following is in,
C) Submucous fibrosis lerited as an autosomal dominant trait?
D) Lichen planus A) Lichen planus
ANS (D) B) Bullous pemphigoid
309. Cannon’s disease is: C) Pemphigus vulgaris
A) White sponge nevus D) White sponge nevus
B) Acanthosis nigricans ANS (D)
C) Pemphigus vulgaris 316. Which of the following is
D) None of the above major radiographic finding in
ANS (A) ectodermal dysplasia?
310. Erosive lichen planus is a result A) Osteoporosis
of progressive process from “non- B) Congenitally missing teeth
erosive” lichen planus: C) Calcification of faix cerebri
A) True D) None of the above
B) False ANS (B)
ANS (B) 317. The primary cause of
311. The loss of epithelium acantholysis in pemphigus vulgaris is:
occasioned by rubbing apparently A) Autoimmunity
unaffected skin termed Nikolsky’s sign B) Intercellular oedema
is seen in: C) Intraepithelial oedema
A) Pemphigus D) A thickening of the spinous layer
B) White sponge nevus ANS (A)
C) Psoriasis 318. A circulating antibody directed
D) None of the above to intercellular cementing substance of
ANS (A) stratified suqamous epithelium is
312. Tzanck test and observed in which of the following
immunofluorescent testing for Ig4, C3 disorders?
are positive in cases of: A) Lichen planus
A) Erythema multiforme B) Pemphigus vulgaris
B) Pemphigus vulgaris C) Bullous pemphigoid
C) Bullous lichen planus D) None of the above
D) None of the above ANS (B)
ANS (B)

319. A young patient has a bilateral, 325. One of the following is least
pearly white thickening of the buccal frequently involved in Stevens johnson
mucous since birth. His younger syndrome:
brother also has similar lesions. A) Eye
History and clinical findings are B) Respiratory tract
consistent with a diagnosis of: C) Oral mucous membrane
A) Leukoedema D) Skin
B) White sponge nevus ANS (B)
C) Lichen planus DISEASE OF NERVE & MUSCLE
D) Mucous patches
ANS (B) 326. A neuralgic pain characterized
320. Nikolsky’s sign in seen in cases by unilateral paroxysms of intense pain
of: in the region of the eyes, maxilla ear,
A) Chronic desquamative gingivitis mastoid base of the nose and zygoma
B) Epidermolysis bullosa with, alarm clock’ regularity is:
C) Pemphigus A) Trigeminal neuralgia
D) All of the above B) Sphenopalatine neuralgia
ANS (D) C) Migraine
321. Oncocytosis shows: D) None of the above
A) Degeneration of mitochondria ANS (B)
B) Increase in mitochondrial 327. Glossopyrosis and glossodynia
membrane are features of:
C) Increase in number of A) Orolingual paresthesia
mitochondria and mitochondrial B) Vidian nerve neuralgia
membrane due to compensation of C) Trigeminal neuralgia
the fundctional defect of D) None of the above
mitochondria ANS (A)
ANS (C) 328. A patient with complaint of
322. The dyskeratotic benign cells: drooping of the corner of the mouth
A) Can be seen in pemphigus with dirbbling of saliva, watering of
B) Are the abnormal/premature cells the eye and inability to close or wink
seen in Darrier;s disease the eye with mask like expression may
C) Are seen in malignant dysplasia be diagnosed as case of:
sometimes A) Bell’s palsy
ANS (B) B) Frey’s syndrome
323. Manifestations of urethritis, C) Down’s syndrome
arthritis conjunctivitis and ANS (A)
mucocutaneous lesions are seen in: 329. Congenital unilateral ptosis
A) Behcet’s syndrome with rapid elevation of the ptotic eyelid
B) Sjogren’s syndrome occurring on movement of the
C) Reiter’s syndrome mandible to the contralateral side are
D) None of the above feature of:
ANS (C) A) Eagle’s syndrome
324. Target lesions of hand are seen B) Homer’s syndrome
in: C) Causalgia
A) Pityriasis rosea D) Marcus gunn phenomenon
B) Pemphigus ANS (D)
C) Erythema multiforme 330. Which of the following
D) None of the above symptoms suggest trigeminal
ANS (C) neuralgia?

A) Sharp servere spasmodic pain pain in the ear, pharynx, nasopharynx,

B) Intermittent attacks of increasing tonsil or posterior tongue is:
pain intensity A) Bell’s pasly
C) Unilateral facial pain with a trigger B) Trigeminal neuralgia
zone C) Paratrigeminal neuralgia
D) All of the above D) Glossopharyngeal neuralgia
ANS (D) ANS (A)
331. A patient who suffered a ODONTOGENIC CYST & TUMOR
displaced mandibular fracture in
mental foramen area sometimes ago 336. The most common site of
complains of pains and palpation occurrence of lateral periodontal cyst
reveals a freely movable exquisitely is:
tender mass in the area. The best A) Between the mandibular cuspid
preoperative diagnosis is: and first premolar
A) Neurofibroma B) Maxillary tuberosity area
B) Traumatic neuroma C) Between the maxillary premolars
C) Trigeminal neuralgia D) Mandibular third molar area
D) Neurolemmoma ANS (A)
ANS (B) 337. Radiographically snow driven
332. Gustatory sweating is the chief appearance suggest:
symptom in: A) Adenomatoid odontogenic tumour
A) Frey’s syndrome B) Calcifying odontogenic cyst
B) Orolingual paresthesia C) Calcifying epithelial odontogenic
C) Bell’s palsy tumour
D) None of the above D) Keratocyst
ANS (A) ANS (C)
333. Auriculotemporal syndrome is 338. A radicular cyst is associated
a result of damage to the with a:
auriculotemporal nerve and subsequent A) Vital tooth
reinnervation of sweat glands by B) Non vital tooth
parasympathetic salivary fibres: C) Both
A) True D) None
B) False ANS (B)
ANS (A) 339. The pathogenesis of Periapical
334. A patient with purple skin Cyst is?
discoloration ‘portwine stains’ usually A) Increased pressure within the cyst
located unilaterally along the B) Immune mediated bone destruction
ophthalamic branch of the trigeminal C) Proliferation of epithelium
nerve with history of focal seizures on D) None
the oppsotie side from the skin ANS (C)
discoloration and angiomatosis of the 340. A cyst is defined as
leptomeninges may be a case of: A) Pathologic cavity usually
A) Peutz jeghers syndrome containing fluid or semisolid
B) Marie Strumpell disease material
C) Sturge Wber disease B) An epithelium lined cavity
D) Albright’s syndrome containing only fluid
ANS (C) C) A pathologic epithelium line cavity
335. A neuralgia characterized by a usually containing fluid or
trigger zone in the oropharynx or the semisolid material
tonsillar fossa which manifests with D) None of the above

ANS (C) A) The epithelium present in

341. A radiolucent area in place of immature odontoma resembles
the underlying normal permanent tooth epithelium seen in ameloblastoma
in relation to retained, erupted B) The epithelium seen inmmature
deciduous tooth could be a: odontoma deos not resemble to that
A) Keratocyst seen in ameloblastoma
B) Dentigerous cyst ANS (B)
C) Primordial cyst 347. The cells which form tubular
D) Apical periodontal cyst appearance of AOT have:
ANS (C) A) Nuclei present at the cell body
342. Epstein’s pearls are: farther from central space
A) Enamel pearls B) Nuclei present to in cell towards
B) Gingival cyst of the new borns the central space
C) Remnants of dental lamina C) Nuclei occupying the entire cell
D) Remnants of hertwig’s epithelial ANS (A)
root sheath 348. The ghost cell that are seen in
ANS (B) calcifying odontogenic cyst are present
343. Of the following theories, one because
of the theories of cyst expansion can be A) Of the clear vacuolated cells
said to based on histological changes B) Cell often show a central pale area
occurring during second intention of under going aberrant typoe of
healing: keratinization with poorly
A) Epithelial proliferation discerned cell out times
B) Increased osmotic pressure C) Of the extensive elaboration of
C) Degeneration of epithelial cells in mitochondria cristea in the cells
some areas ANS (B)
ANS (A) 349. One of the consistent theories
344. Which of the following feature for the genesis of lateral periodontal
is often lacking in the follicle of cyst is:
ameloblastoma: A) Rests of Malesezz’s
A) Columnar cells closely resembling B) Originated from initially a
normal ameloblasts dentigerous cyst and later
B) Columnar cells may also resemble developed along the lateral surface
preameloblasts of root
C) The normal stratum intermedium C) Rests of dental lamina
layer ANS (C)
ANS (C) 350. Botryoid cyst is a variant of:
345. Which of the following is true? A) Primordium cyst
A) The follicles seen in the B) Radicular cyst
ameloblastoma are never C) Lateral periodontal cyst
vascularised themselves ANS (C)
B) The follicles are not surrounded by 351. Based on histologic features,
stroma one of the following is not a type of
C) Microcyst formation within the ameloblastoma:
tumour follicle is uncommon A) Follicular ameloblastoma
ANS (A) B) Unicystic ameloblastoma
346. Which of the following C) Granular ameloblastoma
statement is true? D) Squamous ameloblastoma
ANS (D)

352. “Driven snow” appearance in a D) None of the above

radiograph and liesegang rigs ANS (C)
histologically may be seen in one of 358. Ameloblastoma can be treated
the following conditions: by:
A) Pindborg’s tumour A) Radiation therapy
B) Cementoma B) Chemotherapy
C) Squamous odontogenic tumour C) Surgical excision
D) None of the above D) A and C
ANS (A) ANS (C)
353. True cementoma or benign 359. A multilocular radiolucency on
cementoblastoma is most commonly a radiograph from the mandibular area
seen inrelation to: is pathognomic for:
A) Mandibular first permanent molar A) Ameloblastoma
B) Maxillary bicuspids B) Pindborg’s tumour
C) Mandibular deciduous molars C) Dentigerous cyts
D) Mandibular anteriors D) None of the above
ANS (A) ANS (D)
354. A true neoplasm made up of 360. An odontogenic neoplasm that
number of different types of tissue may be mistaken for a ameloblastoma
which are not native to the area in but is of mixed tissue origin and
which the tumour occurs is: considerably less aggressive is:
A) Hamartoma A) Pindborgs tumour
B) Teratoma B) An ameloblastic fibroma
C) Both of the above C) An odontogenic fibroma
D) None of the above D) A cementifying fibroma
ANS (B) ANS (B)
355. Inflammatory fibrous
hyperplasia in the oral cavity is most REGRESSIVE ALTERATIONS OF
commonly caused by: TEETH
A) Candidiasis
B) Poor oral hygiene 361. Attrition may be defined as:
C) III fitting dentures A) The pathologic wearing away of a
D) Smoking tooth due to ageing
ANS (C) B) Physiologic wearing away of a
356. An ameloblastoma is most tooth as a result of tooth to tooth
likely to develop from the epithelial contact only in adults
lining of which of the following cysts: C) Pathologic wearing away of tooth
A) Dentigerous substance through some abnormal
B) Periapical mechanical process
C) Residual periapical D) None of the above
D) Nasopalatine cyst ANS (A)
ANS (A) 362. The only reliable clinical
357. Term ameloblastic carcinoma is evidence that secondary dentin has
used to define: formed is:
A) Locally malignant ameloblastoma A) Presence of osteodentin
B) Ameloblastoma in which there is B) Increased reaction to cold
metastasis and metastatic tumour C) Discoloration of the clinical crown
resembles the primary lesion D) Decreased tooth sensitivity
C) Where the metastatic lesions do not ANS (D)
resemble the primary lesion

363. Primary and secondary dentin associated with the pulp can be
are alike in: diagnosed as:
A) Regularity and pattern of dentinal A) Chronic pulpitis
tubules B) External resoprtion
B) Degree of mineralization of the C) Odontoclastoma
dentin D) None of the above
C) Type of cell necessary of formation ANS (C)
of the dentin
D) Course and number of dentinal MISCELLANEOUS
tubules
ANS (C) 369. Geniculate neuralgia is caused
364. Pink tooth is associated with: in the nerve:
A) Erythroblastosis fetalis A) VII
B) Internal resorption B) IX
C) Deiscoloration of composite C) X
restoration D) XII
D) Porphyria ANS (A)
ANS (B) 370. A patient with ptoses and rapid
365. External resorption of tooth elevation of the eyelid occurring on
may be found in association with: movement of mandible to contralateral
A) Hypoparathyroidism side?
B) Leukemia A) Jaw winking syndrome
C) Diabetes mellitus B) Floppy infant syndrome
D) Parkinson’s disease C) Eagles syndrome
ANS (A) D) None of the above
366. A patient attended the oral ANS (A)
diagnosis department with shallow, 371. Which of the following
broad concavities with polished orofacial pain is not associated with
surfaces on the labial surfaces of the vascular origin?
maxillary incisors at gingival thirds, A) Cluster headache
this could be: B) Giant cell arteritis
A) Attrition C) Anaesthesia dolorosa
B) Occupational erosion D) Chronic paroxysmal hemicranias
C) Dietary erosion ANS (C)
D) Abrasion 372. Unilateral vescular eruptions
ANS (C) along the course of the nerye in oro-
367. In a patient of anorexia facial region are:
nervosa, one of the most common oral A) Herpes zoster
finding is: B) Herpes simplex
A) Abrasion C) Molluscum contagiosum
B) Erosion D) Infectious mononucleosis
C) Attrition ANS (A)
D) None of the above 373. Multiple unerupted,
ANS (B) supernumerary teeth & retained
368. A patient with a complaint of decidious are characteristic feature of:
pinkish discoloration of an upper A) Cranio facial dysostosis
central incisor, whose radiograph of B) Cleidoeranial dysostosis
the incisor shows a round radiolucent C) Down’s syndrome
area in the central portion of the tooth D) Treacher Collin’s syndrome
ANS (B)

374. Mandbular tori are commonly 380. Myasthenia gravis is the

found to be present in the following: disease of:
A) Molars A) Smooth muscles
B) Premolars B) Cardiac muscles
C) Anteriors C) Skeletal muscles
D) None of the above D) None of the above
ANS (B) ANS (C)
375. What is non characteristic of 381. One of the following features is
Eagle’s syndrome? not true of trigeminal neuralgia:
A) Excessive lacrimation A) The pain is unilateral and does not
B) Pain during mandibular movement cross the midline
C) Stabbing type pain originate in the B) Trigger zones are present which
tonsillar region precipitate an attack
D) When the jaws are closed, the pain C) The pain may be dull, aching in
subsided some patients
ANS (A) D) It is a persistent
376. Trigeminal neuralgia after ear ANS (D)
infection is called as? 382. A painful, irregular ulceration 2
A) Ramsay hunt sundrome cm in diameter developed in a post
B) Geredo Nego Syndrome extraction socket of a 45-years old
C) Auriculotemporal Syndrome male one week after extractions is
D) Sjogren Syndrome suggestive of:
ANS (B) A) Delayed healing
377. S. mutans can be implicated in B) Pleomorphic adenoma
the etiological agent for dental caries, C) Hyperplastic tissue
because it can produce? D) Squamous cell carcinoma
A) α – 1,3 extracellular ANS (A)
Polysaccharides 383. One of the most common
B) α – 1,6 extracellular complications after tooth extraction is:
polysaccharides A) Condensing osteitis
C) α – 1,4 extracellular B) Osteomyelitis
Polysaccharides C) Alveolar abscess
D) α – 1,5 extracellular D) Dry socket
Polysaccharides ANS (D)
ANS (A) 384. Plumbism is a condition most
378. ‘Chemical mumps’ is commonly found in a patient whose
synonymous with: occupation is that of:
A) Epidemic parotitis A) Painter
B) Lodine mumps B) Plumber
C) Nutritional mumps C) Poultry farmer
D) Non specific mumps D) None of the above
ANS (B) ANS (A)
379. The most reliable criteria in 385. Involucrun is a fragment of
gustafson’s method of identification is: bone formed:
A) Cementum apposition A) Due to osteoclastic resorbing
B) Transparency of root factors
C) Attrition B) Due to failure of osteoblasts to
D) Root resorption deposit the bone
ANS (B) C) Surrounding a dead bone called
sequestrum

ANS (C) C) Mandibular premolars and

386. Pink disease is due to toxicity maxillary 1st molar
reaction of: D) Mandibular 1st molar and
A) Silver compounds maxillary premolars
B) Mercury ANS (A)
C) Lead 393. All the following are features
D) Tetracycline of Addison’s disease, except
ANS (B) A) Hypoglycemia
387. Which of the following teeth is B) Hypocalcaemia
most likely to be congenitally missing: C) Hypotension
A) Maxillary central incisor D) Hyponatremia
B) Mandibular canine ANS (B)
C) Mandibular second premolar ORAL ASPECT OF METABOLIC
D) Maxillary first premolar DISEASE
ANS (C)
388. The term ‘pulse granuloma’ 394. Which of the following may be
suggests reaction towards the feature of acromegaly?
fragments of foreign material like: A) Large tongue
A) Cotton fibres B) Type of cellulites
B) Black silk C) Venereal disease
C) Silver amalgam D) Crodwded teeth
D) Legumes ANS (A)
ANS (D) 395. Oral mucosal pigmentation is
389. Schwann cell are derived from: characteristic of:.
A) Neural crest cells A) Papillon-Lefevre syndrome
B) Endoderm B) Mikuliez’s disease
C) Mesoderm C) Siogren’s syndrome
D) Ectoderm D) Addison’s disease
ANS (A) ANS (D)
390. Perioral and skin pigmentation 396. Macrocheilia is one of the most
are seen in all the following, except: common developmental anomalies of
A) Addison’s disease the lips. It may be associated with all
B) Cushing’s disease of the following conditions except;
C) Peutz jegher’s synrome A) Cretinism
D) Albright’s syndrome B) Hyperthyroidism
ANS (B) C) Acromegaly
391. Polydactyly, craniosynostosis, D) Myxedema
late closure of fon-tanelles is a feature ANS (B)
of: 397. Brown tumour is associated
A) Apert’s syndrome with:
B) Crouzon’s syndrome A) Giant cell tumour of bonc
C) Peirre Robin syndrome B) Fibrous dysplasia
D) Down’ syndrome C) Hypoparathyroidism
392. Dentin islands are most ANS (D)
commonly associated with: 398. The characteristic feature of the
A) Maxillary canine and mandibular lesion is the presence of large, swollen
premolars “foam” cells or xanthoma cells
B) Maxillary incisors and canine presumably histocytes which are
confined to the papillae and do not

extend into the dermis beneath the D) Carbohydrate metabolism

pegs, the lesion is: ANS (B)
A) Histiocytosis X 405. Night blindness, xerophthalmia
B) Histiocytosis Y and Keratomalacia are feature of:
C) Hand-schuller-Christian disease A) Vit, A deficiency
D) None of the above B) Vit, B 12 deficiency
399. In the histopath examination of C) Vit, D deficiency
tissue from around a tooth that was D) Vit, C deficiency
radiographically “floating in air” the ANS (A)
cells important in diagnosing 406. The role of 1, 25 dihydroxy
eosinophilic granuloma are: cholecalciferol is:
A) Fibroblasts A) Increased intestinal calcium uptake
B) Eosinophils B) Increased bone calcium
C) Histiocytes mobilization
D) Plasma cells C) Increase renal calcium reabsorption
ANS (C) D) All of the above
400. Which of the following most ANS (D)
commonly involves only one bone? 407. Vitamin K is intimately
A) Histiocytosis X involved in:
B) Ossifying fibroma A) Extrinsic system of coagulation
C) Albright’s syndrome B) Intrinsic system of coagulation
D) Paget’s disease of bone C) Borth of the above
ANS (B) D) None of the above
401. Presence of calcification in or ANS (C)
under; the skin is seen in: 408. Beriberi is caused by the
A) Dystrophic calcification deficiency of:
B) Metastatic calcification A) Thiamine
C) Calcinosis B) Riboflavin
D) None of the above C) Pyridoxine
ANS (A) D) Vitamin B 12
402. Hurler syndrome is a ANS (A)
disturbances of: 409. The vitamin most commonly
A) Mucopolysaccharide metabolism deficient in children who do not drink
B) Lipid metabolism milk is:
C) Protein metabolism A) Thiamine
D) Chromosomal aberration B) Pyridoxine
ANS (A) C) Vitamin A
403. A young woman repeatedly D) Riboflavin
having nausea and vomiting after ANS (D)
ingesting fruit or sugarcane has: 410. The anti pernicious anaemia
A) Clucose intolerance factor is
B) Food poisoning A) Folic acid
C) Fructose intolerance B) Nicotinic acid
D) None of the above C) Vitamin B 12
ANS (C) D) None of the above
404. Letterer-Siwe disease is ANS (C)
disturbance of: 411. A smooth red tongue may be
A) Protein metabolism seen as a striking oral manifestation in:
B) Lipid metabolism A) Iron deficiency anaemia
C) Mucopolysaccharide metabolism B) Riboflavin deficiency

C) Nicotinic acid deficiency C) 9 to 12 mg/dl

D) All of the above D) 10 to 12 mg/dl
ANS (A) ANS (B)
412. One of the following is not an 418. Treacher Collins syndrome is:
activity of posterior lobe of pituitary: A) Craniofacial dysostosis
A) Adrenocorticotrophic B) Cleidocranial dysplasia
B) Oxytocic C) Mandibulofacial dysostosis
C) Antidiuretic D) Crouzon disease
D) Vasoconstrictive ANS (C)
ANS (A) 419. Down’s syndrome is trisomy
413. A patient diminutive in size, of:
with well proportion body, fine silky A) 18 chromosome
sparse hair on the head and other hairy B) 16 chromosome
regions, wrinkled atrophic skin and C) 22 chromosome
often hypogonadism could be D) 21 chromosome
diagnosed as suffering from: ANS (D)
A) Hypothyroidism 420. Findings associated with
B) Hypopituitarism cervicofacial actinomycosis include all
C) Hyperthyroidism the following except:
D) None of the above A) Dysphagia
ANS (B) B) Submaxillary swelling
414. Which of the following dental C) Involvement of the tongue
findings is frequently observed in cases D) Previous tooth extraction
of Paget’s disease of bone/ ANS (C)
A) Hypercementosis 421. Hyperthyroidism and anxiety
B) Apical root resorption are the most common causes of:
C) Internal resoprtion of the pulp A) Bronze skin discoloration
D) Widening of the periodontal B) Dryness of the skin
ligament space C) Excessively moist skin
415. A loose connective tissue ANS (C)
stroma that supports numerous multi 422. Yellow discoloration of the oral
nucleated giant cells is characteristic mucous membranes as well as skin and
of: eye sclera is a common finding. The
A) Hyperparathyroidism eye is not affected in:
B) Cherubism A) Carotenemia
C) Central giant cell granuloma B) Pemicious anemia
D) All of the above C) Sickle cell anemia
ANS (A) D) Chloroquin therapy
416. Cushing’s syndrome is because ANS (A)
of:
A) Hypo function of adrenal gland
B) Hyper function of adrenal gland
C) Hypo function of thyroid gland
D) None of the above
ANS (B)
417. The normal serum calcium
level is:
A) 8 to 10 mg/dl
B) 9 to 11 mg/dl

SECTION 02 a. Abrasion
1. A pear-shaped radlolucency causing b. Attrition
displacement of the roots of vital c. Erosion
maxillary lateral and cuspid teeth Is d. Hypoplasia
characteristics of: e. Pitting
a. Globulomaxillary cyst. Key: c
b. Apical periodontal cyst.
c. Primordial cyst. 5. Mottled enamel is produced by:
d. Nasoalveolar cyst a. Syphilis
e. Lateral Periodontal Cyst b. Febrile diseases
Key: a c. Fluorine
d. Acids
e. Tuberculosis
Key: c
2. Lesion that characteristically occurs
on the alveolar ridges of Infants is: 6. The structures of enamel that are
a. Congenital lymphangioma more resistant to the actions of acids
b. Fordyce granules are:
c. Bohn’s nodules a. Enamel cuticles
d. Mite sponge news b. Enamel lamellae
e. Retrocuspid papilla c. Enamel rods
Key: c d. Interprismatic substance of enamel
e. Ameloblast
3. Features of familial multiple Key: a
neurofibroma with café-au-laft spots
of the skin are typical of: 7. The most common route by which
a. Von Recklinghausen’s disease of infection may reach the pulp Is
skin through:
b. Peget’s disease of skin a. The blood stream
c. Hereditary ectodermal dysplasia b. Traumatic injuries
d. Familial fibrous dysplasia c. Dental caries
e. Papillion Lefevre Syndrome d. Erosion
Key: a e. Periosteum
Key: c
4. The chemical disintegration of
enamel is referred to as:

8. The cells responsible for root 12. Paralysis of the tongue is referred
resorption are: to as:
a. Fibroblasts a. Ankyloglossia
b. Cementoblasts b. Glossoplegia
c. Oesteoblasts c. Macroglossia
d. Osteoclasts d. Pyroglossia
e Odontoblast e. Geographic tongue
Key: d Key: b
9. Dry socket Is a form of 13. An abnormal disease in the flow of

a. Osteomyelitis Salive is called?
b. Osteitis a. Ptyalism
c Osleoma b. Trismus
d. Periostitis c. Xerostomia
e. Granuloma d. Salivation
Key: d e. Sialadenitis
Key: c
10. Inflammation of the lips Is
referred to as: 14. The cells most frequently found In
a. Stcmataibs a Granuloma are:
b. Glossitis migrican a. Mast cells
c. Cheilitis b. Giant cells
d. Vincent Angina c. Lymphocytes
e. Sialadenitis d. Neutrophils
Key: c e. RBCs
Key: c
11. Dens In dente occurs most
commonly in the: 15. A cyst occurring under the tongue,
a. Maxillary canines caused by obstruction of a salivary
b. Mandibular premolars gland duct, is called a:
c. Mandibular second molars a. Follicular cyst
d. Maxillary lateral incisors b. Dentigerous cyst
e. All incisors c. Ranula
Key: d d. Dermoid cyst

e. Epidermoid cyst c. Geographic tongue

Key: c d. Scrotal tongue
e. Sarcoma of tongue
16. The most common benign tumor Key: a
occurring In the oral cavity Is the:
a. Papilloma 20. Atrophy of the pharyngeal and
b. Adenoma gastric mucosa, kollonychias (spoon
c. Fibroma nails). and predisposition to oral
d. Hemangioma carcinoma In postmenopausal women
e. Lipoma are features of:
Key: c a. Iron deficiency anemia
b. Pernicious anemia
17. The most common malignancy c. Sturge-Weber-Dimitri syndrome
found In the oral cavity is: d. Plummer-Vinson syndrome
a. Basal cell carcinoma e. Trisomy 21
b. Transitional cell carcinoma Key: d
c. Melanoma
d. Squamous cell carcinoma 21. Papillary cystadenoma
e. Adenocarcinoma Limphomatosum, which occurs almost
Key: d exclusive In the parotid gland, Is
commonly called:
18. The excessive formation of scar a. Cylindroma
tissue is called: b. Pleomorphic adenoma
a. Fibroma c. Warthin’s tumor
b. Myxoma d. Mikulicz disease
c. Keloid e. jaffy’s syndrome
d. Myoma Key: c
e. Carcinoma
Key: c 22. A normal clot retraction time,
which is independent of coagulation
19. Failure of the tuberculum impar to time, Is indicative of a normal number
retract prior to fusion of the lateral of circulating:
halves of the tongue results In: a. Platelets
a. Median rhomboid glossitis b. Lymphocytes
b. Cleft (bifid) tongue c. Monocytes

d. Red blood cells 26. A biopsy would be of value in the

e. Neutrophns diagnosis or oral lesions of
Key: a a. Amyloidosis
b. Carcinoma in situ
23. The most likely diagnosis in a 23- c. Tuberculosis
year-old, mentally alert, male dwarf d. Lichen planus
with disproportionate arm and log to e. All of above
body growth, prominent forehead, and Key. e
retruded maxilla is:
a. Cretinism 27. In an early carious lesions, the
b. Pituitary dwarfism first structure to show evidence of
c. Acrornegaty destruction is the:
d. Achondroplasia a. Enamel prism
e. Eagles syndrome b. Cuticle
Key: d c. Interpnsmatic substance
d. Lamellae
24. Osteosarcoma characteristically e. Dead trads
may develop in cases of: Key: c
a. Osteopetrosis
b. Osteogenisis imperfecta 28. The features of multiple skeletal
c. Acromegaty radiolucencies reversed A/G ratio,
d. Osteitis deformans Bence Jones protein in the urine, and
e. All of above solid plasma cell infiltrate In the
Key: e biopsy In a 50-year old man indicate a
diagnosis of
25. The blood of a patient with an a. Metastatic prostaiic carcinoma
acute infectious process would be b. Multiple myeloma
expected to demonstrate: c. Hyperparathyroidism
a. Lymphocytosis d. Miliary Tuberculosis
b. Leukocytosis e. Basal cell Navi Syndrome
c. Monocytosis Key: b
d. Leukopenia
e. Erythrocytosis 29. Histiocystosls X, sometimes
Key: b referred to as non lipid
reticuloendothellosis, includes:

a. Letterer-Siwe disease e. Epidermoid cyst

b. Hand-Schuler-Christian disease Key: c
c. Eosinophilic Granuloma
d. Histiocytoma 33. Koplik’s spots are an early
e. All of above intraoral manifestation of
Key: e a. Varicella
b. Variola
30. The irradiations to the head region c. Rubella
do not cause: d. AIDS
a. Xerostomia e. Mumps
b. Osteoradionecrosis Key: c
c. Radiation caries
d. Interference with tooth 34. Vesicles or bullae of the mucous
development membrane or skin are seen in all the
e. Ramsay Hunt syndrome following except
Key: e a. Herpes simplex
b. Herpes zoster
31. Features of multiple bone c. Agranulocytosis
radiolucencies, hypercalcemia, d. Pemphigus
hypophosphatemla, and loss of lamina e. SLE
dura and indicative of: Key: c
a. Acromegaty
b. Hyperparathyroidism 35. White lesion of the oral mucosa
c. Hypothyroidism are characteristic of the following
d. Multiple myeloma except
e. Osteitis deformans a. Hyperkeratosis
Key: b b. Leukoedema
c. Lichen Manus
32. All the following developmental d. Medium rhomboid glossitis
cysts of the Jaws present as e. Ancanthosis
radlolucent lesions except Key: d
a. Median palatal cyst
b. Nasopalatine duct cyst 36. A patient with oral moniliasis that
c. Nasoalveolar does not respond to nystatin therapy
d. Globulomaxillary cyst should be evaluated for the following

except 40. The so-called “split papule,” an

a. Diabetes inspidus erosive lesion Involving the
b. Diabetes mellitus commissure of the lips, Is actually:
c. Hyperparathyroidism a. An aphthous ulcer
d. Malignant lymphoma b. A traumatic ulcer
e. Raised Ca’ in serum c. A mucous patch
Key: a d. A fever blister
e. Koplik’s spot
37. The peak incidence of gingivitis in Key: c
children occurs at ages:
a. Birth-6 months 41. The stigmata of congenital syphilis
b. 1-3 years does not include:
c. 5-7 years a. Saber shins
d. 7-10 years b. Interstitial keratitis
e. 10-13 years c. Eighth nerve deafness
Key: e d. Rhagades
e. Cleft lip
38. The classic triad of Hand-Schuler- Key: e
Christian disease Includes lesions of
bone, exopthalmos and: 42. Intraoral carcinoma can not
a. Diabetes insipidus present clinically as:
b. Hepatosplenomegaly a. Ulcers
c. Diabetes mellitus b. Nodule
d. Albuminuria c. Cauliflower-like growth
e. Hypothyroidism d. Growth wth fungating margins
Key: a e. Abscess
Key: e
39. Oral cytological smears are of no
value in the diagnosis of 43. The Melkersson-Rosenthal
a. Oral cancer syndrome is characterized by facial
b. Primary intraoral herpes simplex paralysis, Chellitis granulomatosa,
c. Recurrent intraoral herpes simplex and:
d. Herpes zoster a. Black Hairy tongue
e. Lipoma b. Scrotal tongue
Key: e c. Geographic tongue

d. Bifid tongue
e. White Hairy tongue
Key: b
44. The “Ghon complex “is associated

with:
a. Primary of childhood tuberculosis
b. The adrenogenital syndrome
c. Uveoparotid fever or Heerfordts
syndrome
d. Histiocystosis
e. AIDS
Key: a
45. White, interlacing lines (striae of

Wickham) on the buccal mucosa are a
characteristic clinical feature of:
a. Leukoplakia
b. Lupus Erythematous
c. Lichen planus
d. Psoriasis
e. Carcinoma in situ
Key: c

Oral Patho For DR ARA Khan Soft Form PDF

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

You might also like

Oral Patho For DR ARA Khan Soft Form PDF

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Oral Patho For DR ARA Khan Soft Form PDF

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

BOOK# Dr ARA khan (Guide o Fcps -1 in dentistry)

7. Multiple unerupted, supernumerary

BOOK ARA KHAN(Dentogist basic ) Page 1

D) Maxillary canine ANS (B)

BOOK ARA KHAN(Dentogist basic ) Page 2

A) Dilacerations 31. Hereditary brown opalescent teeth is

BOOK ARA KHAN(Dentogist basic ) Page 3

C) Taurodontism A) Temporary suppression of

BOOK ARA KHAN(Dentogist basic ) Page 4

A) Nasoalveolar cyst A) Amelogenesis imperfect

BOOK ARA KHAN(Dentogist basic ) Page 5

BOOK ARA KHAN(Dentogist basic ) Page 6

73. Cases of Hemangioma are present D) Human herpes virus 4

BOOK ARA KHAN(Dentogist basic ) Page 7

B) Squamous cell carcinoma A) EBY virus is casually related to

BOOK ARA KHAN(Dentogist basic ) Page 8

A) An over zealous repair process C) Bubonic plague

BOOK ARA KHAN(Dentogist basic ) Page 9

D) Stomatitis nicotina parakeratin plugging extending into

BOOK ARA KHAN(Dentogist basic ) Page 10

A) The former is non invasive C) Presence of of centrioles in the

BOOK ARA KHAN(Dentogist basic ) Page 11

131. Acinic cell carcinomas of the A) Pseudo epitheliomatous

BOOK ARA KHAN(Dentogist basic ) Page 12

143. Most common malignant BACTERIAL VIRAL & MYCOTIC

BOOK ARA KHAN(Dentogist basic ) Page 13

ANS (C) ANS (D)

BOOK ARA KHAN(Dentogist basic ) Page 14

168. Most common type of ANS (A)

BOOK ARA KHAN(Dentogist basic ) Page 15

BOOK ARA KHAN(Dentogist basic ) Page 16

C) Hyperplastic pulpitis C) Sclerosing osteomyelitis

BOOK ARA KHAN(Dentogist basic ) Page 17

205. Clinically the most definitive ANS (B)

BOOK ARA KHAN(Dentogist basic ) Page 18

PULP & PERIAPICAL TISSUE A) Pain on biting

BOOK ARA KHAN(Dentogist basic ) Page 19

B) Pulp polyp A) Gingivitis

BOOK ARA KHAN(Dentogist basic ) Page 20

B) Gingival recession in mandibular C) Trisomy 13

BOOK ARA KHAN(Dentogist basic ) Page 21

cementum and on test shows excretion A) Bilateral enlargement of the angle

BOOK ARA KHAN(Dentogist basic ) Page 22

262. Fibrous dysplasia involving 267. President Abraham Lincoln of

BOOK ARA KHAN(Dentogist basic ) Page 23

273. The difference between the development of carcinoma of oral

BOOK ARA KHAN(Dentogist basic ) Page 24

B) Permicious anaemia ANS (B)

BOOK ARA KHAN(Dentogist basic ) Page 25

A) Lymhocytosis 300. Prolonged clotting time is

BOOK ARA KHAN(Dentogist basic ) Page 26

and arthritis are included in the 313. The LE cell inclusion

BOOK ARA KHAN(Dentogist basic ) Page 27

BOOK ARA KHAN(Dentogist basic ) Page 28

A) Sharp servere spasmodic pain pain in the ear, pharynx, nasopharynx,

BOOK ARA KHAN(Dentogist basic ) Page 29

ANS (C) A) The epithelium present in