Final Year MBBS

Continental medical college--- Obstetrics test

Q1- Total bishops score is:

a) 10
b) 8
c) 6
d) 4
e) 13

Q2- Terminology for widest part of the presenting part has passed successfully through the pelvic inlet:

a) Engagement
b) Descent
c) Restitution
d) Flexion
e) External Rotation

Q3- What is the diameter of the fetal skull that presents at vulva during normal labour:

a) Suboccipitofrontal
b) Mentovertical
c) Suboccipitobregmatic
d) Occipitofrontal
e) Mentoposterior

Q4- Duration of latent phase in multigravida is:

a) 1-2 hours
b) 2-4 hours
c) 4-6 hours
d) 6-8 hours
e) 8-10 hours

Q5- After the delivery of fetus placenta should be removed by:

a) Fundal pressure
b) D+C
c) Brandt-Andrews method
d) Manual removal
e) C-Section

Q6- Maximum normal duration of second stage of labour in pramigravida without epidural anesthesia is:
 a) 20 min
b) 60 min
c) 120 min
d) 240 min
e) No normal maximum limit

Q7- Crowning is best defined as:

a) When the presenting part reaches the pelvic floor

b) When the head visible is at vulva
c) When the greatest diameter of fetal head comes through vulva.
d) When the perineum bulges due to the fetal head.
e) After fetal head is delivered.

Q8- A primapara presents one week after delivery. She is tearful has spells of cry with loss of appetite
and sleep. What is most likely diagnosis?

a) Anemia
b) Post natal depression
c) Schizophrenia
d) Manic disorder
e) High grade fever

Q9- A 24 year old G3P2 is at 40 week of gestation. The fetus is in transverse lie. Select the most
appropriate management:

a) External version
b) Lower transverse C-section
c) Internal version
d) Mid forceps rotation
e) Classical C-section

Q10- A P1A0 presented in emergency 12 hours after her forceps assisted vaginal delivery. She had
history of inability to void and severe pain. On examination there is large fluctuant purple mass inside
the vagina. What is the best management?

a) Apply an ice patch to perineum

b) Embolize the internal iliac artery
c) Incision and evacuation of hematoma
d) Perform D+C to remove retained placenta
e) Place a vaginal pad for 24 hours

Q11- A 22 year old PG has just undergone a spontaneous vaginal delivery. As the placenta is being
delivered a red fleshy mass is found to be protruding out from behind the placenta. Which is the next
best step of management?
 a) Begin ½ oxytocin infusion
b) Call for immediate assistance from other medical professionals
c) Continue to remove placenta manually
d) Have the anesthesiologist administer MgSO2
e) Shove the placenta back into the uterus

Q12- A G0P2 comes to emergency after home delivery with heavy bleeding per vaginum. After
evaluation and emergency resuscitation she is diagnosed as case of uterine atony. What is appropriate
medicine for this case?

a) Oxytocin
b) Salbutamol
c) Beta blocker
d) Magnesium sulphate
e) Hydralazine

Q13- 18 year old P1 presents in OPD ten days after delivery with tender hot painful swelling in right
breast. She complaints of fever and rigors. What will the most likely management?

a) Antibiotics
b) Analgesics
c) Incision, Drainage
d) Conservative management
e) Lactation inhibition

Q14- A PG at 32 weeks presented with spontaneous labour on examination she is having 2-3
contractions per minute, GG reactive is on vaginal examination. Cervix is effaced 4-5 cm dilated
membranes intact. What is next step in management if it continues as such for another 2 hours?

a) Oxytocin
b) PG
c) Analgesia
d) ARM
e) Continue to monitor

Q15- You are attending a 25 year old G2P1 at 37 weeks previous normal vaginal delivery. Her fetus is
presenting by breech. However she does not have any other risk factor. Regarding plan of delivery she
will be offered:

a) Assisted breech delivery

b) External cephalic version
c) Spontaneous breech delivery
d) Elective C-section after 2 weeks
e) Prepare for emergency C-section
Q16- A primagravida presented in labour room at term with complaint of painful uterine contraction at
9:00 am. On P/V she was 3cm dilated. When reassessed at 4:00 pm she had progressed to 4cm cervical
dilation in spite of good uterine contractions. What is her diagnosis?

a) Prolonged latent phase of labour

b) Primary dysfunctional labour
c) Secondary arrest of cervical dilation
d) Delay in descent of presenting part
e) Cervical dystocia

Q17- Ms.X is G4P3 with 2 alive issues and last birth ending with neonatal death at 30 weeks. She is in
active labour and is 39weeks today. She is on continuous electronic fetal monitoring. Which sign on fetal
CTG is suggestive of fetal compromise?

a) Persistent variable deceleration

b) Acceleration above baseline 15 bpm
c) Baseline between 110-160 bpm
d) Beat to beat variability >5bpm
e) Two accelerations in the initial admission for 15 sec trace

Q18- during the third week of development of the embryo following structure develops except:

a) Somites
b) Primary yolk sac
c) Primitive streak
d) Primitive heart
e) Neural plate

Q19-A primagravida at 40 (+5days) weeks of pregnancy has prolonged first stage of labour. Her height is
144 cm and estimated fetal weight on USG and clinical assessment is 4.0Kg. She has no H/O previous
trauma/surgery. She is having irregular contractions for last five hours with no progress. Which is not
cause of prolonged labour in her case:

a) Short stature
b) Fetal macrosomia
c) Inefficient uterine contractions
d) Cervical stenosis
e) Postdate pregnancy