PHARMACOLOGY 300884

Practice MCQ 1 – General Introduction and Pharmacokinetics

1. The definition of pharmacology is:
a. the study of the formulation of drugs
b. the study of farming techniques
c. the study of drugs including their actions and effects in living systems
d. The study of pharmacy (the preparation and development of drugs).

2. A drug from both human and animal sources is:

a. Papaver somniferous (morphine)
b. iodine
c. insulin
d. Eucalyptus oil.

3. The approved (generic) name of a drug is:

a. a name that is protected by copyright
b. a precise description of the drug’s chemical composition and molecular structure
c. the name used to market the drug
d. The official drug name assigned by the manufacturer and approved by the local regulatory
authority.

4. Transgenic animal models referred to as “knock-outs”

a. result from insertion of new genes
b. result from substitution of one gene for another
c. result from inactivation of an existing gene
d. result from mutation of an existing gene

5. which of the following is a pharmacologically active compound derived from non-plant material?
a. Mineralocorticoid
b. Heavy metal
c. Alkaloid
d. Protein

6. Drug is classified by all of the following methods, except:

a. clinical use
b. chemical formula
c. manufacturer
d. Mechanism of action.

7. A statistical technique used to pool data from several independent but related studies is called
a. double-blind technique
b. randomization
c. sequential studies
d. meta-analysis

8. The double-blind technique is employed in clinical trials to

a. facilitate meta-analysis
b. confuse regulatory agencies
c. avoid bias in assigning subjects to treatment groups
d. avoid bias of patients and investigators

9. Evidence-based medicine involves the use of:

a. results from animal studies
b. results from randomized controlled clinical trials
c. results from interviews with patients
d. Results from anecdotal evidence.

10. Which factor is considered to be part of the pharmaceutical phase of drug administration?
a. Dissolution
b. Absorption
c. Excretion
d. Metabolism

11. The correct sequence of pharmacokinetic phases a drug may pass through is:
a. administration, inhalation, absorption and excretion
b. formulation, absorption, metabolism and excretion
c. disintegration, absorption, elimination and expiration
d. Absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion.

12. Concerning the effect of pH on the urinary excretion of drugs, it can be correctly stated that
a. urinary acidification accelerates excretion of weak acids and bases
b. urinary alkalization accelerates excretion of weak acids and bases
c. urinary acidification accelerates excretion of weak acids
d. urinary alkalization accelerates excretion of weak acids
e. urinary alkalization has no effect on excretion of weak bases

19. The half-life of a drug could be potentially decreased in which situation?

a. Enzyme induction
b. Renal failure
c. Liver failure
d. Cardiovascular disease

20. Drugs are most readily absorbed across cells of the

a. gastrointestinal tract
b. renal tubules
c. vascular endothelium
d. lung parenchyma
e. liver

21. Hepatic clearance of a drug occurs as a result of:

a. blood flow
b. glomerular filtration
c. enzymatic capacity
d. water solubility.
22. The binding of drugs to plasma albumin (basic drug bind to globulins)
a. is usually irreversible
b. is saturable
c. is most important for basic drugs
d. accelerates drug metabolism
e. accelerates drug excretion

23. Most drugs are absorbed across cell membranes of the gut by the process of
a. diffusing through lipid
b. pinocytosis
c. diffusing through aqueous pores
d. carrier-mediated transport
e. ion trapping

24. Transdermal drug administration

a. is most suitable for highly polar drugs
b. is not subject to first-pass hepatic metabolism
c. provides rapid and complete absorption
d. is only used for localized effects
e. is most suitable for unconscious persons

25. Which factor cannot directly affect the rate of metabolism?

a. Genetic mutation
b. Age
c. Route of administration (only affects absorption)
d. Disease state

26. If a drug exhibits saturation (zero-order) kinetics, then

a. the rate of drug elimination is constant
b. drug half-life is constant
c. drug clearance is constant
d. plasma drug concentration is constant
e. plasma drug concentration falls exponentially

27. Which of the following statements is true of the elimination process?

a. Unchanged molecules may be excreted
b. Cardiac failure leads to increased excretion
c. The distal tubule is the main site of active secretion
d. Alkalinisation of the urine may promote excretion of basic drugs

28. Systemic clearance may be expressed as:

a. L/hour or ml/per second
b. mL/hour
c. g/litre
d. Weight/volume.

29. Which of the following will be increased if the rate of drug absorption from the gut is reduced?
a. oral bioavailability
b. volume of distribution
c. peak plasma drug concentration
d. elimination half-life
e. duration of action

30. Inactive prodrugs have been developed to:

a. reduce drug toxicity
b. increase drug half-life
c. decrease hepatic drug metabolism
d. increase drug absorption
e. slow drug excretion

Introduction to Pharmacology, Pharmacodynamics, and Pharmacokinetic

Multiple Choice Question
1) A molecule that interacts as an activator or inhibitor and brings about a change in the biological
function through its chemical actions is known as …………………………
a) Hormone
b) Neurotransmitter
c) Protein
d) Drug

2) The action of the drug on the body is known as ……………………….

a) Pharmacokinetic
b) Pharmacodynamic
c) Pharmacology
d) Pharmacotherapeutics

3) Which one of the following statements is correct?

a) Weak bases are absorbed efficiently across the epithelial cells of the stomach
b) Co-administration of atropine speed up the absorption of a second drug
c) Drugs showing a large Vd can be efficiently removed by dialysis of the plasma
d) Weak acids are absorbed efficiently across the epithelial cells of the stomach

4) The desired physicochemical properties of drugs are:

a) Ionized, less plasma protein bound, lipid soluble
b) Unionized, less plasma protein bound, lipid soluble
c) Unionized, highly plasma protein bound, lipid soluble
d) Unionized, highly plasma protein bound, lipid-insoluble

5) Which of the following statement about receptor is not true?

a) It determines the quantitative relations between dose or concentration of drug and
pharmacologic effects.
b) Responsible for the selectivity of drug action.
c) Mediates the actions of pharmacological agonists and antagonists.
d) None of the above

6) The efficacy of agonist is reduced without affecting its potency is found in ………………….
a) Antagonism.
b) Noncompetitive
c) Competitive
d) Non-competitive and competitive
d) Inverse

7) Which of the following statement about competitive antagonism is true?

a) Can cause a parallel shift to the right in a drug-response curve for agonist
b) Can be reversed by increasing dose of agonist
c) Appear to decrease the potency of the agonist
d) All of the above
e) None of the above

8) Which of the following effect can be seen in competitive antagonism in a drug-response curve?
a) Non-parallel left shift
b) Non-parallel right shift
c) Parallel right shift
d) Parallel left shift

9) Agonists have
a) Affinity to receptors only
b) Affinity and maximal intrinsic activity
c) Affinity but no intrinsic activity
d) Affinity and submaximal intrinsic activity

10) The IV administration of drugs are

a) 100% bioavailable
b) Rapidly absorbed
c) Undergoes the first-pass metabolism
d) Rapidly excreted by renal

11) The concentration of a drug required to produce 50% of that drug’s maximal effects is termed as
……………….
a) Efficacy
b) Potency
c) Affinity
d) Bioavailability

12) For a drug given orally, the principal site of drug absorption is ……………………
a) Stomach
b) Small intestine
c) Oesophagus
d) Large intestine

13) Biotransformation of the drugs may lead to all of the following except
a) Inactive metabolite from an active drug
b) Active metabolite from an active drug
c) Active metabolite from an inactive drug
d) Inactive metabolite from inactive drug

14) Depot of the drug can be formed by …………………….

a) Subcutaneous and intramuscular route
b) Intravenous route
c) Subcutaneous route
d) Intradermal and subcutaneous route

15) Conjugation of a drug with glucuronic acid via glucuronosyl transferase with result in all of the
following except
a) production of a more water-soluble moiety that is more easily excreted
b) a drug with a different pharmacological mechanism of action
c) a new compound that may also possess pharmacologic activity
d) a drug molecule that may undergo enterohepatic recirculation and reintroduction into the
bloodstream

16) All of the following concerning the blood-brain barrier (BBB) and the passage of drugs from the
systemic circulation to cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is true except
a) ionized drugs are likely to cross into the CSF than unionized drugs
b) the higher the lipid solubility of a drug, the more likely it will cross into the CSF
c) inflammation of the meninges improves the likelihood that drugs will cross the BBB as compared
to an uninflamed state

17) P glycoprotein serves to pump back the drugs into the systemic circulation from endothelial cell
linings of the BBB
The following log dose-response curve show that

a) Drug A and B have equal potency

b) Drug B and C have equal efficacy
c) Drug A and B have equal efficacy
d) Drug A and C have the same affinity and efficacy

18) Phase II metabolism associated with a genetic polymorphism is ………………………….

a) Acetylation
b) Oxidation
c) Reduction
d) Glutathione conjugation

19) When the same dose of a drug is repeated at half-life intervals, the steady-state plasma drug
concentration is reached after:
a) 2-3 half-lives
b) 4-5 half-lives
c) 6-7 half-lives
d) 8-10 half-lives

20) An ‘orphan drug’ is

a) A very cheap drug
b) A drug which has no therapeutic use
c) A drug which acts on orphan receptors
d) A drug needed for treatment or prevention of a rare disease

1) The volume of distribution (Vd) for a drug that is completely retained in the vascular
compartment would be?
A. High
B. Low
C. Unchanged
D. Cannot be determined

2) Which of the following routes have the highest bioavailability?

A. Oral
B. IM
C. IV
D. SC
E. None of the above

3) What is the entry of drugs into the plasma?

A. Absorption
B. Distribution
C. Elimination
D. Metabolism
E. All of the above

4) Only free drugs can act on target sites and can be eliminated.
A. True
B. False

5) Which of the following is a disadvantage of IM administration?

A. Larger volumes can be used
B. Can affect lab tests
C. Painful
D. A and C
E. B and C

6) What takes up a large amount of drug?

A. Muscles
B. Adipose
C. Brain
D. A and B
E. A and C

7) Where are large fenestrations or slit junctions located?

A. Bone
B. Brain
C. Skin
D. Liver
 E. All of the above

8) What is the fraction of unchanged drug reaching the systemic circulation?

A. Elimination
B. Bioavailability
C. Metabolism
D. Drug displacement
E. Volume of distribution (Vd)

9) The volume of distribution (Vd) for a drug highly bound in peripheral tissues would be?
A. High
B. Low
C. Unchanged
D. Cannot be determine

10) Binding of drugs to albumin is irreversible.

A. True
B. False

11) Which of the following is a disadvantage of using oral drugs

A. First pass effect
B. Low bioavailability
C. Overdose overcome by antidotes
D. A and B
E. B and C

12) What describes the action of the body on the drug?

A. Pharmacodynamics
B. Pharmacokinetics
C. Microbiology
D. Physiology
E. All of the above

13) What describes the action of a drug on the body?

A. Pharmacodynamics
B. Pharmacokinetics
C. Microbiology
D. Physiology
E. None of the above

14) A patient with an edema would have an increased volume of distribution (Vd) if?
A. The patient was taking an anionic drug
B. The patient was taking a hydrophobic drug
C. The patient was taking a hydrophilic drug
D. An edema always causes an increase in Vd
E. An edema always causes an decrease in Vd

15) Which of the following is an advantage of sublingual administration?

 A. Rapid absorption
B. Convenient
C. Avoid harsh GI environment
D. Avoid first pass-metabolism
E. All off the above

16) Drugs bound to albumin are inactive.

A. True
B. False

17) Which of the following are well-perfused tissues?

A. Brain
B. Skelatal
C. Bone
D. Adipose
E. None of the above

18) Where are tight junctions created by two adjoining cells located?
A. Bone
B. Brain
C. Skin
D. Liver
E. All of the above

19) Which of the following are poorly perfused tissues?

A. Heart
B. Brain (well-perfused tissue)
C. Liver
D. Kidneys
E. None of the above

20) Which of the following does albumin have the strongest affinity for?
A. Amionic drugs
B. Hydrophilic drugs
C. Hydrophobic drugs
D. A and B
E. A and C