Total Marks : 200

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1. Directions(1-3):Read the information carefully and answer the questions based on it.

Five people are sitting in a row. One of the two people at the extreme ends is intelligent and the other one is
fair. A fat person is sitting to the right of a weak person. A tall person is sitting to the left of the fair person and
the weak person is sitting between the intelligent and fat person.
Q. Tall person is at which place counting from right ?

A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Fourth

Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

First information given in the question that one of the two persons at the extreme ends is
intelligent and the other one is fair, suggested as shown in Fig. (1) and (2).

Fair Intelligent

Information that a tall person is sitting to the left of a fair person rules out the possibility of
Fig. (1) as no person in Fig. (1) can sit to the left of a fair person. Therefore, only Fig. (2)
shows the correct position of intelligent and fair persons.

Intelligent Fair

Now, rest of the information regarding the position of other persons can easily be inserted.The
final ranking of their sitting arrangement is as shown in Fig. (3).

Intelligent Weak Fat Tall Fair

2. Person to the left of weak possesses which of the following characteristics ?

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A. Intelligent
B. Fat
C. Fair
D. Tall

Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

First information given in the question that one of the two persons at the extreme ends is
intelligent and the other one is fair, suggested as shown in Fig. (1) and (2).

Fair Intelligent

Information that a tall person is sitting to the left of a fair person rules out the possibility of
Fig. (1) as no person in Fig. (1) can sit to the left of a fair person. Therefore, only Fig. (2)
shows the correct position of intelligent and fair persons.

Intelligent Fair

Now, rest of the information regarding the position of other persons can easily be inserted.The
final ranking of their sitting arrangement is as shown in Fig. (3).

Intelligent Weak Fat Tall Fair

3. Which of the following persons is sitting at the centre ?

A. Intelligent
B. Fat
C. Fair
D. Weak

Correct Answer : B

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Answer Justification :

Explanation:

First information given in the question that one of the two persons at the extreme ends is
intelligent and the other one is fair, suggested as shown in Fig. (1) and (2).

Fair Intelligent

Information that a tall person is sitting to the left of a fair person rules out the possibility of
Fig. (1) as no person in Fig. (1) can sit to the left of a fair person. Therefore, only Fig. (2)
shows the correct position of intelligent and fair persons.

Intelligent Fair

Now, rest of the information regarding the position of other persons can easily be inserted.The
final ranking of their sitting arrangement is as shown in Fig. (3).

Intelligent Weak Fat Tall Fair

4. Find the last five missing letters of the series :

a…aabb…ab…b……

A. baaaa
B. babab
C. baaba
D. bbaaa

Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

The presence of the term aabb in the middle suggests the form of the series to be ab, aabb,
followed by aaabbb, aaaa. Thus (A) is the correct option.

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5. If the TEMPLE is coded as VHQURL, how would you code CHURCH ?

A. EKYWIO
B. EKUWIO
C. EKYWIN
D. EKYWJO

Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

TEMPLE VHQURL

Code for T is V; for E, it is H, for M it is Q. It may be noticed from here that letters of TEMPLE
have been replaced by new letters from the alphabets. There is a gap of one letter between T
and V, gap of two letters between E and H, gap of three letters between M and Q and so on.

Therefore, coding for CHURCH is EKYWIO.

6. Passage—1
Wars constrain people’s mobility, create black markets and restrict people’s access to food, making it either
unavailable or too expensive. War-related displacement causes people to be removed from their cultivable land
so that they cannot grow food, and it diverts resources from people’s welfare towards the war effort. War parties
control what goes in and out of areas under their jurisdiction, and can use withholding of food as a weapon of
war. In this context, providing people with food in an emergency situation may seem like a very short-term
measure.
Q. On the basis of above passage following assumptions have been made:
1. Focus on food is a short-sighted measure during war and takes attention away from peace
efforts
2. War-time provisioning of basic needs may promote trust in society
3. Such efforts can prevent outbreak of new hostilities

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

A. 1 only
B. 2 & 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1 & 3 only

Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

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The passage explains us the food challenges caused as a result of war and how it makes
hunger acute.

The passage hints at need to ensure food availability and its significance. Here providing food
is not short-sightedness therefore.

Hence 1 is wrong.

2 and 3 can be assumed as they are in line with the passage which hints at the significance of
the food provisioning during war.

Thus B is the answer.

7. Which of the following is best implied by the passage regarding war-related measures?

A. If nuclear weapon is cause of war, hunger is a consequence of war, both needs to be

focused to build peace
B. Hunger is a form of weapon of mass destruction
C. Global governance structures need to realign post-war efforts keeping long-term causes
of war in mind
D. Malnutrition and regional inequalities are violation of human rights

Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

In light of the aforementioned explanation, B is absurd.

C is not reflecting the main focus of the passage I.e. hunger

D is irrelevant since the passage has no mention of regional inequalities in the world

Thus A is the answer.

8. Passage—2
Scientists for long have been trying to develop methods that produce nanoparticles of a specific size, or to
achieve monodispersity. It is not difficult to see why this is important. A mixture of gold nanoparticles of all
sizes will show no particular colour. That means that some properties, colour in this case, would not become
evident in a random mixture of all sizes. Unfortunately, we are interested in using specific properties of these
nanoparticles, and since many of these properties are size-dependent.
Q. Which of the following is the most practical inference that can be made from the above passage?

A. It is necessary to liberate the nano-applications from their particle size-dependency

B. It becomes very important to create nanoparticles of uniform size that exhibit specific

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properties
C. Cost of nano-particle synthesis cannot be overlooked while deciding the size of the
particle
D. Nano-technology is expensive since it uses gold extensively

Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

A is absurd since there is no possibility or any mention of making nano-technology

independent of size

B is correct since the passage tells mixture of nanoparticles of different sizes do not reflect
the properties but we are interested in harnessing such properties as per the passage. Hence,
B is correct and particles of uniform size needs to be developed.

The passage is not concerned about the cost involved hence C and D are wrong.

9. Passage—3
Liberalisation has given rise to independent regulatory bodies. They have powers to legislate like Parliament in
the shape of subordinate legislation, are authorised to execute those legislation like the executive and also
become the judge of their own actions — the judiciary. However, the regulatory state works within the ambit of
the nation-state, which has the overall responsibility of the governance of the state. It is therefore important that
the ‘regulatory state’ works harmoniously within the broader framework of the nation state and promotes the
state’s objectives.
Q. Which of the following best describes the crux of the passage?

A. Non-interference from political executive is the cornerstone of regulatory state

B. Communist economies have powerless regulatory bodies
C. Regulatory bodies may interfere in independence of judiciary
D. Fine balance between autonomy and accountability of regulatory bodies is essential

Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :

The passage tells that,

1. Regulatory bodies have multiple powers meant to preserve their autonomy

2. They breed in occasion of liberal economy
3. But they should work within the framework of nation-state which is represented by the
Government.

Hence,

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Regulatory bodies cannot act against the interests of nation-state. So while they have
autonomy their accountability should also be established.

Thus D is the answer.

10. Which of the following is/are implied by the above passage?

1. Union government should monitor monetary policy of central to keep inflation at lowest level
2. Laws empowering regulatory bodies shall have a clear provision for intervention by the State
in case of a disharmony

Which of the above implications is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

As earlier said, the regulatory bodies cannot act against nation state and so they can be
intervened by the State in case of conflict.

Statement 1 is absurd since there is no mention of keeping inflation at lowest level, nor it is a
practical or logical argument since inflation need not be low always.

Thus B is the answer.

11. In light of the above passage, the phrase ‘regulatory state’ is best explained by,

A. Regulatory states are extra-legal creatures

B. Regulators are a combination of legislature, executive and judiciary
C. Regulators maintain efficacy of markets
D. Regulatory bodies use techniques that are distinct from the State

Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

The passage characterises regulatory bodies as bodies having autonomous legislative

executive and judicial powers and so regulatory state can be best described in that sense.

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A is wrong since passage clarifies us that they are creatures of law

C is just a function of it and D is obviously absurd.

Hence B is the answer.

12. DirectionS (12-14) :

Read the information carefully and answer the questions based on it.
Ramesh, Ram, Kareem and Mohan collected the coins of different countries.
A. They collected 100 coins altogether.
B. None collected less than 10.
C. Each collected an even number.
D. Each collected a different number.
Q. Based on the above, we can say that the number of coins collected by the boy who collected the most could
not have exceeded

A. 64
B. 54
C. 60
D. 58

Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Minimum number of coins selected by three persons(excluding the boy who collected the
most), after satisfying all the conditions, is 10 + 12 + 14 = 36. The total number of coins is
100. Hence the maximum number of coins collected by anyone of them cannot exceed 100 – 36
= 64.

13. If Ramesh collected 54 coins, we can say (on the basis of information obtained so far) that the difference in
numbers collected by the boy who collected the most and the boy who collected the second most should be at
least.

A. 30
B. 18
C. 26
D. 12

Correct Answer : A

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Answer Justification :

Explanation:

If Ramesh collected 54 coins, which is more than half of the total number of coins collected by
all of them. Thus Ramesh collected the maximum number of coins. The minimum number of
coins that will be collected by two other persons will be 10 + 12 = 22. Thus the second highest
number of coins that one can collect is 100 – 54 – 22 = 24.

Then the difference between the one who collected the maximum number of coins and the one
who collected the second highest number of coins must be at least 54 – 24 = 30.

14. Ramesh collected 54 coins. If Kareem collected two more than double the number collected by Mohan, the
number collected by Kareem was

A. 10
B. 30
C. 22
D. 26

Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Since Ramesh collected 54 coins, we've 46 remaining.

Question says Kareem collected 2 more than double collected by Mohan.

Since everybody collected not less than 10 coins, the only option where one can collect more
than double of the other and that total to 46 is when the person has collected the least number
possible.That means Mohan collected 10, Kareem collected (2 * 10 + 2 = 22) and Ram
collected 14. So no of coins collected by Kareem is 22.

15. In a 500 metres race, B starts 45 metres ahead of A, but A wins the race while B is still 35 metres behind.
What is the ratio of the speeds of A to B assuming that both start at the same time?

A. 25: 21
B. 25: 20
C. 5:3
D. 5:7

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Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Total distance = 500m

Distance covered by A= 500m

Distance covered by B= 500 – 45 – 35

= 500 – 80 = 420

(Speed of A/Speed of B) = (distance of A/distance of B)

500/420 = 25/21.

16. Out of 130 students appearing in an examination, 62 failed in English, 52 failed in Mathematics, whereas 24
failed in both English and Mathematics. The number of students who passed finally is

A. 40
B. 50
C. 55
D. 60

Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

image

Total students = 130

Total students failed = (62 + 52) – 24

= 114 – 24

= 90

Number of students passed finally= 130 – 90 = 40

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17. Passage—4
NGO engagement with people at the grass roots level acquaints civil society workers with the deficiencies of
government programmes, and often makes them ask difficult questions — about discrimination,
marginalisation, violation of constitutional rights, human dignity. Such interventions and criticisms are crucial
to a humane society. In fact, civil society initiatives have informed some of the path-breaking laws in the
country, including the Environmental Protection Act, Right to Education Act, Forests Rights Act and Right to
Information Act.
Q. What is the message conveyed by the passage?

A. NGO activity is not just about philanthropy

B. NGO helps elected representatives fulfil their mandate
C. NGO default capacity for deepening democracy is sub-optimal
D. None of the above

Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

The passage tells us that NGO have numerous roles especially in democratizing the system.

NGO as per passage is in spirit of participatory democracy and so B is wrong and also C is
against the essence of the passage.

Thus A is the answer.

Their role goes beyond philanthropy as said in the passage involves many civil society
initiatives including initiation of law making.

18. Passage—5
Social Stock Exchanges (SSE) exists in one form or another in UK, Singapore, South Africa, Canada and
Brazil, but it is yet to take off in any country. It has been an instrument focussed on social enterprises with
rather poor results. The proposed SSE in our country could have been an interesting innovation if it was a first.
But to replicate a failed experiment from elsewhere in an extremely complex environment of endemic
poverty, high inequality and regional variation does not seem promising.
Q. Why author is pessimistic about social stock exchanges?

A. They disable grassroot social workers

B. They are yet to take off in any country
C. They are suitable for first world only
D. They are against spirit of liberal entrepreneurship

Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

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The SSEs are experimented in many countries but clearly as per passage they did not meet
any success. Thus they did not take off in any country.

Therefore B is correct.

There is no mention of grassroot workers also logically it may not disable grassroot social
activities.

It is absurd to tell that SSEs are suitable only for developed countries as per the passage.

SSEs are entrepreneurial phenomena and so D is incorrect.

19. Passage—6
There can be no argument against the need to amend the existing labour laws in India. At a time of acute
economic distress and precarity, instead of moving in a direction of a reasonably flexible labour market with a
degree of social security, the government should not be seen to be taking steps in the opposite direction.
Q. The author seems to argue,

A. Against keeping ease of doing business at the centre of policy initiatives

B. For keeping labour concerns at the centre of policy initiatives
C. Against expensive social security measures that is not favourable to corporate balance
sheet
D. For social security of inter-state migrants as central focus of labour policy

Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

The passage is not against amending labour laws. But it is unclear whether it should be done
for ease of doing business.

However,

The passage clearly shows labour concerns to be considered. It tells there should be no
movement of policy against the direction which upholds labour interests.

The passage has no mention of migrants or ease of doing business.

Hence B is the answer.

20. Twelve people form a club. By picking lots, one of them will host a dinner for all once in a month. The
number of dinners a particular member has to host in one year is

A. One

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B. Zero
C. Three
D. Cannot be predicted

Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

We cannot predict the number of dinners for a particular member from the given data. It may
be

possible that by choosing members from picking lots, one may have to host a dinner more than
one time. So we can't say how many times each has to host in one year.

21. Between 6 PM and 7 PM the minute hand of a clock will be ahead of the hour hand by 3 minutes at

A. 6: 15 PM
B. 6: 18 PM
C. 6: 36 PM
D. 6: 48 PM

Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

If the minute hand is 3 minutes ahead of the hour hand, it means the angle between the two
hands is 18°.

Let the required time be 6:x pm

The minute hand will travel 6x° while hour hand will travel (6*60 + x)*1/2 = (180 + x/2)°

According to available information :

6x - 180 - x/2 = 18

12x - 360 - x = 36

11x = 396

x = 396/11 = 36

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Required time is 6:36 pm

22. Two cities A and B are 360 km apart. A car goes from A to B with a speed of 40 km/hr and returns to A with
a speed of 60 km/hr. What is the average speed of the car?

A. 45 km/hr
B. 48 km/hr
C. 50 km/hr
D. 55 km/hr

Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Average speed of two cars at a speed V1 and V2 km/hr

= (2*V1*V2)/(V1+V2)

= (2*40*60)/(60+40)

= 48 km/hr

23. Consider the following statements followed by two conclusions:

Statements : Some men are great.
Some men are wise.
Conclusion I : Men are either great or wise.
Conclusion II :Some men are neither great nor wise

Which one of the following is correct?

A. Only conclusion I is valid
B. Only conclusion II is valid
C. Both the conclusions are valid
D. Neither of the conclusions is valid

Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :

image

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24. 1. Statements : All buildings are rains.

All papers are buildings.
All dogs are papers.
Conclusion: I. All dogs are rains.
II. Some papers are rains
III. Some rains are buildings.
IV. Some rains are papers.

A. I and II follow
B. I, III and IV follow
C. II and III follow
D. None of these follow

Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

image

where R = Rains, B = Buildings, P = Papers, D = Dogs

25. Passage—7
The core of the worry is that in an increasingly digital world, large quantities of seemingly unrelated,
innocuous data can be amassed, pieced together, and then deployed for other purposes, with the individual
concerned having little or no say over the flow of information. While some may raise questions over the
usability of the data, the chances of “actionable intelligence” rise manifold as the quantum of data collected
multiplies.
Q. Which of the following is/are the most rational and practical implications with reference to the above
passage?
1. Regulations to protect individual rights are needed
2. Accountability of different stakeholders of data collection and storage needs to be upheld
3. Fiscal incentives for data localization is need of the hour

Select the answer using the code given below:

A. 1 only
B. 1 & 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 2 & 3 only

Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

The passage clarifies that huge quantities of data is at the hands of third parties which could

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be converted into actionable intelligent thus it could negatively impinge on our RIGHTS,
dominantly right to privacy.

Thus it can be implied that we need,

1. Regulation that can protect rights

2. Ensure data is not misused

So 1 and 2 are correct .

3 can be a far fetched assumption but not an implication since there is no mention of data
localization or fiscal incentives in the passage.

So B is the answer.

26. Passage—8
The contribution any investment makes to employment depends on the sector and the region. It is obvious that
investment in a labour-intensive sector will generate more employment than the same investment in a capital-
intensive sector. In 2015-16, the services sector received the largest FDI equity inflow; this sector includes
services such as finance, banking, insurance and outsourcing and predominantly employs skilled workers. Of
utmost concern is the stark reduction in FDI in the construction sector — the rate of decrease is close to 85
per cent.
Q. Which of the following are the most logical assumptions that can be made on the basis of above passage?
1. The focus of FDI is profit not employment generation
2. Public investment should be preferred over private investment to achieve most economic goals

Select the answer using the code given below:

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

The passage hints that FDI in India has not flown into employment intensive sectors.

This tells us capital intensive sectors are preferred by FDI. Thus A can be assumed.

Since one can assume private investments like FDI cant generate employment, public
investment shall generate employment. But we can’t assume in light of the passage that MOST
economic goals need public investment over private investment. Hence 2 is incorrect.

Thus A is answer.

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27. Which of the following is the critical corollary that flows from the above passage?

A. Larger investments in capital-intensive sector will not help economic growth

B. Investment can be characterised by its regional destinations
C. Low investment in construction sector cannot but have negative implication for
employment
D. None of the above

Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

The passage has said capital intensive sectors receive more FDI but it has not mentioned
implication for economic growth. Logically it would increase growth not decrease it,

No regional prism to FDi is provided in the passage so B is wrong.

As implied by the passage construction sector received low FDI being a labour intensive sector
so it will affect employment generation.

So C is the answer.

28. Passage—9
The Indian livestock sector functions differently from what policy makers imagine. It is based not on stall-
feeding but on animals roaming around, harvesting waste and transforming it into high value food. Pastoralism
runs only on solar power. At the same time, it ensures continued fertility of soil, hence saving billions of
dollars that go in importing chemical fertilisers.
Q. With reference to the above passage, which of the following are the correct implications?
1. Pastrolism aids our gross domestic product positively
2. Pastrolism underpins a green agriculture and rural economy

Select the answer using the code given below:

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

Pastrolism is said to save billions of dollars thus it will contribute to our GDP growth. For
instance it saves cost spent on synthetic fertilisers.

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Pastrolism upholds soil fertility and by contributing to ecology of agricultural system it keeps
the agriculture and economy green.

Hence both are correct.

Thus C is the answer.

29. In a class there are 10 boys and 8 girls. The teacher wants to select a boy and a girl to represent the class in a
function. In how many ways can the teacher make this selection ?

A. 18 ways
B. 80 ways
C. 180 ways
D. 40 ways

Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

The teacher has to perform two jobs :

(i) To select a boy among 10 boys, which can be done in 10 ways.

(ii) To select a girl, among 8 girls, which can be done in 8 ways.

Hence, the required number of ways = 10 × 8 = 80.

30. There are 6 multiple choice questions in an examination.How many sequences of answers are possible, if the
first three questions have 4 choices each and the next three have 5 choices each?

A. 27 sequences
B. 4000 sequences
C. 54 sequences
D. 8000 sequences

Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

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Each of the first three questions can be answered in 4 ways and

Each of the next three questions can be answered in 5 different ways.

Hence, the required number of different sequences of

answers = (4 × 4 × 4) × (5 × 5 × 5) = 8000.

31. Two numbers x and y are such that x = y². If Y is increased by 10%, then x is

A. Increased by 100%
B. Increased by 10%
C. Increased by 11%
D. Increased by 21%

Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Let the value of y be = 1

After an increase of 10%, y = 1.1

Given that x = y² = x = 1

If y = 1·1

then x = (1·1)² = 1·21

= x is increased by 21%.

32. A number consists of 3 digits whose sum is 10. The middle digit is equal to the sum of the other 2 and the
number will be increased by 99 if its digits are reversed. What is the number ?

A. 253
B. 374
C. 1743
D. 495

Correct Answer : A

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Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Let the unit's digit, tens digit and hundreds digit be x, y and z respectively.

x + y + z = 10 and

y=x+z

2y = 10

y=5

100z + 10y + x = 100x + 10y + z – 99

x–z=1

x + z = 5 and

x–z=1

x = 3, z = 2

Hence, the number is 253.

33. Once upon a time, during the Indus civilization A peasant with a goat, a bundle of grass and his bravo dogs
were crossing the Sindhu River in a boat. The boat could only carry the peasant with only one more item on a
trip. The goat if left with the grass would eat it away. If the dog and goat were left behind, the dog is prone to
bite the goat hence two cannot be left together. What is the minimum number of crossings to transfer all four
to the other side intact?

A. 8
B. 7
C. 6
D. 9

Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

Left Bank On the River Right Bank

Dog; Grass Man; Goat ➡️
Dog; Grass Man ⬅️ Goat
Grass Man; Dog ➡️ Goat

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Grass Man; Goat ⬅️ Dog

Goat Man; Grass ➡️ Dog
Goat Man; ⬅️ Dog;Grass
Man; Goat ➡️ All

34. Passage—9
Going by the census definition, a habitation is declared urban if at least 75 per cent of the male working
population is engaged in non-agricultural pursuits; Between Census 2001 and Census 2011, the number of
Census Towns increased from 1,362 to 3,894. This indicates that people in rural areas are quitting farming or
joining non-farm livelihoods. Despite the change in the rural economy, the non-farm sectors are not able to
absorb job seekers because they are not able to generate jobs at the required rate even if economy achieves the
coveted 5 trillion USD target.
Q. Which of the following best describes the crux of the given passage?

A. Rural economy is no more agrarian in economic and employment terms

B. Rural economy will be in a major cusp of change in future
C. Towns are growing because of change in cultural preferences of rural households
D. Towns are growing because youth fail to find a remunerative agri-system

Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

It is clear from the passage that the reason for why towns have increased in number is not
provided also growth of town is different from increase in numbers of towns. Hence both C
and D are wrong.

The passage will imply us that rural economy is already in a major cusp of change. So to tell it
will be in future is incorrect.

Thus by elimination A is correct. Since non-agricultural settlements have outgrown in numbers

it means rural economy is no more agrarian. Thus A is correct.

35. What is the most rational and practical inference that can be made from the above passage?

A. The growth towards 5 trillion economy will be a jobless growth

B. There will be no social security in the near-term growth
C. India should focus on make in India policy robustly
D. Labor-intensive agriculture sector should be revived to make it the major job creator

Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

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The passage only indicates that there is shift from agri to non-agri sector by the labour. But
there is no mention of any need to bring back the labour to agri-sector.

Thus D is incorrect.

B is absurb and C is extraneous to the passage, at best it can be an assumption.

The passage closing lines clearly tells, even if we achieve 5 trillion economy the shift to non-
agri will not mean automatically non-agri jobs are created.

Thus A is the answer.

36. A library contains three types of books. There are nine less Math books than the Physics books and fifteen
more Math books than the Chemistry books. If there are 45 Math books, then how many books are there in the
library?

A. 126
B. 129
C. 132
D. 136

Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

It is given that the total number of Math books in the library = 45.

As the number of physics books are nine more than the number of Math books, the number of
Physics books = 45 + 9 = 54.

Also, the number of chemistry books are fifteen less than Math books. So, the number of
Chemistry books = 45 – 15 = 30.

Hence, the total number of books in the library = 45 + 54 + 30 = 129.

Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

37. A milkman sells milk at the rate of Rs 50 per liter. Upon investigation, it was found that the milk contains
25% water. Assuming that the cost of the milk is Rs. 48 per liter, what is the profit per liter made by the
milkman?

A. Rs. 9

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B. Rs. 10
C. Rs. 12
D. Rs. 14

Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Milk contains 25% water and 75% milk.

So, 1 liter milk contains only 750 ml of milk.

Cost of 750 ml milk = 48 × (750/1000) = Rs. 36.

This 750 ml of milk is diluted to one liter and sold at the rate of Rs. 50 per liter.

Selling price of 1 Liter milk = Rs. 50.

Profit per liter = Rs. 50 – Rs. 36 = Rs. 14

38. In a coaching class, the number of girls is 20% more than that of the boys. The strength of the class is 66. If 4
more girls are admitted to the class, then what will be the ratio of the number of boys to that of the girls?

A. 1:2
B. 3:4
C. 1:4
D. 3:5

Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Let the number of boys = x

Then, the number of girls (20% more than that of boys)

=x+(20/100)x

=(120/100)x

=(6/5)x

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Total number of boys and girls in class is 66.

Thus, x + (6/5) = 66

On solving we get x= 30

Therefore, the number of girls = 66 – 30 = 36

Now, the number of total girls after 4 new girls are admitted to the class = 36 + 4 = 40

New ratio of the number of boys to that of the girls = 30 : 40 = 3 : 4

39. A shopkeeper has to completely pack each of three types of grains weighing 403 kg of Rice, 465 kg of Wheat
and 496 kg of Corn in the packets of equal sizes without mixing any of them such that each packet is
completely filled. What is the least number of packets required by the shopkeeper?

A. 54
B. 48
C. 52
D. 44

Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

In order to find how many packets of equal size are required by the shopkeeper, we need a
number that is a factor of 403, 465 and 496.

To find the least number of packets, we need to find the greatest common factor of 403, 465
and 496.

HCF of (403, 465 and 496) kg = 31 kg

Now, the number of packets required to pack 403 kg of rice =(403/31)= 13

Similarly, the number of packets required to pack 465 kg of wheat =(465/31)= 15

And the number of packets required to pack 496 kg of corn = (496/31) = 16

Thus, the least number of packets required = 13 + 15 + 16 = 44

40. In a row of forty children, Padma is thirteenth from the left end and Sonakshi is ninth from the right end. How
many children are there between Padma and Rekha, if Rekha is fourth to the left of Sonakshi?

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A. 12
B. 13
C. 14
D. 15

Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Sonakshi is 9th from the right end and Rekha is fourth to the left of Sonakshi. So, Rekha is
13th from the right end.

Number of children to the left of Rekha = 40 – 13 = 27

Thus, Rekha is 28th from the left end.

Also, Padma is 13th from the left end.

Clearly, there are 14 persons between Padma and Rekha.

41. The price of rice is increased by 20 percent and a person decrease his consumption by 15 percent, so his
expenditure on rice -

A. increase by 2 percent
B. increase by 4 percent
C. decrease by 2 percent
D. decrease by 4 percent

Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Let initial price of rice – 100 and new price of rice – 120

Suppose initial consumption is 100kg and new consumption is 85kg

Initial expenditure = 10000

New expenditure = 10200 (200/10000)*100 = 2 percent increase.

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42. Two pipes can separately fill a tank in 20 hours and 30 hours respectively. Now both of these pipes are opened
to fill the tank but when the tank is one fourth full, a leak develops in the tank through which one fourth of
water supplied by both the pipes starts leaking out.How much more time is required to fill the tank
completely?

A. 11 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 15 hours
D. 16 hours

Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Time taken to fill the tank by two pipes= (20x30)/(20+30)= 12 hours

1/4thof the tank is filled in 12/4= 3 hours

So, the time still needed by the pipes to fill the tank = 12 – 3 = 9 hours

Now, (1/4) of the supplied water starts leaking out.

It means, pipes are only 1-(1/4) = 3/4th as efficient as earlier.

Hence, remaining work of 9 hours will be completed now in 9/(3/4)= (9x4)/3=12 hours

43. Abhay is taller than Vijay but shorter than Chandan, who is shorter than Deepak. Who is the tallest among
them?

A. Abhay
B. Bijay
C. Chandan
D. Deepak

Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Abhay is taller than Vijay but shorter than Chandan

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Chandan>Abhay>Vijay

Now Chandan is shorter than Deepak

Deepak>Chandan>Abhay>Vijay

Clearly, Deepak is the tallest among all.

Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

44. In a book, a map was printed in such a way that north, instead of being pointing towards the top of the page,
was pointing to the right side. As seen from the center of the map, the sun will set in which side of the page?

A. Top
B. Right
C. Bottom
D. Left

Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

It’s evident that the map has been rotated clockwise by 90°.

We know that the sun sets in the west, i.e. left part of the page as seen from the center of a
normally printed map.

After rotating the map clockwise by 90°, west will be found towards the top of the page.

Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

45. In a race of 1,200m, A beats B by 200m, while in a race of 600 m B beats C by 60m. By how much distance
will A beat C in a race of 800 m?

A. 160 m
B. 200 m
C. 220 m
D. 180 m

Correct Answer : B

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Answer Justification :

Explanation:

In a race of 1,200 m, A beats B by 200 m.

Thus, when A runs 1,200 m, B runs 1,000 m.

Hence, when A runs 800 m, the distance ran by B = (1000/1200) x 800 = 666.67 m

Now, in a race of 600 m B beats C by 60 m.

i.e. when B runs 600 m, C runs only 540 m.

So, when B runs 666.67 m, the distance ran by C = (540/600) x 666.67 m = 600m

Therefore, when A runs 800 m, B runs 666.67 m and C runs 600 m.

The distance by which A will beat C = 800 - 600 = 200 m.

46. How many four digit numbers can be formed by using the digits 0, 2, 4, 6, 7 if repetition of digits is allowed?

A. 625
B. 96
C. 500
D. 36

Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Total digits = 5
First place can be filled up by using only one of 4 digits (except 0, since 0 at the first place is
meaningless).
Second place can be filled up by using all the five digits (as repetition is allowed).
Similarly, third and fourth place can be filled up by using all the five digits.
Total numbers = 4 × 5 × 5 × 5 = 500

47. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘DRASTIC’ be arranged in such a way that the vowels
always come together?

A. 720

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B. 360
C. 1440
D. 540

Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Total letters = D, R, A, S, T, I, C (7)

Total vowels = A, I (2)
∴ Required no. of ways = 6! × 2!
= 1440

48. Out of three numbers, the first is twice the second and is half of the third. If the average of the three numbers
is 56, what will be the difference between the highest no. and the lowest one?

A. 72
B. 70
C. 80
D. 75

Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Let second no. = x

First no. = 2x
Third no. = 4x
∴ x + 2x + 4x = 56 × 3
x = 24
Difference = 3x = 72

49. In a class, there are 18 very tall boys. If these constitute three-fourths of the boys and the total number of boys
is two-thirds of the total number of students in the class, what is the number of girls in the class?

A. 6
B. 12

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C. 18
D. 21

Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

If 18 is 3/4th of the boys then total no of boys = 24.

If 24 is 2/3rd of total no of students then total students = 36.

Total no of girls = 36 – 24 = 12.

50. A sum of money is to be distributed among A, B, C, D in the proportion of 5 : 2 : 4 : 3. If C gets Rs. 1000
more than D, what is B's share?

A. Rs. 500
B. Rs. 1500
C. Rs. 2000
D. None of these

Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

Explanation:
Let the shares of A, B, C and D be Rs. 5x, Rs. 2x, Rs. 4x and Rs. 3x respectively.
Then, 4x - 3x = 1000
x = 1000.
B's share = Rs. 2x = Rs. (2 x 1000) = Rs. 2000

51. Directions (36-40): Study the following passage carefully to answer the questions that follow:
There are two towns A and B. In these towns there are only male and female. The population of town A is
1000 and the population of town B is 1600. If 40% of the total population of town A is farmers and 30% of
the total population of town B are farmers. Ratio of male and female farmers in town A is 3: 2 and Ratio of
male and female farmers in town B is 5: 3.
Q. Find the ratio between the total male farmers in town A to the total female farmers in town B?

A. 8:5
B. 4:3
C. 5:6

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D. 4:9

Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Total farmers in town A = 1000 × 40/100 = 400

Female farmers in town A = 400 × 2/5 = 160

Male farmers in town A = 240

Total farmers in town B = 1600 × 30/100 = 480

Male farmers in town B = 480 × 5/8 = 300

Female farmers in town B = 480 × 3/8 = 180

Required ratio

= Male farmers in town A: Female farmers in town B

240: 180 ⇒ 4: 3

52. What is the difference between Total female farmers and the total male farmers in both the villages together?

A. 205
B. 225
C. 250
D. 200

Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Total female farmers = 160 + 180 = 340

Total male farmers = 240 + 300 = 540

Required difference = 540 – 340 = 200

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53. Total population of Town B is what percent more or less than the total population of Town A?

A. 60 % more
B. 40% less
C. 60% less
D. 30%more

Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Population of town B = 1600

Population of town A = 1000

Required % = 1600−1000/1000 × 100

600/1000 × 100 ⇒ 60% more

54. Find the total number of female farmers in town C if the population of town C is 25% more than the total
population of town B and female farmers in town C is 40% of the total population of town C.

A. 700
B. 800
C. 650
D. 945

Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

The population of town C = 1600 × 125/100 = 2000

Number of female farmers in town C = 2000 × 40/100 = 800

55. Total number of male farmers in town A is what percent more or less than the total number of male farmers in
town B?

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A. 20 % more
B. 30% less
C. 25% less
D. 20%less

Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Male farmers in town A = 240

Male farmers in town B = 300

Required % = 300−240/300 × 100

= 60/300 × 100 = 20% less

56. Rahul has a digital watch that shows time in a 24 hour format. The time on the watch shows 23:45. How many
minutes will pass before the watch shows time in such a way that the four whole numbers are again arranged in
ascending order from left to right?

A. 92 minutes
B. 87 minutes
C. 98 minutes
D. 82 minutes

Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Whole numbers are 0,1,2,3,4 ..... and so on.

The digits on the clock will show the four whole numbers in ascending order from left to right
at 01:23.

So, the required time-difference from 23:45 to 01:23 is

1 hour 38 minutes = 98 minutes.

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57. How many 4 digit odd numbers can be made using the first 8 natural numbers if repetition of digits is allowed?

A. 2048
B. 1088
C. 2560
D. 4096

Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

First 8 natural numbers are 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8.

As the number to be formed is an odd number, therefore we can only use 1,3,5,7 to fill the
units place.

Therefore, units place can be filled in 4 ways

Rest of three places can be filled in 8 ways each as repetition is allowed

Hence, number of 4 digit odd numbers = 8 × 8 × 8 × 4 = 2048

58. One page is torn from a booklet whose pages are numbered in the usual manner starting from the first page as
1. The sum of the numbers on the remaining pages Is 195. The torn page contains which of the following
numbers?

A. 5, 6
B. 7, 8
C. 9, 10
D. 11, 12

Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Pages starting from 1 = 1,2,3,4,5,...........n

Sum of n natural numbers = n(n+1)/2 is nearer to 195

Put n with some values so that we get value nearer to 195

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Take n=20

n(n+1)/2=210 nearer to 195 and 210-15 is 195

Consider the sum of options given above = 11,15,19,23

Hence B is the correct answer.

59. How many natural numbers up to 100 are not divisible by 3 or 7?

A. 43
B. 57
C. 44
D. 67

Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Numbers divisible by 3 = 100/3 = 33

Numbers divisible by 7 = 100/7 = 14

Numbers divisible by 21 (LCM of 3 and 7) = 100/21 = 4

Total numbers divisible by 3 or 7 = 33 + 14 – 4 = 43

Total numbers which are not divisible by 3 or 7 = 100 – 43 = 57

60. A boat takes 28 hours for travelling downstream from point A to point B and coming back to point C midway
between A and B. If the velocity of the stream is 6km/hr and the speed of the boat in still water is 9 km/hr,
what is the distance between A and B?

A. 115 km
B. 120 km
C. 140 km
D. 165 km

Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

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Explanation:

Downstream speed = 9+6 = 15

Upstream speed = 9-6 = 3
Now total time is 28 hours
If distance between A and B is d, then distance BC = d/2
Now distance/speed = time, so
d/15 + (d/2)/3= 28
Solve, d = 120 km

61. Directions (61-65): Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Nine boxes are placed one above another in a stack. Four boxes are placed between F and H. More than Four
boxes are placed above the box H. Two boxes are placed between box B and C, which is placed above box H.
There are three boxes are placed between box E and box D, which is placed just above box F. More than three
boxes are placed between box C and box A, which is placed above box B. More than two boxes are placed
between box G and box K, which is not placed above box C.
Q. Which of the following box is placed just above box B?

A. G
B. H
C. A
D. F

Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Boxes
A
D
F
B
G
E
C
H
K

62. Which of the following box is placed in the bottom of the stack?

A. B
B. K

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C. H
D. C

Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Boxes
A
D
F
B
G
E
C
H
K

63. How Many boxes are placed between box A and Box H?

A. Four
B. Three
C. More than four
D. One

Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Boxes
A
D
F
B
G
E
C
H
K

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64. Which of the following statements is false about box G?

A. Box G is placed just above box E

B. Not more than two boxes are placed between box A and G
C. One box is placed between C and G
D. More than three boxes are placed above box G

Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Boxes
A
D
F
B
G
E
C
H
K

65. Which of the following box is placed just below box C?

A. D
B. H
C. G
D. A

Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

Explanation:

Boxes
A
D
F
B
G

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E
C
H
K

66. Passage—11
The need for creating and identifying with a tradition of our own comes from a deep sense of insecurity and
lack of fulfilment. If you have a tradition, you will repeat the same things again and again. Repetitive means in
some way compulsive. Compulsive means not conducive for consciousness. If your life becomes cyclical, that
means you are going around in circles, not getting anywhere. Too many people choose to do nothing because
there is a great tradition behind them – they have a bag full of fossils and they are a fossil themselves.
Q. Which of the following is the most critical message given by the passage?

A. Repetition of old things gives us a stable output

B. Once you get into a repetitive cycle, you cannot explore new possibilities
C. Personalities who are risk-averse like to follow traditions and reduce risk of actions
D. Traditions promote experimentation in different avenues of life

Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

The passage tells us due to insecurity amongst other reasons we follow traditions again and
again, possibly because this abandons risk in doing new things. Hence B is correct.

It is not however logical to think that repeating traditions will always give stable output, thus
both A and C are wrong.

Traditions do not allow new experiments hence D is against spirit of the passage.

Thus B is the answer.

67. What is the consequence of attaching us to tradition as per the author?

1. We do not live the present
2. We have no hope for the future
3. We do not have a critical outlook about the past

Select the answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 only
B. 2 & 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

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Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :
1. Since we live purely as per traditions we dont live according to present
circumstances
2. Since we have no hope for new things neither we are ready to break away from
past we dont have hope for future
3. Since we follow traditions blindly regardless of relevance to present times we lack
critical outlook about past

Thus 1 2 and 3 are correct and D is the answer.

68. Passage—12
Was Gandhi a Saint? Gandhi objected when people called him "a saint trying to be a politician." He said he
would rather be "a politician trying to be a saint." He was a common man, but a common man in modern world
in the footsteps of Buddha and Jesus. He said, "I have nothing new to teach the world. Truth and Non-violence
are as old as the hills". It may be said that, after the great Buddha and Jesus, Gandhi once again demonstrated
that non-violence could also be an effective instrument of social change in modern times.
Q.The author seems to argue that,

A. Gandhi was not a saint

B. Gandhi was half politician and half saint
C. Gandhi was contemporary of many saints
D. Gandhi was a satyagrahi

Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

Satyagraha or truth is not the core of the passage hence D is wrong,

C is an absurd statement

B is against the passage, since we clearly know Gandhi was a politician. Since passage tells us
Gandhi tried to become saint we can conclude that Gandhi was not a saint.

Thus A is the answer.

69. Passage—13
In a country with a significant level of poverty and recent trend of acute rural distress that already impacts the poor the
most, unexpected shocks like disasters would lead to a pandemic of poverty. Post-disasters and pandemics, for
considerable days, the majority of India’s informal workers don’t earn at all. For a poor person, this is the entry point to
that dreaded vicious cycle of chronic poverty. You are poor. You face a shock that further sucks out your capacity to
survive. You tend to survive on borrowing and for the future, if you earn, you just spend repaying this unbearable debt.
Q. What is the critical message of the author about poverty after disasters?

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A. Even if you work well, you still remain poor after disasters
B. Pandemics increase health cost causing poverty
C. Rural economy is most vulnerable to such poverty
D. None of the above

Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

The passage clarifies us the following facts,

1. During disasters there is job loss for informal workers

2. Such workers are majority of workforce
3. They take debts to survive and post-disaster jobs will only meet the debt provisioning
needs
4. Thus there is no disposable income left
5. So income levels ultimately will never rise

Hence, even if they work well they will remain poor even after earning.

Thus A is answer.

70. On the basis of above passage following assumptions have been made:
1. Poverty caused by disasters cannot be eradicated
2. Only rich can survive disasters and pandemics

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :
1. It is extraneous to the passage whether such poverty can be eradicated or not thus
it is absurd
2. It is again absurd to conclude that only rich can survive disaster. There is no such
class distinction made here

Thus D is the answer.

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71. Passage—14
While the richest 10 per cent accounted for 46 per cent of emissions growth, the poorest 50 per cent accounted
for only 6 per cent. The global carbon budget is being rapidly depleted — not to afford communities around
the world dignity and a decent standard of living — but to expand the consumption of the rich. Of this, the
largest share of emissions by the rich was from their luxuries like flight travels. About half of the emissions of
the richest 10 per cent are associated with North America and the European Union (EU). So, there is a need to
focus on clipping emissions of the richest 10 per cent.
Q.What could be the most important suggestion made by the author through above passage for emission
control?

A. Eradication of poverty and making luxuries accessible to everyone

B. Imposition of taxes on sin goods like petrol
C. Wealth redistribution to fight climate change by eradicating income inequality
D. Ensuring accountability of western nations at United Nations

Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

The author argues that,

1. Rich emit more than poor

2. This is because they use more luxuries
3. Rich could afford luxuries because they are rich, it is unaffordable for middle class or
poor

So if wealth is redistributed affording luxuries will drastically reduce and so emissions.

So C is the most important suggestion he would make.

A is against essence of passage since reducing luxuries is necessary for emissions reduction.

72. On the basis of above passage following assumptions have been made:
1. A developing country’s carbon emissions is just a fraction of EU
2. Closing thermal power plants can help reduce majority of emissions

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :
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1 Is correct because, rich emit majority of gases and majority of such emissions is from NA and
EU. Hence, on comparison basis a country like India will emit a fraction of EU. Hence 1 is
correct

2 is logical but cant be correct assumption here, because, we are not sure whether coal plants
are majority energy provider.

Hence, A is the answer.

73. The author seems to argue,

A. In favour of shifting climate change discourse from individual-centric to class-centric

perspective
B. Against high carbon footprint in modern lifestyle
C. In favour of imposing responsibility of fighting global warming on rich sections instead
of government
D. Against economic models of growth that checks consumption patterns

Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

The passage wants to ensure that class behaviour of emissions is understood. This is indeed a
shift from traditional perspective of individual behaviour based analysis. Hence A is the
answer.

D is against the spirit of the passage. C is irrelevant to the passage since government vs rich
section emission is not argued here.

B is too generic and cannot be the best option

Hence A is the answer.

74. Passage—15
Paper has gotten a bad rap in recent years as it is claimed that paper manufacturing leads to mass
deforestation. What people often don't realize is that the paper-making process is sustainable—for instance,
more than 65% of paper used was recycled in 2012, making paper the most recyclable commodity. On the
surface, digital media does appear more sustainable. However, manufacturing electronic products also leaves a
carbon footprint, as well as the energy needed to power them. And a growing concern is the rapid growth of
discarded electronics, especially in developing countries. Until more research has been done on the life-cycle
and environmental impact of electronics, pitting paper and e-media against each other is somewhat futile.
Q. What does the author intend to suggest us in context of using paper?

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A. Papers are cheaper since they are most recyclable commodity

B. Only timber-rich nations should afford to use paper dominantly
C. Judicious mix of paper and digital media is wise for now
D. Digital media can be preferred over paper until strong research to disprove former is at
place

Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :
1. Author is not concluding that electronic products are all bad
2. Paper is also not concluded to be best better than electronic products since digital media
have irreplaceable advantage

Thus a wise choice would be to use both.

D is wrong since author nowhere tells digital media should ne used more or paper be used
very less.

B is absurd and A is not the author’s argument.

Hence C is answer.

75. Which of the following is/are the implications with reference to the above passage?
1. Cloud storage of data is more environment-friendly
2. If we recycle entire electronic products its carbon footprint becomes negligible

Select the answer using the code given below:

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : D

Answer Justification :
1. Within various digital storage ways there is no comparison so we can’t tell cloud mode is
more eco-friendly
2. Even if we recycle all e-goods they wont become all green since we need electricity for
using them and so carbon footprint will exist

Thus both are wrong,

Hence D is the answer.

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76. Passage—16
While sources such as solar and wind may be renewable, they do not promise a constant and predictable
stream of power. Given this fact, if renewables are to become a crucial part of India's energy mix, energy
storage will be incredibly important. The cost of storage has been declining rapidly. The expectation is that
they continue to fall quickly. When costs of storage had declined sufficiently, large scale deployment would be
feasible.
Q. On the basis of above passage following assumptions have been made:
1. Solar power has highest share among all renewable sources
2. Reduction in fossil fuel usage is proportionate to storage cost reduction in renewable sector

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

1 is wrong because it is absurd since we have no idea which sector among renewables is
dominated one

2 is correct since the passage tells that,

1. Storage is a serious issue for shift to renewable

2. Storage cost is reducing
3. Low cost of it would enable high use of renewables
4. This will mean low use of fossil fuel

Hence B is answer.

77. Passage—17
Indian insurers who have around 20 lakh agents working for them, can add 50 lakh more such agents, it will
address the problem of under-penetration while also creating ample employment opportunity aiding the
country's economy in a more holistic manner. He also added that the insurance industry in India needs to have
further competition to be able to expand to a greater customer base. China has almost the same population as
India. However, they have 100 companies competing in the life insurance market as against 24 that are
operating here
Q. What is the critical message conveyed by the above passage?

A. China’s economic stronghold has leverage on its insurance penetration

B. There is poor demand in India for insurance policies
C. Insurance sector supply chain is underdeveloped in India
D. Impact of demographic changes on insurance penetration is chequered

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Correct Answer : C

Answer Justification :

Author tells,

1. There is low insurance agents in India or more insurance agents can increase
penetration
2. Also China has more penetration because there are many insurers

Hence the supply chain especially the human resource component is underdeveloped and so C
is correct.

B is wrong since author tells once agents are increased penetration will increase which means
demand is not bleak

A and D are absurd.

Hence C is the answer.

78. Passage—18
Luck is not something you can mention in the presence of self-made men. Some people are of course quick to
acknowledge the good fortune they’ve enjoyed along their paths to the top. But such people are in the
minority. More commonly, successful people overestimate their responsibility for whatever successes they
achieve. Even lottery winners are sometimes blind to luck’s role. Most significantly, the successful people are
much less likely to remember external events that may have helped them along the way.
Q. Which of the following best explains the crux of the passage?

A. Luck is a silent partner of success

B. Success has good tendency to show the future right path to the top
C. Success makes us arrogant about our capabilities
D. Lucky people should invest in lottery

Correct Answer : A

Answer Justification :

Author does not deny the role of luck in success rather he or she feels that luck is silenced by
the successful people. Hence it is a silenced partner.

1. Success cannot lead us to right path since it silences many truth about how success is
achieved
2. We are not sure why winners dont recognize luck it may or may not be arrogance
3. D is absurd.

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Thus A is answer.

79. On the basis of above passage following assumptions have been made:
1. Only lucky people can achieve success in their endeavours regardless of their level of hard
work
2. Attributing entire success to our capacities deprives us the chances to enlighten us about role
of external factors in success

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

1 is wrong since it is absurd primary facie, there is no mention of the fact that without luck
success is impossible nor the role of hard work is discredited

2 is correct since last line tells us that external events are discredited and so it deprives us the
chance

80. Passage—
Returns from farm produce shown fluctuation in India. This is the cumulative effect of unpredictable market
prices, unstable yields and lack of policies for maintaining long-run price stability. Net returns from
agriculture invariably follow the cobweb cycle—the wide fluctuations occurring in markets in which the
quantity supplied by producers depends on prices in previous production periods.
Q.With reference to the above passage which of the following is/are the most rational and practical
implication /implications?
1. Government should develop and disseminate technologies to improve farm output
2. Price support to the farmers should be made robust
3. Agriculture reforms by state government should be encouraged with performance grants by
Union government

Select the answer using the code given below:

A. 1 only
B. 1 & 2 only
C. 1 & 3 only
D. All the above

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Correct Answer : B

Answer Justification :

The passage implies that farm output is not achieving the fair price. Multiple issues caused
this including yield issues and market mechanism.

1 is a solution for yield issue and 2 is a solution for market issues. Both are correct.

3 is incorrect since there is no mention of state and central government specifications or

performance grant mechanism in this passage. It is not definitely implied.

Hence B is the answer.

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