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Class X Biology QN Bank
Class X Biology QN Bank
Class X Biology QN Bank
4. If salivary amylase is lacking in the saliva, which of the following events in the
mouth cavity will be affected?
(a) Proteins breaking down into amino acids
(b) Starch breaking down into sugars
(c) Fats breaking down into fatty acids and glycerol
(d) Absorption of vitamins
Ans. (b) Starch breaking down into sugars (maltose and isomaltose)
5. The inner lining of stomach is protected by one of the following from hydrochloric
acid. Choose the correct one
(a) Pepsin (b) Mucus (c) Salivary amylase (d) Bile
Ans. (b) Mucus
7. A few drops of iodine solution were added to rice water. The solution turned
blueblack in colour. This indicates that rice water contains
(a) complex proteins (b) simple proteins (c) fats (d) starch
Ans. (d) Starch
13. What prevents backflow of blood inside the heart during contraction?
(a) Valves in heart (b) Thick muscular walls of ventricles
(c) Thin walls of atria (d) All of the above
Ans. (a) Valves in heart
14. In which of the following vertebrate group/groups, heart does not pump
oxygenated blood to different parts of the body?
(a) Pisces and amphibians (b) Amphibians and reptiles
(c) Amphibians only (d) Pisces only
Ans. (d) Pisces only
18. The opening and closing of the stomatal pore depends upon
(a) oxygen (b) temperature
(c) water in guard cells (d) concentration of CO2 in stomata
Ans. (c) Water in guard cells
22. During deficiency of oxygen in tissues of human beings, pyruvic acid is converted
into lactic acid in the
(a) cytoplasm (b) chloroplast (c) mitochondria (d) golgi body
Ans. (a) cytoplasm.
Ans: (a) plants absorbCO2from air and H2O from the soil as raw materials and
convert them intoGlucose.
The student then places the plant in light and tests the leaf after 5 hours for the
presence ofstarch. The portions inside the bottle shows negative starch test by
reflecting no change incolour when react with iodine, however, other upper portions
of the leaf gave positive starchtest showing blue-black colour with iodine. What can
be evaluated from this experiment?
(a) carbon dioxide is directly linked with the colour of leaf
(b) carbon dioxide is necessary for preparing carbohydrate
(c) lack of carbon dioxide increases amount of starch in plant
(d) lack of carbon dioxide slows the process of photosynthesis.
Ans: (b) carbon dioxide is necessary for preparing carbohydrate.
Ans: (c) by breaking down the nutrients of bread and then absorbing them.
28. A student sets up an experiment to study the role of enzymes in digestion of food.
29. The image shows the transport of gases in body through heart and lungs.
Which option correctly shows the transport of oxygen to the cell?
(a) Lungs →pulmonary vein →left atrium →left ventricle →aorta → body cells
(b) Lungs →pulmonary vein →right atrium →right ventricle → aorta → body cells
(c) Lungs →pulmonary artery →left atrium → left ventricle → vanacava → body cells
(d) Lungs →pulmonary artery →right atrium → right ventricle→ vanacava → body cells
Ans: (a) Lungs →pulmonary vein →left atrium →left ventricle →aorta → body cells
30. A student setup an experiment using a well-watered plant. The plant’s roots and
soilwere covered with a rubber sheet. The plant was then kept in a glass bell jar and
sealed with Vaseline at the bottom part to prevent the flow of air. The student keeps
the apparatus in the light and observes water drops inside the jar after 2 hours as
shown in the image.
Nephron
DIRECTION : The following question consist of two statements - Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
(e) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
5. Assertion : Digestion breaks large complex molecules to simple smaller molecules which
can be easily absorbed.
Reason : Digestion is necessary for the absorption of all molecules.
Ans : (c) A is true but R is false.
7. Assertion : Egestion is the removal of nitrogenous waste products from the body.
Reason : Excretion is the discharge of undigested matter from the digestive tract.
Ans : (e) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
C. COMPREHENSIVE PASSAGE:
1.Question numbers 1.1–1.4 are based on the two table given below.
Study these tables related to blood pressure level and answer the
question that follow :
1.1 In the table B, at which time patent−Y have ideal normal blood pressure?
Ans : Afternoon (80-120)
1.2 Identify the patient, which have hypertension stage-1 blood pressure?
Ans : Patient X (82-132) Evening
1.3 Which Diet is the best for high blood pressure patient?
(a) Grain and fruits
(b) High fat dairy products
(c) Take large amount of sodium in diet
(d) All of the above
Ans : (a) Grain and fruits
1. Give one reason why multicellular organisms require special organs for exchange of gases
between their body and their environment.
Ans: Multicellular organisms need more O2 to perform various body functions. They therefore, have
special organs for exchange of gases.
2. State the basic difference between the process of respiration and photosynthesis.
Ans: Respiration uses O2 and releases CO2 but in photosynthesis, CO2 is used and O2 is released.
3. Where do plants get each of the raw materials required for photosynthesis?
Ans:
Plants get carbon dioxide from atmosphere through stomata and water from soil through roots
and transport to leaves.
4. What advantage over an aquatic organism does a terrestrial organism have with regard
to obtaining oxygen for respiration?
Ans: The amount of oxygen dissolved in water is very low, as compared to amount of oxygen in
air. Thus, terrestrial organism has to make less efforts to obtain oxygen than an aquatic organism
to obtain oxygen for respiration.
5. Specify two conditions in which photo-respiration may take place in green plants.
Ans:Two conditions in which photorespiration may take place in green plants are: (i) High
concentration of oxygen and (ii) High temperature.
6. Name the fundamental process in which living organisms release energy within their
cytoplasm.
Ans: Respiration.
7. Find the odd one out: (a) Trachea, Bronchus, Alveolus, Diaphragm. (b) Epiglottis,
Trachea, Malpighian corpuscles, Alveoli.
8. Why are lungs divided into very small sac-like structures called alveoli?
Ans: Lungs are divided into small sacs or alveoli to increase the surface area through which
respiratory exchange takes place.
10. Name the phase of the cardiac cycle in which both auricles and ventricles are relaxed
simultaneously.
Ans: Diastole.
13. Name the tissue which transports soluble products of photosynthesis in a plant.
14. Name the tissue which transports water and mineral in a plant.
Ans: Urine contains urea, uric acid and ammonical salts which imparts yellow colour.
1. What advantage over an aquatic organism does a terrestrial organism have with
regard to obtaining oxygen for respiration?
Ans. Adaptation of terrestrial organism over aquatic organism for efficient uptake of
oxygen from air –
(i) Increased respiratory surface area.
(ii) Very fine and delicate surface for easy exchange of oxygen and carbon – dioxide.
(iii) Placement of respiratory surface within the body for protection
(iv) Mechanism for moving the air in and out of respiratory surface where the oxygen is
absorbed.
4. Why is it essential to match the blood groups of donors and receiver person
before arranging transfusion of blood?
Ans. RBC’s of blood carries antigen as well as antibody. If blood is not matched before
transfusion then blood of receiver start producing antibodies against donor blood and
destroys blood cells, this causes deficiency of blood and causes death.
5. While eating you are advised not to talk Why are you advised so?
Ans. We are advised so because while eating some food particles might enter the wind
pipe which can lead to choking.
7. When we are asleep we are not performing any activity still our life processes
are going on. Why?
Ans. “The maintenance functions of living organisms must go on even when they are not
doing anything particular.” That is why the life processes are going on even while we are
asleep or not performing any activity.
8. Due to availability of less water, how does the plant cope up with lack of water in
desert conditions?
Ans. They open their stomata at night and stomata remain closed during day time, to
conserve moisture.
12. Autotrophs synthesis food for the living world. Justify this statement in one
sentence only interconnecting autotrophs and heterotrophs.
Ans. The food producers are autotrophs and all the heterotrophs consume the food
produced by the autotrophs directly or indirectly.
13. Why doesn’t the lungs collapse even after forceful expiration?
Ans. Even after forceful expiration to the maximum capacity, some amount of air
remains in the lungs, known as residual volume. So, the lungs doesn’t collapse even after
forceful expiration.
14. “If there were no algae there would be no fish in the sea”. Comment.
Ans. Algae produce 02 as a result of photosynthesis. This oxygen is utilized by the fishes
in the sea for carrying out respiration. If there were no algae, no oxygen would have been
produced. Thus, fishes might have died.
17. With the help of labelled diagram, discuss the structure of cross – section of
leaf.
Ans. Leaf has two parts:
(i) Epidermis – Outermost layer of cell is called epidermis. Lower epidermis has
small pores in between cells called stomata.
(ii) Mesophyll – Parenchymatons cells containing chloroplast is called mesophyll.
It is two types – palisade and spongy parenchyma.
18. Dark reaction of photosynthesis does not need light. Do plants undergo dark
reaction at night explain.
Ans. Dark reaction does not mean that it occurs in the absence of light i.e., at night. Infact
these reactions do not depend on light energy and occur simultaneously with light
reaction.
21. The two openings of the pharynx, one leading to trachea and the other leading
to oesophagus, lie very close to each other. Yet food we swallow normally does not
enter into our trachea. Why?
Ans. The food does not enter into trachea because during swallowing, the aperture
leading to trachea (glottis) gets covered by a cartilaginous flap called epiglottis and the
food has no other passage except going into the oesophagus.
22. How would it affect the digestion of proteins and carbohydrates if the
duodenum of man if there is a blockade in the pancreatic duct?
Ans. Duodenum is the region where the pancreatic juice secreted by the pancreas enters.
The enzymes pancreatic amylase and trypsin helps in the digestion of carbohydrates and
proteins. Thus, if there is a blockage, the digestion of carbohydrates and proteins gets
affected.
23. (a) Name the process by which autotrophs prepare their own food.
(b) List the three events which occur during this process.
(c) State two sources from which plants obtain nitrogen for the synthesis of proteins and
other compounds.
Ans: (a) The process by which autotrophs prepare their own food is called photosynthesis.
(b) The three events which occur during the process of photosynthesis are as follows:
(i) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll.
(ii) Conversion of light energy to chemical energy and splitting of water molecules into hydrogen
and water.
(iii) Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates.
(c) The two sources from which plants obtain nitrogen for the synthesis of proteins and other
compounds are—
(i) Inorganic nitrates or nitrites.
(ii) Organic compounds prepared by bacteria from atmospheric nitrogen.
24. In human alimentary canal, name the site of complete digestion of various components
of food. Explain the process of digestion.
Ans:
In small intestine, complete digestion of various components of food take place. The process of
digestion of food in mouth, stomach and small intestine in human body are as follows:
❖ Mouth: Digestion of food begins in the mouth. Saliva present in mouth contains a
digestive enzyme, called salivary amylase, which breaks down starch into sugar.
❖ Stomach: Stomach stores and mixes the food received from the oesophagus with gastric
juices. The main components of gastric juice are hydrochloric acid, mucus and
pepsinogen.
Hydrochloric acid dissolves bits of food and creates an acidic medium. In this medium,
pepsinogen is converted to pepsin which is a protein digesting enzyme. Mucus protects
the inner lining of the stomach from the action of HCl.
❖ Small Intestine: Small intestine is the site of complete digestion of carbohydrates,
proteins and fats. Small intestine produces intestinal juice from the glands present in its
wall. The intestinal juice helps in further digestion of food. Small intestine also obtains
digestive juices from liver and pancreas that helps in mixing of food.
The liver produces bile juice that causes emulsification of fats and the pancreas produces
pancreatic juice for digesting proteins and emulsified fats. This digested food is finally
absorbed through the intestinal walls.
25. (a) “The breathing cycle is rhythmic whereas exchange of gases is a continuous
process”. Justify this statement.
(b) What happens if conducting tubes of circulatory system develops a leak? State in brief,
how could this be avoided?
(c) How opening and closing of stomata takes place?
Ans: (a) Even though the breathing cycle is rhythmic, the lungs always contain a residual volume
of air so that absorption of O2 and release of CO2 becomes continuous.
(b) The circulatory system will become inefficient if it develops a leak. This could be avoided by
maintaining a normal blood pressure.
(c) When water flows into the guard cells, the guard cells swell and the stomatal pore opens up.
The guard cells shrinks when water moves out and the stomatal pore closes.
26. In single celled organisms diffusion is sufficient to meet all their requirements of food,
exchange of gases or removal of wastes but it is not in case of multicellular organisms.
Explain the reason for this difference.
Ans: In case of single celled organism, the entire surface of the organism is in contact with the
environment and hence no specific organ for taking in food, exchange of gases or removal of
waste may be needed. In case of multicellular organism, body size of the organism is large. Hence
all the cells are not in direct contact with the surrounding environment. Thus, simple diffusion
will not meet the requirements of the cells.
Ans: (a) (i) Respiration is the process of gaseous exchange where CO2 is given out and O2 is taken
in from the air.
(ii) Animal has respiration organs like lungs, gills skin, tracheae.
(iii) Respiration helps blood to become oxygenated that helps food to be carried to different
parts of the body.
(b) The difference between aerobic & anaerobic respiration:
Ans:
(ii) The rate of breathing during vigorous exercise increases by about 20 to 25 times per
minute. It is because, during vigorous exercise, the demand for oxygen increases.
Breathing occurs involuntarily but its rate is controlled by the respiratory centre of the
brain.
29. What are stomata and lenticels ? What is their role in respiration?
Ans:
❖ Stomata or stoma is a pore, large numbers of which are present in the epidermis of
leaves and young shoots. Each stoma is bordered by two semicircular guard cells.
Stomata functions in gaseous exchange between the plant and the atmosphere.
❖ Lenticel is any of the raised pores in the stems of woody plants. The pore is formed by
the cork cambium, which at certain points produce a loose bulky form of cork that pushes
through the outer tissues to create the lenticel. Lenticel function in gas exchange between
the atmosphere and the internal tissues.
Ans: Mammals and birds are warm blooded animals. This means they can control their body
temperature and they need not to depend on environment for body temperature regulation.
Because of this birds and mammals need optimum oxidation of glucose which is possible with
good supply of oxygen. Four chambered heart in birds and mammals ensures that deoxygenated
blood donot get mixed with oxygenated blood.
Ans:
(a) 1. Pulmonary artery to lungs 2. Lung capillaries 3. Pulmonary vein from lungs 4. Aorta to
body 5. Capillaries in body organs 6. Vena cava from body. (any four)
(b) The two functions represented are :
(i) Transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide
(ii) Exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide
32. What is blood pressure? How it is measured ? Give one difference between systolic
pressure and diastolic pressure.
Ans:
BloodPressure: It is the force that blood exerts against the wall of a vessel. This pressure is
much greater in arteries than in veins. It is measured by using an instrument called
sphygmomanometer.
The pressure of blood inside artery during contraction or ventricular systole is called systolic
pressure and pressure in artery during relaxation or ventricular diastole is called diastolic
pressure. The normal systolic pressure is about 120 mm of Hg and diastolic pressure is 80 mm of
Hg.
33. Describe in brief the function of kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder and urethra.
Ans:
Functions of Kidneys
It removes the nitrogenous wastes such as urea and excess water from the blood. It regulates the
osmotic pressure/water balance/pH of the blood.
Functions of Ureters
Urine formed in each kidney is carried by the long tube called ureter to the urinary bladder.
Some amount of glucose, amino acid, salt and a major amount of water are reabsorbed in ureter.
Functions of Urinary bladder
It acts as a reservoir that stores urine before being discharged to the outside.
Functions of Urethra
Urine is passed out from the body through the urethra.
Ans:
Ans: (a)
2. (a) Complete the glucose breakdown pathway in case of aerobic respiration by filling
the blanks.
(b) Name the molecule in the cell which stores the energy produced at the end of the
pathway.
(c) Why do we get cramps during vigorous muscular activity?
Ans:
(a) (1) Pyruvate (3 carbon molecules) (2) Energy (3) Presence of oxygen (4) In Mitochondria (5)
Carbon dioxide (6) Water
(b) ATP
(c) Lactic acid accumulation, in the absence of oxygen (anaerobic respiration)cause cramps.
3. (a) Draw a labelled diagram of the respiratory system of human beings with diaphragm
at the end of expiration.
(b) List four conditions required for efficient gas exchange in an organism.
Ans: (a)
(b) The conditions required for efficient gas exchange in an organism are that the membrane
should be extensive, thin, highly vascularised and easily permeable to oxygen and carbon
dioxide.
4. (a) Draw a sectional view of the human heart and label on it – Aorta, Right ventricle and
Pulmonary veins.
(b) State the functions of the following components of transport system: (i) Blood (ii)
Lymph.
Ans: (a)
(b) The functions of the following components of the transport system are :
(i) Blood:
• Oxygen is transported to the tissues of the body for the purpose of respiration.
• Carbon dioxide is transported to the lungs by the blood plasma.
• The digested and absorbed nutrients are transported to the tissues.
• Nitrogenous wastes are transported to the kidneys.
• The blood regulates the body temperature.
• It maintains the pH of the body tissues.
• It transports various hormones from one region to another and bring about the coordination.
• It maintains water balance to constant level.
• The lymphocytes produce antibodies against the invading antigens and protects from diseases.
• Blood helps in rapid healing of wounds by forming a clot at the site of injury.
(ii) Lymph:
• It carries digested and absorbed fat from intestine and drains excess fluid from extracellular
space back into the blood.
• It protects the body by killing the germs drained out of the body tissues with the help of
lymphocytes contained in the lymph nodes.
5. (a) Explain how does the exchange of gases occur in plants across the surface of stems,
roots and leaves.
(b) How are water and minerals transported in plants?
Ans:
(a) In plants, there are tiny pores called stomata on leaves and lenticels in stem which facilitate
the exchange of gases. CO2 is taken in and O2 given out (during photosynthesis) and vice-versa
during respiration.
(b) Mechanism of Transport of Water and Minerals in a Plant
• The vessels and tracheids of roots, stems and leaves in xylem tissue are interconnected to form
a continuous system of water-conducting channels reaching all parts of the plant.
• The cells of the roots in contact with the soil actively take up ions which creates a difference in
the ion concentration between the root and the soil.
• Thus, there is steady movement of water into root xylem from the soil, creating a column of
water that is pushed upwards.
• Plant uses another strategy to move water in the xylem upwards to the highest points of the
plant body.
• The water which is lost through the stomata is replaced by water from the xylem vessels in the
leaf.
• Evaporation of water molecules from the cells of a leaf creates a suction which pulls water from
the xylem cells of roots.
• This loss of water is transpiration which helps in the absorption and upward movement of
water and minerals dissolved in it from roots to the leaves.
• Transpiration becomes the major driving force in movement of water in the xylem during the
day when the stomata are open.
• This mechanism is also known as cohesion of water theory or transpiration pull.
CH: 8: HOW DO ORGANISMS REPRODUCE?
It can be observed that the offspring is similar to the parent but not identical. What is the
likelyreason for this?
(a) variation in the genetic material
(b) fast multiplication of body cells
(c) asexual mode of reproduction
(d) effect of environment on the offspring.
Ans: (b) The cell divides multiple times giving rise to many daughter cells.
Ans: (b) Parent cell will lead to the formation of two daughter cells of equal sizes.
The student claimed that the newly formed planarians have identical genome. Which
statementsupport the claim?
(a) It is a single celled organism.
(b) All planarians share the same genome.
(c) Division in Planariainvolves a single parent.
(d) Planariadivides only under unfavourable condition.
The shoot of the parent plant is pushed below the soil that results in growth of a new plant.
What is the advantage of this process?
(a) this results in plant of different flowers
(b) this helps grow plants without adding extra manure
(c) this eliminates the need of producing plant using seeds
(d) this allows growth of plants with new genetic composition.
Ans: (c) this eliminates the need of producing plant using seeds.
Which part of the pistil is responsible for receiving pollen from stamen in order to perform
reproduction?
(a) anther
(b) ovary
(c) petal
(d) stigma
Which event will likely occur in the ovaries of females after attaining puberty?
(a) fertilisation
(b) synthesis of eggs
(c) production of eggs
(d) growth and development of embryo.
12. The table lists some changes that occur inside the female body after fertilization of egg
with sperm.
2. Assertion : Sexual reproduction increases genetic diversities and plays a role in origin of new
species.
Reason : Sexual reproduction involves formation of gametes and fusion of gametes.
Ans : (a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of
assertion (A).
8. Assertion : Unisexual flowers have separate male and female flowers whereas a typical monocot
embryo comprises an embryonal axis with single cotyledon.
Reason : Cucumber, pumpkin and water melon are example of unisexual flowers.
Ans : (b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
assertion (A).
9. Assertion : Plasmodium reproduces by multiple fission.
Reason : Multiple fission is a type of asexual reproduction.
Ans : (b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
assertion (A).
2. What are those organisms called which bear both the sex organs in the same individual.
Give one example of such organism.
Ans: Organisms which bear both the sex organs are called hermaphrodite/bisexual.
Example: Earthworm.
4. Name the life process of an organism that helps in the growth of its population.
Ans: Reproduction.
5. Malarial parasite divides into many daughter individuals simultaneously through multiple
fission. State an advantage the parasite gets because of this type of reproduction.
Ans: Due to multiple fission progeny of malarial parasite is identical like parent and single
individual can reproduce in large number.
Ans: Artificial methods of vegetative propagation like layering is used for growing jasmine plant.
8. What is DNA?
Ans: The full form of DNA is deoxyribonucleic acid. DNA lies in the cell nucleus which is the
information source for making proteins, and different proteins lead to different designs.
Ans: During reproduction, an organism gives birth to another organism whose body design is
similar to the parents. DNA contains the body design information and hence, during reproduction
the DNA is copied to give birth to an organism of similar body design.
10. Name the information source of making proteins in the cell. State two basic events in
reproduction.
Ans: The DNA in the cell nucleus is the information source of making proteins.
The two basic events in reproduction are:
(i) creation of a DNA copy
(ii) function of additional cellular apparatus by the cell, involved in the process.
11. What is the effect of DNA copying which is not perfectly accurate on the reproduction
process?
Ans: DNA copying is not perfectly accurate and the resultant errors are a source of variations in
populations of organisms.
12. Name the parts of a bisexual flower that are not directly involved in reproduction.
Ans: Parts of a bisexual flower which are not directly involved in reproduction are (i) Petal, (ii)
Sepal and (iii) Stem.
Ans: Conditions necessary for seed germination are water, temperature and oxygen.
14. Name the floral parts of a plant that develop into (i) Fruit (ii) Seeds.
15. Name the part of female reproductive system where the egg is fertilized.
Ans: Sexual mode of reproduction is a source of variation (in a population of organisms) which
ensures survival of the species.
18. Name the hormones responsible for secondary sexual characters in
(i) Girls (ii) Boys.
Ans: The chemical method prevents ovaries from releasing egg and hence fertilization cannot take
place.
Ans: The time period from the development of the foetus till birth is called gestation period.
Ans: Reproduction: It is the process of producing new individuals of the same species by existing
organisms of a species, i.e. parents.
Reproduction helps in providing stability to the population of species because reproduction is a
process by which organisms increase their populations. The rate of birth and death in a given
population determine its size.
Ans:
(a) When Planaria gets cut into two pieces, each piece grows into a complete organism.
(b) A mature Spirogyra on attaining considerable length breaks up into two or more small pieces.
Each piece then grows into a new individual.
(c) When sporangia bursts, spores are released, each one of which develop into new individual.
Ans:
(a) (i) Hyphae (ii) Sporangium
(b) Spores are enclosed within sporangia which protects the spores.
Spores when released from sporangia develops into new Rhizopus.
5. Explain vegetative propagation with the help of two examples. List two advantages of
vegetative propagation.
Ans:
Vegetative propagation: In vegetative propagation, new plants are obtained from the parts of old
plants, like stems, roots and leaves, without the help of any reproductive organ.
Natural vegetative propagation by leaves: The fleshy leaves of Bryophyllum bear adventitious buds
in the notches along the leaf margin.
Artificial vegetative propagation like grafting: In this method of reproduction, two plants of closely
related varieties are joined together so that they live as one plant.
(i) Vegetative propagation is a cheaper, easier and more rapid method of propagation in plants than
growing plants from their seeds.
(ii) Better quality of the plants can be maintained by this method.l
6.
Ans:
1. A. Hydra B. Rhizopus C. Bryophyllum D. Planaria
2. The life process shown in the figures is asexual mode of reproduction.
3. This life process is advantageous to the organisms because
(i) Only one individual is required.
(ii) Large numbers of offsprings are produced.
Ans:
DNA in the cell nucleus is the information source for making proteins and different proteins lead to
different body designs. During reproduction, similar copy of DNA is generated and the process is
called DNA copying.
8. What are chromosomes? Explain how in sexually reproducing organisms the number of
chromosomes in the progeny is maintained.
Ans:
• ‘Chromosomes’ are long thread-like structures which contain hereditary information of the
individual and are thereby the carriers of genes. Chromosomes are located in the nucleus of
a cell.
• The parents are diploid (2n) as each of them has two sets of chromosomes. They form
haploid (1n) male and female gametes through the process of meiosis.
• The haploid gametes have one set of chromosomes. These two gametes fuse during
fertilisation and the offspring become diploid (2n) which is same as parents chromosome
number.
9. Write the full form of DNA. Name the part of the cell where it is located. Explain its role in
the process of reproduction of the cell.
Ans:
• The full form of DNA is deoxyribonucleic acid. It is the genetic material found in the
chromosomes, which are present in the nucleus of a cell.
• Role of DNA in the process of reproduction of the cell:
DNA plays an important role in the reproduction of a cell. The reproducing cell produces an
identical copy of DNA through some cellular mechanism. Since, the newly formed copy of
DNA lacks an organised cellular structure, the cell gets divided to provide cell cover to the
newly formed DNA. Thus, two daughter cells are formed from the single cell as a result of
the copying of DNA.
10. Name the parts A, B and C shown in the following diagram and state one function of each.
Ans:
A = Anther of stamen.
Function- Anther contains two pollen sacs within which numerous pollen grains are produced.
B = Carpel
Function—It is the female reproductive organ of a flower which receives pollen grains that moves
through the style and causes fertilisation in the ovaries.
C = Ovule
Function: Ovule contains female gamete, egg.
11. What is meant by pollination? Name and differentiate between the two modes of
pollination in flowering plants.
Ans: Pollination is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther of a stamen to the stigma of a
carpel. The two modes of pollination are self pollination and cross pollination.
Self-pollination Cross-pollination
(i) Self-pollination occurs within a flower or between (i) Cross-pollination occurs between two flowers
two flowers of the same plant. borne on different plants of the same species.
(ii) Flowers do not depend on other agencies for (ii) Agents such as insects, water and wind are
pollination. required for pollination.
(iii) Pollen grains are produced in small numbers. (iii) Pollen grains are produced in large numbers.
12. Identify A, B and C in the given diagram and write one function of each.
Ans:
A = Stigma
B = Pollen tube
C = Female germ cell
Function of stigma: Stigma helps in receiving the pollen grains from the anther of stamen during
pollination.
Function of pollen tube: The pollen tube facilitates movement of male germ cell through it to
reach female germ cell.
Function of female germ cell: It meets with the male germ cell to form zygote which divides many
times to form an embryo.
13. Name the two reproductive parts of a bisexual flower which contain the germ cells. State
the location and function of its female reproductive part.
Ans:
• The two reproductive parts of a bisexual flower are stamen and carpel. The carpel is the
female reproductive organ located at the centre of a flower.
• It consists of ovary, style and stigma.
• The ovary is the swollen part at the bottom of the carpel.
• The elongated part in the centre of the carpel is the style.
• The stigma is sticky so that it can trap pollen grains easily.
• Pollen tube that grows from the pollen grain to the ovary aids fertilisation.
Pollination Fertilisation
15. What is vegetative propagation? When is it used? Name three methods of vegetative
propagation.
Ans: The method of developing new plants from the vegetative parts of a plant, such as root, stem
or leaf is called vegetative propagation.
Vegetative propagation can be classified into natural and artificial methods.
The method of vegetative propagation is used when some plants like banana, orange, rose and
jasmine have lost the capacity to produce seeds.
The three methods of vegetative propagation are cutting, layering and grafting.
16. Differentiate between ‘self-pollination’ and ‘cross-pollination’. Describe ‘double
fertilisation’ in plants.
Ans:
Differences between:
Self-pollination Cross-pollination
The first fusion product gives rise to the zygote while the second one forms the endosperm.
Theprocess of fusion occurring twice in the embryo sac is called double fertilisaton.
17. Suggest three contraceptive methods to control the size of human population which is
essential for the health and prosperity of a country. State the basic principle moved in each.
Ans:
Three contraceptive methods that can be used to control the size of human population are—
• Mechanical barrier method: In this method, physical devices such as condoms are used.
The principle used is that it prevents entry of sperm into the female genital tract during
copulation and thus acting as a barrier between them.
• Chemical method: In this method, specific drugs are used by females which are of two
types-oral pills and vaginal pills. The principle used is that it contains hormones which stop
the ovaries from releasing ovum into the fallopian tube.
• Surgical method: In this method, a small portion of vas deferens in male and the fallopian
tube in female is surgically removed or tied. Principle used is that meeting of sperm and egg
in the fallopian tube is prevented.
19. (a) Name the human male reproductive organ that produces sperms and also secretes a
hormone. Write the functions of the secreted hormone.
(b) Name the parts of the human female reproductive system where
(i) fertilisation takes place,
(ii) implantation of the fertilised egg occurs.
Ans:
(a) Sperms are produced by testes in male reproductive system. Testes also secrete male sex
hormone, called testosterone. Testosterone brings about changes in appearance in boys at the time
of puberty.
(b) (i) Fertilisation occurs in fallopian tube.
(ii) Implantation of fertilized egg takes place in the uterus.
20. List two functions of each one of the following parts of the human female reproductive
system:(i) Ovaries (ii) Fallopian tubes (iii) Uterus
Ans: i) Ovaries:
(a) They produce female gametes.
(b) They secrete female sex hormones estrogen and progesterone.
(ii) Fallopian tubes:
(a) They carry eggs from ovaries to uterus.
(b) They allow sperm to travel to meet the egg.
(iii) Uterus:
(a) It allows implantation of zygote on its wall.
(b) It causes menstruation when egg is not fertilized.
21. (i) Give two reasons for avoiding frequent pregnancies by women.
Ans:
(i) Pregnancy makes major demand on the body and the mind of woman. If she is not ready
for it, her health will be adversely affected. Frequent pregnancies should therefore be
avoided so that health of the woman is not adversely affected.
22. Draw a well labelled diagram of human female reproductive system. Explain the
menstrual cycle of female.
Ans:
➢ The uterus prepared itself every month to receive and nurture the fertilized egg.
➢ The lining of the uterus thickens and is richly supplied with blood to nourish the embryo. If
the egg is not fertilized, the thick and nourishing lining of the uterus breaks and comes out
through vagina as blood and mucus which is called menstruation.
➢ The cycle of events taking place in the ovaries and uterus every twenty eight days and
marked by menstrual flow is called menstrual cycle.
Ans: The lining of uterus becomes thick and spongy before release of an egg.
(i) If the egg is fertilized, it moves upto uterus and get implanted on uterus. The uterine wall
thickens and richly supplied with blood. The region between embryo and uterine wall grows into
placenta which provides nourishment and oxygen to the embryo. The child is borne as a result of
rhythmic contraction of the uterine muscle.
(ii) If the egg is not fertilized, the thick and nourishing lining of the uterus breaks and comes out
through vagina as blood and mucus which is called menstruation.
Ans:
(a) The role of seminal vesicles and the prostate gland are as follows:
(i) Seminal vesicles produce seminal plasma which in the form of fluid makes the transport of
sperms smooth and also provide nourishment to them.
(ii) Prostate gland secretes prostatic fluid that keeps the sperms alive and helps them to swim
vigorously.
(b) Two functions performed by testis in human beings are as follows:
(i) Formation of sperms takes place in testis.
(ii) Testis secrete the hormone testosterone which regulates the formation of sperms and brings
changes in appearance of boys at the time of puberty.
25. What are sexually transmitted diseases. List two example of each diseases caused due to
(i) bacterial infection and (ii) viral infection. Which device or devices may be used to prevent
the spread of such diseases.
Ans: STDs are diseases which spread by sexual contact from an infected person to a healthy person.
26. List four points of significance of reproductive health in a society. Name any two areas
related to reproductive health which have improved over the past 50 years in our country.
27. What is AIDS? Which microbe is responsible for AIDS infection? State one mode of
transmission of this disease. Explain in brief one measure for the prevention of AIDS.
Ans:
• AIDS is the Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome.
• It is caused by a virus called Human Immunodeficiency Virus.
• AIDS is transmitted by sexual contact with an infected person.
• AIDS can be prevented by avoiding sexual contact with an infected person or by using
condom during sex.
28. (a) List any four reasons for adopting contraceptive methods.
(b) If a woman is using Copper-T, will it help in protecting her from sexually transmitted
diseases? Why?
Ans:
(a) Four reasons for adopting contraceptive methods are:
(i) To increase the gap between two children.
(ii) To prevent unwanted pregnancy.
(iii) To prevent transmission of STD.
(iv) To control population growth.
(b) If a woman is using a copper-T, it will not help in protecting her from sexually transmitted
diseases. Copper-T prevents only implantation in the uterus.
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS:
Ans:
(a) Fragmentation. Multicellular organisms with simple body organisation such as filamentous
algae-Spirogyra breaks up into two or more small pieces or fragments upon maturation. These
fragments grow into new individuals.
(b) Regeneration is the ability of a fully differentiated organism to give rise to new
individual organisms from its body parts.
• Small cut or broken parts of the organism body, grow or regenerate into separate
individuals.
• Planaria can be cut into any number of pieces and each piece grows into a complete
organism.
• Regeneration is carried out by specialised cells which proliferate and make large number of
cells.
• The changes take place in an organised sequence for development.
2. (a) Name the human male reproductive organ that produces sperms and also secretes
hormones. Write the functions of the hormone secreted.
(b) Name the parts of the human female reproductive system where (i) fertilization and
(ii) implantation occur respectively. Explain how the embryo gets nutrition inside the
mother’s body.
Ans: : (a) The formation of sperms takes place in the testis. It secretes the hormone, called
testosterone. In addition to regulating the formation of sperms, testosterone brings about changes
in appearance seen in boys at the time of puberty.
(b) (i) The fertilisation takes place in the fallopian tubes.
Ans:
(a) Papaya is a unisexual and Hibiscus is a bisexual flower.
(b) The parents are diploid (2n) as each of them has two sets of chromosomes. They form haploid
(1n) male and female gametes through the process of meiosis. The haploid gametes have one set of
chromosomes. These two gametes fuse during fertilization and the offspring become diploid (2n)
which is same as parents chromosome number.
(c) After fertilization, the zygote divides several times to form an embryo within the ovule. The
ovule develops a tough coat and gradually gets converted into seed. The ovary grows rapidly to
form a fruit. Meanwhile, the petals, sepals, stigma and style falls off.
Ans:
5. (a) Write the functions of the following parts in human female reproductive system:
(i) Ovary (ii) Oviduct (iii) Uterus
(b) Describe the structure and function of placenta.
Ans:
(a) (i) Ovary:
(a) It produces female gamete.
(b) It secretes female sex hormones estrogen & progesterone.
(ii) Oviduct:
(a) It carries egg from ovary to uterus.
(b) It allow sperm to travel to meet the egg.
(iii) Uterus:
(a) It allows implantation of zygote on its wall.
(b) It causes menstruation when egg is not fertilized.
(b) After fertilisation a special tissue develops between the uterine wall and the embryo
(foetus) called placenta, where the exchange of nutrients, glucose and oxygen takes place.
The developing embryo, will also generate waste substances which are removed by
transferring them into the mother’s blood through the placenta. The development of the
child inside the mother’s womb takes approximately nine months.
6. (a) Why does fertilisation occur only once in a month in a human female? Explain.
(b) Prenatal sex determination has been prohibited by law. State the necessity of
enforcement of this law.
(c) Where are human testis located and why? State their functions.
Ans:
(a) On attaining puberty, the eggs in the ovaries of a human female starts maturing. Only one egg is
produced by one of the ovaries every month. Fertilisation can therefore occur only once in a month
in a human female.
(b) The most ideal female, male sex ratio for a healthy society is 1000:1000. Because of reckless
female foeticide, sex ratio is decreasing at an alarming rate in some sections of our society. It has
therefore become necessary to ban detection of sex of the foetus.
(c) Testis are located outside the abdominal cavity inside the scrotum in a human male. The
scrotum provides optimum temperature for the formation of sperms.
7. A newspaper has recently published a survey result which says that number of AIDS
patients in the country is increasing everyday. The report also says that awareness among
people about AIDS is still very poor. You discussed the newspaper report with your friend
and both of you decided to help people to fight against this deadly disease.
(a) What problem do you anticipate if both of you try to educate the people of your village?
(b) How will you overcome that problem?
Ans: (a) The people of the village may not accept us as educators to teach them about their sexual
behaviour.
(b) We will make a slightly bigger group by including more people. We will then meet the civil SDO,
medical officers and other senior government officers and request them to address the villagers in a
public meeting on the topic AIDS. The sub-divisional officer will be requested to supply awareness
posters on AIDS and we will volunteer ourselves to stick the posters in the village. Once people find
us working together with government on a cause, they will slowly accept us and then onwards we
will talk to the people directly on AIDS.
8. Reena was not keeping well. Her doctor after examination told her that she was suffering
from dysentery. The doctor gave her medicines and advised her to take lots of fluids.
(a) What advice will you give to the people to protect them against dysentery?
(b) Why did the doctor advise Reena to drink lots of liquid ?
(c) What action should government take to stop spreading of diseases like dysentery?
Ans:
(a) The people will be advised to drink clean water only, and if possible drink water after boiling.
(b) Dysentery causes dehydration and hence, drinking lots of liquid is essential.
(c) (i) Government should arrange supply of clean treated drinking water.
(ii) Government should ensure sanitary latrine in every household.
9. Riyan brought a male and a female dog from a cold city of Switzerland to his home in Delhi.
During summer, the dogs appeared very tired and Riyan had to switch on the fan
occasionally. The dogs were allowed to reproduce and Riyan noticed that few 3rd generation
dogs were very comfortable in Delhi summer.
(a) How can you explain adaptability of the dogs to Delhi summer?
(b) How did Riyan help the dogs to adapt to the changed environment? What value does the
act convey?
(c) What will happen if the 3rd generation heat resistant dogs are shifted to the cold city of
Switzerland?
Ans:
(a) DNA copying is not perfect during sexual reproduction and produces variation in the offspring.
Over the generations, the variations get accumulated and give rise to a species who can tolerate
heat.
(b) Riyan helped the dogs to adjust to the changed environment by switching on the fan
occasionally. The act conveys love towards animals.
(c) The dogs will reproduce sexually to give rise to offspring. The offspring will again reproduce to
give rise to new offspring. DNA copying during sexual reproduction will not be perfect and the little
variation will get accumulated over generations.
Accumulated variation may give rise to a species who is cold resistant.
CH: 9: HEREDITY AND EVOLUTION
Ans: (a) A trait in an offspring is due to the combination of an allele each from both the
parent.
3. Humans have two different sex chromosomes, X and Y. Based on the Mendel’s laws, a male
offspring will inherit which combination of chromosomes?
(a) both the X chromosomes from one of its parents
(b) both the Y chromosomes from one of its parents
(c) combination of X chromosomes from either of its parents
(d) combination of X and Y chromosome from either of its parents.
4. An individual is tall with black hair, and free earlobes. The individual learnt to play
football from his father and got a scar on his forearm in a match. Which table shows the
correct classification of his traits into acquired traits and inherited traits?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Ans: C
Based on the image, what can be inferred about the eye color trait?
(a) Acquired trait because both male and females have it.
(b) Acquired trait because it is expressed in all the generations.
(c) Inherited trait because it is expressed in two different colors.
(d) Inherited trait because it depends on the traits of preceding generation.
Ans: (d) Inherited trait because it depends on the traits of preceding generation.
1. Assertion : Dominant allele is an allele whose phenotype expresses even in the presence
of another allele of that gene.
Reason : It is represented by a capital letter, e.g. T.
Ans : (b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of assertion (A).
2. Assertion : The sex of the children will be determined by chromosome received from the
father.
Reason : A human male has one X and one Y-chromosome.
Ans : (a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct
explanation of assertion (A).
3. Assertion : Mendel chose a number of varieties of garden pea as plant material for his
experiments.
Reason : Garden pea has well defined characters and was bisexual.
Ans : (a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct
explanation of assertion (A).
7. Assertion : A geneticist crossed two pea plants and got 50% tall and 50% dwarf in
theprogeny.
Reason : One plant was heterozygous tall and the other was dwarf.
Ans : (a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct
explanation of assertion (A).
8. Assertion : Changes in non-reproductive tissues can be passed on the the DNA of the
germ cells.
Reason : Inherited traits include the traits developed during the lifetime of an individual
that cannot be passed on to its progeny.
Ans : (d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
1. Define variation.
Ans: Variation is defined as the differences in the characters or traits among the individuals of a
species.
2. All the variations in a species do not have equal chances of survival. Why?
Ans: All the variations do not have equal chances of survival as some variations might not be
beneficial and would ultimately be eliminated.
4. What is a gene?
Ans:Gene is the unit of inheritance. It is the part of a chromosome which controls the appearance of
a set of hereditary characters.
5. Why do mice whose tails were surgically removed just after birth for generations,
continue to produce mice with tails?
Ans: The cross between two individuals with one pair of contrasting characters is called
monohybrid cross.
7. Who is the father of Genetics?
8. Why is the progeny always tall when a tall pea plant is crossed with a short pea plant?
Ans: Some genes are dominant and others are recessive. Tallness is a dominant trait and hence the
progeny is always tall when crossed with a short plant.
9. Name the branch of science that deals with heredity and variation.
Ans: Genetics.
2. In a monohybrid cross between tall pea plants (TT) and short pea plants (tt) a scientist
obtained only tall pea plants (Tt) in the F1 generation. However, on selfing the F1 generation
pea plants, he obtained both tall and short plants in F 2 generation. On the basis of above
observations with other angiosperms also, can the scientist arrive at a law? If yes, explain
the law, if not, give justification for your answer.
Ans: On the basis of the experiment, the scientist can arrive at a law as below:
(i) Both the parents must be contributing a copy of the same gene.
(ii) For each trait, a plant carries two copies, one from each parents.
(iii) If the copies of the traits are not same, the dominant trait shall gets expressed.
(iv) When F1 generation are crossed, the recessive trait of F 1 generation shall also get expressed in
the F2 generation at a ratio of 3:1.
3.List two differences in tabular form between dominant trait and recessive traits.
What percentage/proportion of the plants in the F2 generation/progeny were round, in
Mendel’s cross between round and wrinkled pea plants?
Ans:
Dominant Trait Recessive trait
(i) When both dominant and recessive (i) When both dominant and recessive traits
traits are inherited, the dominant trait are inherited, the recessive trait does not get
gets expressed expressed.
(ii) A single copy of dominant trait is (ii) Both the copies of a trait should be
enough to get it expressed. recessive to get it expressed.
75% of the plants in F2 generation were round in Mendel’s cross between round and wrinkled pea
plants.
4. “We cannot pass onto our progeny the experiences and qualifications earned during our
life time”. Justify the statement giving reason and examples.
Ans: Experiences of life and qualifications we earn donot make any change in the genes of the
individual. Changes made in the gene are only passed on from one generation to the next. These
qualities are acquired by an individual in his life, and are called acquired traits which cannot be
passed on to future progeny. For example, if a person reads a book on birds, the knowledge he
earns by reading the book does not make any change in his genes. Hence, this knowledge will not
get automatically transmitted to his next generation.
5. A pea plant with blue colour flower denoted by BB is cross-bred with a pea plant with
white flower denoted by ww.
(a) What is the expected colour of the flowers in their F1 progeny?
(b) What will be the percentage of plants bearing white flower in F 2 generation, when the
flowers of F1 plants were selfed?
(c) State the expected ratio of the genotype BB and Bw in the F 2 progeny.
Ans:
6. “It is a matter of chance whether a couple will have a male or a female child.” Justify this
statement by drawing a flow chart.
Ans:
There are 23 pairs of chromosomes present in human beings. Out of these 23 pairs, one pair is of
sex chromosomes. There are two type of sex chromosomes found in human being, X and Y. A female
has X chromosomes and a male has one X and one Y chromosome.
Ans:
The statement “It is possible that a trait is inherited but may not be expressed” can be explained
with the help of Mendel’s experiment on pea plant with one visible contrasting character.
Mendel took pure breeding pea plant with one visible contrasting character viz. height of the plant
(tall and short plant). The pure breed tall and short plant were crossed and it was found that all the
plants in the F1 progeny were tall. Mendel then allowed the F1 progeny plants for self-pollination. It
was found that all the F2 progeny plants are not tall, some are short. This indicates that both
tallness and shortness traits were inherited separately in the F1 progeny but shortness trait was
not expressed in the F1 progeny.
Ans: Mendel performed an experiment in which he took two different traits like tall and dwarf
plant and round and wrinkled seeds. In second (F 2) generation, some plants were tall with round
seeds and some were dwarf with wrinkled seeds. There would also be dwarf plants having round
seeds. Thus, the tall/short traits and round/wrinkled seed traits are independently inherited.
9. Explain with the help of suitable examples why certain traits cannot be passed on to the
next generation. What are such traits called?
Ans: There are certain traits which are developed during the lifetime of an individual. For example,
many people get their gall bladder removed by surgery due to certain complications. But the
children of these people are born with gall bladder. Thus, this trait is not passed on from one
generation to the next generation. Traits whose characteristics are not genetically controlled and
cannot be passed on from one generation to the next generation are called acquired traits.
10. A blue coloured flower plant denoted by BB is crossbred with that of white coloured
flower plant denoted by bb.
(a) State the colour of flower you would expect in their F1 generation plants.
(b) What must be the percentage of white flower plants in F2 generation if flowers of F1
plants are self-pollinated?
(c) State the expected ratio of the genotypes BB and Bb in the F 2 progeny.
Ans:
(a) The colour of all the flowers in F1 generation will be blue.
(b) Percentage of white flower plants in F2 generation will be 25.
(c) The ratio of genotypes BB and Bb in F 2 progeny will be 1 : 2.
11. If we cross pure-bred tall (dominant) pea plant with pure-bred dwarf (recessive) pea
plant we will get pea plants of F1 generation. If we now self-cross the pea plant of F1
generation, then we obtain pea plants of F2 generation.
(a) What do the plants of F1 generation look like?
(b) State the ratio of tall plants to dwarf plants in F2 generation.
(c) State the type of plants not found in F1 generation but appeared in F 2 generation,
mentioning the reason for the same.
12. Distinguish between acquired and inherited traits by giving one example of each. Why
are traits acquired during the lifetime of an individual not inherited?
Ans:
Acquired trait is a particular characteristic that is developed during the lifetime of an individual.
Such characteristics are not genetically controlled and cannot be passed onto the next generation.
Example: Loss of weight due to starvation.
Inherited trait is the transmission of particular characteristics from parents to their offsprings,
generation to generation. Such traits are genetically determined characteristics that distinguish a
person.
Example: Colour of skin.
The acquired traits cannot change the DNA of the germ cells. Therefore, the acquired traits cannot
be inherited over generations during the lifetime of an individual.
Ans: In sexually reproducing organisms the parents are diploid (2N) as each of them has 2 sets of
chromosomes. They form haploid (1N) male and female gametes through the process of meiosis.
The haploid gamete has one set of chromosomes. Since these gametes fuse during fertilisation the
original number of chromosomes is restored in the offspring.
In asexually reproducing organisms only one parent is involved. The part of the body which
develops into a new organism contain cells having same number of chromosomes as any other cell
in the body of the organism. This separated part only develops into a new organism.
1. Identify male and female in the figures given below. Also fill in the blanks 3 to 8 and then
clarify about the misconception that mother and not father is responsible for bearing
daughters and not sons.
Ans:
A child who inherits ‘X’ chromosome from father will be a girl and the one who inherits ‘Y’
chromosome from father will be a boy. Thus, it is father who is responsible in determining the sex
of a child.
2. Given below is the experiment carried out by Mendel to study the inheritance of two traits
in garden-pea.
(a) Fill in the boxes with appropriate answer.
(b) Why did Mendel carry out an experiment with two traits?
(c) What were his findings with respect to inheritance of triats in F 1 and F2 generations.
Ans:
(b) To study the independent inheritance of two traits in subsequent generations.
(c) F1 progeny exhibited only the dominant traits.
F2 progeny exhibited parental traits along with new mixtures/recombinants. The dominant trail
also gets expressed.
Ans:
Mendel’s Experiments on Inheritance of Traits. Mendel used a number of visible contrasting
characters of garden pea like round/wrinkled seeds, tall/short plants, white/violet flowers, etc.
Ans:
There are 23 pairs of chromosomes present in human beings. Out of these 23 pairs, one pair is of
sex chromosomes. There are two type of sex chromosomes found in human being, X and Y. A female
has 2 X chromosomes and a male has one X and one Y chromosome.
A student wants to classify these into abiotic components from biotic components
separately. Which option correctly shows the classification done by the student?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Ans: (c) .
2. The table shows some organisms including plants, animals and how they get energy.
Which option shows the correct model made based on the table?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Ans: Option a
4. The image shows a food web.
Ans: (d) This will reduce the release of CFCs that reacts with ozone molecules.
6. Ozone forms by combination of free oxygen atoms and oxygen molecules. How do free
oxygen atoms form at higher levels of atmosphere?
(a) by splitting of molecular oxygen into free oxygen atoms in the presence of low energy UV
radiations
(b) by splitting of a molecular oxygen into free oxygen atoms in presence of high energy UV
radiations
(c) by the combination of two molecular oxygen in the presence of high energy UV radiations
(d) by the combination of two free oxygen atoms in the presence of lower energy UV radiations.
Ans: (b) by splitting of a molecular oxygen into free oxygen atoms in presence of high energy
UV radiations.
8. The table shows some waste materials that changed and remain unchanged when buried
in the soil.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Ans: Option b
Ans: (b) materials cycle between the organisms labelled A and the organisms labelled B.
10. First link in any food chain is usually green plants because
(a) they are widely distributed
(b) they are fixed at one place in the soil
(c) they alone have the capacity to synthesise food using sunlight
(d) there are more herbivores than carnivores
Ans: (c) they alone have the capacity to synthesise food using sunlight.
C. COMPREHENSIVE PASSAGE:
Answer the questions on the basis of yourunderstanding of the following paragraph and
the related studied concept:
Every living thing plays a role in the food chainand Earth's ecosystems, and the extinction of
certain species, whether predators or prey, canleave behind significant impacts. Since the origin
of life on Earth, it's fair to say that more specieshave gone extinct than are currently alive now.
Extinction itself is part of the normal course orevolution. The effect of a species would have if
itwere to fade from existence depends largely on its role in the ecosystem. Predators, for example
are often the first to be threatened by hunting or Competition with people and resources. When
predator goes extinct, all of its prey are releasedfrom that predation pressure, and they may have
big impacts on ecosystems. The loss of a predatorcan result in what is called a trophic
cascade,which is an ecological phenomenon triggeredby a predator's extinction that can also
impactpopulations of prey, which can cause dramaticecosystem and food web changes. If there are
too many deer, for example, they can really change the ecosystem because they can destroy
forests,and they also carry disease.
Ans: Biodegradable materials are broken down by microorganisms in nature into simple harmless
substances. Non-biodegradable materials need a different treatment like heat and temperature and
hence these should be discarded in separate bins.
3. How is the increase in demand for energy affecting our environment adversely?
Ans: The increase in demand for energy affects our environment adversely by releasing pollutants
like CO, CO2, SO2, etc. which leads to greenhouse effect.
Ans: Green plants can produce their own food by photosynthesis from inorganic compounds and
hence are called producers.
Ans: If ozone layer is depleted harmful UV rays from sun will reach the earth. This radiation is
highly damaging to organisms which also cause skin cancer in human beings.
8. What will be the amount of energy available to the organism of the 2nd trophic level of a
food chain, if the energy available at the first trophic level is 10,000 joules?
Ans: 100 Joules of energy will be available to the organism of the 2 nd trophic level.
9. The first trophic level in a food chain is always a green plant. Why?
Ans: Only green plants can make their own food from sunlight. Green plants therefore, always
occupy the 1st trophic level in a food chain.
10. The following organisms form a food chain. Which of these will have the highest
concentration of non-biodegradable chemicals? Name the phenomenon associated with it.
Insects, Hawk, Grass, Snake, Frog.
Ans: Hawk will have highest concentration of non-biodegradable chemicals. The phenomenon is
called biomagnification.
Ans: One measure of the biodiversity of an area is the number of species found there. Secondly, the
range of different life forms is also important.
Ans: Bacteria and fungi are called decomposers as they breakdown the complex organic substances
into simple inorganic substances that enter into the soil and are again used up by the plants.
14. What will happen if we kill all the organisms in one trophic level?
Ans: If we kill all the organisms in one trophic level, the following effects will take place:
(i) The population of the organisms in previous trophic level will increase.
(ii) The organisms in next trophic level will not be able to get the food, so they will migrate to some
other ecosystem or die.
(iii) It will cause an ecological imbalance in the food chain.
Ans: Trophic level is the position that an organism occupies in a food chain, where transfer of food
or energy takes place.
16. Give an example to illustrate that indiscriminate use of pesticides may result in the
degradation of the environment.
Ans: The pesticides used in crop field are washed down into the water bodies. From water bodies,
these are absorbed by the aquatic plants and animals of a food chain and thereby degrades the
environment.
17. When plants are eaten by primary consumers, a great deal of energy is lost as heat to the
environment and some amount goes in carrying out various life processes. State the average
percentage of energy lost in this manner.
Ans: The average percentage of energy lost when plants are eaten by primary consumers is 90 %.
Ans: Ozone protects the earth from harmful radiations like high energy UV rays.
19. Depletion of ozone in the ozone layer is a cause for our worry. Why?
Ans: If ozone layer is depleted, harmful UV rays from the sun will reach the earth. These radiations
are highly damaging to the organisms which also causes skin cancer in human being.
20. What happens when high energy ultraviolet radiations act on the oxygen at the higher
level of the atmosphere?
(or)
How is ozone formed in the upper part of the atmosphere of the Earth?
Ans:
21. Why did United Nations act to control the production of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) used
in refrigerators?
Ans: CFCs depletes the ozone layer around the earth, hence its production is controlled by United
Nations.
22. Which disease is caused in human beings due to depletion of ozone layer in the
atmosphere?
Ans: Skin cancer is caused in human beings due to a depletion of ozone layer in the atmosphere.
Ans:
These substances can be broken-down into non- These substances cannot be broken down into
poisonous substances in nature by the action of non-poisonous substances by the action of
microorganisms. microorganisms.
Example: Vegetable peels. Example: Polythene bags.
2. State in brief two ways in which non-biodegradable substances would affect the
environment. List two methods of safe disposal of the non-biodegradable waste.
Ans: (i) Non-biodegradable waste may accumulate in the environment and concentrate in the food
chain, thereby can harm organisms.
(ii) Non-biodegradable substances may pollute the soil and increase soil temperature.
Two methods of safe disposal of non-biodegradable waste are:
(i) Recycling: The wastes are treated and some value materials are extracted for reuse.
(ii) Incineration: Medical and toxic wastes are burnt at high temperature in incinerators.
Incinerators transform the waste into ashes.
4. What is an ecosystem? List its two main components. We do not clean natural ponds or
lakes but an aquarium needs to be cleaned regularly. Why is it so? Explain.
Ans: Ecosystem: It is the structural and functional unit of biosphere, comprising of all the
interacting organisms in an area together with the non-living constituents of the environment.
Thus, an ecosystem is a self-sustaining system where energy and matter are exchanged between
living and non-living components.
Main components of ecosystem:
Biotic Component: It means the living organisms of the environment–plants, animals, human
beings and microorganisms like bacteria and fungi, which are distinguished on the basis of their
nutritional relationship.
Abiotic Component: It means the non-living part of the environment–air, water, soil and minerals.
The climatic or physical factors such as sunlight, temperature, rainfall, humidity, pressure and wind
are a part of the abiotic environment.
An aquarium is an artificial and incomplete ecosystem compared to ponds or lakes which are
natural, self-sustaining and complete ecosystems where there is a perfect recycling of materials. An
aquarium therefore needs regular cleaning.
5. “Energy flow in food chains is always unidirectional.” Justify this statement. Explain how
the pesticides enter a food chain and subsequently get into our body.
Ans:
The energy flow through different steps in the food chain is unidirectional. The energy captured by
autotrophs does not revert back to the solar input and it passes to the herbivores, i.e. it moves
progressively through various trophic levels.
Thus energy flow from sun through producers to omnivores is in single direction only.
Pesticides are sprayed to kill pests on food plants. The food plants are eaten by herbivores and
alongwith the food, pesticides are also eaten by the herbivores.
Herbivores are eaten by carnivores and alongwith the herbivore animal, pesticide also enters the
body of the carnivore. Man eat both plants and animals and pesticide alongwith food enters the
body of human.
Concentration of pesticides increases as we move upward in the food chain and the process is
called bio-magnification.
6. What is meant by food chain? “The number of trophic levels in a food chain is limited.”
Give reason to justify this statement.
Ans: The series of organisms that take part at various biotic levels form a food chain.
At each trophic level in a food chain, a large portion of the energy is utilised for the maintenance of
organisms which occur at that trophic level and energy is lost as heat. As a result of this, organisms
in each trophic level pass on less energy to the next trophic levels, than they receive. The longer the
food chain, the less is the energy available to the final member of the food chain, which will be
insufficient for their survival.
Ans:
• The process in which harmful chemicals enter a food chain and get accumulated
progressively at each trophic level is called biological magnification.
• Harmful and toxic chemicals enter our bodies when they are added to the soil and water.
Pesticides are used to protect the food crops from diseases, and pests and chemical wastes
of factories are dumped in open or disposed off into rivers.
• These chemicals are washed down into the soil and ultimately to the water table or get
absorbed or taken up from the soil by the plants along with water and minerals and in this
way harmful chemicals enter the food chain.
• The quantity of these chemicals increase with increase in trophic levels of the food chain
because these substances are not degradable and man is at the top of the food chain, so
concentration is maximum in human beings.
•
Thus, accumulation of DDT has been maximum in man as DDT is used to destroy pests. DDT
is accumulated in the following way in the given food chain –
•
•
This is the reason why our food grains such as wheat and rice, vegetable and fruits and even meat
contain varying amounts of pesticides residues. So, the highest trophic level at the extreme right of
food chain has the maximum concentration of harmful chemicals in a food chain.
2. “Damage to the ozone layer is a cause for concern.” Justify this statement. Suggest any two
steps to limit this damage.
Ans: Ozone layer prevents the harmful ultraviolet radiations, to enter the atmosphere and reach the
earth’s surface. Depletion of the ozone layer has become a cause of concern because it can cause
serious affects on human body and other organisms of the environment like fatal diseases (e.g. skin
cancer), changes in genetic material (DNA), eye damage, etc.
Two steps to limit this damage are as follows:
(i) Judicious use of aerosol spray propellants such as fluorocarbon and chlorofluorocarbons which
cause depletion or hole in ozone layer.
(ii) Control over large scale nuclear explosions and limited use of supersonic planes.
3. A non-biodegradable toxic chemical has entered into the food chain. Which type of food
habit will you suggest to a man, vegetarian or non-vegetarian? Explain with the help of a food
chain. The food chain which you would suggest, is advantageous in an another aspect. How?
Ans: Vegetarian food chain will be suggested in case of entry of non-biodegradable toxic chemical
into the food chain.
Non-biodegradable chemical gets concentrated at every trophic level by the process of biological
magnification. As the concentration increases with the number of trophic level in a food chain, man
will get high concentration of the chemical in a non-vegetarian food chain than in a vegetarian food
chain, e.g. Vegetarian food chain:
4. Write a note on the producers, consumers and decomposers of the biotic environment
with examples of each.
Ans:
Producers: Those organisms which produce food by photosynthesis, i.e. organisms which can
make organic compounds like sugar and starch from inorganic substances using the radiant energy
of the sun in the presence of chlorophyll.
Producers, therefore are considered as a source of energy for those above it in a food chain.
Examples: All green plants also called autotrophs and certain blue-green algae.
Consumers: Those organisms which depend upon the producers for food, either directly or
indirectly by feeding on other consumers for their sustenance. Consumers, therefore, feed upon
those below it in a food chain and are called heterotrophs. These can be classified into primary
consumers or herbivores, secondary consumers or small carnivores, omnivores and parasites, e.g.
cows, humans.
Examples of consumers:
Herbivores are the animals that consume or eat vegetation or plants, e.g. cows, horses. Carnivores
are the animals that eat flesh of other animals, e.g. tigers, wolves. Omnivores are the animals that
eat both plants and animals, e.g. humans, cockroaches.
Parasites are those organisms that live on (ectoparasites) or in (endoparasites), the body of
another organism, i.e. host from which it obtains its nutrients, e.g. parasites of man includes fleas
and lice (ectoparasites), various protozoans and tapeworms. (endoparasites)
Decomposers: They are those microorganisms that obtain energy from the chemical breakdown of
dead organisms or animal or plant wastes. These microorganisms are the decomposers as they
breakdown the complex organic substances into simple inorganic substances that enter into the soil
and are again used up by the plants.