SAMPLE QUESTIONS FOR CHEMICAL ENGINEERING

BASED ON TABLE OF SPECIFICATION

A. CHEMICAL ENGINEERING CALCULATION

Knowledge

1. For the case of a fuel gas undergoing combustion with air, if the air/fuel ratio is increased,
the adiabatic flame temperature will:
A. increase
B. decrease
C. increase or decrease depending on the fuel type
D. not change

2. Methane is mixed with stoichiometric proportion of oxygen and completely combusted. The
number of additional specifications required to determine the product flow rate and the
composition is
A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3

3. In an Orsat apparatus, cuprous chloride (CuCl) is used to absorb what gas component from a
flue gas sample?
A. Carbon monoxide C. Oxygen
B. Carbon dioxide D. Nitrogen

4. A process flow sheet analysis results in the degrees of freedom having a value of – 2, which
one of the following steps must be next carried out?
A. Identify and add two new independent equations from process model
B. Remove two equations that have been wrongly assumed to be independent
C. Assign values of two variables in the process.
D. Assign value to one variable and remove one equation that was wrongly assumed to be
independent

5. Dehydrogenation of ethane, C2H6 (g)  C2H4 (g) + H2 (g), is carried out in a continuous
stirred tank reactor (CSTR). The feed is pure ethane. If the reactor exit stream contains
unconverted ethane along with the products, then the number of degrees of freedom for the
CSTR is
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

6. In an Orsat apparatus, cuprous chloride (CuCl) is used to absorb what gas component from a
flue gas sample?
A. Carbon monoxide C. Oxygen
B. Carbon dioxide D. Nitrogen

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Comprehension

7. How many kilograms of silver will be produced from the reaction of 10 kg of zinc with
excess silver chloride? (atomic wt.: Zn = 65.37; Ag = 107.87; Cl = 35.45)
Zn + 2AgCl  2Ag + ZnCl2
A. 40 kg B. 33 kg C. 0.31 kg D. 0.15 kg

8. A mixture of ethyl acetate vapor and air has a relative saturation of 50% at 30oC and a total
pressure of 100 kN/m2. If the vapor pressure of ethyl acetate at 30oC is 16 kN/m2, what is the
percentage saturation?
A. B. C. 45.65 % D.

9. Pure propane (C5H8) is burnt in an excess of air to give following analysis of combustion
products in volume percent: CO2 = 5; CO = 3.5; H 2O = 11.4; O2 = 7; N2 = 73.1. Calculate the
percentage of excess air used.
A. 37.02 % B. C. D.

10. H2S is produced from the reaction: FeS + 2HCl  FeCl2 + H2S. If 120 kg of FeS react with
150 kg of HCl and 0.5 kmol of H 2S has been reduced What is the degree of completion of
the reaction?
A. B. C. D. 36.63%

11. 1000 kg of a solution containing 50% by weight of a salt dissolved in it is cooled. 400 kg of
anhydrous salt is separated out. The solubility of the salt at the lower temperature in kg/100
kg of water is ____.
A. B. 20 kg/kg H2O C. D.

12. A solution of specific gravity of 1.0 consists of 35% A by weight and the remaining B. If the
specific gravity of A is 0.7, what is the specific gravity of B?
A. B. C. D. 1.2

13. A butane isomerization process produces 70 kmol/h of pure butane. A purge stream removed
continuously contains 85% n-butane and 15% impurity (% mole). The feed stream in n-
butane containing 1% impurity (% mole). What is the flow rate of the purge stream?
A. B. 5 kmol/h C. D.

14. Fresh orange juice contains 12% (by weight) solids and the rest water. 90% of the fresh juice
is sent to an evaporator to remove water and subsequently mixed with the remaining 10% of
fresh juice. The resultant product contains 40% solids. The kg of water removed from 1 kg
fresh juice is:
A. 0.4 B. 0.5 C. 0.6 D. 0.7

15. Na2SO410 H2O crystals are formed by cooling 100 kg of 30% by weight aqueous solution of
Na2SO4. The final concentration of the solute in the solution is 10%. The weight of crystals
is:
A. 20 B. 32.2 C. 45.35 D. 58.65

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 (16-17): 44 kg of C3H8 is burnt with 1160 kg of air (Mol. Wt. = 29) to produce 88 kg of CO 2
and 14 kg of CO through the reaction:
C3H8 + 5O2 = 3CO2 + 4H2O

16. What is the percent excess air used?

A. 55 B. 60 C. 65 D. 68

17. What is the % carbon burnt?

A. 63.3 B. 73.3 C. 83.3 D. 93.3

Application

18. From a boiler efficiency test date, the flue gas analysis on a dry basis obtained was: 11.8%
CO2, 0.1% CO, 5.2% O2, and 82.9% N2.What is the atomic ratio of carbon to hydrogen in the
fuel?
A. 0.6 B. 0.7 C. 0.4 D. 0.3

19. 4000 kg/hr of fertilizer granules are to be dried from 15% (wet basis) to 2% (dry basis). How
much water (in kg) is evaporated per hour?
A. 922.80 B. 984.35 C. 379.77 D. 452.17

20. 1 kg of saturated aqueous solution of a highly soluble component A at 60 0C is cooled to

250C. The solubility limits of A are (0.6 kg A)/(kg water) at 600C and (0.2 kg A)/(kg water)
at 250C. The amount, in kg, of the crystals formed is:
A. 0.4 B. 0.25 C. 0.2 D. 0.175

21. A sample of natural gas containing 80% Methane (CH4 ) and the rest Nitrogen (N2) is burnt
with 20% excess air. With 80% of the combustibles producing CO 2 and the remainder going
to CO the Orsat analysis in volume percent is:
A. 6.26% CO2, 1.56% CO, 3.91% O2, 15.66% H20, 72.60% N2
B. 7.42% CO2, 1.86% CO, 4.64% O2, 86.02% N2
C. 6.39% CO2, 1.60% CO, 3.99% O2, 15.96% H20, 72.06% N2
D. 7.60% CO2, 1.90% CO, 4.75% O2, 85.74% N2

22. 80 kg of Na2SO4 (molecular weight = 142) is present in 330 kg of an aqueous solution. The
solution is cooled such that 80 kg of Na2SO410 H2O crystals separate out. The weight
fraction of Na2SO4 in the remaining solution is:
A. 0.09 B. 0.18 C. 0.24 D. 1.00

23. A vessel of volume 1000 m3 contains air which is saturated with water vapor. The total
pressure and temperature are 100 kPa and 20 0C, respectively. Assuming that the vapor
pressure of water at 200C is 2.34 kPa, the amount of water vapor (in kg) in the vessel is
approximately:
A. 17 B. 20 C. 25 D. 34

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24. Air (79 mole % nitrogen and 21 mole % oxygen) is passed over a catalyst at high
temperature. Oxygen completely reacts with nitrogen as shown below:
0.5 N2(g) + 0.5 O2(g) → NO (g)
0.5 N2(g) + O2(g) → NO2(g)
The molar ratio of NO to NO2 in the product stream is 2:1. The fractional conversion of
nitrogen is:
A. 0.13 B. 0.20 C. 0.27 D. 0.40

25. A 35 wt% Na2SO4 solution in water, initially at 50°C, is fed to a crystallizer at 20°C. The
product stream contains hydrated crystals Na2SO410H2O in equilibrium with a 20 wt%
Na2SO4 solution. The molecular weights of Na2SO4 and Na2SO410H2O are 142 and 322,
respectively. The feed rate of the 35% solution required to produce 500 kg/hr of hydrated
crystals is:
A. 403 kg/hr B. 603 kg/hr C. 803 kg/hr D. 1103 kg/hr

26. A saturated solution at 30°C contains 5 moles of solute (M.W.=50 kg/kmol) per kg of solvent
(M.W.=20 kg/kmol). The solubility at 100°C is 10 moles of the solute per kg of the solvent.
If 10 kg of the original solution is heated to 100°C, then the weight of the additional solute
that can be dissolved in it, is:
A. 0.25 kg B. 1 kg C. 2 kg D. 3.34 kg

27. Consider the burning of pure CaCO 3 with hydrogen free coke containing 83% carbon
producing a gas with the following composition: 26.5%CO2, 5.0% O 2 and 68.5% N2. It is
required to compute the ratio of lime produced to coke burnt per ton of lime.
A. 3.9 B. C. D.

28. The analysis of a flue gas from a fuel gas containing no nitrogen is 4.62% CO 2, 3.08% CO,
8.91% O2, and 83.9% N2. Calculate the pounds of fuel burned per mole of dry flue gas.
A. B. C. D. 1.206

29. A pyrites burner produces gas whose analysis indicates 9.32% SO 2, 6.93% O2 and 83.75%
N2. What percentage of the sulphur burned is converted to SO3?
A. B. 84.4% FeS C. D.

30. A furnace is fired with coal containing 6% moisture, 18% VCM, 67% FC and 9% ash. The
refuse analysis shows 5% VCM, 23% FC and 62% ash. The higher heating value of the coal
“as fired” is 14300 BTU/lb. Calculate the percentage of the heating value of the coal that is
lost in the refuse. The moisture in the refuse is due to “wetting down” to prevent dusting. It is
not moisture from the original coal.
A. 4.68% B. C. D.

31. Air enters a compressor at 1 atm pressure containing 0.01 mole H 2O/mole dry air. The air
leaving the compressor is at 100 atm and the initial temperature. At the initial temperature
and 1 atm pressure, air can contain a maximum of 0.02 mole H 2O/ mole dry air. How many
pounds of water are condensed in the compressor per mole of dry air passing through?
A. B. C. D. 0.175

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 (32-33): A mixture of 80% CH4 and 20% C2H6 is burned in dry excess air. The molal ratio of
CO2 to CO in the SG is 10:2 and CO:H2 is 1:1. [Hc: CH4=-890.95, C2H6=-1560.92 MJ/kg-
mol]

32. The Net Calorific Value of the fuel in MJ/kg-mol fuel is:
A. 1024.944 MJ/kg-mol C. 928.056 MJ/kg-mol
B. 831.168 MJ/kg-mol D. 936.864 MJ/kg-mol.

33. The total moles of water from combustion per kg-mol fuel is:
A. 2 kg-mol B. 2.2 kg-mol C. 4.4 kg-mol D. 8.8 kg-mol

34. Butane gas at 25oC, 740 mmHg and saturated with water vapor is used as a fuel in a furnace.
Air at same conditions as butane is supplied at a rate of 1.329 m 3/m3 fuel.What is the AFR by
weight?
A. 0.664 B. 0.671 C. 0.682 D. 0.693

35. A saturated hydrocarbon is burned in excess dry air. The combustion of the gas produces an
orsat analysis of 9.0% CO2, 1.59% CO, 1.41% H2, 5.73% O2 and the rest N2. The % H2O in
the stack gas is:
A. 8% B. 11% C. 14% D. 15%

(36-37): Coal fired in a furnace analyzes 36.3% VCM, 10.7% A, 3.4% M, 1.2% N and 5.1%
S with a calorific value of 29.5 MJ/kg.

36. The % volatile carbon of the fuel is:

A. 20.4 B. 49.6 C. 56.2 D. 70.0

37. The calorific value of VCM is:

A. 29.5 MJ/kg B. 33.8 MJ/kg C. 35.08 MJ/kg D. 37.8 MJ/kg

Analysis

38. Two engineers are calculating the average molecular weight of a gas mixture containing
oxygen and other gases. One of them, using the correct molecular weight of 32 for oxygen,
determines the average molecular weight correctly as 39.2. The other, using an incorrect
value of 16, determines the average molecular weight as 32.8. This is the only error in the
second engineer’s calculations. What is the percentage of oxygen in the mixture expressed as
mol%?
A. 15.0 B. 21.3 C. 40.0 D. 47.5

39. A hot solution containing 1000 kg of MgSO4 and water having a concentration of 30% wt
MgSO4 is cooled to 289 K, where the crystals of MgSO 4∙7H2O are precipitated. The
solubility of MgSO4 at 289 K is 24.5 kg per 100 kg solution. What is the mass of
MgSO4∙7H2O formed?
A. 150.0 kg B. 226.5 kg C. 295.6 kg D. 304.5 kg

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40. The following combustion reactions occur when methane is burnt.
CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O
2CH4 + 3O2 → 2CO + 4H2O
20 % excess air is supplied to the combustor. The conversion of methane is 80 % molar ratio
of CO to CO2 in the flue gas is 1:3. Assume air to have 80 mol % N2 and rest O2. The O2
consumed as a PERCENTAGE of O2 entering the combustor is:
A. 20 B. 62.5 C. 80 D. 83.3

41. Carbon black is produced by decomposition of methane: CH4(g) → C (s) + 2H2 (g)
The single pass conversion of methane is 60%. If fresh feed is pure methane and 25% of the
methane exiting the reactor is recycled, then the molar ratio of fresh feed stream to recycle
stream is:
A. 0.9 B. 9 C. 10 D. 90

(42-44): Methane and steam are fed to a reactor in molar ratio 1:2. The following reactions
take place:
CH4(g) + 2H2O(g) →CO2(g) + 4H2(g)
CH4(g) + H2O(g)→CO (g) + 3H2(g)
where CO2 is the desired product, CO is the undesired product and H2 is a byproduct. The
exit stream has the following composition:
Species CH4 H2O CO2 H2 CO
Mole % 4.35 10.88 15.21 67.39 2.17

42. The selectivity for desired product relative to undesired product is

A. 2.3 B. 3.5 C. 7 D. 8

43. The fractional yield of CO2 is:

A. 0.7 B. 0.88 C. 0.90 D. 0.95

44. The fractional conversion of methane is:

A. 0.4 B. 0.5 C. 0.7 D. 0.8

45. The products of combustion of methane in atmospheric air (21% O 2 and 79% N2) have the
following composition on a dry basis:
Products Mole %
CO2 10.00
O2 2.37
CO 0.53
N2 87.10
The ratio of the moles of CH4 to the moles of O2 in the feed stream is:
A. 1.05 B. 0.60 C. 0.51 D. 0.45

(46-48): A saturated hydrocarbon with N2 is burned in 30% excess air. The combustion of
the gas produces an orsat analysis of 8.51% CO2, 0.53% CO, 0.52% H2, 5.27% O2 and
85.17% N2.

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46. The formula of the hydrocarbon is:
A. CH4 B. C2H6 C. C3H8 D. C4H10

47. The fuel analysis is:

A. 27.72% HC and 72.28% N2 C. 63.34% HC and 36.66% N2
B. 43.84% HC and 56.16% N2 D. 36.66% HC and 63.34% N2

48. The % H2O in the stack gas is

A. 13.56% B. 11.94% C. 11.54% D. 9.26%

(49-50): A diesel oil having a cetane number of 42.35 is burned in excess air supplied at
25oC, 750 mmHg and saturated with water vapor. A partial orsat analysis of the stack gas
shows 10.34% CO2, 2.07% CO and 1.034% H2. The density of cetane is 0.7751 and methyl
naphthalene is 1.025 g/mL.

49. The % by weight of cetane is:

A. 25.88% B. 35.72 C. 32.83% D. 42.35%

50. The total moles of dry stack gas per 100 mL of diesel oil is:
A. 100 g-mol B. 91.92 g-mol C. 66.69 g-mol D. 55.57 g-mol

(51-54): furnace is fired with fuel oil with an analysis of 76% C, 11.4% H, 2.5% O, 2.5% N
and 7.6% S. After combustion in 30% excess air, a stack gas containing a molar ratio of
CO2:CO of 9:1 and 0.418% SO2 on a dry basis is obtained. All N in the fuel oil is gasified to
NO.

51. The theoretical O2 from air per 100 kg of fuel oil is:
A. 9.34 kg mol B. 9.39 kg mol C. 9.43 kg mol D. 9.52 kg mol

52. The % of C converted to CO2 is:

A. 10.02% B. 81.8% C. 88.8% D. 90%

53. The % NO in the dry stack gas is:

A. 0.16 B. 0.31 C. 0.62 D. 4.4

54. The water formed from combustion in kg mol per 100 kg of oil is:
A. 5.2 B. 0.63 C. 5.7 D. 11.4

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B. CHEMICAL ENGINEERING THERMODYNAMICS

Knowledge

1. An ideal gas is a throttled through a valve. At this condition, which of the following
statement is always true?
A. the temperature of the gas will remain constant
B. the temperature of the gas decreases
C. the internal energy of the gas increases
D. the pressure of the gas decreases

2. (Second Law of Thermodynamics) For any process at all, the second law requires that the
entropy change of the system be:
A. positive or zero
B. zero
C. negative or zero
D. positive,zero, or negative, but does not say which

3. (Second Law of Thermodynamics) For an isolated system, maximum entropy occurs:

A. at equilibrium C. at the start of the process
B. at half-life of the process D. will not occur

4. In the Rankine cycle, heat addition and rejection is:

A. isothermal B. isochoric C. isobaric D. isentropic

5. For the same temperature limits and heat input, the most efficient cycle is:
A. Carnot cycle B. Otto cycle C. Diesel cycle D. Brayton cycle

6. In an azeotropic mixture, the equilibrium vapor composition of the more volatile component
is always:
A. Greater than the liquid composition of the less volatile component.
B. Less than the liquid composition of the more volatile component.
C. equal to the liquid composition of the less volatile component
D. equal to the liquid composition of the more volatile component

Comprehension

7. (Volumetric Properties of Fluids) On the PV diagram, the slope of an isotherm is

A. (P/T)V B. (V/P)T C. (P/V)T D. (T/P)V

8. (Volumetric Properties of Fluids)The partial derivative of V with respect to P at constant T of an

ideal gas is:
A. RT/P B. –RT/P2 C. RT lnP D. RT

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9. (Volumetric Properties of Fluids)The specific volume [cm3/g] of steam with 90% quality at 3,400
kPa is:
A. 54.0862 B. 1.231 C. 27.9783 D. 52.9783

(10-11): (First Law of Thermodynamics) An ideal gas undergoes an adiabatic throttling process
from 200 kPa to 100 kPa. Assume that the heat capacity of the gas, Cp, is constant at 3.5R.

10. The entropy change for the process [kJ/kgmole-K] is:

A. 5.763 B. -5.763 C. 20.17 D. -20.17

11. The shaft work produced by the process [kJ/kgmole] is:

A. -831.4 C. -291
B. 0 D. cannot be determined

(Nos. 12-13): A methanol-water vapor liquid system is at equilibrium at 60°C and 60 kPa.
The mole fraction of methanol in the liquid is 0.5 and in the vapor is 0.8. Vapor pressure of
methanol and water at 60°C are 85 kPa and 20 kPa respectively.

12. Assuming the vapor phase to be an ideal gas mixture, what is the activity coefficient of water
in the liquid phase?
A. 0.3 B. 1.2 C. 1.6 D. 7.5

13. What is the excess Gibbs free energy (GE, in J/mol) of the liquid mixture?
A. 9.7 B. 388 C. 422 D. 3277

14. (Second Law of Thermodynamics) For the isentropic flow of an ideal gas in a converging
subsonic nozzle, which of the following characteristics are true?
A. M < 1; pressure increases; the cross-sectional area decrease
B. M < 1;pressure decreases; the cross-sectional area decreases
C. M < 1; pressure increases; the cross-sectional area increases
D. M < 1; pressure decreases; the cross-sectional area increases

(Power Cycles) The pressure vs volume diagram for a process is given below:

15. The overall process

A. requires work C. is compressive
B. generates work D. is reversible

16. │W│ is:

A. 1 B. 0.5 C. 3 D. 1.5

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17. In the direction of flow, the enthalpy of the fluid in an adiabatic turbine operating at steady
state condition:
A. increases C. may increase or decrease
B. decreases D. remains constant

Application

18. A tank contains 0.02 m3 of liquid and 1.98 m3 of vapor. If the density of the liquid is 960
kg/m3 and that of the vapor is 0.5kg/m3, what is the quality of the mixture?
A. 5.2% B. 4.9% C. 2.04% D. 1.01%

19. Tests on an adiabatic gas compressor yield values for inlet conditions (T 1 = 295 K, P1 =1.2
bar) and outlet conditions (T2 = 455 K, P2 = 6 bar). Assuming ideal gas with Cp/R = 9/2,
what is the compressor efficiency?
A. 0.82 B. 0.84 C. 0.79 D. 0.75

20. Steam undergoes isentropic expansion in a turbine from 5000 kPa and 400 0C (entropy = 6.65
kJ/kg K) to 150 kPa (entropy of saturated liquid = 1.4336 kJ/kg K, entropy of saturated vapor
= 7.2234 kJ/kg K). The exit condition of steam is:
A. superheated vapor C. saturated mixture with quality = 0.9
B. saturated vapor D. saturated mixture with quality = 0.1

21. A Carnot refrigerator absorbing heat at -10oC requires 1 kW of work for each 6 kW of heat
absorbed. What is the temperature of heat rejection [oC]?
A. 33.83 oC B. –11.7 oC C. 306.83 oC D. 320 K

22. A cold storage plant of 20 tons of refrigeration capacity operates between 250 K and 300K.
Determine the power required to run the plant if plant has half COP of a Carnot cycle. 1 ton
refrigeration = 12660 kJ/hr
A. 14 kW B. 352 kW C. 28 kW D. 176 kW

Analysis

23. An ideal gas initially at 30oC and 100kPa undergoes the following cyclic process in a closed
system: it is first compressed adiabatically to 500kPa, then cooled at constant pressure of
500kPa, and finally expanded isothermally to its original state. How much heat is
transferred?
A. 4056 J/mol B. -1133 J/mol C. 5150 J/mol D. 3678 J/mol

24. A container is divided into two compartments. One contains 3 mole of H 2 at 1 bar and 25oC,
while the other contains 1 mole N2 at 3 bar and 25oC. The partition is removed and the gases
mix. What is the change in Gibbs Free energy for this process?
A. -21.772 J B. 21.772 J C. 6488J D. -6488 J

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25. A particular substance undergoes a mechanically reversible process, expanding from an
initial state of 20 bar to a final state of 8 bar. The path of the process is described by:
P = (0.036/V) – 4
where P is in bar and V in m3. If the change in internal energy for the change of state is
-1,400 J, What is W?
A. 1895 J B. 495 J C. -495 J D. -2000 J

26. A central power plant is a heat engine operating between the temperatures of the furnace and
surroundings, usually represented by a river or other body of water. Consider a power plant
generating 750,000 kJ/s for which the furnace temperature is 586 K, and a low temperature
heat sink (a river) at 293 K. If the thermal efficiency is 60% of the maximum, how much heat
is discarded to the river and what will be its temperature rise if its flow rate is 1.65 x 105 kg/s.
A. Q = - 2.5 x 106 kJ/s, T = 2.45oC C. Q = - 1.75 x 106 kJ/s, T = 2.45oC
B. Q = - 2.5 x 10 kJ/s, T = 5.2 C
6 o
D. Q = - 1.75 x 106 kJ/s, T = 5.2oC

C. REACTION KINETICS

Knowledge

1. The number of atoms, ions or molecules involved in a reaction step is called the ___ of the
reaction.
A. Order C. Molecularity
B. Stoichiometric coefficient D. degrees of freedom

2. It refers to the powers to which the concentrations are raised in the kinetic rate law.
A. Order C. Molecularity
B. Stoichiometric coefficient D. degrees of freedom

3. The sum of the powers of the concentration terms in the rate equation is called the:
A. Order of the reaction C. Molecularity of the reaction
B. Overall order of the reaction D. None of these

4. The reaction in which the rate of reaction corresponds to a stoichiometric equation is called:
A. Elementary reaction C. parallel reaction
B. Non-elementary reaction D. Autokinetic reaction

5. Reactions with high activation energy are

A. Very temperature sensitive C. Always irreversible
B. Temperature sensitive D. Always reversible

6. As a rule of thumb, the rate of reaction will increase by a factor of __ when the temperature
is increased by 10oC?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

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7. The equilibrium constant of a chemical reaction:
A. Increases in the presence of a catalyst
B. Decreases in the presence of a catalyst
C. Remains unaffected in the presence of a catalyst
D. Can either increase or decrease, depending on the type of catalyst

8. With an increase in temperature, the rate constant obeying Arrhenius equation:

A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Decreases exponentially with temperature
D. Can either increase or decrease, depending on the frequency factor

9. It states that the rate of chemical reaction is proportional to the activity of the reactants.
A. Law of Mass Action C. Le Chatelier’s Principle
B. Hess’ Law D. Second Law of Thermodynamics

10. Which of the following ideal reactors can be generally described as being operated in a
steady-state process?
A. Batch Reactor B. CSTR C. PFR D. CSTR and PFR

11. Which of the following ideal reactors is operating continuously and there is no spatial
variation of fluid properties inside the reactor?
A. Batch Reactor B. CSTR C. PFR D. CSTR and PFR

12. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an ideal plug flow reactor?
A. The velocity profile of the fluid is flat.
B. It observes an unsteady-state process
C. There is perfect radial mixing.
D. The fluid inside the reactor is unmixed.

Comprehension

13. The reaction A + B → C can be represented by the rate equation −r A =kC A C B CC . The
reaction is
A. elementary B. non-elementary C. autocatalyzed D. homogeneous

14. In a certain reaction, the half-life is 10 minutes for an initial concentration of 0.1 M and 5
minutes when the initial concentration is 0.15M. The order of reaction is:
A. first order B. greater than 1 C. less than 1 D. zero

15. A certain reaction has a specific rate constant of 1.2 li/mole-min. The order of reaction is:
A. zero B. one C. two D. one-half

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16. For the same reaction using identical feed in a backmix and plugflow reactors, the ratio of the
space time B/P is:
A. VB / VP B. VP / VB C. VBVP D. 1

17. A comparison between a mixed flow and pluglow reactors for any particular duty:
A. the mixed reactor is always larger than the pluglow reactor
B. the mixed reactor is always smaller than the pluglow reactor
C. the reactors have the same capacity
D. the size of the reactors depends on the order of reaction

18. For a first order reaction taking place in a series of backmix reactors:
A. equal sized reactors are best C. bigger reactor should come first
B. smaller reactor should come first D. no definite pattern

Application

19. A second order reaction involving reactants present at 0.1 mol/li is found to be 20% complete
in 40 minutes when the reaction temperature is 25oC, and 40% complete in 35 minutes when
the reaction temperature is 50oC. Calculate the activation energy and frequency factor for this
reaction.
A. 37.3 kJ B. 35.6 kJ C. 45 kJ D. 42.5 kJ

20. A first order reaction takes place in a backmix reactor giving a conversion of 0.67. If the
reactor is replaced by one having a volume three times as large as the first, what is the
conversion in the second reactor?
A. 0.95 B. 0.90 C. 0.86 D. 0.75

Analysis

21. For the series reaction A  B  C, k1 = 0.25/h and k2 = 0.13/h. Initial concentrations are
CAo = 40 mol/L, CBo=CCo= 0. What are the concentrations of B when one-half of A has
reacted?
A. 0.35 mol/L B. 0.41mol/L C. 0.45 mol/L D. 0.55 mol/L

22. Enzyme E catalyzes the fermentation of substrate A to product R with rate

0 .1 C A
−r A = mol/li . min
1+0 . 5 C A
The reaction is carried out in a series of equal-sized backmix reactors each with a space time
of 5 min. If the initial concentration of A is 1 mol/li and conversion is 89%, how many
reactors are needed?
A. 2 B. 3 C. 5 D. 6

13
D. UNIT OPERATIONS

D.1 MOMENTUM TRANSFER

Knowledge

1. The apparent viscosity of __ fluids increases with increase in shear rate.

A. dilatant B. pseudoplastic C. bingham plastic D. newtonian

2. The ‘yield stress’ is characteristic of:

A. pseudoplastic fluids C. bingham plastic fluids
B. dilatant fluids D. non-newtonian fluids

3. The rate of transfer, in any of the transport phenomena, is evaluated as:

A. gradient × resistance C. gradient / resistance
B. gradient × driving force D. driving force / resistance

4. Mass velocity is independent of temperature and pressure when the flow is:
A. unsteady through constant cross-section
B. steady through changing cross-section
C. steady through constant cross section
D. unsteady through changing cross-section

5. Which of the following describes an ideal fluid?

A. frictionless and incompressible C. highly viscous
B. obeys Newton's law of viscosity D. uniform density at all points

6. When does steady flow occur?

A. when conditions change with time
B. when conditions do not change with time at any point
C. when conditions are uniform at adjacent points at any time
D. when the rate of change of velocity is constant

7. How do you describe the shear stress in a fluid that is flowing in a pipe of circular cross-
section?
A. It has a parabolic profile across the cross-section
B. It is constant over the cross-section
C. It is zero at the center and varies linearly with the radius
D. It is zero at the wall and increases linearly to the center

8. A device used to measure the local velocity along a streamline:

A. venturi meter C. pitot tube
B. orifice meter D. rotameter

14
Comprehension

(9-10): Two vertical parallel metal plates are spaced 1 inch apart. The left-hand plate is moving
at a velocity of 0.035 m/s, and the right-hand plate is stationary. The space between the plates is
filled with a fluid whose kinematic viscosity is 1.5 cSt and density 800 kg/m3.

9. Calculate the force (N per m2) necessary to maintain the movement of the left plate.
A. 8.19 × 10-3 B. 7.92 × 10-4 C. 1.65 × 10-3 D. 3.33 × 10-3

10. Calculate the momentum flux at the surface of the left plate and at the surface of the right
plate.
A. 21424 B. 16667 C. 12894 D. 27908

Application

(11-12): 1 lbmol/s of dry air, flowing at an average linear velocity of 200 ft/s, at an absolute
temperature of 200 °F enters a horizontal baffled pipe. The air leaves the pipe at an absolute
pressure of 100 lb/in2 and a temperature of 100 °F. The average linear velocity of the air
leaving the pipe is 550 ft/s. The change in enthalpy of the air may be taken as the mean heat
capacity of the air at constant pressure (7.0 Btu/lbmol·°F) times the change in temperature.
Flow in pipe is turbulent so that the kinetic energy correction factor is 1.

11. What is the change in enthalpy, ft·lbf/lbm?

A. -24.1 B. -18,780 C. -12,220 D. -94.7

12. Calculate the amount of heat lost from the walls of the pipe.
A. -18.9 Btu/s B. -14.7 Btu/s C. -61.1 Btu/s D. -2.80 Btu/s

(13-14): A liquid flows through a straight steel pipe (2" Schedule 40, 18.3 m long) at a
velocity of 4.57 m/s. The density of the liquid is 641 kg/m3, and its viscosity is 4.46 cP.

13. The Fanning friction factor is approximately:

A. 0.0037 B. 0.0051 C. 0.0063 D. 0.0091

14. Calculate the mechanical energy loss due to friction (J/kg).

A. 92 B. 54 C. 132 D. 74

(15-17): Water with a density of 1000 kg/m 3 is flowing through a pipe (10" Schedule 40). An
orifice with a 3-in diameter opening is placed concentrically in the pipe. A mercury
manometer in which the mercury and the flowing water are in contact is attached across the
orifice. The manometer indicates a difference in level of 3 in Hg. The viscosity of water is
1.12 cP.

15
15. What is the velocity at the orifice?
A. 1.87 m/s B. 2.89 m/s C. 2.65 m/s D. 4.33 m/s

16. What is the average mass flow rate of the water in the main line?
A. 19.75 kg/s B. 12.09 kg/s C. 8.53 kg/s D. 17.38 kg/s

17. What is the permanent pressure loss across the orifice?

A. 665 N/m2 B. 1002 N/m2 C. 10020 N/m2 D. 8375 N/m2

(18-19): The suction inlet of a centrifugal pump is 5 m below the liquid level of a storage
tank that feeds the pump. The storage tank is vented to the atmosphere. At the operating
temperature the vapor pressure of the liquid is 70 torr and its density 970 kg/m3.

18. Neglecting friction losses, estimate NPSH.

A. 143.84 m B. 6.72 m C. 2.81 m D. 14.68 m

19. If the liquid is to be replaced with one whose vapor pressure and density are 117 torr and 990
kg/m3, respectively, estimate the NPSH. Assume that loss due to friction is 10 % of the
potential head.
A. 13.34 m B. 13.01 m C. 12.10 m D. 14.38 m

20. The viscosity of oil is 100 P and its specific gravity is 0.9. Its kinematic viscosity is:
A. 90 m2/s B. 111.11 m2/s C. 0.009 m2/s D. 0.011 m2/s

21. Water flows through an 8-inch (ID=7.981 in) steel pipe at an average velocity of 6 ft/s.
Downstream the pipe splits into an 8-inch main and a 3-inch (ID=3.068 in) by pass pipes. If
the velocity in the by-pass is twice the velocity of the main pipe, what is the velocity (ft/s) in
the by-pass?
A. 10.58 B. 9.26 C. 1.80 D. 0.25

22. Assuming all parameters are fixed, when the linear velocity of the fluid is doubled, the
pressure drop in the pipeline changes by a factor approximately equal to:
A. one-half B. two C. one D. four

23. A cooling water pump is operating at a speed of 1800 rpm Its flow rate is 400 gal/min at a
head of 46 ft. The power of the pump is 48 kW. Determine the power requirements if the
pump speed is increased to 3000 rpm.
A. 133 kW B. 24 kW C. 222 kW D. 80 kW

24. A rotameter has been calibrated for nitrogen at room temperature and atmospheric pressure.
The calibration shows that for a reading (float position) of 50% of the height of the rotameter
tube, the volumetric flow rate is 100 cm3/min. If the nitrogen gas were replaced by helium
under the same temperature and pressure, the volumetric flow rate at a float position of 40%
of the height is
A. 100 cm3/min B. 265 cm3/min C. 431 cm3/min D. 212 cm3/min

16
D.2 HEAT TRANSFER

Knowledge

1. Which of the following dimensionless numbers in heat transfer is incorrectly defined?

A. Peclet no. = bulk thermal energy transport / rate of thermal energy conduction
B. Graetz no. = bulk thermal energy transport / rate of thermal energy conduction
C. Fourier no. = rate of thermal energy conduction / rate of thermal energy accumulation
D. Prandtl no. = thermal energy diffusivity / momentum diffusivity

2. The ratio of internal resistance to conduction thermal energy transfer and the boundary layer
resistance to convective thermal energy transfer defines the __ number.
A. Fourier B. Biot C. Nusselt D. Stanton

3. In film-type condensation over a vertical tube, the local heat transfer coefficient is __ the
local film thickness.
A. inversely proportional to C. equal to
B. directly proportional to D. independent of

4. In unsteady heat transfer, the Biot number of the system is considered negligible when:
A. the temperature of the system is always uniform at any instant.
B. the rate of heat transfer from the surface to any point in the system is constant.
C. the resistance to conduction within the system is large relative to that of surface
convection.
D. the convection at the surface or boundary of the system is very small.

5. The __ and __ of a black body are both equal to 1.

A. emissivity; absorptivity C. transmissivity; absorptivity
B. reflectivity; emissivity D. absorptivity; reflectivity

Comprehension

6. You want to wrap stuffed milkfish with aluminum foil before grilling it over charcoal. You
are aware that aluminum foil has a dull side and a shiny side. As a chemical engineering
student who knows the principles of radiation heat transfer, how will you wrap the fish?
A. with the dull side of the foil exposed
B. with the shiny side of the foil exposed
C. doesn’t matter which side of the foil is exposed
D. with a double layer of foil regardless of which side of the outermost foil is exposed

7. The heat flow by conduction through layers of insulation in series

A. Decreases across each layer
B. Is the same
C. Increases across each layer
D. Is proportional to the number of layers

17
8. Which of the following statements is true?
A. The rate of heat transfer by forced convection is faster than that of natural convection
B. The heat transfer coefficient by forced convection is higher than that of natural convection
C. The resistance offered by force convection is less than that of natural convection
D. the resistance offered by natural convection is less than that of forced convection

9. With the same flow characteristics, the magnitude of heat transfer coefficient h for water is
greater than that of air because
A. Water has higher specific heat
B. Water has higher thermal conductivity
C. Water has higher viscosity
D. All of the above

Application

10. Given are long concentric cylinders. The outside surface area of the inner cylinder (A 1) is
0.40 ft2 and the inner surface area of the outer cylinder (A 2) is 1.2 ft2. Estimate the view
factor F22.
A. 1.00 B. 0.67 C. 0.33 D. 0.60

(11-12): A spherical automobile component of 6-in diameter, initially at 80 F, is placed in

a cubical oven of side 5 ft which is at a temperature of 560 F. Both surfaces are black
bodies.

11. Calculate the view factor from the oven to the component (F12).
A. 0.031 B. 5.24 x 10-3 C. 1 D. 9.96 x 10-3

12. Estimate the net heat transferred from the oven to the component, Btu/h.
A. 2.564 x 105 B. 8498 C. 1344 D. 105

(13-14): A thermocouple attached to the combustion side of the inside wall of a furnace
indicates 1500 °F. The inside wall is firebrick (k = 0.60 Btu/h·ft·°F), 3 in thick, and is in
immediate contact with a 0.25-in steel (k = 26 Btu/h·ft·°F). The steel wall is to be coated
with a layer of magnesia insulation ( (k = 0.03 Btu/h·ft·°F). For economic reasons, the heat
loss through the composite wall must not exceed 50 Btu/h·ft2. The outside temperature of the
insulation at steady state is not to exceed 150 °F.

13. What is the temperature at the interface of firebrick and steel?

A. 1479.2 °F B. 1444.9 °F C. 1394.4 °F D. 1492.1 °F

14. How thick a layer of magnesia is required?

A. 0.44 ft B. 0.27 ft C. 0.55 ft D. 0.80 ft

18
 (15-16): A firebrick whose thermal conductivity variation with temperature can be described
as: k = 0.1 + 5 x 10-5T, where k, Btu/h·ft·°F and T, °F, is to be used in a 4-in-thick furnace
liner. The outside temperature of the liner is to be about 100 °F and the inside temperature
1500 °F.

15. Calculate the heat flux, Btu/h·ft2.

A. 588 B. 213 C. 704 D. 890

16. What is the temperature at the center (or middle) of the furnace liner?
A. 800 °F B. 811 °F C. 886 °F D. 833°F

(14-15): The shell-side fluid of a 1-2 shell-and-tube heat exchanger enters at 90 oC and exits
at 70 oC. The tube-side fluid, on the other hand, enters and exits at 25 oC and 50 oC,
respectively.

17. Evaluate the corrected LMTD.

A. 40.3 oC B. 36.3 oC C. 22.4 oC D. 42.0 oC

18. What is the effectiveness of the heat exchanger?

A. 0.45 B. 0.38 C. 0.29 D. 0.51

(19-20): Water flowing at 1 bar and a bulk velocity of 15 ft/s in a tube 1 in in diameter is
being heated at an arithmetic mean bulk temperature of 80 °F, wall temperature of 98 °F.
Properties of water:
T / °F , lbm/ft3 Pr k / Btu/h-ft-F , cP
62 62.36 8.00 0.352 1.1
80 62.22 5.69 0.357 0.90
98 62.02 4.67 0.363 0.75

19. What is the value of Reynolds number?

A. 153 819 B. 128 554 C. 140 061 D. 112 928

20. What is the value of heat transfer coefficient, Btu/h·ft2·°F?

A. 2 430 B. 1 870 C. 1 510 D. 3 350

(21-23): A steel pipe (ID = 4.5 cm; OD = 5 cm) is covered with a 10-mm asbestos insulation
(k = 0.1 Btu/h-ft-F) followd by a 3-mm layer of fibreglass insulation (k = 0.03 Btu/h-ft-F).
The pipe-wall temperature is uniform at 250 oF; the temperature of the surrounding air is 68
o
F. The inside and outside heat-transfer coefficients are 8000 and 400 Btu/h-ft 2-F,
respectively.

21. The overall heat-transfer coefficient, in Btu/h-ft2-F, based on outside surface:

A. 81.11 B. 9.09 C. 4.26 D. 12.67

22. The heat transfer rate per foot, in Btu/min:

A. 12.92 B. 38.43 C. 27.57 D. 246.04

19
23. The temperature (oF) at the interface of the asbestos and fibreglass:
A. 70.5 B. 68.5 C. 80.4 D. 69.9

D.3 MASS TRANSFER

Knowledge

1. The flooding velocity in packed columns is:

A. directly proportional to the square-root of the packing factor of the packing material
B. directly proportional to the square of the packing factor of the packing material
C. inversely proportional to the square-root of the packing factor of the packing
material
D. inversely proportional to the square of the packing factor of the packing material

2. Which of the following has the greatest effect on the capacity and pressure drop in packed
column?
A. type of packing C. degree of separation
B. liquid viscosity D. liquid flow rate

3. What are the coordinates of the operating line and equilibrium curve in the evaluation of
NTU for water-cooling towers?
A. water temperature and water enthalpy
B. air dry-bulb temperature and water enthalpy
C. air wet-bulb temperature and air enthalpy
D. water temperature and air enthalpy

4. Which of the following defines mass-transfer Stanton number?

A. u/kC B. kC/u C. (u/kC)(Sc)1/3 D. (kC/u)(Sc)1/3

5. What is the driving force in ordinary diffusion?

A. concentration difference C. pressure drop
B. temperature difference D. unbalance external forces

6. What is the unit of mass diffusivity is SI?

A. m2/s B. mole/s C. mole/s.m2 D. m/s

7. It is the moisture in the solid that exhibits a vapor pressure less than that of the pure liquid at
the given temperature
A. equilibrium moisture C. bound moisture
B. unbound moisture D. critical moisture

8. The enrichment of the vapor stream as it passes through the column in contact with the reflux
during distillation is called
A. evaporation B. stripping C. rectification D. fractionation

20
9. This is a steady state temperature reached by a small amount of liquid evaporating into a
large amount of unsaturated vapor-gas mixture.
A. wet-bulb temperature C. dew point temperature
B. saturation temperature D. dry-bulb temperature

10. In gas absorption, packings are used to:

A. reduce the pressure drop across the tower
B. provide a bigger mass transfer area
C. strengthen the tower
D. fill up void spaces

11. The temperature at which a vapor-gas mixture becomes saturated when cooled at constant
total pressure out of contact with a liquid.
A. dew point C. dry bulb temperature
B. saturation temperature D. wet bulb temperature

12. For design purposes in gas absorption, it is often safe to conservatively set the operating gas
velocity as:
A. 50 percent of the minimum liquid flow
B. 50 percent of the maximum liquid flow
C. 50 percent of the maximum gas flow
D. 50 percent of the minimum gas flow

13. The ratio of the partial pressure of water vapor in air to its vapor pressure at the air
temperature multiplied by 100 is:
A. % relative humidity C. % saturation
B. % humidity D. mol %

14. The overall height of the transfer unit based on the gas phase will equal the gas phase
individual height of a transfer unit when:
A. the operating line is linear
B. the liquid phase resistance is very small compared with the gas phase
C. the equilibrium curve is linear
D. the gas phase resistance is very small compared with the liquid phase

15. It represents the ratio of the total mass transferred to the mass transferred by molecular
diffusion.
A. Schmidt Number C. Reynold’s Number
B. Sherwood Number D. Nusselt Number

16. Which of the following is NOT TRUE for tower packings?

A. It must be of regular shape.
B. It must be chemically inert to the fluids in the tower.
C. It must be strong without excessive weight.
D. It must be of reasonable cost.

21
Comprehension

17. Simultaneous heat and mass transfer is occurring in a fluid over a flat plate. The flow is
laminar. The concentration boundary layer will coincide with the thermal boundary layer
when:
A. Sc = Nu B. Sh = Nu C. Sh = Pr D. Sc = Pr

18. At 298 K, acetic acid will diffuse fastest in which of the following solvents?
A. acetone B. benzene C. water D. CCl4

19. Under which of the following conditions will equimolar counter diffusion be attained in
binary distillation?
A. when the two constituents have essentially the same vapor pressure
B. when the relative volatility is near unity
C. when the two constituents have essentially the same molar heats of vaporization
D. when the relative volatility is high

20. Mass transfer and chemical reactions occurs simultaneously in all of the following except:
A. combustion of coal C. solvent extraction
B. trickling filters D. extractive fermentation

21. How is the rate of gas flow in the packed column affected by the size and type of packing
material?
A. There is no effect.
B. Gas flow rate is high at low packing factor value.
C. Gas flow rate is low at low packing factor value
D. Gas flow is higher for larger packing materials.

22. Which of the following set of properties both increase during evaporative cooling?
A. TW and RH B. RH and H C. RH and h D. H and h

23. The individual mass transfer coefficients (mol/m2 s) for absorption of a solute from a gas
mixture into a liquid solvent are kx =4.5 and ky =1.5. The slope of the equilibrium line is 3.
Which of the following resistance(s) is (are) controlling?
A. liquid – side C. interfacial
B. gas-side D. both liquid and gas-side

24. A cooling tower is designed on the basis of a wet bulb temperature of 19oC. If the actual wet
bulb temperature on a day is 22oC, the cooled water will be:
A. higher than the design temperature C. between 19oC and 22oC
B. lower than the design temperature D. none of these

22
Application

25. The flooding velocity of the gas in a packed column was determined to be 5.0 ft/s when the
packing material used was 1-in ceramic Raschig rings (F P = 179 / ft). What would be the
flooding velocity if the packing materials were replaced by 1-in metal IMTP packing (F P =
41 / ft), assuming other quantities remained the same?
A. 21.82 ft/s B. 1.15 ft/s C. 10.45 ft/s D. 8.56 ft/s

(26-27): The diffusivity of helium is Pyrex glass at 20 oC and 100 kPa is 1.16 x 10 -15. The
flask wall is 2 mm thick and has a surface area of 0.1 m2.

26. Calculate the rate of loss of helium from a Pyrex glass filled with pure helium at a pressure of
100 kPa and 20 C into the helium-free air surrounding the flask (at the same pressure).
A. 2.4 x 10-11 mol/s B. 2.4 x 10-12 mol/s C. 4.8 x 10-13 mol/s D. 4.8 x 10-12 mol/s

27. Estimate the total helium loss in a day.

A. 8.3 x 10-7 g B. 8.3 x 10-6 g C. 1.66 x 10-6 g D. 1.66 x 10-7 g

(18-19): A volatile fuel when spilled on a large flat surface quickly spreads over a depth of
0.25 in and a length of 7 ft. The fuel is at 60 oF with a vapor pressure of 2 psia has the
following physical properties:  = 54 lbm/ft3 and DAB = 0.55 ft2/h. The kinematic viscosity of
the air  = 1.62 x 10-5 ft 2/s. The breeze blows parallel to the fuel surface at 16 mi/h

28. Determine the Reynolds number of the air.

A. 9.620 x 106 B. 6.624 x 105 C. 1.014 x 107 D. 1.622 x 105

29. What is the Schmidt number of the air?

A. 0.11 B. 0.94 C. 1.19 D. 0.84

30. If the correlation applies for this system, what is the mass transfer
coefficient, kC?
A. 8.08 ft/s B. 0.30 ft/s C. 1.08 ft/s D. 0.11 ft/s

31. Determine the evaporation rate of the fuel (lbmol/h-ft2).

A. 0.774 B. 0.390 C. 0.180 D. 1.060

32. Estimate the total drying time to reduce the moisture content of a material from 0.5 kg free
moisture per kg solid to 0.05 kg free moisture per kg solid. the critical moisture content of
the material under constant drying conditions is 0.11 kg free moisture per kg solid and
LS/ARC is 4.76 hours.
A. 1.99 h B. 2.27 h C. 2.84 h D. 3.01 h

23
33. Ethanol is diffusing through a 4-mm stagnant film of carbon dioxide. The ethanol
concentration of the entrance and exiting planes are maintained at 0.1 and 0.02 mole/m 3,
respectively. If the carbon dioxide temperature and pressure are 283 K and 1 atm,
respectively, determine the steady-state molar flux of the ethanol, in mole/s.m2.
A. 1.0 x 10-4 B. 1.5 x 10-4 C. 2.9 x 10-8 D. 3.0 x 10-7

34. The free-moisture content of a solid being dried under constant drying conditions is 18 kg /
100 kg dry solid. If the equilibrium moisture content at the said conditions is 10 kg / 100 kg
dry solid, what is the moisture content of the solid if expressed on a wet basis?
A. 21.88% B. 96.55% C. 33.33% D. 18.19%

35. The free-moisture content of a solid being dried under constant drying conditions is 18 kg /
100 kg dry solid. If the total moisture content is 1 kg / 3 kg dry solid, what is the equilibrium
moisture content expressed in % on a wet basis?
A. 15.33% B. 18.11% C. 21.88% D. 13.29%

36. The diffusion coefficient for air-ethanol vapor system is 0.145 cm 2/s at 1 atm and 313 K.
Predict the value of this coefficient at 1.5 atm and 350 K?
A. 0.75 cm2/s B. 0.55 cm2/s C. 1.23 cm2/s D. 0.81 cm2/s

37. Ammonia gas diffuses through nitrogen gas under steady conditions with nitrogen non-
diffusing. The total pressure is 101300 Pascal and the temperature is 298 K. The diffusion
path is 0.15 m. The partial pressure of NH 3 at one point is 1.5 x 104 Pa and at the other point
is 5 x 103 Pa. The diffusivity at the given conditions is 2.3 x 10 –5 m2/s. Calculate the flux of
NH3 in Kg/m2-s.
A. 6.87 x 10–7 B. 1.17 x 10–5 C. 1.51 x 10–5 D. 1.054 x 10–5

38. The mole fraction of a solute in a gas mixture entering a gas absorber is 0.25. If the
percentage recovery is 75 percent, then the mole fraction of the solute in the gas leaving the
tower will be
A. 0. 20 B. 0.059 C. 0.077 D. 0. 083

39. The inside dimensions of a packed tower for absorption of ammonia are 1.52 m in diameter
and 6.1 m in height. During the operation it was noted that the pressure difference readings
at the top and bottom of the column has a difference of 0.09 atm. How much ammonia will
be absorbed from the mixture of ammonia and inert gas in kg/s? Use Kga = 0.506
kmol/hr.m3.kPa and take (P – P*) at the bottom = 0.10 atm.
A. 0.268 B. 0.105 C. 0.015 D. 0.027

40. Wet solids are to be dried from 36% to 8% moisture in 5 hours under constant drying
conditions. The total critical moisture content is 14 % and the equilibrium moisture content
is 4 %. (all moisture contents are on dry basis). The additional time it will take to dry from 8
% to 6% moisture under the same drying conditions is:
A. 6.6 hrs B. 1.6 hr C. 1.11 hr D. 5 hr

24
41. The rate of drying at constant rate period is 20 lbs/hr. 400 lbs of dry solid containing 300 lbs
of water enter the drier. If the critical free moisture is 0.05 (d.b), the drying time to dry the
material to 5% moisture (w.b) is ____ hours.
A. 13.95 B. 17.5 C. 6.5 D. 7.57

42. What will be the volumetric flow rate (in ft 3/min) of entering air required to remove 10 lbs of
water per hour from rayon, if the air enters at 80F and 25% humidity and leaves at 170F
and 55 % relative humidity? The operating pressure is 14.7 psia.
A. 12 B. 12.7 C. 8.6 D. 7.12

43. Humid air at 600F and a total pressure of 1 atm passed through a dehumidifier at a rate of
1000 ft3/min. If the partial pressure of water vapor in air is reduced from 45 mmHg to 10
mmHg, how many pounds of water is removed per hour?
A. 81.9 B. 76.3 C. 65.1 D. 45.4

44. During an experiment conducted on the drying of copra, it was found that it dries at a rate
proportional to its free moisture content and losses 60% of its free moisture content in 2
hours. How many hours will it take to lose 90% under the same drying conditions?
A. 2.4 B. 4.3 C. 6.7 D. 5.0

45. The equilibrium data for a certain absorption may be represented by the equation Y = 5.2X 2
where X is the kmols of dissolved absorbable material per kmol of pure absorbing liquid and
Y is the kmol of gaseous absorbable material per kmol of inert gas. The unit is operated as a
continuous absorption process. The entering gas contain 5 moles absorbable material per 20
mols of inert gas. The absorbing liquid enters as a pure material. What is the minimum
molal ratio of liquid to gas if the gas leaving the tower contain 1 mol absorbable material per
50 mols of inert gas?
A. 0.92 B. 2.34 C. 4.78 D. 1.05

46. A soluble gas is absorbed in water using packed tower. The equilibrium relationship may be
taken as y = 1.06x. If H x = 0.24 m and Hy = 0.36 m, and the ratio of L m to Gm is 1.52, what
is the height of a transfer unit?
A. 0.49 m B. 0.53 m C. 0.75m D. 0.82 m

47. Air is at 120F supplied at the rate of 1200ft3/min to a refrigerated coil, has a humidity of
0.0315 lb H2O/lb dry air. What is the mass flow rate of dry air entering in lbm per minute?
A. 74.3 B. 75 C. 78.2 D. 75.26

48. In a CO2 absorber using a carbonate solution as absorbent, 2000 kmols/hr of flue gas
containing 60% CO2 by volume, the balance being an inert gas, is fed into the column. The
lean gas leaves the absorber with 3% CO2 by volume. The quantity of CO2 absorbed by the
carbonate solution is:
A. 10.20 kmol /hr B. 51,711 kg/hr C. 490 kg/hr D. 21,550 kg/hr

25
D.4 SEPARATION PROCESSES/STAGEWISE OPERATIONS

1. At a given fixed pressure, a liquid mixture of benzene and toluene is in equilibrium with its
vapor. The available degree(s) of freedom is(are):
A. zero B. 1 C. 2 D. 3

2. A mixture of compound A and B forms a maximum azeotrope at x = 0.8 at 1 atm total

pressure. A solution of this composition has a bubble point (Tb) and and a vapor of the same
composition has a dew point (Td). Then
A. Tb < Td B. Tb  Td C. Tb = Td D. cannot tell

3. In distillation design using the McCabe-Thiele method, a horizontal feed line indicates a
_____ feed.
A. saturated vapor B. saturated liquid C. subcooled liquid D. superheated vapor

4. Minimum number of ideal stages is required in a fractionating column when the reflux ratio
is equal to:
A. minimum reflux ratio C. zero
B. optimum reflux ratio D. infinity

5. Fenske’s equation is used to calculate the number of ideal stages in a distillation column:
A. at total reflux
B. at minimum reflux
C. for system having constant relative volatility
D. for both (A) and (C)

6. In a liquid-liquid extraction process the extraction solvent has no selectivity when the ratio of
the two components in the extract solvent phase to that in the feed solvent phase is:
A. zero B. one C. two D. infinity

7. In liquid-liquid extraction, a tie line is reduced to a point which indicates same concentration
of a solute in both the solvent and feed-solvent phases. What is this point called?
A. azeotropic point B. difference point C. plait point D. addition point

8. Which should be observed in a gas absorption equipment?

A. The liquid absorbent is below its bubble point and the gas phase is well above its dew
point
B. The liquid absorbent is above its bubble point and the gas phase is well below its dew
point
C. The liquid absorbent is below its bubble point and the gas phase is at its dew point.
D. The liquid absorbent is at its bubble point and the gas phase is well above its dew point.
26
9. A benzene-toluene mixture (56%w benzene) is maintained at 92oC and 1 atm. The condition
of this mixture is a:
A. saturated liquid C. superheated vapor
B. saturated vapor D. mixture of liquid and vapor
10. The relative volatility of A with respect to B is 2. At what concentration of A of the mixture
of A and B is the slope of the equilibrium curve unity in a McCabe-Thiele diagram?
A. 0.414 B. 0.500 C. 0.366 D. never occur

11. Two volatile liquids A and B are mixed and allowed to come to equilibrium. If the relative
volatility, aAB, is 2.13, what is the fraction of A in the vapor if the mole fraction of A in the
liquid phase is 0.67?
A. 0.51 B. 0.67 C. 0.33 D. 0.81

12. The energy needed to vaporize 200 moles of feed to a distillation column is 75,000 kJ. If the
molar heat of vaporization of the feed at the operating pressure of the column is 357 kJ/mole,
what is the thermal condition of the feed?
A. subcooled liquid C. saturated vapor
B. saturated liquid D. superheated vapor

13. One hundred moles of vapor per hour is leaving the top plate of a continuous distillation
column and overhead product at the rate of 50 moles/h is being withdrawn. Then the reflux
ratio is:
A. 0.5 B. 1.0 C. 2.0 D. 2.5

14. For distillation of an equimolar binary mixture of A and B, the equation of the operating lines
are:
Rectifying section: y = 0.663x + 0.32
Stripping section: y = 1.392x – 0.013
where x and y are mole fraction of A in liquid and vapor streams respectively. What is the
condition of the feed?
A. saturated liquid C. subcooled liquid
B. saturated vapor D. supersaturated vapor

15. A liquid stream and a vapor stream containing butane and pentane, leaving an equilibrium
stage, are at 2.96 atm and 40 °C. At these conditions, the experimental values of K for butane
and pentane are 1.2 and 0.38, respectively. What is the fraction of butane in the liquid
stream?
A. 0.24 B. 0.76 C. 0.91 D. 0.09

16. The following mass and solute concentrations are given for an ideal single stage liquid-liquid
extraction system:
Feed is 500kg with solute at 40%w. Solvent is 400kg (pure) . Extract is 550kg with solute at

27
 33%w. What is the distribution coefficient (or partition ratio) of the solute at this condition?
A. 0.52 B. 2.15 C. 6.24 D. 8.41

17. A 30% solution of ethanol in glycerol is contacted with the solvent carbon tetrachloride. The
mass ratio of the solvent to the solution is 2.0. What maximum amount of ethanol (in %) will
be extracted in a single extraction? The equilibrium partition coefficient is 0.0667.
A. 11.9% B. 12.4% C. 9.67% D. 17.8%

18. In a determination of the solution retention data in leaching, the mass fraction of the solute in
the extract was determined to be 0.6. The corresponding underflow analysis showed a
retention of 0.6 kg solvent per kg of the inert solid. The mass fraction of solute in the
underflow is most likely:
A. 0.6 B. 0.47 C. 0.36 D. 0.27

D.5 PARTICULATE TECHNOLOGY

Knowledge

1. Bond crushing law states that the work required to produce particles of diameter Dp from
very large fed is proportional to the:
A. surface – to – volume ratio of the feed
B. surface – to – volume ratio of the product
C. square-root of the surface–to–volume ratio of the feed
D. square-root of the surface–to–volume ratio of the product

2. For materials having a particle size range of 6.0 to 12 inches, the most appropriate screening
equipment is:
A. oscillating screens C. grizzly
B. vibrating screens D. all of these

3. The equivalent diameter of a particle is estimated as the diameter of the sphere having the
same ___ as the particle.
A. specific surface C. specific volume
B. volume-to-surface ratio D. surface area

4. Size reduction of hard solids into smaller coarse fractions is best done by ___.
A. compression B. attrition C. cutting D. impact

5. Rittinger’s crushing law states that the work or energy required in crushing is proportional to
the:
A. ratio of initial and final diameter of the solid
B. bulk density of the solid
C. ratio of final and initial diameter of the solid
D. new surface created

28
6. It is defined as the gross energy (kWh/ton of feed) needed to reduce large-sized feed to such
a size that 80% of the product passes a 100-micron screen.
A. Bond energy C. work index
B. Rittinger’s index D. impact energy

7. A squirrel-cage disintegrator is used to break:

A. coal B. limestone C. fibrous materials D. soft ores
8. The energy required for grinding finer particles is __ that for grinding relatively coarser
particles.
A. equal to B. greater than C. lesser than D. 1/2

9. The phenomenon in which the screen is plugged with particles:

A. weeping B. entrainment C. channeling D. blinding

10. Trommels separate mixture of particles depending on __ differences.

A. size B. wettability C. density D. shape

11. Separation of particles mixture by froth flotation is based on difference in __ of the particles.
A. densities B. wettability C. drag forces D. hardness

12. Mesh number of screens indicate the number of openings per:

A. linear inch C. linear centimeter
B. square inch D. square centimeter

13. According to Bond crushing law, the work required to form particle of size D from very large
feed is proportional to ___, where (S/V)P and (S/V)F are surface-to-volume ratio of product
and feed, respectively.
A. (S/V)P B. (S/V)P2 C. (S/V)P1/2 D. (S/V)F

14. Which of the following has the lowest Rittinger’s number?

A. quartz B. calcite C. pyrite D. galena

15. In cement industry, dust is most effectively removed from air using:
A. bag filters C. gravity settler
B. cyclone separator D. tubular centrifuge

16. In constant – pressure filtration,

A. the filtrate flow rate is maximum at the start and decreases continuously to the end
B. the filtrate flow rate is minimum at the start and increases continuously to the end
C. the filtrate flow rate is constant throughout
D. increases slowly to a constant value

17. A fluidized bed is formed when

A. Fluid friction is zero
B. Gravity force is less than fluid friction

29
 C. Pressure force is equal but acts in opposite direction to the gravity force
D. Sum of fluid friction and pressure force is equal but opposite to gravity force

18. A rotary drum filter is:

A. a continuous vacuum filter C. a discontinuous pressure filter
B. a continuous pressure filter D. none of the above

Comprehension

19. In screen analysis, the notation -5/+10 mm means particles

A. passing through 5-mm mesh but retained on 10-mm mesh
B. passing through 10-mm mesh but retained on 5-mm mesh
C. passing through Mesh No. 10 but retained on Mesh No. 5
D. passing through Mesh No. 5 but retained on Mesh No. 10

20. What is the average grinding efficiency of ball mills?

A. 1 - 5% B. 40 - 50% C. 75 - 80% D. 90 - 95%

21. What is the aperture size of a 200-mesh screen in the Taylor Screen Series?
A. 0.0074 cm B. 0.0025 cm C. 0.0087 cm D. 0.0055 cm

22. In the Taylor Screen Series, what is the ratio of the actual mesh dimension to that of the next
smaller screen?
A. 2 B. 21/3 C. 21/2 D. 21/4

23. What is the shape factor for a cylindrical particle with a diameter that is equal to its length?
A. 2/3 B. 1 C. 3/2 D. 0.0

Application

(24-26): A quartz mixture is screened through a 14-mesh screen. The cumulative analysis of
the feed, oversize, and undersize are given below.

Mesh DP (mm) Feed Oversize Undersize

6 3.327 0.17 0.071 0.000
8 2.362 0.47 0.430 0.000
10 1.651 0.73 0.850 0.195
14 1.168 0.89 0.970 0.580
20 0.833 1.00 1.000 1.000

24. What is the oversize-to-feed mass ratio?

A. 0.599 B. 0.645 C. 0.795 D. 0.812

25. What is the undersize-to-feed mass ratio?

30
 A. 0.355 B. 0.205 C. 0.188 D. 0.401

26. Estimate the overall screen effectiveness.

A. 0.401 B. 0.255 C. 0.281 D. 0.336

27. Estimate the critical speed of a ball mill if the radii of the ball mill and the ball are 3 m and
20 cm, respectively?
A. 0.09 rad/s B. 0.15 rad/s C. 0.22 rad/s D. 0.30 rad/s
E. CHEMICAL PROCESS INDUSTRIES

1. Which of the following is an incorrect pair of process and product:

A. Solvay / Soda ash C. Frasch / Sulfuric acid
B. Contact / oleum D. Claus / sulfur

2. Carbon dioxide is also produced from the following except in:

A. Fermentation of sugar to produce alcohol
B. Product ion of ammonia by Haber process
C. Auto oxidation of anthraquinone
D. Combustion of fuel

3. Produced by the action of yeast on sugar of fruits:

A. beer B. wine C. liquor D. rhum

4. Brix scale is used for

A. sugar solutions B. LPG C. petroleum D. water

5. The undesirable material that is separated from an ore during the concentration process is
called:
A. gangue B. leachate C. slag D. flocculent

6. The hydrometallurgical process used in refining gold ore entails converting metallic gold to
water-soluble Au(CN)2. What must happen to the metallic gold to allow it to complex with
CN to form Au(CN)2 removable in liquid form from the gangue?
A. It is reduced with a metal hydride
B. It is reduced with CO(g) to form Au(CO)42-
C. It is oxidized in the presence of O2 to Au(I).
D. It is oxidized with CO(g) to form Au(CO)4+

7. What is the purpose of the cryolite that is used in the Hall process?
A. to both lower the temperatures required and to make the mixture conductive
B. to react with any silicon and iron present to form a slag
C. to prevent interference by iron by forming FeF3-
D. to extend electrode life

8. The products of calcimining limestone, CaCO3 are:

A. Ca (s) and CO3 (g) C. CaO (s) and CO3 (g)

31
 B. Ca (s) and CO2 (g) D. CaO (s) and CO2 (g)

9. Fermentation of 1 kg of sugar yields roughly 500 g each of ethanol and carbon dioxide.
Given 1 ton of feed containing 30% fermentable sugar by weight, how much liquor
containing 5% ethanol and 95% water (mass basis) can be produced?
A. 3 tons B. 150 kg C. 50 kg D. 60 kg

F. PLANT DESIGN

1. A test to be conducted to locate leaks in fabricated heat exchangers:

A. Radiography test C. Positive material identification
B. Hydro test D. Dye penetrant test

2. Type of valve that is used to prevent backflow on piping system

A. Butterfly valve B. Globe valve C. Check valve D. Gate valve

3. It is considered as the simplest shell configuration of TEMA type heat exchanger.

A. TEMA E B. TEMA J C. TEMA G D. TEMA H

4. In heat exchanger design, baffles are used primarily

A. for aesthetic purposes
B. to direct the flow normal to the tubes in the shell side to impart turbulence to the
stream
C. to reduce heat transfer coefficient
D. to cause complexities in design which may improve heat transfer rates

5. Which of the following statement is not true regarding corrosion prevention?

A. Use cathodic protection for underground piping
B. Remove oxygen in boiler feed water
C. Modification of pH values to more acidic condition
D. All of the above

6. A method of fabrication of equipment which is necessary to remove forming and welding

stresses.
A. Testing B. Fastening C. Heat-treating D. Finishing

7. Which of the following statement is not true regarding handling of solids?

A. Generally, solids are more difficult to handle in processing operation than liquids or solids
B. Roll press can be used for fine crushing of cement
C. Fine grinders require less power per unit of product than primary crushers
D. Use toothed roll mills for cohesive and not hard solid

8. Which of the following is not correct with regard to ASME VII Div 1?
A. Most vessels are required to be hydrostatic-tested (generally with water) at 1.5 times the
maximum allowable working pressure
B. Usually maximum allowable working pressure is greater than the design pressure

32
 C. vessel that has passed a hydrostatic test is probably safer than one that has not been tested
D. Hydrotest should be carried out at a very low temperature

9. In designing a process, batch production is chosen over a continuous production when

A. There is a continuous large demand for the product
B. Operations involve long start-up times
C. Producing low-quantity multi-products
D. A more efficient system is needed
Comprehension

10. A pressure vessel has an operating temperature of 90oC. What should be the design
temperature of the vessel?
A. 75oC B. 100oC C. 120oC D. 200oC

11. You have been asked to design the separation train in order to purify the reactor product and
recover valuable reactants. Which of the following is NOT factors for consideration in the
selection and design of the separation train?
A. Phase of the Reactor Product
B. Separation and/or Recovery Factors
C. Effect of Temperature on Chemical Equilibrium Composition
D. Motivation for the Separation

Analysis

12. In selecting a reaction pathway for the production of vinyl chloride, which pathway will you
select based on available data below?
Data: Market prices of chemicals
Cost,
Chemical
cents/lb
Ethylene 18
Acetylene 50
Chlorine 11
Vinyl Chloride 22
Hydrogen chloride 18
Water 0
Oxygen (air) 0
A. C2H2 + HCl  C2H3Cl
B. C2H4 + Cl2  C2H3Cl + HCl
C. C2H4 + HCl + ½ O2  C2H3Cl + H2O
D. 2C2H4 + Cl2 + ½ O2  2C2H3Cl +H2O

13. One of the measures used in shortlisting a choice of many reaction paths is in the analysis of
the Fractional Atom Economy. This is the fraction of atoms in the inputs that end up in the
desired product. A high fractional value is desired since it indicates a reaction pathway that
efficiently uses the atoms in the material inputs. What is the fractional atom economy of the
traditional synthesis that follows the reaction pathway shown below?

33
 C10H14+C4H6O3+AlCl3+6H2O à C12H16O+CH3COOH+AlCl3·6H2O
C12H16O+C4H7O2Cl+NaOC2H5àC16H22O3+C2H5OH+ NaCl
C16H22O3+HClàC13H18O+C2H5OOCl
C13H18O+NH2OHàC13H19ON
C13H19ONàC13H17N+H2O
C13H17N+2H2OàC13H18O2+NH3
A. 0.22 B. 0.28 C. 0.46 D. 0.77

G. INSTRUMENTATION AND PROCESS CONTROL

Knowledge

1. Which of the following is the standard I/O signal for electronic devices?
A. 4 – 20mA B. 1 – 5 V C. 3 – 15 psig D. 0 – 16 mA

2. A continuing error due to the inability of a control system to keep the measured variable at
set point:
A. load disturbance B. offset C. step change D. rate of change

3. Which of the following is the most common final control element in process control
industries?
A. valve B. agitator C. louver D. thermocouple

4. What type of control loop anticipates and controls load disturbances before they can impact
the process variable?
A. Feedback B. Feedforward C. Cascade D. Ratio

5. Which is not true about the control action P.I. Controller?

A. Eliminates offset
B. Proportional to the integral of error
C. Less oscillatory
D. Faster Response

6. Input variables in which their values can be adjusted freely by the human operator or a
control mechanism:
A. Unmeasured variables C. Manipulated variables
B. Transfer variables D. Disturbances

7. This is the time required for the response to first reach its ultimate value
A. Response Time C. Decay Ratio
B. Period of Oscillation D. Rise Time

Comprehension

34
8. If the level of a liquid in a tank must be maintained within 5 ft of 50 ft, what is the liquid’s
setpoint?
A. 5 ft B. 45 ft C. 50 ft D. 55 ft

9. Which of the following controllers will not encounter reset windup?

A. P B. PI C. PID D. None of the above

10. Identify an effect on a process variable if the proportional gain (Pgain) is set too high?
A. Minimize offset B. Stable loop C. Large offset D. None of the above
11. Which type of pneumatic control valve should be used for draining effluent from a sanitary
wastewater treatment holding tank into river?
A. Fail open B. Fail close C. Fail lock D. All of the above

12. For a system with overall open transfer function which is purely first order, the most
appropriate controller mode is:
A. proportional mode C. proportional- integral mode
B. integral mode D. derivative mode

13. For a system controlled by a PID controller but still with a very slow and oscillatory the
response can be improved by:
A. increasing the controller gain and derivative constant
B. decreasing the controller gain and derivative constant
C. decreasing the gain and increasing derivative constant
D. increasing the controller gain and decreasing the derivative mode

Application

14. Consider the following transfer function: G(s) = Y(s) / U(s) = 6 / (10s + 1). The steady state
gain is?
A. 6 / (10s + 1) B. 0.6 C. 6 D. 10

Y ( s) 10
15. For a system having a transfer function of X (s) = s +12 s+ 4 , what is ,  and Kp ?
2

A. 1, 2.5, 3 B. 1, 10, 6 C. 0.5, 3, 2.5 D. 0.5, 0.25, 3

16. For an underdamped second order system with  = 0.2, the overshoot and decay ratio are:
A. 1.8989 and 3.6058 respectively
B. 0.5266 and 0.2773 respectively
C. 0.4112 and 0.1691 respectively
D. 0.6412 and 0.4111 respectively
10
G(s)=
17. For a system with open loop transfer function s+2 , find y(t) for a unit step
change in the input.
A. 5[ 1 – e3/2 t (cosh 1/2t – 3sinh 1/2t)]

35
B. 5 – e3/2 t (cosh 1/2t – 3sinh 1/2t)
C. 5[ 1 – e3/2 t (cos 1/2t – 3sin 1/2t)]
D. 5(1-e-2t)

36