1.

In a plant's male reproductive organs, development of pollen is in

a. another
b. microsporangium
c. tapetum
d. stamen
2. _____ is a useful method of asexual reproduction for propagating hard-to-root
a. budding
b. cuttings
c. layering
d. grafting
3. Plant regions of continuous growth:
a. meristematic tissue
b. vascular tissue
c. permanent tissue
d. dermal tissue
4. Stem regions at which leaves are attached:
a. internodes
b. lenticels
c. trichomes
d. nodes
5. The pollen lands on which part of the flower?
a. stigma
b. integument
c. ovule
d. style
6. Corn develops from a seeding with a single cotyledon and produces monosulcate pollen. It is
most likely:
a. A eudicot
b. A monocot
c. A basalangiosperm
d. A gymnosperm
7. In either plant or animals reproducing sexually, the embryo developing from a fertilized egg is
also known as:
a. sepal
b. mitosis
c. cotyledon
d. zygote
8. The stamen’s long stalk supports:
a. anther
b. filament
c. sepal
d. stigma
9. The _____ is the outermost covering of a fruit.
a. pericarp
 b. mesocap
c. endocap
d. exocarp
10. Plant species that complete their life cycle in one season:
a. annuals
b. polycarpic
c. perennials
d. biennials
11. What other major structure reduces a plant’s reliance on water for reproduction?
a. fruit
b. flower
c. spore
d. pollen
12. The _____ are collectively called the calyx.
a. stamens
b. petals
c. sepals
d. tepals
13. The _____ is special because it has a triploid chromosome complement.
a. cotyledon
b. endosperm
c. exocarp
d. perisperm
14. Which of the following is most likely to be found in a desert?
a. needle-like leaves
b. wide,flat leaves that can float
c. spines instead of leaves
d. broad leaves to capture sunlight
15. What is the term for a fruit that develops from tissues other than the ovary?
a. accessory fruit
b. simple fruit
c. aggregate fruit
d. multiple fruit
16. Which components of speciation would be least likely to be a part of punctuated equilibrium?
a. a large number of mutations taking place at once
b. ongoing gene flow among all individuals
c. a change in environmental conditions
d. a division of populations
17. Blood travels through which of the following organs?
a. liver
b. heart
c. lungs
d. kidney
18. Cardiomyocytes are similar to skeletal muscle because:
 a. they are used for weight lifting
b. they are striated
c. they beat involuntarily
d. they pulse rhythmically
19. The losses of ozone over Arctic are significantly lower than that over Antarctic because
a. Arctic stratosphere warms slower in the spring.
b. Concentration of chlorine in the atmosphere over Arctic is less than over Antarctic.
c. Freezing of NO2 and CH4 are slower over Arctic than over Antarctic
d. Polar vortex over Arctic is not as tight as over Antarctic.
20. Which of selection results in greater genetic variance in a population?
a. Directional selection
b. Positive frequency-dependent selection
c. Diversifying selection
d. Stabilizing selection
21. Where does the majority of protein digestion take place?
a. Duodenum
b. Mouth
c. Stomach
d. Jejunum
22. One life history trait that is not characteristic of very small sized organisms is
a. Short lifespan
b. Earlier age at first reproduction
c. Delayed age at first reproduction.
d. High population growth rate
23. What is the purpose of the circulatory system?
a. To supply oxygen to the body
b. All of the answers are correct
c. To fight germs
d. To supply nutrients
24. What is the difference between micro and macroevolution?
a. Microevolution describes the evolution of microscopic entities, such as molecules and
proteins, while macroevolution describes the evolution of whole organisms.
b. Microevolution describes the evolution of organisms in populations, while macroevolution
describes the evolution of species over long periods of time.
c. Microevolution describes the evolution of organisms over their lifetimes, while
macroevolution describes the evolution of organisms over multiple generations.
d. Microevolution describes the evolution of small organisms, such as insects, while
macroevolution describes the evolution of large organisms, like people and elephants.
25. When closely related individual mate with each other, or inbreed, the offspring are often not as
fit as the offspring of two unrelated individuals. Why?
a. Close relatives are genetically incompatible
b. Inbreeding can bring together rare, deleterious mutations that lead to harmful phenotypes.
c. The DNA of close relatives reacts negatively in the offspring.
d. Inbreeding causes normally silent alleles to be expressed.
26. Platelet plug formation occurs:
a. None of the choices is correct
b. When platelets are attracted to a site of blood vessel damage
c. When platelets are dispersed through the blood stream
d. When large megakaryocytes break up into thousands of smaller fragments
27. Population genetics is the study of:
a. The genetic basis of population-wide traits
b. Whether traits have a genetic basis
c. The degree of inbreeding in a population
d. How selective forces change the allelefrequencies in a population over time
28. Similarities in sequence and function of two proteins indicate that they are members of a family
that share a common ancestor. If the are from different species, they are called:
a. Orthologs
b. Homologs
c. Proteologs
d. Paralogs
29. Which situation would most likely lead to allopatric speciation?
a. a mutation causes a new trait to develop.
b. Flood causes the formation of a new lake.
c. An injury causes an organism to seek out a new food source.
d. A storm causes several large trees to fall down.
30. Which description is an example of a phenotype(A)?
a. None of these
b. A mutation occurred to a flower.
c. Most cheetahs live solitary lives.
d. A certain duck has a blue beak.
31. Which description is an example of a phenotype(b)?
a. Most cheetahs live solitary lives.
b. A mutation occurred to a flower.
c. Both a certain duck has a blue beak and most cheetahs live solitary lives
d. A certain duck has a blue beak
32. Which term is used to describe the continued divergence of species based on the low fitness of
hybrid offspring?
a. Stability
b. Punctuated equilibrium
c. Fusion
d. Reinforcement
33. Allergy to pollen is:
a. Immunodeficiency
b. Immediate hypersensitivity
c. An autoimmune reaction
d. Delayed hypersensitivity
34. The total lung capacity:
a. Expiratory reserve volume + tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume
 b. Residual volume + tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume
c. Residual volume + expiratory reserve volume + tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume
d. Residual volume + expiratory reserve volume + inspiratory reserve volume
35. Which reproductive combination produces hybrids?
a. When offspring of the same parents reproduce
b. When members of closely related species reproduce
c. When any two individuals sharing the same habitat reproduce
d. When individuals of the same species in different geographical areas reproduce
36. BUN is ____.
a. An indicator of blood pressure
b. An indicator of blood volume
c. Blood uric acid nitrogen
d. Blood urea nitrogen
37. The red blood cells of birds differ from mammalian red blood cell because:
a. The fight disease
b. The are white and have nuclei
c. The have nuclei
d. The do not have nuclei
38. High blood pressure is:
a. a low cardiac output and low peripheral resistance
b. a low cardiac output and high peripheral resistance
c. a high cardiac output and low peripheral resistance
d. a high cardiac output and high peripheral resistance
39. Cells in a hypertonic solution:
a. Stay the same size due to water moving into and out of the cell at the same rate
b. Swell due to water gain
c. Shrink due to water loss
d. None of the choices is correct
40. Excess glucose is stored as _____.
a. It is not stored in the body
b. Fat
c. Glucagon
d. glycogen
41. Arctic foxes typically have a white coat in the winter. In summer, when there is no snow on the
ground, the foxes typically have a darker coat. Which of the following is most likely responsible
for the seasonal change in coat color?
a. The decrease in the amount of daylight in winter causes a change in gene expression, which
results in the foxes growing a lighter appearing coat.
b. The diet of the foxes in summer lacks a particular nutrient, which causes the foxes to lose
their white coat and grow a darker colored coat.
c. Competition for mates in the spring causes each fox to increase its camouflage with the
environment by producing a darker appearing coat.
d. The lower temperatures in winter denature the pigment molecules in the arctic fox coat,
causing the coat to become lighter in color.
42. Which is assortative mating?
a. When individuals mate with those who are similar to themselves
b. When individuals mate with those who are dissimilar to themselves
c. When individuals mate with those who are the most fit in the population
d. When individuals mate with those who are least fit in the population
43. Lipases break down _____.
a. Cellulose
b. Disaccharides
c. Lipids
d. Proteins
44. During the systolic phase of the cardiac cycle:
a. Filling with blood
b. Relaxing
c. Contracting and relaxing
d. Contracting
45. Which of the following will NOT facilitate the transfer of oxygen?
a. Decreased body temperature
b. Decreased pH of the blood
c. Increased carbon dioxide
d. Increased exercise
46. During which geological period did the greatest diversification of life on earth occur?
a. Jurassic
b. Permian
c. Cambrian
d. Ordovician
47. Which phylogenetic model how all organisms evolve?
a. Tree of life
b. Ring of life
c. Web of life
d. Network model
48. DNA double helix does not have the following?
a. Complementary base pairing
b. Antiparallel configuration
c. Major and minor grooves
d. Uracil
49. An agronomist work on:
a. Supporting crop growth
b. Natural beauty
c. Acting as a later for the hydraulic cycle
50. Which cannot be solved with transgenic techniques?
a. Crops are killed by a virus
b. Public concern about safety of synthetic pesticides
c. Public preference for organic vegetables
d. Crops are damaged by frost
51. A sudden major climatic change would result in:
a. a rapid increase in extinction rates
b. plants and animals developing new characteristics in order to cope with environmental
changes
c. a rapid increase in adaptive radiation
d. an increase in mutation rates
e. a sharp increase in numbers of species
52. Method for transformation of plants is
a. None of these
b. Protoplast method
c. Agrobacterium mediated transformation
d. Microinjection
53. All the individuals of a species that live in a particular area are called a
a. Population
b. Variation
c. Group
d. Fossil
54. What was lacking in Darwin’s theory of natural selection?
a. Accurate mechanisms about genetic inheritance were not known during Darwin’s time
b. Darwin’s initial overemphasis of the significance of genetic drift
c. Darwin’s failure to recognize the tendency for organisms to over-reproduce
d. The absence of accurate descriptions of the embryological development of most plants and
animals
e. The absence of biochemical techniques to determine the genetic similarities between
species
55. The thread-like structures that exist in pairs and carry genes are called
a. Meiosis
b. Mitosis
c. Gametes
d. Chromosomes
56. A tadpole becomes an adult frog by the visual disappearance of the tail. How?
a. Bilateral division of the tail and fusion with the developing hind limbs
b. Shedding of the tail to conserve energy
c. Cells of the tail dying and the nutrients being absorbed and reused by the body
d. Individual cells of the tail migrating to the developing gonads
57. The controversy regarding the use of Bt corn:
a. Is potentially harmful to monarch butterflies and is a potential allergen to humans
b. Can contaminate groundwater
c. Is a potential allergen to humans
d. Is potentially harmful to march butterflies
58. During the embryonic development, cell layers develop during?
a. The germ layer stage
b. The gastrula stage
c. The organogenesis stage
 d. The blastula stage
59. What type of data is used to determine the existence of early animals?
a. Embryological development data
b. Morphological data
c. Molecular data
d. Fossil data
60. Which is not a feature common to animals?
a. Specialized tissues
b. Heterotrophic nutrient sourcing
c. Asexual reproduction
d. Development into a fixed body plan
61. Example of a fermented food:
a. Toffee
b. Cheese
c. Applesauce
d. bologna
62. The technique used to practice water conservation:
a. Greenscaping
b. Hardscaping
c. Xeriscaping
d. landscaping
63. DNA molecule that is distinct from the chromosome; this molecule can be used to move foreign
DNA in or out of a cell:
a. Plasmodic membrane
b. Plasma membrane
c. Plasmid
d. Plasma
64. If DNA of a particular species was analyzed an it was found that it contains 27 percent A, what
would be the percentage of C?
a. 30 percent
b. 27 percent
c. 23 percent
d. 54 percent
65. In a _____ protocol, bioengineered bacteria have the capacity to detoxify pollutants from a
specified area.
a. Rhizosecretion
b. Microcosm establishment
c. Mibridization
d. bioremediation
66. Which is not a way of life of the ancient man?
a. Nomadic lifestyle
b. Hunter and gatherer
c. City-dwelling
d. Settlements along the bodies of water
67. Which detoxifies herbicide phosphinothricin?
a. All of these
b. Phosphinothricin acetyl transferase
c. Nitrilase
d. Glutathione S-transferase (GST)
68. A small portion of a population that is isolated from the rest of the population may undergo:
a. Mutation rate
b. Natural selection
c. Genetic variation
d. Genetic drift
69. Which information was most important to the development of genetic engineering techniques?
a. The formulation of Punnett squares
b. The discovery of lethal genes
c. The observation of non-dominant alleles
d. The structure of a DNA molecule
70. In the modern phylogenetic tree of animals, which is not a clade?
a. Deuterostomes
b. Lophotrochozoans
c. Parazoa
d. Bilatera
71. Corn and cotton, genetically modified to contain the BT toxin gene,
a. Decrease crop yields
b. Are resistant to Round-Up herbicide
c. Reduce the use of pesticides
d. Are generally less expensive than non-Bt crops
72. Which statement is true?
a. A virion contains DNA and RNA.
b. Viruses replicate outside the cell
c. Viruses are acellular
d. Most viruses are easily visualized with a light microscope
73. Gene therapy can be used to introduce foreign DNA into cells _____.
a. For molecular cloning
b. By PCR
c. All of these
d. Of tissues to cure inheritable disease
74. After several general generations, a termite population consists mostly of darkly colored as
protection from predators. Why?
a. Natural selection
b. Artificial selection
c. Adaptive radiation
d. The evolution of a new species
75. Which of the following is the energy source of all life on earth?
a. The ocean current
b. The wind
 c. The sun
d. The landmass
76. Which of the following organism is a diploblast?
a. Jellyfish
b. Insect
c. Shrimp
d. Sea star
77. Genomics can be used on a personal level to:
a. Determine the risks of genetic diseases for an individual’s children
b. Decrease transplant rejection
c. All of these
d. Predict genetic diseases that a person may have inherited
78. GMOs are created by _____.
a. Generating genomic DNA fragments with restriction endonucleases
b. Overexpressing proteins in E. coli.
c. All of these
d. Introducing recombinant DNA into an organism by any means
79. Genetic recombination occurs by which process?
a. Independent assortment
b. Sister chromatids
c. Crossing over
d. Chromosome segregation
80. Linkage analysis ____.
a. Involves breaking and re-joining of DNA artificially
b. Requires radiation hybrid mapping
c. Is based on the natural recombination process
d. Is used to create a physical map
81. What is meant by ‘organ culture’?
a. Cultivation of organs in a laboratory through the synthesis of tissues
b. The aspects of culture in community which are mainly dedicated by the need of a specified
organ of the human body
c. Introduction of a new organ in an animal body with a view to create genetic mutation in the
progenies of that animal
d. Maintenance alive of a whole organ, after removal from the organism by partial immersion
in a nutrient fluid
82. Genomics can be used in agriculture to:
a. Improve yield
b. Improve disease resistance
c. Generate new hybrid straings
d. All of these
83. Which of the following is an abiotic component of the biosphere?
a. Ocean
b. Mushrooms
c. Plants
 d. termites
84. Symbiosis between fungi and cyanobacteria?
a. Nitrogen-fixing nodule
b. Lichen
c. Mycorrhizae
d. Epiphyte
85. Which is thought to be the most closely related to the simplest common animal ancestor?
a. Bacterial cells
b. Plants cells
c. Protist cells
d. Fungal cells
86. How many feet below surface sea levels does sunlight reach and until what depth can
photosynthesis happen?
a. 20 feet
b. 10 feet
c. 10000 feet
d. 180-200 feet
87. Sequencing an individual person’s genome
a. Could lead to legal issues regarding discrimination and privacy
b. Could help make informed choices about medical treatment
c. All of these
d. Is currently possible
88. How many mass extinction events are estimated to have occurred?
a. 3
b. 4
c. More than 5
d. 5
89. The time between 542-488 million years ago is called:
a. Silurian period
b. Devonian period
c. Cambrian period
d. Ediacaran period