The document contains multiple choice questions about plant and animal biology concepts. It covers topics like plant reproduction, types of plant tissues, parts of flowers, plant life cycles, fruit anatomy, speciation mechanisms, circulatory and respiratory systems, genetics, evolution, and animal physiology. The questions test knowledge of key terminology and processes in biology.
The document contains multiple choice questions about plant and animal biology concepts. It covers topics like plant reproduction, types of plant tissues, parts of flowers, plant life cycles, fruit anatomy, speciation mechanisms, circulatory and respiratory systems, genetics, evolution, and animal physiology. The questions test knowledge of key terminology and processes in biology.
The document contains multiple choice questions about plant and animal biology concepts. It covers topics like plant reproduction, types of plant tissues, parts of flowers, plant life cycles, fruit anatomy, speciation mechanisms, circulatory and respiratory systems, genetics, evolution, and animal physiology. The questions test knowledge of key terminology and processes in biology.
The document contains multiple choice questions about plant and animal biology concepts. It covers topics like plant reproduction, types of plant tissues, parts of flowers, plant life cycles, fruit anatomy, speciation mechanisms, circulatory and respiratory systems, genetics, evolution, and animal physiology. The questions test knowledge of key terminology and processes in biology.
In a plant's male reproductive organs, development of pollen is in
a. another b. microsporangium c. tapetum d. stamen 2. _____ is a useful method of asexual reproduction for propagating hard-to-root a. budding b. cuttings c. layering d. grafting 3. Plant regions of continuous growth: a. meristematic tissue b. vascular tissue c. permanent tissue d. dermal tissue 4. Stem regions at which leaves are attached: a. internodes b. lenticels c. trichomes d. nodes 5. The pollen lands on which part of the flower? a. stigma b. integument c. ovule d. style 6. Corn develops from a seeding with a single cotyledon and produces monosulcate pollen. It is most likely: a. A eudicot b. A monocot c. A basalangiosperm d. A gymnosperm 7. In either plant or animals reproducing sexually, the embryo developing from a fertilized egg is also known as: a. sepal b. mitosis c. cotyledon d. zygote 8. The stamen’s long stalk supports: a. anther b. filament c. sepal d. stigma 9. The _____ is the outermost covering of a fruit. a. pericarp b. mesocap c. endocap d. exocarp 10. Plant species that complete their life cycle in one season: a. annuals b. polycarpic c. perennials d. biennials 11. What other major structure reduces a plant’s reliance on water for reproduction? a. fruit b. flower c. spore d. pollen 12. The _____ are collectively called the calyx. a. stamens b. petals c. sepals d. tepals 13. The _____ is special because it has a triploid chromosome complement. a. cotyledon b. endosperm c. exocarp d. perisperm 14. Which of the following is most likely to be found in a desert? a. needle-like leaves b. wide,flat leaves that can float c. spines instead of leaves d. broad leaves to capture sunlight 15. What is the term for a fruit that develops from tissues other than the ovary? a. accessory fruit b. simple fruit c. aggregate fruit d. multiple fruit 16. Which components of speciation would be least likely to be a part of punctuated equilibrium? a. a large number of mutations taking place at once b. ongoing gene flow among all individuals c. a change in environmental conditions d. a division of populations 17. Blood travels through which of the following organs? a. liver b. heart c. lungs d. kidney 18. Cardiomyocytes are similar to skeletal muscle because: a. they are used for weight lifting b. they are striated c. they beat involuntarily d. they pulse rhythmically 19. The losses of ozone over Arctic are significantly lower than that over Antarctic because a. Arctic stratosphere warms slower in the spring. b. Concentration of chlorine in the atmosphere over Arctic is less than over Antarctic. c. Freezing of NO2 and CH4 are slower over Arctic than over Antarctic d. Polar vortex over Arctic is not as tight as over Antarctic. 20. Which of selection results in greater genetic variance in a population? a. Directional selection b. Positive frequency-dependent selection c. Diversifying selection d. Stabilizing selection 21. Where does the majority of protein digestion take place? a. Duodenum b. Mouth c. Stomach d. Jejunum 22. One life history trait that is not characteristic of very small sized organisms is a. Short lifespan b. Earlier age at first reproduction c. Delayed age at first reproduction. d. High population growth rate 23. What is the purpose of the circulatory system? a. To supply oxygen to the body b. All of the answers are correct c. To fight germs d. To supply nutrients 24. What is the difference between micro and macroevolution? a. Microevolution describes the evolution of microscopic entities, such as molecules and proteins, while macroevolution describes the evolution of whole organisms. b. Microevolution describes the evolution of organisms in populations, while macroevolution describes the evolution of species over long periods of time. c. Microevolution describes the evolution of organisms over their lifetimes, while macroevolution describes the evolution of organisms over multiple generations. d. Microevolution describes the evolution of small organisms, such as insects, while macroevolution describes the evolution of large organisms, like people and elephants. 25. When closely related individual mate with each other, or inbreed, the offspring are often not as fit as the offspring of two unrelated individuals. Why? a. Close relatives are genetically incompatible b. Inbreeding can bring together rare, deleterious mutations that lead to harmful phenotypes. c. The DNA of close relatives reacts negatively in the offspring. d. Inbreeding causes normally silent alleles to be expressed. 26. Platelet plug formation occurs: a. None of the choices is correct b. When platelets are attracted to a site of blood vessel damage c. When platelets are dispersed through the blood stream d. When large megakaryocytes break up into thousands of smaller fragments 27. Population genetics is the study of: a. The genetic basis of population-wide traits b. Whether traits have a genetic basis c. The degree of inbreeding in a population d. How selective forces change the allelefrequencies in a population over time 28. Similarities in sequence and function of two proteins indicate that they are members of a family that share a common ancestor. If the are from different species, they are called: a. Orthologs b. Homologs c. Proteologs d. Paralogs 29. Which situation would most likely lead to allopatric speciation? a. a mutation causes a new trait to develop. b. Flood causes the formation of a new lake. c. An injury causes an organism to seek out a new food source. d. A storm causes several large trees to fall down. 30. Which description is an example of a phenotype(A)? a. None of these b. A mutation occurred to a flower. c. Most cheetahs live solitary lives. d. A certain duck has a blue beak. 31. Which description is an example of a phenotype(b)? a. Most cheetahs live solitary lives. b. A mutation occurred to a flower. c. Both a certain duck has a blue beak and most cheetahs live solitary lives d. A certain duck has a blue beak 32. Which term is used to describe the continued divergence of species based on the low fitness of hybrid offspring? a. Stability b. Punctuated equilibrium c. Fusion d. Reinforcement 33. Allergy to pollen is: a. Immunodeficiency b. Immediate hypersensitivity c. An autoimmune reaction d. Delayed hypersensitivity 34. The total lung capacity: a. Expiratory reserve volume + tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume b. Residual volume + tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume c. Residual volume + expiratory reserve volume + tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume d. Residual volume + expiratory reserve volume + inspiratory reserve volume 35. Which reproductive combination produces hybrids? a. When offspring of the same parents reproduce b. When members of closely related species reproduce c. When any two individuals sharing the same habitat reproduce d. When individuals of the same species in different geographical areas reproduce 36. BUN is ____. a. An indicator of blood pressure b. An indicator of blood volume c. Blood uric acid nitrogen d. Blood urea nitrogen 37. The red blood cells of birds differ from mammalian red blood cell because: a. The fight disease b. The are white and have nuclei c. The have nuclei d. The do not have nuclei 38. High blood pressure is: a. a low cardiac output and low peripheral resistance b. a low cardiac output and high peripheral resistance c. a high cardiac output and low peripheral resistance d. a high cardiac output and high peripheral resistance 39. Cells in a hypertonic solution: a. Stay the same size due to water moving into and out of the cell at the same rate b. Swell due to water gain c. Shrink due to water loss d. None of the choices is correct 40. Excess glucose is stored as _____. a. It is not stored in the body b. Fat c. Glucagon d. glycogen 41. Arctic foxes typically have a white coat in the winter. In summer, when there is no snow on the ground, the foxes typically have a darker coat. Which of the following is most likely responsible for the seasonal change in coat color? a. The decrease in the amount of daylight in winter causes a change in gene expression, which results in the foxes growing a lighter appearing coat. b. The diet of the foxes in summer lacks a particular nutrient, which causes the foxes to lose their white coat and grow a darker colored coat. c. Competition for mates in the spring causes each fox to increase its camouflage with the environment by producing a darker appearing coat. d. The lower temperatures in winter denature the pigment molecules in the arctic fox coat, causing the coat to become lighter in color. 42. Which is assortative mating? a. When individuals mate with those who are similar to themselves b. When individuals mate with those who are dissimilar to themselves c. When individuals mate with those who are the most fit in the population d. When individuals mate with those who are least fit in the population 43. Lipases break down _____. a. Cellulose b. Disaccharides c. Lipids d. Proteins 44. During the systolic phase of the cardiac cycle: a. Filling with blood b. Relaxing c. Contracting and relaxing d. Contracting 45. Which of the following will NOT facilitate the transfer of oxygen? a. Decreased body temperature b. Decreased pH of the blood c. Increased carbon dioxide d. Increased exercise 46. During which geological period did the greatest diversification of life on earth occur? a. Jurassic b. Permian c. Cambrian d. Ordovician 47. Which phylogenetic model how all organisms evolve? a. Tree of life b. Ring of life c. Web of life d. Network model 48. DNA double helix does not have the following? a. Complementary base pairing b. Antiparallel configuration c. Major and minor grooves d. Uracil 49. An agronomist work on: a. Supporting crop growth b. Natural beauty c. Acting as a later for the hydraulic cycle 50. Which cannot be solved with transgenic techniques? a. Crops are killed by a virus b. Public concern about safety of synthetic pesticides c. Public preference for organic vegetables d. Crops are damaged by frost 51. A sudden major climatic change would result in: a. a rapid increase in extinction rates b. plants and animals developing new characteristics in order to cope with environmental changes c. a rapid increase in adaptive radiation d. an increase in mutation rates e. a sharp increase in numbers of species 52. Method for transformation of plants is a. None of these b. Protoplast method c. Agrobacterium mediated transformation d. Microinjection 53. All the individuals of a species that live in a particular area are called a a. Population b. Variation c. Group d. Fossil 54. What was lacking in Darwin’s theory of natural selection? a. Accurate mechanisms about genetic inheritance were not known during Darwin’s time b. Darwin’s initial overemphasis of the significance of genetic drift c. Darwin’s failure to recognize the tendency for organisms to over-reproduce d. The absence of accurate descriptions of the embryological development of most plants and animals e. The absence of biochemical techniques to determine the genetic similarities between species 55. The thread-like structures that exist in pairs and carry genes are called a. Meiosis b. Mitosis c. Gametes d. Chromosomes 56. A tadpole becomes an adult frog by the visual disappearance of the tail. How? a. Bilateral division of the tail and fusion with the developing hind limbs b. Shedding of the tail to conserve energy c. Cells of the tail dying and the nutrients being absorbed and reused by the body d. Individual cells of the tail migrating to the developing gonads 57. The controversy regarding the use of Bt corn: a. Is potentially harmful to monarch butterflies and is a potential allergen to humans b. Can contaminate groundwater c. Is a potential allergen to humans d. Is potentially harmful to march butterflies 58. During the embryonic development, cell layers develop during? a. The germ layer stage b. The gastrula stage c. The organogenesis stage d. The blastula stage 59. What type of data is used to determine the existence of early animals? a. Embryological development data b. Morphological data c. Molecular data d. Fossil data 60. Which is not a feature common to animals? a. Specialized tissues b. Heterotrophic nutrient sourcing c. Asexual reproduction d. Development into a fixed body plan 61. Example of a fermented food: a. Toffee b. Cheese c. Applesauce d. bologna 62. The technique used to practice water conservation: a. Greenscaping b. Hardscaping c. Xeriscaping d. landscaping 63. DNA molecule that is distinct from the chromosome; this molecule can be used to move foreign DNA in or out of a cell: a. Plasmodic membrane b. Plasma membrane c. Plasmid d. Plasma 64. If DNA of a particular species was analyzed an it was found that it contains 27 percent A, what would be the percentage of C? a. 30 percent b. 27 percent c. 23 percent d. 54 percent 65. In a _____ protocol, bioengineered bacteria have the capacity to detoxify pollutants from a specified area. a. Rhizosecretion b. Microcosm establishment c. Mibridization d. bioremediation 66. Which is not a way of life of the ancient man? a. Nomadic lifestyle b. Hunter and gatherer c. City-dwelling d. Settlements along the bodies of water 67. Which detoxifies herbicide phosphinothricin? a. All of these b. Phosphinothricin acetyl transferase c. Nitrilase d. Glutathione S-transferase (GST) 68. A small portion of a population that is isolated from the rest of the population may undergo: a. Mutation rate b. Natural selection c. Genetic variation d. Genetic drift 69. Which information was most important to the development of genetic engineering techniques? a. The formulation of Punnett squares b. The discovery of lethal genes c. The observation of non-dominant alleles d. The structure of a DNA molecule 70. In the modern phylogenetic tree of animals, which is not a clade? a. Deuterostomes b. Lophotrochozoans c. Parazoa d. Bilatera 71. Corn and cotton, genetically modified to contain the BT toxin gene, a. Decrease crop yields b. Are resistant to Round-Up herbicide c. Reduce the use of pesticides d. Are generally less expensive than non-Bt crops 72. Which statement is true? a. A virion contains DNA and RNA. b. Viruses replicate outside the cell c. Viruses are acellular d. Most viruses are easily visualized with a light microscope 73. Gene therapy can be used to introduce foreign DNA into cells _____. a. For molecular cloning b. By PCR c. All of these d. Of tissues to cure inheritable disease 74. After several general generations, a termite population consists mostly of darkly colored as protection from predators. Why? a. Natural selection b. Artificial selection c. Adaptive radiation d. The evolution of a new species 75. Which of the following is the energy source of all life on earth? a. The ocean current b. The wind c. The sun d. The landmass 76. Which of the following organism is a diploblast? a. Jellyfish b. Insect c. Shrimp d. Sea star 77. Genomics can be used on a personal level to: a. Determine the risks of genetic diseases for an individual’s children b. Decrease transplant rejection c. All of these d. Predict genetic diseases that a person may have inherited 78. GMOs are created by _____. a. Generating genomic DNA fragments with restriction endonucleases b. Overexpressing proteins in E. coli. c. All of these d. Introducing recombinant DNA into an organism by any means 79. Genetic recombination occurs by which process? a. Independent assortment b. Sister chromatids c. Crossing over d. Chromosome segregation 80. Linkage analysis ____. a. Involves breaking and re-joining of DNA artificially b. Requires radiation hybrid mapping c. Is based on the natural recombination process d. Is used to create a physical map 81. What is meant by ‘organ culture’? a. Cultivation of organs in a laboratory through the synthesis of tissues b. The aspects of culture in community which are mainly dedicated by the need of a specified organ of the human body c. Introduction of a new organ in an animal body with a view to create genetic mutation in the progenies of that animal d. Maintenance alive of a whole organ, after removal from the organism by partial immersion in a nutrient fluid 82. Genomics can be used in agriculture to: a. Improve yield b. Improve disease resistance c. Generate new hybrid straings d. All of these 83. Which of the following is an abiotic component of the biosphere? a. Ocean b. Mushrooms c. Plants d. termites 84. Symbiosis between fungi and cyanobacteria? a. Nitrogen-fixing nodule b. Lichen c. Mycorrhizae d. Epiphyte 85. Which is thought to be the most closely related to the simplest common animal ancestor? a. Bacterial cells b. Plants cells c. Protist cells d. Fungal cells 86. How many feet below surface sea levels does sunlight reach and until what depth can photosynthesis happen? a. 20 feet b. 10 feet c. 10000 feet d. 180-200 feet 87. Sequencing an individual person’s genome a. Could lead to legal issues regarding discrimination and privacy b. Could help make informed choices about medical treatment c. All of these d. Is currently possible 88. How many mass extinction events are estimated to have occurred? a. 3 b. 4 c. More than 5 d. 5 89. The time between 542-488 million years ago is called: a. Silurian period b. Devonian period c. Cambrian period d. Ediacaran period