MDS-6-Mock-exam-QAE - Unlocked FINAL

MEDICAL ENTRANCE NEPAL
(MDS-6 ) MODEL TEST EXAM

https://pailaa.app/QUIZ/
Time: 3 Hours Full marks: 200

Recall: Understanding : Application = 30: 50: 20
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SET -2 MCQS:
1 / 200
Parotid duct opens into :
a. Upper 1st molar
b. Upper 2nd molar
c. Lower 1st molar
d. Lower 2nd molar

The correct answer is B
Upper 2nd molar
Parotid gland : A salivary gland in the retromandibular fissure that secretes saliva, the
duct opens in the mouth of the level of the upper second molar tooth. Arterial supply
: ECA Venous drainage : External jugular vein Nerve supply : Facial nerve divides
inside the parotid gland into five branches :temporal,zygomatic,buccal, mandibular
and cervical
2 / 200
Muscle which helps to open eustachian tube while sneezing is :
a. Levator veli palatini
b. Tensor veli palatine
c. Both a and b
NEPAL MEDICAL ENTRANCE NEPAL
d. None of the above

The correct answer is C
Both a and b .
Eustachian tube connects middle ear with the nasopharynx. Equalizes pressure on
both sides of the tympanic membrane . Muscles that open auditory tube while
swallowing , yawning and sneezing are levator veli palatini and Tensor veli palatine.
3 / 200
The right gastroepiploic artery is a branch of the :
a. Left gastric artery
b. Right gastric artery
c. Splenic artery
d. Gastroduodenal artery
The correct answer is D
Gastroduodenal artery
The right gastroepiploic artery (or right gastro-omental artery) is one of the two
terminal
branches of the gastroduodenal artery. It runs from right to left along the greater
curvature of the stomach, between the layers of the greater omentum,
anastomosing with the left gastroepiploic artery, a branch of the splenic artery.
4 / 200
Lanz incision is given for:
a. Gall bladder
b. Appendicitis
c. Thyroglossal cyst
d. Stomach
Appendicitis Lanz incision is a specific type of abdominal incision. It is sited in the
right iliac fossa. Compared to McBurney's incision: it is more transverse in
orientation. it generally extends more medially towards rectus abdominis. Kocher's
incision is given to approach cholelithiasis. Sistrunk's operation for thyroglosaal cyst.
5 / 200
Alveoli of lung is lined by :
a. Squamous epithelium
b. Columnar epithelium
c. Cuboidal epithelium
d. Transitional epithelium
The correct answer is A
Squamous epithelium
Squamous epithelium is found in : Free surface of serous

pericardium,pleura,endocardium,(lining of inside of heart ) endothelium(lining of
blood vessels ),some parts of renal tubule
6 / 200
Which is most essential fatty acid:
a. Palmitic acid
b. Linolenic acid
c. Linoleic acid
d. Arachidonic acid
Linoleic acid
Only two fatty acids are known to be essential for humans:
alpha-linolenic acid (an omega-3 fatty acid) and linoleic acid (an
omega-6 fatty acid)
7 / 200
Which of the following is ketose sugar :
a. Glucose
b. Mannose
c. Fructose
d. Glyceraldehyde
Fructose
Fructose is classified as a monosaccharide, the most important ketose
sugar, a hexose, and is a reducing sugar.
8 / 200
In brain ammonia is detoxified to :
a. Glutamine
b. Urea
c. Uric acid
d. Glutathione
Glutamine
Hyperammonemia is a major etiological toxic factor in the development of hepatic
encephalopathy. Brain ammonia detoxification occurs primarily in astrocytes by
glutamine
synthetase (GS), and it has been proposed that elevated glutamine levels during
hyperammonemia lead to astrocyte swelling and cerebral edema.
9 / 200
Arginine used in urea cycle is found in :
a. Brain
b. Liver
c. Kidney
d. Intestine
liver
Arginine, also known as l-arginine , is an α-amino acid that is used in the biosynthesis
of proteins. It contains an α-amino group, an α-carboxylic acid group, and a side
chain consisting of a 3-carbon aliphatic straight chain ending in a guanidino group.It
is found in liver.
10 / 200
All are glycoproteins except :
a. HCG
b. Immunoglobulin
c. Complements
d. Albumin

Albumin
Glycoproteins are proteins which contain oligosaccharide chains (glycans) covalently
attached to amino acid side-chains. The carbohydrate is attached to the protein in a
cotranslational or posttranslational modification. This process is known as
glycosylation. Secreted extracellular proteins are often glycosylated.
Albumin is a simple protein,which upon hydrolysis yields only amino acids.
11 / 200
The most sensitive test for H.Pylori is :
a. Culture of biopsy
b. Microscopy of biopsy
c. Rapid urease test
d. Breath test
Rapid urease test
The rapid urease test (RUT) is a popular diagnostic test in that it is a rapid, cheap and
simple test that detects the presence of urease in or on the gastric mucosa. The
sensitivity and specificity are generally high and many versions have been approved
for use in humans. Best results are obtained if biopsies are obtained from both the
antrum and corpus.
12 / 200
Interferon gamma secreted by:
a. Activated T-cell
b. CD 8 cells
c. RBC
d. Neutrophils
Activated T- cell
13 / 200
Epidemiological marker of Hepatitis B is :
a. Core antigen
b. Core antibody
c. HBsAg
d. HBeAg
HBsAg
HBsAg is the principle epidemiological marker of Hepatitis B.
14 / 200
DNA is detected by :
a. Eastern blot
b. Western blot
c. Northern blot
d. Southern blot
Southern blot
NOTE : BLOTTING TECHNIQUE
Identification of RNA : Northern blot
Identification of Proteins : Western blot
15 / 200
Complete healing of heart in MI occurs in :
a. 1 wwks
b. 3 weeks
c. 7 weeks
d. 15 weeks
7 weeks
Healing completes after 6 weeks.
16 / 200
In Marfan's syndrome,aortic aneurysm occurs at :
a. Abdominal aorta
b. Ascending aorta
c. Descending aorta
d. Arch of aorta
Ascending aorta
Marfan syndrome (MFS) is a genetic disorder that affects the
connective tissue. Those with the condition tend to be tall and thin,
with long arms, legs, fingers, and toes. They also typically have overly-
flexible joints and scoliosis.
Aortic aneurysm is specifically present in ascending aorta in Marfan's syndrome.
17 / 200
Which of the following is not the component of tetralogy of fallot ?
a. Atrial septal defect

b. Obstruction of right ventricular outflow
c. Overriding of aorta
d. Right ventricular hypertrophy
Atrial septal defect

Tetralogy of Fallot is a combination of four congenital abnormalities. The four defects
include a ventricular septal defect (VSD), pulmonary valve stenosis, a misplaced aorta
and a thickened right ventricular wall (right ventricular hypertrophy.
ASD is included in pentalogy of fallot.
18 / 200
Skip lesions are seen in :

d. Amoebic colitis
a.Crohn's disease
b. Tuberculous colitis
c. Ulcerative colitis
Crohn's disease
19 / 200
Hypertensive bleed occurs most commonly in :
a. Putamen
b.Thalamus
c. Cerebellum
d. Pons
Putamen
Intracerebral hemorrhage (ICH) is caused by bleeding within the brain tissue itself
— a lifethreatening type of stroke. A stroke occurs when the brain is deprived of
oxygen and blood supply. ICH is most commonly caused by hypertension,
arteriovenous malformations, or head trauma.
Hypertensive bleed most commonly occurs in basal ganglia specifically putamen.
20 / 200
Which of the following NSAIDs is cox-2 inhibitor drug?
a. Aspirin
b. Ibuprofen
c. Indomethacin
d. Celecoxib
CLASSIFICATION:
A. Nonselective COX inhibitors (traditional NSAIDs) 1. Salicylates: Aspirin.

2. Propionic acid derivatives: Ibuprofen, Naproxen, Ketoprofen, Flurbiprofen.
3. Fenamate: Mephenamic acid.
4. Enolic acid derivatives: Piroxicam, Tenoxicam.
5. Acetic acid derivatives: Ketorolac, Indomethacin, Nabumetone.
6. Pyrazolone derivatives: Phenylbutazone, Oxyphenbutazone.
B. Preferential COX-2 inhibitors: Nimesulide, Diclofenac, Aceclofenac, Meloxicam,

Etodolac.
C. Selective COX-2 inhibitors: Celecoxib, Etoricoxib, Parecoxib.
D. Analgesic-antipyretics with poor antI inflammatory action

1. Paraaminophenol derivative: Paracetamol (Acetaminophen).
2. Pyrazolone derivatives: Metamizol (Dipyrone), Propiphenazone.
3. Benzoxazocine derivative: Nefopam
21 / 200
Which of the following act against blood schizont (erythrocyte ):
a. Chloroquine
b. Primaquine
c. Pyrimethamine
Chloroquine
NOTE : Drugs used in treatment of malaria
Blood schizonts : Chloroquine,Quinine Liver hypnozoites,Radical cure : Primaquine
Gametocytes: Pyrimethamine
22 / 200
In a woman with hypothyrodism, the dose
a. Pregnancy
b. Cirrhosis
c. Phenythoin
d. Androgen therapy
Androgen therapy
In a woman with hypothyroidism, the thyroxine dose requirement for thyroid
hormone replacement is decreased with ageing and andogen therapy. A reduction in
replacement dosage may be required in women who are receiving androgen therapy
for adjuvant treatment of breast carcinoma. Conditions like cirrhosis (may block
deiodinase synthesis), pregnancy and therapy with drugs like phenytoin ( increase
cytochrome P450 enzyme) & Cholestyramine (that interfere with
Levothyroxine absorption) all increase the requirement of thyroxine
23 / 200
All of the following drugs can be used in bronchial asthma except :
a. Salbutamol
b. Theophylline
c. Sodiumcromoglycate
d. Propanolol
Propanolol
Propanolol is a non-selective beta blocker . Beta 2 blocking may exacerbate shortness

of breathe by causing bronchoconstriction.
Contraindication of bete-blocker : Asthma, COPD,Heart block,Hyperkalemia
24 / 200
A 3-year old children presented to OPD with the symptoms of influenza.Aspirin is

contraindicated in this patient because of increased risk of :
a. Thrombocytopenia
b. Gastric bleeding
c. Reye's syndrome
d. Fanconi syndrome
Reye's syndrome
Reye's syndrome : Loss of consciousnes and seizures in kids, after a
viral infection treated by aspirin.
It is a rare disorder that causes brain and liver damage with swelling.
25 / 200
The smallest cranial nerve is :
a. Olfactory
b. Optic
c. Occulomotor
d. Trochlear
Trochlear .
The trochlear nerve, also called the fourth cranial nerve or CN IV, is a motor nerve (a
somatic efferent nerve) that innervates only a single muscle: the superior oblique
muscle of the eye, which operates through the pulley-like trochlea.
It is the smallest cranial nerve.
26 / 200
Deficiency of which factor cause abnormality of extrinsic pathway:
a. Factor Xi
b. Factor XII
c.Factor VII
d. Factor IX
Factor VII
Factor VII is included in the extrinsic pathway of coagulation.
27 / 200
Stain used to diagnose amyloidosis is :
a.Methylene blue
b. Acid fast stain
c. Rose bengal
d. Congo red
Congo red
In histology and microscopy, Congo red is used for staining in amyloidosis, and for
the cell walls of plants and fungi, and for the outer membrane of Gram-negative
bacteria. Apple-green birefringence of Congo red stained preparations under
polarized light is indicative of the presence of amyloid fibrils.
28 / 200
Antiperistalsis is normally present in :
a. Colon
b.Jejunum
c. Duodenum
d.Ileum
Colon
Peristalsis is the downward wave-like movements of smooth muscles of the GI tracts

that propels
food bolus from mouth to GI tract. Antiperistalsis is the upward or backward
wave-like movements of smooth muscle that propels food from stomach to
mouth against the normal process.
In proximal colon or ascending colon, material entering into the
large intestine from ileum tends to pool and remain in the ceacum
and ascending colon where there seem to be recirculation and
mixing. This is in part, the result of retrograde peristalic
contraction or antiperistalsis in proximal colon
29 / 200
"Phantom limb " phenomenon can be described by :
a. Webber Fechner Law

b. Power Law
c. Bell Magendie Law
d. Law of projection
law of projection
A phantom limb is the sensation that an amputated or missing limb is still attached.
Approximately 80 to 100% of individuals with an amputation
experience phantom sensations in their amputated limb. However,
only a small percentage will experience painful phantom limb
sensation.
Law of projection: no matter where a particular sensory pathway is stimulated along

its course
to cortex, conscious sensation produced is referred to the location of the receptor. It

is seen in amputees.
30 / 200
Fungal infection of human beings is called as:
Mucorsis
Mycosis
Fungosis
Micromia
31 / 200
Each of the following statements about local anesthesia is correct except:

A. Lignocaine causes cardiac dysarrythmias

B. Prilocaine is more toxic than lignocaine
C. Prilocaine and lignocaine are components of EMLA (eutectic mixture of local
anesthesia)
D. Bupivacaine is given for obstetric epidural anesthesia
Ref: Miller's anaesthesia 3rd/463.456. MalamedHandbook of local anesthesia
4th/61,288,289.
32 / 200
The sudden appearance of a “Dumb-bell" swelling after the administration of PSA
block is due to penetration in:
A. Maxillary artery
B. Pterygoid plexus of veins
C. Greater palatine artery
D. Sphenopalatine artery
Complications of PSA Nerve Block

1. Haematoma:
a. This is commonly produced by inserting the needle too far into the pterygoid
plexus of veins. Additionally, the maxillary artery may be perforated.
Use of short needles minimizes the risk of pterygoid plexus puncture.
b. A visible haematoma develops within several minutes, usually noted in the buccal
tissues to the mandibular region.
c. Mandibular anaesthesia: The mandibular division of 5th cranial nerve is located
lateral to the PSA nerve. Deposition of LA Interal to the desired location can
produce varying degree of mandibular anaesthesia.
33 / 200
During general anesthesia, shivering is abolished by suppression of
a. Medulla
b. Cerebral cortex
c. Hypothalamus
d. Thalamus
Hypothalamus
The posterior hypothalamus, in response to Input from the anterior hypothalamus,

conserves heat by inducing shivering and vasoconstriction and controls heat
dissipationby inducing vasodilation and sweating. Hence shivering can be abolished
by the suppression of hypothalamus
34 / 200
"Ceiling effect" is seen with
a. Pethidine
b. Buprenorphine
c. Fentany
d. Morphine
Buprenorphine
Buprenorphine is a long-acting, synthetic thebaine derivative
which has agbnist/antagonist prpperties. The respiratory
depression shows a ceiling effect and apnea or respiratory rate
below 4 per minute is very unlikely to occur.
35 / 200
The muscle relaxant effect of succinylcholine last for:
a. 1 minute
b. 2 minutes
c. 3-5 minutes
d. 10 minutes
3-5 minutes
Succinylcholine is a drug used for Its neuromuscular blocking effect. It is used as an
adjuvant in surgical anesthesia, and to prevent trauma in electroconvulsive shock
therapy. Mode of action is by persistent depolarization.
Dose is 1 mg/kg (2-3mg/kg in neonates). Onset of action is in 10 to 30
seconds and lasts for 1-5 minutes.
36 / 200
Cohesion of gold foil is an example of:
a) Atomic attraction and welding

b) Annealing
c) Wedging
d) Adaptation
Cohesion of gold foil results from metallic bonding and cold welding of
increments. Cold welding refers to welding of increments together under
pressure at mouth temperature rather than by melting. Ref:- [PHILLIPS' 11th ed
547/ 12th ed 414]
37 / 200
The largest component of amalgam alloy is:
a) Silver
b) Tin
c) Zinc
d) Copper
Ref:- [PHILLIPS' 11th ed 496/ 12th ed 342]
38 / 200
The main advantage of composites over unfilled direct filling resin is their:
a) Higher solubility in saliva

b) Lower modulus of elasticity
c) Esthetic excellence
d) Lower thermal co-efficient of expansion
Advantages of composites (filled resins) over unfilled resins are lower co-efficient of
thermal expansion, low polymerization shrinkage, low water absorption and high
abrasive resistance.
On the other hand, composites have less colour stability and do not take the smooth
finish as that of unfilled resins. Ref:-[PHILLIPS' 11th ed 400/ 12th ed 277]
39 / 200
The setting expansion of gypsum products can be reduced by:
a) Increased spatulation
b) Adding potassium sulfate
c) Less water powder ratio
d) Allowing setting under water
Factors causing increase in setting expansion:

• Less water powder ratio
• Allowing setting under water
• Increased rate of spatulation
• a.-hemihydrate
• Fine or smaller silica particles
Factors causing decrease in setting expansion

• More W/P ratio
• Addition of modifiers like K2504 , Nacl, borax.
• f3-hemihydrate
• Reduced spatulation
40 / 200
All of the following statements about an alginate impression are true EXCEPT
a) It should be rapidly displaced from the mouth

b) It may exhibit fluid exudates on the surface as a result of im bibition of water
c) It will take up water and expand if kept wet
d) It will shrink as a result of syneresis
Fluid exuded from the impression seen as droplets on surface are called syneresis
whereas absorption of water by the impression when placed in water is called
Imbibition.
41 / 200
Mesiodistal posterior space for a single tooth implant should be atleast:
a. 4 mm
b. 5 mm
c. 5.5 mm
d. 6.5 mm
It should be 6. 5 or greater.
Ref.: Contemporary Implant Dentistry, Carl E. Misch, 3rd edition, page 334.
42 / 200
Minimum recommended height of an implant is:
a. 12 mm
b. 9 mm
c. 6 mm
d. 11 mm
9 mm with greater
diameter and
enhanced surface
area is
recommended for
the reduced length.
43 / 200
In general the extent of cantilever placed in implant supported prosthesis should

be:
a. Equal to the distance between the implants.

b. More than the distance between the implants.
c. Always extend distally.
d. Length of the cantilever is unrelated to the force placed on it. The correct answer
is A
Equal to the distance between

the implants. This is to keep mechanical advantage of l. Greater than 1 increase the
tensile load on the abutments. Both anterior and posterior cantilever can be
planned.
Ref.: Contemporary Implant Dentistry, Carl E. Misch, 3rd edition, page 601.
44 / 200
The most ideal posterior tooth to replace with an implant is:
a. First premolar
b. Second premolar
c. First molar
d. Second molar
First premolar the vertical available bone is greater in the first premolar locations
than in any other posterior tooth positions the bone trajectory for implant insertion
is more favorable in the mandibular first premolar than for any other tooth in the
arch.
Ref.: Contemporary Implant Dentistry, Carl E. Miscli, 3rd edition, page 601.
45 / 200
The primary reason for placing the implant at or below the crestal bone region is
to:
a. To minimize the implant overload

b. Decrease the risk of implant movement during intial bone healing
c. To decrease the shear forces
d. To decrease the plaque retention
Decrease the risk of implant movement during intial bone healing
Ref: Conternporary Implant Dentistry Carl Car E. Misch, 3rd, edition 74.
46 / 200
The most commonly used test for comparing frequencies or proportion is:
a. Chi-square test
b. F test
c. Student t test
d. Z test
Chi-square test.
47 / 200
Which of the following is a primary level of the services provided by dental

professional:
a. Patient education
b. Minor orthodontics
c. Fixed removable prosthesis
d. All of the above

Patient. education.
The minor orthodontic is a secondary; level. The fixed I removable prosthesis, speech
therapy, plastic surgery, major ortho are tertiary level of the services provided by the
dental professional.
48 / 200
Which is not true:
a. As the duration of fluoride treatment increases, the amount of fluoride deposited

in enamel increases
b. An increase in temperature of the fluoridetreatment, decreases the amount
offluoride deposited in the enamel
c. Repeated applications of fluoride increases enamel fluoride in an incremental
fashion
d. Mild etching can improve fluoride uptake
Increase in temperature increase fluoride uptake by enamel.
Ref: Essential of Preventive and Communitg
Dentistry, 3rd edition, page 322.
49 / 200
Dietary fluoride supplementation bring an average reduction in caries by:
a. 20-30%
b. 30-40%
c. 50-65%
d. Less than 20%
50-65%
Ref: Essential of Preventive and Community Dentistry, Soben Peter, 3rd edition, page
290.
50 / 200
The maximum prevalence of oral cancer is seen in
a. First two decades of life

b. 3rd and 4th decade of life
c. 5th and 6th decade of life
d. 7th and 8th decade of life
5th and 6th decade of life

Ref.: Essential of Preventive and Community Dentistry, Soben Peter, 3rd edition,
page 453.
51 / 200
Papillary bleeding index was developed by:

a. Muhlemarm HR
b. Greene and vermilion
c. Sillness and Loch
d. Quigley G. and Hein. j
Muhlemann HR
Ref.: Essential of Preventive and Community
Dentistry, Soben Peter, 3rd edition, page 152.
52 / 200
The number of DMF teeth is an example of:
a. Discrete variable
b. Continuous variable
c. Cafegorical variable
d. Qualitative variable
The number of DMF teeth is a discrete variable as it can take on a nite number of
values or a countably innite number (as many as there are whole numbers) of values.
Biostatistics for Oral
Healthcare-Jay S. Kim and Ronald J. Dailey 2008 by Blackwell Munksgaard, page 19.
53 / 200
The epidemic of leukemia cases in Hiroshima following atomic bomb blast is known
as :
a.Point source outbreak

b. Propagated outbreak
c. Intermittent common source outbreak
d. Common source outbreak
Point source outbreak

Point Source Outbreak: Persons are exposed to the same source over a brief time,
such as through a single meal or at an event. The number of cases rises rapidly to a
peak and falls gradually. Most cases occur within one incubation period.A
propagated epidemic occurs when the infection spreads from one person to another,
e.g. through the air, via a vector, via contaminated food or water, or during
unprotected sexual intercourse. A mixed epidemic can start with a common source
and be followed by a propagated spread.
54 / 200
Rule of Halves is seen in :
a. CHD
b. Hypertension
c. Stroke
d. Blindness
Hypertension
The 'rule of halves' for hypertension states that: 'half the people with high blood
pressure are not known (“rule 1”), half of those known are not treated (“rule 2”)
and half of those treated are not controlled (“rule 3”)'. 55 / 200
Measures involved in sentinel surveillance includes all of the following except:
a. Identifying missing cases in notification of diseases

b. Identifying new cases of infection
c. Identifying old and new cases
d. Identifying cases free of disability
Identifying cases free of disability
• Surveillance: Is the ongoing systematic collection and analysis of data
and the provision of information which leads to action being taken to prevent
and control a disease, usually one of an infectious nature
• Surveillance is of many types:
– Passive Surveillance: Data is itself reported to the health system;

For e.g., A patient with fever coming on his own to the PHC, CHC,
Dispensary, Private Practitioner, Hospital
– Active Surveillance: Health system seeks out ‘actively’ the
collection of data, i.e., goes out to community to collect data; For e.g.,
Stool sample collection from home in Polio Program.
– Sentinel Surveillance: Monitoring of rate of occurrence of specific
conditions to assess the stability or change in health levels of a
population, It is also the study of disease rates in a specific cohort,
geographic area, population subgroup, etc. to estimate trends in larger
population; For e.g., Use of health practitioners to monitor trends of a
health event in a population
1. Sentinel Surveillance helps in ‘identifying missing cases’ and ‘supplementing

notified cases
56 / 200
Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to bite marks:
a. The identity of the biter can be determined

b. Bite marks on the skin are bound to be modified by its elasticity when the teeth are
withdrawn
c. Generally it is easier to identify a certain person rather than exclude him totally d.
None of the above
Generally it is easier to
identify a certain
person rather than
exclude him totally
57 / 200
Brush burn is due to :
a. Friction injury
b. Firearm injury
c. Electrical injury
d. Graze abrasion
Graze abrasion
Brush burn is burn caused by friction of a rapidly moving object against the skin or
ground into the skin. A type of mechanical burn caused by rope. Natural fibre rope
tends to cause worse burns.
58 / 200
Battle's sign mean :
a. Hemorrhage around eye

b. Mastoid ecchymosis
c. Anterior cranial fossa fracture
d. Posterior cranial fossa fracture
Mastoid ecchymosis
Battle sign is an eponymous term given to mastoid ecchymosis (bruising of the scalp
overlying the mastoid process) and is strongly suggestive of a base of skull fracture,
most commonly a petrous temporal bone fracture.
59 / 200
Which one is not a name of post mortem color change in dependent parts of body :
a. Postmortem lividity
b. Vibices
c. Suggilations
d. Algor mortis
Algor mortis
Algor mortis (Latin: algor—coldness; mortis—of death), the second stage of death, is
the change
in body temperature post mortem, until the ambient temperature is matched. This is
generally a steady decline, although if the ambient temperature is above the body
temperature (such as in a hot desert), the change in
temperature will be positive, as the (relatively) cooler body acclimates to the warmer
environment. External factors can have a significant influence.
Other are the names synonymous to post mortem color changes
60 / 200
Dichotomy is related to :
a. Splitting of fees
b. Gross negligence
c. Divulging of secret
d. Gross ignorance
Splitting of fees
Dichotomy means fee splitting or bribery or commissioning. Receiving commissions
on referral of a patient to a doctor or forwarding commissions, both are included
under dichotomy
61 / 200
Centric holding cusp is?
a.Mesiobuccal cusp of maxillary 1st molar

b.Mesiolingual cusp of mandibular first molar
c.Distolingual cusp of mandibular 1st molar
d.Mesiopalatal cusp of maxillary 1st molar
Lingual cusps of maxillary posteriors and buccal cusps of mandibular posteriors are
called supporting cusps ( or) functional cusps ( or) holding cusps ( or) stamp cusps
Buccal cusps of maxillary posteriors and lingual cusps of mandibular posteriors are
called nonsupporting cusps (or) guiding cusps In centric occlusion, opposing contact
is expected at the buccal slopes of lingual cusps of maxillary posterior teeth and
lingual slopes of buccal cusps of mandibular posterior teeth.
62 / 200
All are true about the striae of retzius except
a.Constitute the rest lines with in the enamel rods

b.Have high inorganic content
c.They are areas of increased porosity
d.Allow the movement of water and small ions
Ref: [Orban's 11th ed 60/ 12th ed 51/ 13th ed 57]
63 / 200
Dental papilla gives rise to
Pulp only
Pulp & Dentin
Pulp & periodontal ligament
All of the above
The cells of dental papilla will form pulp and dentin and the cells of dental sac will
form cementum and periodontal ligament. Ref: [Orban's 11th ed 34/ 12th ed 25/
13th ed 26]
64 / 200
Roots of primary and secondary teeth are different in that the primary roots are
more divergent and flaring. The other difference:
A. Primary roots show less accessory and lateral canals

B. Primary roots resorb more easily
C. Primary roots are shorter D. None of the above
'A' [Wheeler's 8th ed 70, 71/ 9th ed 4 7, 48]

The roots of deciduous teeth are Longer, slender, more
divergent and flaring with thinning out rapid ly as the apices are approach. The flare
allows more room to accommodate the developing permanent tooth buds.
65 / 200
The curvature of the cervical line of most teeth will be approximately
A. 2 mm less distally than mesially

B. 1 mm less distally than mesially
C. 2 mm less lingually than buccally
D. 1 mm less lingually than buccally
1 mm less lingually than buccally
66 / 200
Dens in dente is more common in:
a. Maxillary central incisors

b. Maxil1ary lateral incisors
c. Mandibular central incisors
d. Mandibular lateral incisors
Maxillary lateral incisors
67 / 200
Alpha phase change of gutta-percha occurs when heated to a temperture of:
a. 42 to 49°C
b. 56 to 62°C
c. 70 to 76°C
d. 80 to 87°C
The correct answer is A.
Gutta percha when heated to temperature of 42 to 49°C, undergo a phase change to

the alpha phase.in this phase it is sticky, runny, tacky. noncompactable and
nonelongatable. At room or body temperature, gutta-percha is in beta phase. In this
beta phase, guttapercha is solid, compactable and elongatable. The third or the
gamma phase of gutta percha is achieved when heated to 56 to 62°C. The properties
of this phase is similar to alpha phase.
Ref.: Endodontic therapy-Weine 6th edition, page 271.
68 / 200
Which of the following is true:
a. Internal resorption is contiguous with thecanal

b. External resorption appears contiguouswith the canal on X-ray examination.
c. The apexiocator accurately differentiate between internal and external resorption.
d. Internal resorption is larger in size thanthe external resorption
Internal resorption is contiguous with the canal
69 / 200
Areas of rarefaction are evident on X-ray examination when:
a. The tooth is responsive to cold.

b. The tooth is responsive to heat.
c. A tooth fracture has been identified.
d. The cortical layer of bone has been eroded.
The cortical layer of bone has been eroded
70 / 200
Gates Glidden drill are used to:
a. Prepare apical portion of the canal

b. Prepare coronal portion of the canal
c. To retrieve gutta percha
d. To make endo-access
Gates glidden drill are used to enlarge the root canal orifices and for the initial
preparation of cervical or coronal part of the root cannal. GG drills may be used to
prepare the coronal third of the root canal. They are best and safely used with a
speed of 750 to 1000 RPM. They are either made of stainless steel or NITI and are
available in various length. Ref.: Pathway of pulp-Stephan Cohen, 8th edition, page
251-52; Endodontics-lngle, 5th edition, page 492.
71 / 200
The method to induce the development of the root apex of an immature pulpless
tooth by the formation of osteocementum or bone like tissue is known as:
a. Apexogenesis
b. Apexification
c. Apicoectomy
Apexification
72 / 200
Which of the following histopathological zone of periapical granuloma is also
known as zone of infection:
Zone of necrosis
a. Zone of contamination
b. Zone of irritation
c. Zone of stimulation
Zone of necrosis. The first histopathological zone or the zone of necrosis is also
known as the zone of infection as this HP zone may contain microorganism or their
product. The 2nd zone is {he zone of contamination or exudative inflammatory zone
which characterizes the exudative defensive response to the consistent periapical
irritation.The third zone is the zone of irritation or proliferative inflammatory
zone.This zone is marked by defensive,healing and reparative reaction.The fourth
zone is zone of stimulation or zone of encapsulation or zone of productive fibrosis.It
characterizes the fibroblastic activity. Reference
Ref: Endodontic therapy-Weine, 6th edition, page 177.
73 / 200
Reddish cauliflower like overgrowth of pulpal tissue is seen in:
a. Internal resprtion
b. External resorption
c. Hyperplastic pulpitis
d. Acute reversible pulpitis
Hyperplastic pulpitis
74 / 200
Characteristic brownish black sherpely delineated rings around the cervical portion
of the tooth are seen in:
a. Tetracycline stains
b. Coffee stains
c. Marijuana stains
d. Minocycline stains
The correct answer is C.
Marijuana stain
75 / 200
A white line or 'halo' at tooth restoration junction is seen in:
a. Conventional cavity prepration design

b. Bevelled conventional cavity prepration design
c. Modified design
d. All the above
Conventional cavity prepration design
76 / 200
Eburnated dentin is also known as:
a. Sclerotic dentin
b. Tertiary dentin
c. Mantle dentin
d.Granular dentin
Sclerotic dentin
77 / 200
The Fosdick caries activity test measures:
a. The rapidity of acid formation from a saliva sample in culture medium

b. The capacity of saliva sample to dissolvepowdered enamel
c. The no of colony forming bacteria insaliva by use of selective culture medium
d. Activity of reductase enzyme from asalivary sample.
The correct answer is B.
Fosdick test measures the capacity of saliva sample to dissolve powdered enamel.
Ref: Sturdevant's Art and Science of Operative
Dentistry-5th edition, page 102.
78 / 200
Enamel cuticle is:
a. Seen in all the primary teeth
b. Seen in 30% of the permanent teeth
c. Seen in 30% of the primary teeth
d. Seen in all the permanent teeth
Seen in all the primary teeth
79 / 200
Porcelain can be etched with:

Hydrofluoric acid
a. Hydrochloric acid
b. Nitric acid
c. Citric acid
Hydrofluoric acid
80 / 200
Elastic modulus is described as:
a. Stiffness or
rigidity of a
material b
Resistance to
elongation
c. Resistance to flow
d. Wear resistance
Stiffness or rigidity of a material Ref: Philips's Science of Dental Material, 11th
edition, page 80.
81 / 200
Which of the following cystic lesion has a frog belly appearance?
a. Mucocele
b. Bohn's nodule
c. Ranula
d. Epstein's pearl
The correct answer is c:
Ranula is a thin walled bluish transparent cyst which in effect is a mucocele

occurring in the floor of the mouth beneath the tongue. It has been likened to a
frog's belly in appearance and hence the name. Ref. : Oral and M axillofacial
Surgery, Vol. 2,
Daniel M. Laskin, page 478.
82 / 200
Which of the following drug can cause false ankylosis?
a. Strychnine poisioning
b. Bismuth poisioning
c. Aspirin toxicity
d. Tetracycline toxicity
The correct answer is a:
Ref.: Textbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, Vinod Kapoor, 1st edition, Page 166.
83 / 200
Which of the following is characterhed by gustatory sweating?
a. Frey's syndrome
b. Plummer Vinson syndrome
c. Sjogren syndrome
d. Crushing syndrome
The correct answer is a:
84 / 200
Bilateral eccymosis and bilateral subconjunctival hemorrhage is seen in:
a. LeFort I
b. LeFort II
c. LeFort III
d. Both B and C
The correct answer is d:
Ref.: Textbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery-Vinod Kapoor, 1st edition, Page 243.
85 / 200
Infection from the lower third molar will be localized in which of the following
space:
a. Sublingual space
b. Buccal space
c. Submandibular or ptrygomandibular space
d. All of the above
The correct answer is c:
Sub mandibular or ptcrygoman- dibular space.The exit of infection is from the lingual
bone and above the muscle attachment level .
Ref.: Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, Volume 2-Daniel M. Laskin, Page 220.
86 / 200
The most commonly raised flap for removing the impacted teeth is:
a. Bayonet flap
b. L shaped flap
c. Envelope flap
d. Comma shaped flap
87 / 200
In a patient with 15% blood loss, the immediate management is?
A. Immediate Blood replacement
B. Blood transfusion is not required

C. Aggressive replacement of crystalloid only
D. Aggressive replacement of crystalloid and blood
Ref: Neelima maiik 1st ed Pg-684-685
• Approximately 10-15% of total blood volume loss will have no significant effect on
arterial pressure or cardiac output.
• 15 to 25% loss of blood volume may not cause hemodynamic change, if the blood
loss is not rapid, but the metabolic changes associated with shock may be initiated.
• Rapid loss of 30 to 40% of blood loss causes shock and if not treated becomes
progressive and may lead to death.
88 / 200
During the removal of a torus palatinus it was noticed that a portion of a palatal
bone is fractured. One would expect:
A. An opening into the nasal cavity

B. An opening into the maxillary antrum
C. Vertical fracture of maxilla

D. Horizontal fracture of maxilla
Ref: Petersion 3rd/303.
89 / 200
The COW HORN forceps is designed specially for use on:
A. Lower centrals
B. Mandibular molars
C. Maxillary molars
D. Bifurcated upper premolars
Ref: Laskin 1st/vol II/19
Bayonet forcep- Maxillary III molars

Cowhorn forcep-Mandibular IIImolars
Ash forcep- Manibular anteriors
Mead forceps-Mandibular anteriors
90 / 200
Nerve that may be injured in submandibular incision:
A. Marginal mandibular branch of facial nerve

B. Hypoglossal
C. Mylohyoid nerve D. Lingual nerve
Ref V. Kapoor 2nd/15
91 / 200
In which mandibular fracture the tongue fall backwards?
A. Symphysis fracture
B. Bilateral Mandibular Body Fracture
C. Bilateral Parasymphysis Fracture
D. Bilateral Angle Fracture

Ref: Neelima Malik 2nd/380
It is the bilateral fracture line in this region runs obliquely forward and mediatelly
ftom the inner to outer conical plate, then due to pull of geniohyoid and genioglossus
and anterior belly of digastric muscles, the entire section of mandible is displaced
posteriorly and this lead to tongue fall and airway obstruction.
92 / 200
Which of the following is not a feature of Hutchinson's traid:
A. Gumma
B. Hypoplasia of incisors and molar
C. Eighth nerve deafness D. Interstitial keratitis
Hutchinson's triad of congenital syphilis

1. Hypoplasia of incisor and molar teeth
2. Eighth nerve deafness
3. Interstitial keratitis
93 / 200
A patient with head injuries, glass gow coma scale 8, having mid face fracture,
cyanoses and decreased breathing with frequent apnoea and low oxygen
management, the method of airway maintenance is?
A. Oropharyngeal airway
B. Orotracheal airway
C. Nasotracheal airway
D. Cricothyrotomy
Ref: Oral and maxillofacial trauma by Raymond J. Fonseca 3rd ed vol-1 pg-159
INDICATIONS FOR CRICOTHYROTOMY

• Maxillofacial trauma; obstruction of the airway from massive facial trauma is
the most common indication for cricothyrotomy.
• Oropharyngeal obstruction, edema secondary to infection, allergic reaction,

thermal and caustic injuries, foreign body, and mass lesions, when oral and nasal
intubation is not possible.
• Condition in which tracheal intubation is from above is either contraindicated
or unsuccessful, such as with congenital malformation, massive haemorrhage,
persistant vomiting, unremitting laryngospasm.
94 / 200
You are performing full-mouth extractions for a patient when he starts to complain
of tinnitus, circumoral numbness, and appear drowsy. What do you do next?
A. You continue with the procedure because the patient is likely anxious
B. Discontinue the procedure and send the patient home
C. The patient is probably feeling some pain and is anxious. The patient needs more
local anesthetic D. Discontinue the procedure; monitor the patient for local
anesthetic toxicity The correct answer is D.
The patient is demonstrating initial signs of local anesthetic toxicity. These include
circumoral numbness, tachycardia, hypertension, drowsiness, confusion, tinnitus,
and metallic taste. Full-mouth extractions generally require a lot of local anesthetic,
and at times if one is not careful, the threshold for toxicity may be exceeded. The
assumption of local anesthetic toxicityshouldberuledoutbeforeconsidering a
diagnosis of anxiety. Drowsiness is unlikely with anxious patients. Although it is
correct to discontinue the procedure, one should monitor the patient for progression
of
symptoms.Treatment for the initial signs of toxicity are supportive measures;
however, if later signs of CNS compromise (e.g.,tremor,hallucinations)
appear,inconjunction with cardiovascular collapse, immediate referral to the hospital
is required. Patients who are in pain are unlikely to appear drowsy. Most will wince
or complain of inadequate anesthesia. The presentation with CNS and cardiovascular
signs/symptoms suggest local anesthetic toxicity.
95 / 200
A patient presents to your office with symptoms that include stabbing, shocking
pain lasting a few seconds to minutes. He says that the pain is provoked by cold
and only occurs on the left side. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
A. Myofascial pain dysfunction syndrome

B. Trigeminal neuralgia
C. Osteoarthritis D. TMJ ankylosis
The correct answer is B.
This is a nerve-related TMJ disorder that is usually described as stabbing, burning,

shocking pain that is provoked by wind, tactile, or thermal stimulation. Myofascial
pain dysfunction or MPD primarily affects muscles of mastication and is often stress
related. Osteoarthritis is a degenerative joint disease and does not present as
described in the question.TMJ ankylosis is most commonly caused by trauma and
results in fusion of the condyle, disk, and TMJ fossa.
Disk displacement would most likely cause the patient to have trouble opening
and/or closing, which is not apparent in this situation.
96 / 200
Condylar angle for average value articulator is:
a. 30 degrees and fixed

b. 30 degrees and adjustable by 15 degrees.
c. 45 degrees and fixed.
d. 45 degrees and adjustable.
30 degrees and fixed
97 / 200
Which of the following is true:
d. All of the above

a. As resorption of alveolar ridge progresses, the maxillary arch becomes narrower
and the mandibular arch becomes broader
b. Forces directed at right angles to the supporting tissues are more stabilizing than
forces directed at an inclined plane
c. The artificial teeth must be placed in suitable horizontal positions to allow the
muscle activity to occur naturally The correct answer is D
All of the above
98 / 200
Which is true in relation to major connector for cast partial dentures?

a. Superior border of lingual bar connector should be no more than 4 mm below the
gingival margin
b. Slight impingement on tissue is taken care of by the resiliency of the movable
tissue
c. Releif should always be provided below the palatal connector
d. All major connector should cover no more tissue than is absolutely necessary The
correct answer is D
All major connector should cover no more tissue than is absolutely necessary
99 / 200
Most effective location for indirect retainer is:
a. Incisor
b. Canine
c. Premolar
d. Molar
Incisor
100 / 200
A sprue in a wax pattern should be placed:
A. At right angle
B. At acute angle
C. At obtuse angle
D. It depend on type of wax pattern
Ref: Phillips 10th/498; Rosensteil 3rd/568
1. When the same pattern is sprued at a 45° angle to the proximal area, a satisfactory
casting is obtained.
2. Location:
- sprue should be attached to tlhe bulkiest part of the pattern, away from the
margins and occlusal contacts.
- normally the largest non centric cusp is used
- sprue should be located at an angle to the pattern surface to prevent turbulence of
metal.
- it should also allow for proper positioning of pattern in mold (usu. in the centre)
101 / 200
The path of insertion of a full crown restoration in order to be structurally durable

should be:
a. Parallel to the long axis of the tooth
b. Perpendicular to the long axis of the tooth

c. Prependicular to the occlusal plane
d. 60 degree to the long axis of the tooth
Parallel to the long axis of the tooth
102 / 200
The amount of reduction required for a tooth for all metal crown restoration is:
A. So that there is proper clearance between the teeth

B. So that the tooth architecture interfere with the arc of rotation
C. So that the tooth architecture doesn’t interferes with the arch of rotation
D. At least 2 mm on all the surfaces
Ref: Rosensteil 2/e, p 156, 157
1. The tooth preparation must be so shaped that particular areas of axial wall will
prevent rotation of crown
2. Rotation is prevented by any areas of the tooth preparation that are placed in
compression. Multiple resistance areas cumulatively make up the resistance form
of tooth preparation.
3. In a short or excessively tapered complete crown, resistance form is minimal
because most of the buccal wall is missing. A mesiodistal groove should be placed
to increase resistance form.
4. Poor resistance form is less a problem in a short partial crown, provided the
grooves have sufficient definition.
103 / 200
In removable partial design for a upper arch with 2nd premolar as a terminal tooth
on the distal extension side of the arch:
a. 2nd premolar should not be used as abutment tooth

b. Be extracted
c. Be splinted with the tooth anterior to mostly with the canine
d. None of the above page
Be splinted with the tooth anterior to mostly with the canine
104 / 200
A complete clasp assembly consists of a:
A. Retentive arm and a reciprocal arm

B. Circumferential arm and bar type arm
C. Proximal plate and a retentive arm
D. Retentive arm, an occlusal rest and a reciprocating elements. The correct answer
is D
Ref McCrackens 8th/91
Clasp assembly should consist of:

a. One or more minor connectors
b. Principle rest
c. A retentive arm
d. Reciprocal arm
105 / 200
Direction of mesial and distal walls in a class V amalgam cavity is determined by:
A. Direction of enamel rods

B. Caries extent
C. Gingivo-axial and occluso-axial
D. Retention only
Ref: Art and science of Operative dentistry, Sturdevant. 5th ed. Page 798
The direction of mesial and distal walls follow the direction of enamel rods.
106 / 200
In complete denture patients the graphic method of recording CR is preferred over

the interocctosal check record method, If the?
A. Ridges are excessively flabby

B. Patient has uncontrolled abnormal mandibular movements
C. Jaws are normally related and the ridges are well built.
D. Jaws are abnormally related.

Ref: Zarb & Bolender 12th/287
107 / 200
Which of the following major connector is also called as kennedy's bar?
a. Mandibular lingual bar with continuous bar

b. Lingual plate
c. Lingual bar
d. Palatal plate
Mandibular lingual bar with continuous bar
108 / 200
The bilateral, simultaneous, anterior and posterior occlusal contact of teeth in

centric and eccentric positions is refer· red to as:
a. Balanced articulation
b. Mutually protected articulation
c. Anterior protected articulation
d. Lingulized articulation
Balanced articulation
109 / 200
Which of the following is a centric jaw relation:
a. Centric relation
b. VDR
c. VDO
d. Protrusive record
Centric relation
110 / 200
The mean reduction in the height of the mandible process in edentulous patient
wearing complete denture is:
a. 6.6 mm
b. 8.6 mm
c. 10.6 mm
d. 3.6 mm
6.6 mm. The mean reduction in

mandibular process in denture wearer may be 6.6 mm, approximately four times
greater than the mean reduction in maxillary process. Bouchers prosthodontic
treatment for edentulous patients page 20.
111 / 200
The attraction of young girl for the father is known as:
Castration anxiety
a. Oenis envy
b. Electra complex
c. Oedipus complex Attraction of young boys for mother is Oedipus complex Sheba
124 The correct answer is C
Electra complex.
Ref.: Shoba Tandon, 2nd edition, page 124.
112 / 200
Which of the following plane is used in Ricketts analysis:
a. Mandibular plane
b. Basion-nasion plane
c. FH plane
d. All of the above
Basion-nasion plane
113 / 200
Eruption hematoma is frequently associated with:

a. Primary second molar
b. Permanent second molar
c. Permanent first premolar
d. Primary first molar
Eruption hematoma is frequently seen in

the region of second primary molar or
first permanent molar.
Ref.: Dentistry for child and adolescentMcdonald, 8th edition, page 182.
114 / 200
Mental retardation and self destructive behavior resulting in self mutilation is seen
in:
a. Lesch Nyhan syndrome

b. Witkop's syndrome
c. Noonan syndrome
d. Webbed Neck syndrome
Lesch Nyhan syndrome
Ref: Lysch nyhan syndrome, ped journal 2008 vol 26.
115 / 200
Masochistic habits are:
a. Postural habits
b. Habit of sucking thumb
c. Habit of denuding or stripping of tissues
Habit of denuding or stripping of tissues
116 / 200
In the child in whom only the primary dentition has erupted, the greater palatine
nerve block is made approximately how much mm posterior to the distal surface of
the second primary molar
a. 2 mm
b. 4 mm
c. 6 mm
d. 10 mm
10 mm
117 / 200
A swallow characterized by the relaxation of lip, placement of tongue behind the
maxiallary incisors and elevation of mandible all the way to the point of posterior
contact is classified as a:
a. Infantle swallow
b. Complex swallow
c. Mature swallow
d. Simple tongue thrust
Infantle swallow
118 / 200
Which space maintainer is indicated after the unilateral premature loss of primary
2nd molar at the age of 4 yrs?
a. Distal shoe
b. Band and loop
c. Lingual arch
d. Crown and loop

Distal shoe space maintainer.
Ref.: Dentistry, for Child and AdolescentMcdonald, 8th edition, page 636.
119 / 200
The treatment of intruded primary tooth following trauma is:
a. No treatment is required and patient is put on recall

b. Extraction of the tooth if the traumatized tooth is encroaching or is pressurizing
the erupting permanent tooth or tooth bud
c. Repositioning + splinting
d. All of the above
Extraction of the tooth if the

traumatized tooth is encroaching or is pressurizing the erupting permanent tooth or
tooth bud. If there is no encroachment of underlying tooth, intruded tooth require
no treatment and should never be repositioned.Ref.: Dentistry for Child and
AdolescentMcdonald, 8th edition, page 480.
120 / 200
Which of the following is a successional tooth?
a. 36
b. 27
c. 24
d. 48
Successional teeth
121 / 200
Arch circumference
in lower arch
decreases by:
a.1 mm
b. 2 mm
c. 3 mm
d. 4 mm
4 mm.
Ref.: Dentistry for Child and AdolescentMcdonald, 8th edition, page 593.
122 / 200
Which of the following method of brushing is effective for preschoolers?
a. Charter method
b. Modified stillman s method
c. Horizontal scrubbing
d. Vertical sweeping
Horizontal scrubbing
123 / 200
Oedipus complex is seen in:
a. Urethral stage
b.Phallic stage
c. Latency stage
d. Genital stage
Phallic stage. Oedipus complex is the natural tendency of the developing male child
to be attached to the mother-It has also been described by freud as a desire to have
sexual relationship with mother. The name Oedipus derive from a greek king who
slew his father and married his mother.
Ref.: Textbook of Shoba Tandon, Ist edition, page 122.
124 / 200
The maxillary primary central incisor begins to develop between:
a. 3-4 weeks of intrauterine life

b. 7-8 weeks of intrauterine life
c. 10-11 weeks of intrauterine life
d. 13-16 weeks of intrauterine life
13-16 weeks of intrauterine life

Ref.: Dentistry for Child and AdolescentMcdonald, 8th edition, page 177.
125 / 200
Which of the following syndrome involve all the three embryonic layer:
a. Ellis Van Creveld syndrome
b. Witkop syndrome
c. Focal dermal hypoplasia syndrome
d. Christ-Siemens-Touraine syndrome
Ellis Van Creveld syndrome

126 / 200
Natal teeth, absence of mucolateral sulcus in upper arch, delayed tooth eruption,
supernumery teeth ar seen in:
a. Ellis van creveld syndrome

b. Ectodermal dysplasia
c. Cherubism
d. Cleidocranial dysplasia
Chondroectodermal dysplasia or ellis-van creveld syndrome is characterized by no of

ectodermal disturbances including involvement of nails and teeth as well as
chondrodysplasia, polydactyly and some times congenital heart disease. The most
consisting oral finding is the fusion of upper lip to the maxillary gingival margin
eliminating the mucolateral sulcus.
Ref.: Textbook of Oral Pathology-Shafer, Stli edition, page 808.
127 / 200
Fine needle aspiration cytology is not suitable for diagnosing:
A. Tubercular lymphadenitis
B. Papillary carcinoma thyroid
C. Plasmacytoma
D. Aneurysmal bone cyst
Aneurysmal bone cyst resembles blood soaked sponge. Histologically it shows fibrous
connective tissue stroma containing many cavernous or sinusoidal blood filled
spaces. For biopsy of such pa thology cautery or the high frequency cutting knife is
used to control bleeding at biopsy site.
128 / 200
What is not characteristic of Eagle's syndrome?
A. Excessive lacrimation
B. Pain during mandibular movement
C. Stabbing type pain originate in the tonsillar regions

D. When the jaws are closed the pain subsided
Eagle's syndrome consists of either elongation of the styloid process or ossification of

the stylohyoid ligament.
129 / 200
On clinical examination a 60 years old female had a tumor in the right buccal
mucosa. The size of the tumor was about 2 cm in diameter. There was no
involvement of regional lymph nodes and also had no distant metastasis. The TNM
stage of the tumor is:
A. T1 N0 M0
B. T1 N1 M0
C. T1 N2 M0
D. T2 N0 M0
T1- Tumor 2 cm or less in greatest diameter, N0-M0 clinically palpable cervical lymph
nodes, or palpable nodes but metastasis not suspected. N0-M0 distant metastasis.
130 / 200
"Syphilitic rhagades" near the angle of the mouth are found in:
A. Primary syphilis
B. Secondary syphilis
C. Tertiary syphilis
D. Congenital syphilis
Syphilitic rhagades are linear lesions found around the oral or anal orifice. They result
from diffuse syphilitic involvement of skin. They are seen in congenital syphilis and 3
to 7 week after birth.
131 / 200
Fast-growing, painless, bluish, soft masses on palate which may ulcerate are found
in:
A. Multiple myeloma
B. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
C. Neutropenia
D. All of the above
Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma presents as painless persistent enlargement of the lymph

nodes but extranodal involvement mainly found in Hodgkin's lymphoma
132 / 200
Yellow discoloration of oral mucosa in hepatitis is most readily seen on:
A. Palate
B. Buccal mucosa
C. Alveolar mucosa
D. Muco-buccal fold
Hepatitis manifests in the oral cavity as icterus of oral mucosa, which is mostly seen
on the palate, and in sublingual area.
133 / 200
Antihypertensive drug that may cause gingival enlargement is:
A. Furosemide
B. Prazosin
C. Diltiazem
D. Methyldopa
Gingival hyperplasia resembling that seen with phenytoin is also reported in patient
taking calcium channel blocking agents nifedipine and diltiazem.
134 / 200
Chronic pain or pain of increased intensity due to internal derangements in the
TMJ can be treated by:
D. All the above
A. Maxillary occlusal splint
B. Mandibular protrusive splint
C. Fixed orthodontic treatment
Sometime trauma to TMJ may displace condyle in posterosuperior direction and

stretches the muscle attached to it leading to pain. It can be treated by wearing
mandibular anterior repositioning appliance.
135 / 200
Purulent discharge with sulfur granules is milked from salivary gland duct when it is
infected by:
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Escherichia coli
C. Actinomycetes
D. Proteus
Actinomyces are gram-positive anaerobic filamentous bacteria. The organism enters

the tissue through oral mucous membrane and produce swelling and induration.
These swelling liberate pus-containing microorganism as sulfur granules.
136 / 200
Purplish blue spots, nodules and ridges on anterior ventral surface of the tongue
are referred to as:
A. Neurofibromatosis
B. Petechial hemorrhages
C. Lingual varicositics
D. Lingual hematomas
Lingual varicosities appear as red or purple shot like clusters of vessels on the
ventral surface and lateral border of tongue. They occur due to increased hydrostatic
pressure but poorly supported by surrounding tissue.
137 / 200
Which of the following drugs is/are used in the treatment of radiation xerostomia?
A. Bethanechol
B. Pilocarpine
C. Anetholetrithione
D. All of the above
Xerostomia is one of the common complications of radiotherapy. Sialagogues are

used to stimulate salivary secretion. Pilocarpine is best-studied sialagogue. Others
are anetholetrithione, bethanechol and bromhexine.
138 / 200
"Floating teeth" are found in:
A. Xanthomatosi
B. Langerhan's cell granulomatosis
C. Tuberous sclerosis
D. Acanthosis nigricans
Langerhan's cell granulomatosis is also referred as histiocytosis X. It is characterized

by radiolucent jaw bone lesions, root resorption, gingival swelling and floating teeth.
139 / 200
"Monro's abscesses" are found in:
A. Focal epithelial hyperplasia

B. Leukoedema
C. Lichen planus
D. Psoriasis
Psoriasis is characterized by the absence of stratum granulosum, clubbing of the rete

pegs and intra-epithelial microabscesses called as Monro's abscesses.
140 / 200
Necrotic, punched out ulcerations are the clinical feature of:
A. Behcet's disease
B. Pemphigus
C. Recurrent aphthous stomatitis
D. ANUG
Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis have punched out, crater like ulceration at the
crest of interdental papilla.
141 / 200
Which space maintainer will be most useful in case of premature bilateral loss of
primary molar in child patient with mandibular incisors yet to erupt:
A. A pair of band and loop type of SM

B. Lingual arch
C. Distal shoe
D. Transpalatal arch
Before the eruption of permanent incisors, if there is premature bilateral loss of

primary molar, a pair of band and loop maintainers are recommended instead of the
lingual arch. This is advisable because the permanent incisor tooth buds are lingual to
the primary incisors and often erupt lingually. The bilateral band and loops enable
the permanent incisors to erupt without interference from a lingual arch wire. At a
later time the two band-and-loop appliances can be replaced with a single lingual
arch if necessary.
142 / 200
The maximum amount of the space which can be obtained by uprighting a molar
is?
A. 0.5 mm
B. 1.5 mm
C. 3 mm
D. 4 mm
143 / 200
Extraction of a tooth from the opposing quadrant to the enforced extraction is

known as:
A. Compensatory extraction
B. Therapeutic extraction
C. Willkinson extraction
D. Balanced extraction
144 / 200
Moving the root of a tooth facially or lingually will be a:
A. Torque movement
B. Tipping
C. Bodily movement
D. Uprighting movement
Moving the crown of tooth mesially or distally is tipping. Movement of root mesially
and distally is uprighting movement. Moving the tooth in entire direction is bodily
movement.
145 / 200
Which of the following is fixed functional appliance:
A. Bionator
B. Activator
C. Herbst's appliance
D. Twin block appliance
Herbst appliance is a fixed functional appliance indicated for the correction of class II
malocclusion due to retrognathic mandible. They can also be used as anterior
repostioning splint in patient with TMJ problem.
146 / 200
Mill's retractor is:
A. Used for retraction of tongue

B. Is modified labial bow
C. Is used for palatal expansion
D. Is used to treat posterior crossbite
147 / 200
Transpaltal arch space maintainer is indicated in:
A. Bilateral multiple loss of primary molars in lower arch

B. Bilateral multiple loss of primary molar in upper arch
C. Unilateral multiple loss of primary molars in upper arch
D. None of the above
148 / 200
Absolute anchorage means:
A. No other tooth movement other than the desired tooth movement

B. Minimal anchorage loss
C. Anchorage provided by multiple no of teeth
D. Anchorage provided by ankylosed teeth
There is zero anchorage loss in absolute anchorage. Ref.: Contemporary

orthodontics-Profitt 2nd edition page 347
149 / 200
The force exerted by light wire appliance is of which of the following nature:
A. Continuous force
B. Intermittant force
C. Interrupted force
D. None of the above
150 / 200
If SNA is greater than 84 degree, which of the following is interpreted:
A. Maxillary protrusion
B. Maxillary retrusion
C. Mandibular protrusion
D. Normal maxillary architecture
Ref.: Contemporary orthodontics-William R. Profitt, page 208.
151 / 200
According to Veau's classification complete unilateral cleft involving soft palate,

hard palate, lip and alveolar ridge are grouped as:
A. Group I
B. Group II
C. Group III
D. Group IV
The cleft involving soft palate is grouped as Group I. Group II include clefts of hard
and soft palate extending up to the incisive foramen.
Group IV include complete bilateral clefts affecting the soft palate, hard palate, lip
and alveolar ridge.
152 / 200
Which of the following study model analysis neither use radiographs nor use
reference table to predict the width of unerupted canines and premolars:
A. Tanaka and Johnston analysis

B. Moyers mixed dentition analysis
C. Carey's analysis
D. All of the above
Ref.: Contemporary Orthodontics, William R. Profitt, 2nd edition, page 178.
153 / 200
Nikolsky sign is a feature of:
a. Pemphigus
b. Poriasis
c. Lichen planus
d. Toxic epidermal necrolysis
Pemphigus
Ref.: Textbook of Oral Pathology-Shafer, 5th edition, page 1125.
154 / 200
Which of the following is caused by a nasopharyngeal tumor:
a. Horton's syndrome
b. Raeder's syndrome
c. Trottler's syndrome
d. Frey's syndrome
Trotter's syndrome: The neuro- genic pain in trotter's syndrome is due to the
involvement of mandibular nerve in the foramen ovale through which the tumor
invades.
Ref., Textbook of Oral Pathology-Shafer, St/ edition, page 1165.
155 / 200
Osier's disease is another is a name of:
a. Sprue
b. Aplastic anemia
c. Iron deficiency anemia
d. Polycythemia vera
Polycythemia vera. It is also known as Vaquez's disease. It is a chronic ds with an

insidious onset characterized by an absolute increase
the no of circulating red blood cells

and in the total blood volume. Ref.:
Textbook of Oral Pathology-Shafer, 5th
edition, page 1056.
156 / 200
Pellagra is due to deficiency of:
a. Pantothenic acid
b. Riboflavin
c. Niacin
d. Pyridoxine
Niacin: Pellagra is due to the deficiency niacin. It is charaterized by mucous

membrane lesions affecting tongue, oral cavity and vagina. Prodromal symptom
include loss of appetite, vague GIT symptoms. General weakness, lassitude, mental
confusion, forgetfulness are other symptom.
In acute stage the entire mucous membrane become fiery red and painful.
Ref.: Textbook of Oral Pathology-Shafer, 5thedition, page 890.
157 / 200
Which of the following is also known as pulmonary langerhans cell histiocytosis X:
a. Eosinophilic granuloma
b. Hand-schuller-christian disease
c. Niemann pick disease
d. Gaucher disease
Eosinophilic granuloma
Ref.: Neville's Atlas of Oral Pathology 2nd edition, page, page 344-47.
158 / 200
Fibrous dysplasia may be associated with which of the following:
a. Hyperthyroidism
b. Acromegly
c. Cushing syndrome
d. All of the above
All of the above

Ref.: Neville's Atlas of Oral Pathology, 2nd edition, page 360-363.
159 / 200
The keratin filled cysts scattered over the palate, most numerous along the
junction of hard and soft palate and apparently derived from the palatal salivary
gland structure are known as:
a. Bohns nodule
b. Epstein pearls
c. Mucocele
d. Median palatal cyst
Bohn's nodule
160 / 200
Which of the following is known as Ackerman's tumor:
a. Spindle cell carcinoma

b. Verrucous carcinoma
c. Epidermoid carcinoma
d. Adenoid squamous cell carcinoma
Verrucous carcinoma
161 / 200
The disease characterized clinically by the development of rhinitis, sinusitis, otitis

is:
Wegener's .granulomatosis
a. Granuloma inguinale
b. Gonorrhea
c. Scarlet fever
Wegener's granulomatosis: It is the disease of unknown etiology which involve
vascular, renal and respiratory system. Ref.: Textbook of Oral Pathology-Shafer,
5thedition, page 925.
162 / 200
Which radiographic projection unintentionally reveals juvenile arthrosis?
a. Occlusal
b. Panoramic
c. Cephalometric
d. Full-mouth series
a. Occlusal radiographs do not inadvertently detect juvenile arthrosis; panoramic

images do.
b. Correct. The panoramic projection inadvertently reveals juvenile arthrosis.
c. Cephalometric images do not inadvertently detect juvenile arthrosis; panoramic
images do.
d. A full-mouth series of radiographs will not inadvertently detect juvenile arthrosis;
panoramic images will.
163 / 200
Radiographic features of the torus palatinus include appearing
a. radiolucent.
b. with ill-defined radiopaque border.
c. homogeneously radiolucent internally.
d. superimposed on apical areas of maxillary teeth.

a. Radiographic features of the torus palatinus include appearing radiopaque,

not radiolucent, when visible on the image.
b. Radiographic features of the torus palatinus include appearing with a well-
defined, not ill-defined, border of the radiopaque shadow.
c. Radiographic features of the torus palatinus include appearing
homogeneously radiopaque, not radiolucent, internally.
d. Correct. Radiographic features of the torus palatinus include appearing

superimposed on apical areas of maxillary teeth.
164 / 200
Best view for medially displacement of condylar fractions
a. Reverse towner's view
b. pA view
c. Transpharyngeal view
d. submentovertex
165 / 200
Causes of image foreshortening is
a .central ray is perpendicular to the film but not to the object.
b. central ray is perpendicular to the film but not to the object
c. more negative vertical angulations
•Foreshortening is due to more positive vertical angulations
166 / 200
Actual size of effective focal spot is:-
a. 1 x 3 mm
b. 1 x 2 mm
c. 1 x 1 mm
d. 2 x 2 mm
• Focal spot is actually 1 x 3 mm in size but due to the inclination of target at 20" to
the central beam of X-ray the effective focal spot becomes 1 x 1 mm, which
Increase sharpness of image with large focal spot for heat dissipation.
167 / 200
The parotid duct is also known as:
a. Wharton’s duct
b. Stensen’s duct
c. Duct of Santorini
d. Duct of Wirsung
Stensen’s duct
Stensen’s duct is the duct leading from the parotid gland to the oral cavity
168 / 200
Which is a non absorbable suture:
a. Polypropylene
b. Catgut
c. Vicryl
d. Collagen
Polypropylene
ABSORBABLE SUTURE
•Catgut
•Collagen
•Copolymers of glycolide and lactide (Vicryl)
•Homopolymer of polydioxanone (PDS)
NON-ABSORBABLE SUTURE:
•Polyester
•Polyamide polypropylene
•Polyethylene
•Steel
•Silk
•Cotton
169 / 200
Varicose veins are most commonly seen in
a. Obturator vein
b. Innominate vein
c. Long saphenous vein
d. Facial vein
Long saphenous vein

Development of varicose veins of legs Is a part of the penalty we pay for adopting an
erect
posture .A vein .is said to be “ varicose" when it is dilated, lengthened, and tortuous.
This condition is seen mainly in the leg but esophageal, spermatic, and hemorrhoidal
veins may be affected.
170 / 200
A 30-year-old farmer who is a chronic smoker develops gangrene of foot. Most
common cause of this is:
a. MI
b. Thromboangiitis obliterans
c. Atherosclerosis
d. Raynaud’s disease
Thromboangiitis obliterans
Thromboangiitis obliterans or Buerger's disease is an inflammatory occlusive small
and medium
sized arteries and veins in the distal upper and lovver extremities. Clinical features
include a triad of claudication of the effected extremity, Raynaud's phenomenon and
migratory;superficial vein thrombophlebitis. Smoking is a risk factor for
Thromboangiitis obliterans
171 / 200
Malignant transformation is most common in:

a. Postbulbar ulcer
b. Stromal ulcer
c. Gastric ulcer
d. Chronic duodenal ulcer
Gastric ulcer
Malignant changes only occur in the gastric ulcers therefore endoscopy and biopsy is
essential before starting medical treatment for an apparently benign gastric ulcer.
172 / 200
Hematuria, RBC casts and proteinuria are suggestive of

a. Nephrotic syndrome
b. Acute nephritis
c. Renal cell carcinoma
d. Chronic renal failure
Acute nephritis
Gross or microscopic hematuria. RBC casts, and proteinuria are
necessary for the diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis.
173 / 200
In hemoptysis, blood usually comes from:
a. Pulmonary arteries
b. Pulmonary veins
c. Bronchial arteries
d. Bronchial veins
Bronchial arteries
The bronchial arteries originate either from the aorta or from intercostal arteries and
are the source of bleeding in bronchitis or bronchiectasis or with endobronchial
tumors.
174 / 200
Aortic regurgitation is not seen in
a. Ankylosing spondylitis
b. Bacterial endocarditis
c. Acute myocardial infarction
d. Marfan’s syndrome
Acute myocardial infarction
Causes of Aortic Regurgitation:
•Rheumatic heart disease
•Infective endocarditis
•Cystic medial necrosis
•Marfan's syndrome
•Ankylosing spondylitis
•Late syphilis
175 / 200
Most diagnostic test for primary hypothyroidism is:
a. Ca
b. TSH
c. T3
d. T4
TSH
The single most useful measurement is the serum thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH),
which is increased in the thyroprivic and goitrous varieties and is usually normal or
undetectable in pituitary or hypothalamic hypothyroidism.
176 / 200
Clubbing and hemoptysis is seen in:
a. Pneumonia
b. Empyema
c. Crohn's disease
d. Bronchiectasis
Bronchiectasis
Bronchiectasis is an abnormal and permanent dilatation, of bronchi which is
associated with destructive and inflammatory changes in the walls of medium-sized
airways, often at the level of segmental or subsegmcntal bronchi. Patients typically
present with persistent or recurrent cough and purulent sputum production.
Hemoptysis occurs in 50 to 70 % of cases and as with other types of chronic
intrathoracic infection, clubbing may be present.
177 / 200
Orthodontic extractions (premolars) cause TMD. TMD symptoms can disappear
during orthodontic treatment.
A. Both statements are TRUE.
B. Both statements are FALSE
C. The first statement is TRUE, the second is FALSE D. The first statement is FALSE,
the second is TRUE.
The correct answer is D.
The first statemen tis false because it is possible that functional problems related to
malocclusion would appear as TMD.
Little or no data support the idea that orthodontic treatment is needed at any age to
prevent the development of TMD. The relationship,ifany,betweenTMDand premolar
extraction is difficult to assessbecause data from well-controlled studies are not
available. There is simply no evidence to support the allegation that premolar
extraction causes TMD. In the late 1980s, it was claimed by some dentists that
extraction of upper first premolars would later lead to TMD problems.The theory was
that retracting the upper incisors would inevitably lead to incisor interferences, and
this would cause TMD. The claim was never supported by any evidence,and research
data have refuted it. These condstatement is true because the extent to which TMD
symptoms in many adults disappear when comprehensive orthodontic treatment
begins can be surprising. TMD symptoms disappear long before the occlusal
relationships have been corrected. The explanation is that orthodontic treatment
makes the teethsore,grinding or clenching sensitive teeth as a means of handling
stress doesnot produce the same subconscious gratification, the para functional
activity stops,and symptoms vanish. The changing occlusal relationships also
contribute to breaking up the habit patterns that contributed to the muscle fatigue
and pain. At the end of orthodontic treatment, however, even if the occlusal
relationships have been significantly improved,clenching and grinding tend to recur.
Use of interocclusal splints may be helpful in these situations.
178 / 200
Why would an orthodontist place a nonrigid archwire at the beginning of
treatment?
A. The appliance may break if a rigid arch wire is placed.

B. The nonrigid archwire is more pliable, which is needed in the initial stages of
treatment of malocclusions. C. The rigid archwire may become permanently
deformed if placed at the beginning of treatment
D. All of the above are correct.
The correct answer is D.
All of the above statements are true. There are many irregularities in malocclusions,
and a rigid appliance may break or create permanent deformation in the archwire.If
a rigid wire is used,the patient may be in a lot of pain.
179 / 200
In a pseudo–class III malocclusion,the patient has the ability to:
A. Bring the mandible back with strain so that the mandibular incisors touch the
maxillary incisors
B. Bring the mandible forward without strain so that the mandibular incisors touch
the maxillary incisors
C. Bring the mandible forward with strain so that the mandibular incisors touch the
maxillary incisors D. Bring the mandible back without strain so that the mandibular
incisors touch the maxillary incisors The correct answer is D.
Pseudo–class III patients adopt a closed-jaw position that is forward to normal and
typically presents with an edge-toedge bite. Bringing the mandible back with strain
so that the mandibular incisors touch the maxillary incisors depicts a patient who has
class III malocclusion. Bringing the mandible forward without strain so that the
mandibular incisors touch the maxillary incisors depicts a class I malocclusion.
Bringing the mandible forward with strain so that the mandibular incisors touch the
maxillary incisors depicts a class II malocclusion.
180 / 200
The modified widman flap is designed to :

a. Remove the pocket wall
b. Eliminate the pocket lining .
c. Reduce pocket depth
d. All of the above

Eliminate the pocket lining

Ref.: Clinical Periodontology, Carranza-9th edition, page 774.
181 / 200
Which of the following is not a contraindication of gingival curettage:
a. Long standing chronic inflammation

b. In acute infections like ANUG
c. In pocket extending beyond mucogingival junction
d. Moderately deep infrabony pocket
Moderately deep infrabony pocket
182 / 200
Least width of the attached gingival is found on the facial aspect of
a. 1st premolar
b. 2nd premolar
C. lateral incisor
d. canine
Width of attached gingival is greatest in

the incinor region ( maxilla 3:5 to 4.5 mm mandible 3.3 to 3.9mm)and least width is
in the first premolar region ( maxilla
1.9 mandible 1.8mm)
183 / 200
The gingival groove represents
a. histological depth of gingival sulcus

b. false pocket depth
c. depth of the gingival sulcus
d. none of the above
•Histological depth of the gingival sulcus 1.8mm

•Probing depth of normal gingival sulcus-2 to 3 mm
184 / 200
WHICH of the following organism is not implicated in the etiology of the

periodontal diseases?
a. Bacteroides
b. Neisseria
c. Wollinella
d. Ekinella
Protective bacteria
•S.sanguis
•S Mitis
•A viscosus
• Capnocytophaga
• Neisseria
•Veillonella
Bacteria associated with periodontal diseases are

•P gingivalis
•P intermedia
•A actinomycetemcomitans
• Eikenella
•Fusobacterium
•Eubacterium
185 / 200
WHICH of the following is the most likely source of collagenase
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Bacteroides gingivalis
c. Treponema microdentium
d. Veillonella alcalescens
•collagenase
• P. gingivalis
• Actinomycetemcomitans
Trypsin like enzyme

• P. gingivalis
• T denticola
• A_actinomycetemcomitans
• phospholipidase A
186 / 200
The concept of calculus formation in which seeding agent induce small foci of
calcification which enlarge and coalesce to form a calcified mass is termed as
a. Mineral precipitation
b. calculus adaptation
c. heterogeneous nucleation
d. none of the above
187 / 200
Sub gingival scaling causes microflora of periodontal pocket to be
a. Unaltered.
b. aerobes only altered c altered
d. Anaerobes only altered
188 / 200
A patient has cheilosis ,angular stomatitis , glossitis ,red itching ees. The
periodontal surgery that was performed one week ago has not healed properly.
Deficiency of which following vitamin is most likely:
A.Thiamin
B.Riboflavin
C.Tocopherol
D.Calciferol
ViTAMINE deficiency and periodontal menifestation:
vit A:Hyperkeratosis, hyperplasis of gingiva, increased pocket formation
Vit D:osteoclastic resorption of alveolar bone

Niacin: necrosis of gingiva
Riboflavin:severe lesion of gingiva and periodontal tissue
Folic acid:necrosis of gingiva ,periodontal ligament and alveolar bone without
inflammatiom
Vit C: hamorrhage, collagen destruction and edema of gingiva interferance with bone
formation and retarded healing
189 / 200
Punched out carter like depression at the crest of the gingiva, covered by gray
pseudo-membrne slough which is demarcated from the remainder of the gingiva by
linear erythema are characteristic of:
A.Desquamative gingivitis
B.Erythema multiform
C. Lichen planus
D.Vincent's stomatitis
ANUG is also called vincent infection, vincemys stomatitis, trench mouth, fetid
stomatitis, putrid stomatitis
190 / 200
In Tarnows technique the method described for denuded root surface is:
A.Semilunar coronally repositioned flap

B.split thickness coronally repositioned flap
C.Free soft tissue autograft
D. Subepithelial connective flap

Tarnow's technique: semilunar coronally displaced flap
Millers technique: free soft tissue autograft
Langers technique:Subepithelial connective tissue graft
Touch and tunnel technique: Variant of langers technique
191 / 200
After a routine examination and prophylaxis of a 19-year-old female patient, the
doctor diagnoses three restorations; the patient's mother calls to discuss her
daughter's treatment plan. You politely and respectfully:
a. proceed to review the treatment needed and answer her questions

b. suggest she schedule an appointment for a consultation
c. inform her that the practice must obtain consent from her daughter to discuss her
care
d. tell her that her daughter must be present during this conversation The correct
answer is C
Because the patient is a legal adult, written consent must be obtained directly from
the patient before any discussion occurs.
192 / 200
A dentist retires to another state and closes the practice. The entire staff is
released from employment, and the records remain in the office, but the patients
are not notified of the dentist's retirement. Failure to notify the patients of the
changes in the practice is called:
a. Assault
b. Abandonment
c. Malpractice
d. Noncompliance
A dentist has an obligation to inform the patients of any change in the practice
ownership. If the dentist fails to notify the patients of the changes in the practice, the
dentist is guilty of abandoning the patients.
193 / 200
Consent is:
a. an involuntary act
b. only necessary for surgical procedures
c. something that any person older than age 21 years may give another’s treatment
d. voluntary acceptance or agreement to what is planned or done by another person
Consent is a voluntary acceptance or agreement to what is planned or done by

another person. Consent is given freely by the patient. Consent to treat is for all
applicable procedures, not just related to surgical procedures. Consent is used on all
patients regardless of age. The age will determine who is responsible for giving the
consent.
194 / 200
The most common site for taking a patient’s pulse when performing
cardiopulmonary resuscitation
is the:
a. radial artery
b. carotid artery
c. brachial artery
d. femoral artery
The most common site for taking a patient's pulse when performing cardiopulmonary
resuscitation is the: The carotid artery is the most commonsite for taking a patient's
pulse when administering CPR . This pulse is found byplacing two fingers alongside
the patient's larynx on the side of the neck nearest you. The radial artery is in the
inner wrist area and used to take the pulse before dental procedures. The brachial
artery is on the inner fold of the arm used for blood pressure. The femoral artery is in
the inner thing of the leg and not typically used in a dental office.
195 / 200
If a patient displays symptoms of hyperglycemia and is conscious, what is the first
thing you shouask the patient?
A.“What time did you awaken this morning?”

B.“When did you last eat?”
C.“How many fingers do you see?” while holding up your fingers.
D.“Did you bring a snack?”
You must determine when the patient last ate and if insulin has been taken before
proceeding with any treatment. CAT: Prevention and Management Of Emergencies
196 / 200
Sanitizer should contain the alcohol concentration of
A. less than 60%

B. 60-95%
C.More than 95%
D.1

60-95%
Reference: https://www.cdc.gov/handwashing/show-me-the-science-hand-
sanitizer.html
Many studies have found that sanitizers with an alcohol concentration between 60–
95% are more effective at killing germs than those with a lower alcohol
concentration or non-alcohol-based hand sanitizers. Hand sanitizers without 6095%
alcohol:
1. May not work equally well for many types of germs

2. Merely reduce the growth of germs rather than kill them outright.
197 / 200
A 2 days old baby girl is admitted in neonatal intensive care unit; she is suffering
from earlyonset neonatal sepsis accompanied with multi organ failure. She has to
put on mechanical ventilator support; her respiratory status is moderately working,
pupils are fixed dilated, motor and sensory responses are absent and her heart is
having regular sinus rhythm. Physician counsels parents, about brain death; and
explains that it is of no use to keep the baby alive with evident brain death, and
asks for parents’ permission to off the artificial mechanical support. But,Parents
are stubborn to continue life support.
Social and ethical principles come in conflict with health care system are:
A.Cost related to futile treatment and medical concerns.

B.Parents’ wishes and futile medical treatment
C.Respect for autonomy of surrogate decision maker.
D.Religious and cultural beliefs to not to end life
Futile treatment for brain dead cases, and humongous costs attached to it are cause
of concerns in current medical realities. Because many factors play its role like, social
and cultural norms and values regarding life and death scenarios, legal concerns
attached to thesesituations, political and economic perspectives further add to
complications in making decisions for these kind of prolongation of artificial
ventilation on brain dead cases. Laws, society, economy, political leaders and medical
teams have had to device a system that will end futile treatments for brain dead
cases with mutual consensus (Beauchamp & Childress, 2001; Burkhardt & Nathaniel,
2013; Schneiderman., Jecker., & Jonsen, 1990)
198 / 200
Contributory negligence is a defence in ?
A. civil negligence
B.criminal negligence
C.ethical negligence
D. none
Criminal negligence (Ref. Reddy FMT 23rd ed. Pg. 31, 32; Textbook of FMT by Parikh
6th ed. Pg. 1.46)
Contributory negligence is a common law defence to a claim or action. It applies to a
situation where a plaintiff claimant has, through their own negligence, caused or
contributed to the injury they suffered. For example where a pedestrian crosses a
road carelessly and is hit by a driver who is also driving carelessly. . Perjury means
giving wilful false evidence by a witness while under oath, the witness is liable to be
prosecuted for perjury and the imprisonment may extend to seven years.
199 / 200
A child is gasping for breath but has a pulse rate of 100 per minute. The rescuers
should:
A.Start CPR beginning with compressions

B.Give 1 breath every 5 to 6 seconds
C.Give 1 breath every 3 to 5 seconds
D. Do nothing; the child is not in distress

This child needs rescue breathing, not chest compressions. The correct rate for
pediatric rescue breathing is 1 ventilation every 3 to 5 seconds. This equates to 12-20
breaths per minute.
200 / 200
What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for Two-Rescuer Infant BLS?
A.30:2
B.30:1
C.15:2
D.15:01

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MEDICAL ENTRANCE NEPAL

(MDS-6 ) MODEL TEST EXAM

Time: 3 Hours Full marks: 200

d. Lower 2nd molar

d. None of the above

Squamous epithelium is found in : Free surface of serous

The correct answer is D

Interferon gamma secreted by:

Epidemiological marker of Hepatitis B is :

Complete healing of heart in MI occurs in :

In Marfan's syndrome,aortic aneurysm occurs at :

Which of the following is not the component of tetralogy of fallot ?

a. Atrial septal defect

Atrial septal defect

Skip lesions are seen in :

Hypertensive bleed most commonly occurs in basal ganglia specifically putamen.

A. Nonselective COX inhibitors (traditional NSAIDs) 1. Salicylates: Aspirin.

B. Preferential COX-2 inhibitors: Nimesulide, Diclofenac, Aceclofenac, Meloxicam,

C. Selective COX-2 inhibitors: Celecoxib, Etoricoxib, Parecoxib.

D. Analgesic-antipyretics with poor antI inflammatory action

All of the following drugs can be used in bronchial asthma except :

Propanolol is a non-selective beta blocker . Beta 2 blocking may exacerbate shortness

Contraindication of bete-blocker : Asthma, COPD,Heart block,Hyperkalemia

A 3-year old children presented to OPD with the symptoms of influenza.Aspirin is

It is the smallest cranial nerve.

Deficiency of which factor cause abnormality of extrinsic pathway:

Peristalsis is the downward wave-like movements of smooth muscles of the GI tracts

a. Webber Fechner Law

Law of projection: no matter where a particular sensory pathway is stimulated along

to cortex, conscious sensation produced is referred to the location of the receptor. It

Each of the following statements about local anesthesia is correct except:

A. Lignocaine causes cardiac dysarrythmias

Complications of PSA Nerve Block

The posterior hypothalamus, in response to Input from the anterior hypothalamus,

The correct answer is C

Cohesion of gold foil is an example of:

a) Atomic attraction and welding

The largest component of amalgam alloy is:

Ref:- [PHILLIPS' 11th ed 496/ 12th ed 342]

a) Higher solubility in saliva

Factors causing increase in setting expansion:

Factors causing decrease in setting expansion

a) It should be rapidly displaced from the mouth

Mesiodistal posterior space for a single tooth implant should be atleast:

Minimum recommended height of an implant is:

In general the extent of cantilever placed in implant supported prosthesis should

a. Equal to the distance between the implants.

Equal to the distance between

The most ideal posterior tooth to replace with an implant is:

a. To minimize the implant overload

Which of the following is a primary level of the services provided by dental

d. All of the above

Which is not true:

a. As the duration of fluoride treatment increases, the amount of fluoride deposited

Dietary fluoride supplementation bring an average reduction in caries by:

a. First two decades of life

5th and 6th decade of life