G

CODE: SSC JE 2020/MT 5

PYRAMID IAS ACADEMY

KARAIKUDI
Our TNPSC CESE AE Civil Result in 2019 Exam
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 CODE –SSC 2020/MT-5 SENIOR BATCH
PYRAMID IAS ACADEMY c) Dam d) Pond
KARAIKUDI
13. Which one of the given responses would be the
SSC MODEL TEST-5 meaningful order of the following words?
Marks : 200 Time : 2 HRS 1. Cut 2. Put on 3. Sew
4. Measure 5. Chalk mark
NOTE: (1)Each wrong answer carries 0.25 negative a) 4, 5, 1, 3, 2 b) 5, 4, 1, 2, 3
marking c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 d) 4, 5, 3, 1, 2
(2)For Assertion and Reason questions, the options
are 14. Arrange the following words as per order in the
a) Both A &R are true and R is the correct dictionary.
explanation for A 1. Omnipotent 2. Omit
b) Both A &R are true and R is not the correct 3. Omniscient 4. Omnivorous
explanation for A a) 2 1 3 4 b) 3 2 1 4
c) A is false but R is true c) 2 3 1 4 d) 2 1 4 3
d) R is false but A is true
Directions: In question nos. 15 to 18, a series is given,
PART – A – GENERAL INTELLIGENCE & with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative
REASONING from the given ones that will complete the series.
Directions: In Question nos. 1 to 6, select the related 15. AMDN, GMJN, ?, RMUN
word/letters/numbers from the given alternatives. a) MPON b) MMPN
1. Dog: Puppy: : Cat :? c) OMRN d) ONSU
a) Calf b) Kid
c) Kitten d) Cub 16. 2, ?, 8, 16, 32
a) 4 b) 6 c) 5 d) 7
2. 138: 161: :144:?
a) 165 b) 166 c) 167 d) 168 17. 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, 42, ?
a) 56 b) 60 c) 64 d) 48
3. 583 : 293 : : 488 : ?
a) 291 b) 378 18. NMT, POV, RQX, ?
c) 487 d) 581 a) TSZ b) TPZ c) TSY d) TRZ

4. D: 25: :F:? 19. Five years ago, the ages of Raju and Rani were in
a) 36 b) 49 c) 09 d) 10 the ratio 1 : 10. Today the sum of their aged is 32
years. What will be their ages after 10 years?
5. ACE: VXZ: :FHJ:? a) 7, 27 b) 17, 35
a) VXZ b) TVX c) PRT d) QSU c) 15, 55 d) 18, 38

6. Milk: Cream: :? 20. A and B are brothers. C and D are sisters. A’s son
a) College: Student b) Sugar: Salt is D’s brother. How B related to C?
c) Clay: Pottery d) Fruit: Guava a) Father b) Brother
c) Grandfather d) Uncle
Directions: In Question nos. 7 to 12, find the odd
word/number/letters/number pair from the given 21. From the given alternative words, select the word
alternatives. which cannot be formed using the letters of the given
7. a) Prize b) Gift word:
c) Award d) Charity MISUNDERSTAND
a) TENT b) SEND
8. a) E b) O c) P d) U c) SENT d) MEND

9. a) ULEP b) SERT 22. From the given alternative words, select the word
c) OUSQ d) ACID which can be formed using the letters of the given
word:
10. a) 256671 b) 257931 CONFIGURATION
c) 276471 d) 265391 a) CONFIRM b) CONJUGAL
c) FINGER d) GOAT
11. a) 343 – 7 b) 516 – 8
c) 216 – 6 d) 729 – 9

12. a) River b) Lake

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23. Alphabets are coded by numbers in reverse order. 9 3 15
When unscrambled we will get a word. Find that 6 6 ?
meaningful word hidden in one of the responses. a) 22 b) 18 c) 16 d) 20
a) 26, 18, 11, 12, 13 b) 18, 11, 26, 13, 16
c) 13, 11, 18, 16, 26 d) 11, 18, 26, 13, 12 35. Raja took 1 h to travel 2/5 of a journey. He then
took another 1 h to travel the next 1/5 of the journey.
24. If the alphabets A to Z represents each other in He spent 45 min to travel the remaining 220km. Find
the reverse order i.e. A = Z, B = Y, C = X etc., then the distance he travelled in the whole journey.
how ‘HOUR’ would be written? a) 550km b) 220km
a) SLIF b) SLFI c) 330km d) 440km
c) SLEI d) none of these
36. P, Q, R and S are playing a game of carom. P, R
25. In a certain code BRIDGE is written as EULGJH. and S. Q are partners. S is the right of R who is facing
How will FRUIT be written in the same code? west. Then Q is facing.
a) IVLXW b) IUWXL a) South b) East
c) IUXLW d) IUXWL c) West d) North

26. If DGKJL is coded as 14879 and KKKLJ is coded Directions: In question nos. 37 and 38, two statements
as 88897, then how can ‘HDEGF’ be coded? are followed by four/two conclusions/assumptions.
a) 96854 b) 51243 You have to consider the statement to be true, even if
c) 52134 d) 68549 it seems to be at variance from commonly known
facts. You are to decide which of the given
27. If 123= 14 and 323=22, then 624=? conclusions/assumptions can definitely be drawn
a) 60 b) 72 c) 56 d) 55 from the given statement indicate your answer.
37. Which if the following option is suitable for
28. To build a wall, 254 bricks are required. Builder given question and statement?
has to build 88 such walls. He is having 20, 100 bricks Statement: Is ‘Maruti Car’ twice as fuel efficient as an
& ordered 500 more. How many bricks will be ordinary car?
require more? Assumptions: (I) A large number of people use
a) 2352 b) 1352 ‘Maruti Car’.
c) 1752 d) 2052 (II) The sale of ‘Maruti Car’ has increased.
a) Assumptions (I) alone is implicit.
29. Insert the correct sign and find out the result: b) Assumptions (II) alone is implicit.
24 * 7 * 5 * 5 * 8 = 25 c) Assumptions (I) and (II) both are implicit.
a) +, ÷, ×, - b) ÷, +, -, × d) Assumptions (I) and (II) are both not implicit.
c) ×, -, +, ÷ d) -, ×, ÷, +
38. Statements: (1) All scientists working in America
30. + =? are talented.
a) 57 b) 37 c) 35 d) 47 (2) Some Indian Scientists are working in America.
Conclusions: (1) All talented scientists are Indian.
31. If ‘÷’ for ‘+’, ‘-‘for ‘×’, ‘+’ for ‘÷’ and ‘×’ for ‘-‘, (2) None of Indian scientists is talented.
which one of the following is correct? (3) Some Indian scientists are talented.
a) 15 × 12 ÷ 18 – 4 = 40 b) 72 + 9 – 13 ÷ 6 = 80 (4) Some talented Indian scientists are working in
c) 36 + 4 – 3 × 4 = 23 d) 56 ÷ 13 – 14 + 6 = 160 America.
a) (1) & (4) b) (2) only
Directions: In question nos. 32 to 34, select the c) (3) & (4) d) (4) only
missing number from the given responses.
32. 18 16 7 39. Among the four answer figures, which one can be
35 25 ? formed from the cut pieces given below in the
7 23 58 question figure?
24 32 65 Question figure:
a) 19 b) 15 c) 13 d) 14

33. 2 4 6
6 2 4 Answer figures:
4 ? 2
a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8

34. 4 8 20

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40. How many triangles are there in this figure?
Question figure:

a) 34 b) 30 c) 28 d) 26 47. From the given answer figures, select the one in

which the question figure is hidden/embedded.
41. How many dots are there on the dice face opposite Question figure:
the one with three dots?

Answer figures:

a) 2 b) 4
c) 5 d) 6
48. A piece of paper folded and punched as shown
42. Which figure best represents the relationship below in the question figures.. From the given
between Ghee, Fats, Food? answer figures, indicate how it will appear when
opened.
Question figures:

43. In the given figure, the triangle represents

Answer figures:
Parliamentarians, the square represents Ministers
and the Circle represents Women. Which portion
represents parliaments who are ministers as well as
women?

49. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which

of the answer figure is the right image of the given
a) G b) E c) F d) B figure?
Question figure:
44. ‘R’ represents businessmen. ‘S’ represents rich
men. ‘T’ represents honest men. Which number will
represent honest rich men?
Answer figures:

a) 3 b) 2 c) 5 d) 4
50. A word is represented by only one set of numbers
Directions: In Question nos. 45 and 46, which answer as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of
figure will complete the pattern in the question numbers given in the alternatives are represented by
figure? two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given
45. Question figure: below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are
numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are
numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices
can be represented first by its row and next by its
Answer figures: column, e.g., ‘B’ can be represented by 21, 33, etc. and
‘R’ can be represented by 67, 77 etc. Similarly, you
have to identify the set for the word given
‘AMAZE’
Matrix-I
0 1 2 3 4
46. Question figure: 0 M N L Q R
1 P G D E Q
2 R B C T S
3 T A D B O
4 L Z W N E
Answer figures:
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Matrix-II 53. The two components of an eco-system are

5 6 7 8 9 a) Plants and animals b) Biotic and abiotic
5 E T A M Z c) Plants and light d) Weeds and micro-organism
6 B S R A B
7 T N R K C 54. The most stable measure of central tendency is
8 O C G E D a) Mean b) Mode c) Media d) Range
9 Q R S V F
a) 31, 58, 86, 95, 88 b) 68, 00, 31, 14, 13 55. According to which Article, State Legislative
c) 57, 58, 13, 59, 31 d) 31, 58, 57, 41, 13 Council can be created or abolished?
a) Article 168 b) Article 169
c) Article 167 d) Article 170

56. Of the following Rapeseed belongs to

a) Pepper b) Linseed
c) Mustard d) Coffee

57. The resistance of an ideal voltmeter is

a) infinite b) high
c) zero d) low

58. An electronic path that sends signals from one

part of computer to another is
a) Logic gate b) Serial Port
c) Modem d) Bus

59. Television was invented by

a) J.L. Baird b) R.A. Millikan
c) Louis Braille d) Lawrence

60. Reserve Bank of India was nationalized in

a) 1949 b) 1948 c) 1947 d) 1945

61. Which of the following works on the basis of

conservation of linear momentum?
a) Helicopter b) Jet
c) Rocket d) Aeroplane

62. In marine whales, the limbs are modified as

a) Flappers b) Grippers
c) Slippers d) Flippers

63. Penicillin was discovered by

a) Louis Pasteur b) Alexander Fleming
c) Ian Fleming d) Edward Jenner

64. A defect of vision in which the points in one

plane of an object appear in focus while those in
another plane are out of focus is called
a) Myopia b) Hypermetropia
PART – B- GENERAL AWARNESS c) Astigmatism d) Distortion
51. When did India become a fully sovereign
Democratic Republic? 65. To whom did Allaudin Khilji entrust the mission
a) 26th November, 1951 b) 26th November, 1930 to conquer South?
c) 26th January, 1949 d) 26th November, 1949 a) Ulugha Khan b) Khizra Khan
c) Malik Kafur d) Shaji Malik
52. The hard enamel layer of teeth is
a) calcium hydroxide b) Calcium phosphate 66. Mercury thermometer was invented by
c) calcium oxide d) Calcium hydroxy apatite a) Galileo b) Priestley

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 CODE –SSC 2020/MT-5 SENIOR BATCH
c) Newton d) Fahrenheit
80. Center for Ecological Sciences is situated at
67. Amjad Ali Khan is associated with which of the a) Bengaluru b) Allahabad
following musical instruments? c) Karnal d) New Delhi
a) Veena b) Violin c) Sarod d) Sitar
81. When is Human Rights Day celebrated?
68. Which of the following is observed as Sports Day a) 9th Dec. b) 10th Oct.
every year? c) 12 Dec.
th d) 10th Dec.
a) 2 October b) 26 July
c) 22 April d) 29 August 82. The last dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate was the
a) Lodi dynasty b) Slave dynasty
69. The Earth is nearest to the Sun on c) Syed dynasty d) Khilji dynasty
a) 3 January b) 23 September
c) 21 March d) 4 July 83. What is Hawala?
a) Full details of a subject b) Tax evasion
70. A sufficiently large scale map indicating the c) Illegal trading of shares
detailed surface features of an area including relief is d) Illegal transactions of foreign exchange
called
a) Relief map b) Chorographical map 84. The first National Park of India is
c) Topographical map d) Wall map a) Corbett National Park
b) Simlipal National Park
71. Vitamin which provides immunity c) Dachigam Wild Life Sanctuary
a) K b) C c) A d) E d) Hazaribagh National Park

72. Which of the following is the best indicator of 85. Breath analyzers used by police to test drunken
SO2 pollution? drivers works on the chemical basis of
a) Pteridophyte b) Algae a) Precipitation reactions
c) Lichen d) Bryophyte b) Complexation reactions
c) Acid-base reactions d) Redox reactions
73. Respiration is controlled by _____part of brain.
a) Medulla Oblongata b) Olfactory Lobes 86. The World Environment Day is celebrated on
c) Cerebellum d) Hypothalamus a) June 16 b) June 5 c) April 7 d) August 6

74. The Great Bath was found at 87. Who was the first Delhi sultan to break the power
a) Mohenjodaro b) Chanhudaro of the Turkish nobles known as the Chahalgani or
c) Lothal d) Harappa the Forty?
a) Iltutmish b) Qutb-ud-din-Aibak
75. Who was the first to use the term “Micro” and c) Raziya d) Balban
“Macro” in Economics in 1933?
a) Ragnar Frisch b) James Tobin 88. There are only two metals that are non-silver in
c) Gurly d) Fischer color, they are
a) Nickel & Zinc b) Palladium & Platinum
76. Which country earned the title “The Queen of c) Copper & Gold d) Sodium & Magnesium
seas”?
a) Italy b) France 89. The system in which the few govern many is
c) Germany d) Britain known as
a) Plutocracy b) Autocracy
77. Which of the following species is locally extinct in c) Oligarchy d) Monarchy
India?
a) Siberian Grane b) The Gyps vulture 90. The lowest temperature is recorded by
c) Forest Owlet d) White Bellied Heron a) Maximum reading thermometer
b) Minimum reading thermometer
78. Aggregate Monetary Resources is c) Mercurial thermometer
a) M2 b) M4 c) M1 d) M3 d) Alcohol thermometer

79. India’s 1st Hi-Speed Rural Broadband Network 91. ICMP is used for
been commissioned in a district of a) Multitasking b) Forwarding
a) Andhra Pradesh b) Karnataka c) Error reporting d) Addressing
c) Telangana d) Kerala

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 CODE –SSC 2020/MT-5 SENIOR BATCH
92. Who is the founder of Homeopathy?
a) Laennec b) Waksman 104. The continuity equation
c) Domagk d) Hahnemann P1 V1 A1= p2V2A2
is based on the following assumption
93. Which gas responsible for depletion of ozone regarding flow of fluid
layer around earth which protects us from harmful a) steady flow b) uniform flow
ultra-violet rays? c) incompressible flow d) frictionless flow
a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen where p1 and p2 are mass densities.
c) Nitrogen oxide d) Chlorofluro-carbons
105. The loss of energy due to sudden enlargement is
94. Which scientists wrote a book called “A Brief given by
History of Time”? a) b) c) d)
a) Stephen Hawking b) J.L. Baird
c) Edward Jenner d) Pasteur
106. For shooting flow the Froude number is
95. Who was the first Deputy Prime Minister of a) zero b) less than one c) one d) greater than one
India?
a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel b) Gulzarilal Nanda 107. Equation of continuity is based on the principle
c) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad of conservation of
d) Jawaharlal Nehru a) mass b) energy
c) momentum d) none of the above
96. A plane glass slab is kept over colored letters, the
letter which appears least raised is 108. Pitot tube is used for measurement of
a) Red b) Blue c) Violet d) Green a) low pressures b) flow of ideal fluids only
c) velocity at a point d) discharge
97. Where is Brabourne Stadium located?
a) Jamshedpur b) Kolkata 109. Pumps may be put in the increasing order of
c) Mumbai d) Cuttack specific speeds as
a) centrifugal pumps, mixed flow pumps, axial flow
98. Which is the final Appellate Court of Justice? pumps
a) District Court b) High Court b) centrifugal pumps, axial flow pumps, mixed flow
c) Civil Court d) Supreme Court pumps
c) mixed flow pumps, axial flow pumps, centrifugal
99. Which of the following regulates the working of pumps
share market in India? d) mixed flow pumps, centrifugal pumps, axial flow
a) MRTP Act b) SEBI pumps
c) BIFR d) FERA
110. An impulse turbine
100. Mass number is the sum of a) always operates submerged
a) Electrons and neutrons b) makes use of a draft tube
b) Protons and neutrons c) operates by initial complete conversion to
c) Only protons d) Electrons and protons kinetic energy
d) converts pressure head into velocity throughout the
PART C – CIVIL ENGINEERING vanes
101. In a rectangular channel, the critical depth is
given by 111.Voids ratio of a soil mass can
a) never be greater than unity b) be zero
c) take any value greater than zero
a) b) c) d) d) take values between 0 and 1 only

102. A Differential manometer measures 112. The ratio for a soil mass is
a)absolute pressure at a point
b) local atmospheric pressure called
c) difference in total energy between two points a) liquidity index b) shrinkage ratio
d) difference in pressure between two points c) consistency index d) toughness index

103. The unit of kinematic viscosity is 113. A soil has a liquid limit of 45% and lies above
a) gm/cm-sec2 b) dyne-sec/cm the A-line when plotted on a plasticity chart. The
group symbol of the soil as per IS soil Classification
c) gm/cm -sec
2 d) cm2/sec
is
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a) CH b) CI c) CL d) MI 125. As per Lacey’s regime theory, the flow velocity
is proportional to
114. Rankine’s theory of earth pressure assumes that a) b) c) d)
the back of the wall is
a) Plane and smooth b) plane and rough 126. The ratio of the quantity of water stored in the
c) vertical and smooth d) vertical and rough root zone of the crops to the quantity of water
actually delivered in the field is known as
115. Which of the following statements is FALSE? a) Water conveyance efficiency
a) Plumb line is along the direction of gravity b) Water application efficiency
b) Mean Sea Level (MSL) is used as a reference surface c) Water use efficiency
for establishing the horizontal control d) None of the above
c) Mean Sea Level (MSL) is a simplification of the
Geoid 127. Softening point of bitumen to be used for road
d) Geoid is an equi-potential surface of gravity construction at a place where maximum temperature
is 400 C should be
116. The correction to be applied to each 30 m a) less than 400C b) grater than 400C
chain length along slope is c) equal to 40 C
0 d) none of the above
a) 30(1-sec ) m b) 30 (sec )m
c) 30 (1-cos ) m d) 30 (cos )m 128. The percentage compensation in gradient for
ruling gradient of 4% and horizontal curve of radius
117. A triangle is said to be well conditioned when 760 m is
its angles lie between a) 0.1% b) 1% c) 10% d) no compensation
a) 200 and 1200 b) 300 and 1200
c) 150 and 1350 d) 250 and 1300 129. The primary object of providing Camber is
(a) Easy drainage
118. If the magnetic bearing of a line is 480 24’ and (b) Improved appearance
the magnetic declination is 50 30’ East, then the true (c) Easy separation of up and down traffic
bearing is (d) Easy overtaking facilit
a) 420 54’ b) 370 24’ c) 530 54’ d) 590 24’
130. The length of rectangular sedimentation tank
119. Dip of the magnetic needle at magnetic poles is should not be more than
a) 00 b) 450 c) 600 d) 900 a) B b) 2B c) 4B d) 8B

120. The process of turning the telescope about the 131. Standard BOD is measured at
vertical axis in horizontal plane is known as a) 200C-1day b) 250C-3day
a) transiting b) reversing c) plunging d) swinging c) 200C-5day d) 300C-5day

121. Three point problem can be solved by 132. Detailed specifications includes
a) Tracing paper method b) Bessels method a) Rates of various items of work
c) Lehman’s method d) any of the above b) Measurements ta ken aft er execution of
work
122. Horizontal distance obtained by tacheometric c) Quantities of items dumped at site
observations d) Quantities a nd qua lities of materials
a) require slope correction
b) require tension correction 133. If ‘b’ is the width of formation, ’d’ is the height
c) require slope and tension corrections of the embankment, of length ‘L’ and side slope n:1
d) do not requires slope and tension correction for a road, the quantity of earth work is
a) (b/d+ nd)L b) (bd +nd2)L
123. The length of the long chord of a simple circular c) (bd-n )L2 d)L/2(bd+nd2)
curve off radius R and angle of deflection A is
a) R cos b) 2R cos 134. Calculate the quantity of in te rnal
c) 2 R sin d) R sin plastering for a enclosure as shown belo w.
The height is 3.0m.
124. Which of the following methods estimates best
the area of an irregular and curved boundary?
a) Trapezoidal method b) Simpson’s method
c) Average ordinate method d) Mid-ordinate method

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(c) druxiness (a) doatiness.

145. Most economical methods of sawing wood is

a) radial sawing b) tangential sawing
c) quarter sawing d) flat sawing.

a) 10m 2 b) 20 m 2 c) 60 m 3 d) 60 m 2 146. The normal consistency of ordinary

Portland cement is about
135. The density of cement is generally taken as a) 10% b) 20% c) 30% d) 40%
a)1500kg/m3 b)1750kg/m3
c)1250kg/m 3 d)2000kg/m3 147. Plywood has the advantage of
a) greater tensile strength in longer direction
136. The quantity cement concrete damp-proofing b) greater tensile strength in shorter direction
course is measured in terms of c) same tensile strength in all directions
a)m b)m2 c)m3 d)lump-sum d) none of the above

137. One brick thickness of wall is roughly equal to 148. Tiles are used for
a)10 cm b)15cm c)20 cm d)30 cm a) covering the roofs and floorings
b) making drains
138. In the detailed estimate the volumes are worked c) both (a) and (b)
out to the nearest d) none of the above.
a) 0.001m3 b) 0.005m3 c) 0.01m3 d) 0.05m3
149. Solvent commonly used for oil paints is
139. The expenses of items which do not come under
any regular head item and the cost of unforeseen
a) tar b) petrol c) acquaregia d) turpentine
items are called
a)lump-sum b)extras 150. The carrier in case of distemper is
c)customary charges d)contingencies a) Linseed oil b) White lead
c) Poppy oil d) Water
140. Sandstone is a
i) sedimentary rock PART D – STRUCTURAL ENGINEERING
ii) argilaceous rock
iii) silicious rock 151. As compared to field rivets, the shop rivets are
The correct answer is a) stronger b) weaker
a) only (i) b) both (i) and (ii) c) equally strong d) any of the above
c) both (i) and (iii) d) all (i), (ii) and (iii)
152. Continuous weld of constant thickness is called
141. Smith’s test is conducted on a sample of stone to (a) fillet weld ( b ) seam weld
find out which of the following parameter? (c) stitch weld ( d ) butt weld.
a) Compressive strength b) Toughness
153. The maximum permissible slenderness ratio of
c) Presence of soluble matter d) Hardness
steel ties likely to be subjected to possible reversal of
stress due to wind or seismic forces is
142. Percentage of silica in a good brick earth (a) 180 (b) 250
lies between (c)350 (d) no limit.
a) 5 to 10% b) 20 to 30%
c) 50 to 60% d) 70 to 80% 154. Intermediate vertical stiffeners are provided in
plate girders to
(a) transfer concentrated loads
143. Refractory bricks are specially manufactured
(b) prevent excessive deflection
a) to withstand high temperature (c) eliminate web buckling
b) to withstand high crushing pressure (d) eliminate local buckling.
c) to have high insulation against sound
d) none of the above. 155. The strength of a butt weld is
(a) About 70 to 90 per cent of the main member
(b) Equal to that of the main member
144. When the timber is attacked by fungus and
(c) Equal to or more than that of the main member
reduced to powder, it is called
( d ) More than that of the main member.
(a) wet rot (b) dry rot

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 CODE –SSC 2020/MT-5 SENIOR BATCH
156. Lacing bars in a steel column should be b)Over-reinforced
designed to resist c) Doubly reinforced
a) bending moment due to 2.5% of the column load d) Compressive failur e
b) shear force due to 2.5% of the column load
c) 2.5% of the column load 167. For the design of retaining walls, the minimum
d) both (a) and (b) factor of safety against over- turning is taken as
a) 1.5 b) 2.0 c) 2.5 d) 3.0
157. The effective length of a battened column
is increased by 168. If nominal shear stress exceeds the design
a) 5% b) 10% c) 15% d) 20% shear strength of concrete , the nominal shear
reinforcement as per IS: 456-1978 shall be provided
158. In the cross-section of a weld, throat is the for carrying a shear stress equal to
a) minimum dimension a) b) c) d)
b) average dimension
c) maximum dimension 169. For a cantilever of effective depth of 0.5 m, the
d) none of the above maximum span to satisfy vertical deflection limit is
a) 3.5 m b) 4 m c) 4.5 m d) 5 m
159. The main function of Column base is to
a) transmit the Column load to foundation block 170. Minimum pitch of transverse reinforcement in a
b) resist the Deflections column is
c) resist lateral forces a) the least lateral dimension of the member
d) reduce the effect of vibrations b) sixteen times the smallest diameter of longitudinal
reinforcement bar to be tied
160. Calculate the s trength of filler we ld per c) forty-eight times the diameter of transverse
1 mm of 6 mm siz e with a llowab le sh ear reinforcement
stress in the we ld 10 0 Mpa. d) lesser of the above three values
a) 700 N b) 600 N c) 42 4 N d) 4 20 N
171. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
161. The unit weight of Reinforced concrete made a) Minimum cross sectional area of longitudinal
with sand and gravel or crushed natural stone reinforcement column is 0.8%.
aggregate may be taken as (in kN/m3) b) Spacing of longitudinal bar measured along the
a) 20 b) 23 c) 24 d) 25 periphery of column should not exceed 300mm.
c) Reinforcing bars in a column should not be less than
162. The minimum diameter of longitudinal bars in a 12 mm in diameter.
column is d) The number of longitudinal bars provided in a
a) 6 mm b) 8 mm c) 12 mm d) 16 mm circular column should not be less than four.

163. Maximum percentage reinforcement in case of 172. The maximum shear stress will always occur at
slabs is limited to (a) Neutral axis
a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8 (b) The top extreme fibre
(c) The bottom extreme fibre
164. A T-beam behaves as a rectangular beam of (d) A fibre in the cross-section depending on the
width equal to its flange if its 'NA'? configuration.
a) Coincides with centroid of reinforcement
b) coincides with centroid of T-Section 173. The deflection at the free end of a cantilever
c) remains with in the flange subjected to a couple M at its free end and having a
d) remains in the web uniform flexural rigidity EI throughout its length ‘L’
is equal to
165. For vertica l s tirrups, the ma ximum a) b) c) d)
spacing of shea r reinf orce ment measu red
along the axis of the member shall not
174. A simply Supported beam subjected to
exceed
uniformly varying load with zero intensity at the
a) 0.75 d b ) 0.40 d c ) 0.15 d d ) 0.12 d
right end and w per meter length at the left end is
a) wl2/9 b) wl2/9√3 c) wl2/√3 d) wl2/2√3
166. The size o f the rec tangular sec tion is
fixed and the moment of res is tance o f a
175. For a column of length 'L', fixed at both ends,
singly re inforced sec tion is less than design
and flexural rigidity EI, the critical load is given by
moment. The beam s hall be des igned as
a) Under –reinfor ced

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 CODE –SSC 2020/MT-5 SENIOR BATCH
(b) the B.M. is zero
a) b) c) d) (c) The beam is supported
(d) Where the B.M. changes its sign.
176. The difference in ordinate of the shear
curve between any two sections is equal to the 183. Euler's formula for a mild steel long column
area under hinged at both ends is not valid for slenderness ratio
a) load curve between these two sections a) greater than 80 b) less than 80
b) shear curve between these two sections c) greater than 180 d) greater than 120
c) bending moment curve between these two
sections 184. Strain energy stored in a member is given by
d) load curve between these two sections plus a) 0.5 x stress x volume b) 0.5 x strain x volume
concentrated loads applied between the c) 0.5 x stress x strain x volume d) 0.5 x stress x strain
sections
185. The moment of inertia of a rectangular section b
177. The ratio of torsional moments of resistance of a x d about the centroidal axix is
solid circular shaft of diameter D and a hollow shaft (A)1/12 bd3 (b)1/3bd 3
having external diameter D and internal diameter ‘d’ (c) 1/36 bd 3 (d)bd 2 /6.
is given by
a) b) c) d) 186. In the manufacture of cement, the dry or wet
mixture of calcareous and argillaceous materials
is burnt at a temperature between
178. The assumption in the theory of bending that a ) 900°Cto 1000°C b ) 1000°C to 1200°C
the material is homogeneous and isotropic and has c ) 1200°Cto 1500°C d ) 1500°C to 1600°C
the same value of Young's Modulus in tension and
compression implies that 187. The sum of the percentage of tricalcium silicate
(a) The stresses are proportional strains at all fibres and dicalcium silicate for Portland cement
(b) The strains are proportional to distances of the varies from
fibres from neutral axis a) 50 to 60% b ) 60 to 70%
(c) The beam bends into a circular arc c) 70 to 80% d ) 80 to 90%
(d) The neutral axis lies at the centre.
188. To perform the initial setting time test, the water
179. is added to the cement at the rate of……….by weight
of cement.
a ) 0.72 P b ) 0.78 P c ) 0.85 P d ) 0.95 P

1 8 9 . According to IS : 269-1976, the requirement of

an ordinary Portland cement is that
The shear stress distribution shown in figure. 10.58 a) the residue does not exceed 10% when sieved
represent a beam with cross section. through IS sieve No. 9
b) its expansion is not more than 10 mm for un aerated
cement
c) its initial setting time is not less than 30 minutes
a) b) c) d) d) all of the above

180. The relationship between Young’s modulus of 190. Which of the following workability tests is most
elasticity E, bulk modulus K and Poisson’s ratio is suitable for concrete of very low workability?
given by i) slump test
a) E = 2K (1-2 ) b) E = 3K (1+ ) ii) compacting factor test
c) E = 3K (1-2 ) d) E = 2K (1+ ) iii) Vee-Bee test
The correct answer is
181. A simply supported beam is subjected to a a) only(ii) b) only (iii) c) (i)and(ii) d) (i) and (iii)
central concentrated load. The slope at the two ends
is given by. 191. The aggregate is said to be flaky when
a) its least dimension is three-fifth of its mean
(a) (b) dimension
(c) (d) b) its least dimension is equal to its mean dimension
c) its length is equal to its mean dimension
182. Points of contraflexture are the points where d) its length is equal to 1.8 times its mean dimension
(a) The S.F. is zero
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 CODE –SSC 2020/MT-5 SENIOR BATCH
192. The percentage of fine aggregate to be combined
with coarse aggregate ( x ) is determined by
a) b)
c) d)

193. Admixtures which cause early setting, and

hardening of concrete are called
a) workability admixtures b) accelerators
c) retarders d) air entraining agents

194. Maximum permissible limit of magnesia

content in ordinary Portland cement is
a) 4% b) 6% c) 8% d) 10%

195. For a constant water-cement ratio, decrease in

aggregate-cement ratio causes
a) increase in workability b) decrease in workability
c) no change in workability d) none of the above

196. Admixtures which cause early setting, and

hardening of concrete are called
a) workability admixtures b) accelerators
c) retarders d) air entraining agents

197. The compressive strength of 100 mm cube 'as

compared to 150 mm cube is always
a) less b) more c) equal d) none of the above

198. The fineness modulus of fine aggregate is in the

range of
a) 2.0 to 3.5 b) 3.5 to 5.0 c) 5.0 to 7.0 d) 6.0 to 8.5

199. For testing compressive and tensile strength

of cement, the cement mortar is
made by mixing cement and standard sand in the
proportions of
a) 1:2 b) 1:3 c) 1:4 d) 1:6

200. Mean target strength [ft] is given by (Where fck is

28 day Characteristic compressive strength and 'S' is
Standards deviation.)
a) ft = fck + 0.65 s b) ft = fck - 1.65 s
c) ft = fck + 1.65 s d) ft = fck - 0.65 s

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