PRINCIPLES AND PLANNING FOR RESEARCH

1. Which of the following should not be a criterion for a good research project?

a. Demonstrates the abilities of the researcher

b. Is dependent on the completion of other projects
c. Demonstrates the integration of different fields of knowledge
d. Develops the skills of the researcher

Answer:

b. Is dependent on the completion of other projects

2. Which form of reasoning is the process of drawing a specific conclusion from a set of
premises?

a. Objective reasoning
b. Positivistic reasoning
c. Inductive reasoning
d. Deductive reasoning

Answer:

d: Deductive reasoning

3. Research that seeks to examine the findings of a study by using the same design but a
different sample is which of the following?

a. An exploratory study
b. A replication study
c. An empirical study
d. Hypothesis testing

Answer:

b: A replication study

4. A researcher designs an experiment to test how variables interact to influence job-seeking

behaviours. The main purpose of the study was:

a. Description
b. Prediction
c. Exploration
d. Explanation

Answer:

d: Explanation
5. Cyber bullying at work is a growing threat to employee job satisfaction. Researchers want to
find out why people do this and how they feel about it. The primary purpose of the study is:

a. Description
b. Prediction
c. Exploration
d. Explanation

Answer:

c: Exploration

6. A theory:

a. Is an accumulated body of knowledge

b. Includes inconsequential ideas
c. Is independent of research methodology
d. Should be viewed uncritically

Answer:

a: Is an accumulated body of knowledge

7. Which research method is a bottom-up approach to research?

a. Deductive method
b. Explanatory method
c. Inductive method
d. Exploratory method

Answer:

c: Inductive method

8. How much confidence should you place in a single research study?

a. You should trust research findings after different researchers have replicated the findings
b. You should completely trust a single research study
c. Neither a nor b
d. Both a and b

Answer:

a: You should trust research findings after different researchers have replicated the findings

9. A qualitative research problem statement:

a. Specifies the research methods to be utilized

b. Specifies a research hypothesis
c. Expresses a relationship between variables
d. Conveys a sense of emerging design

Answer: d: Conveys a sense of emerging design

10. Which of the following is a good research question?

a. To produce a report on student job searching behaviours

b. To identify the relationship between self-efficacy and student job searching behaviours
c. Students with higher levels of self-efficacy will demonstrate more active job searching
behaviours
d. Do students with high levels of self-efficacy demonstrate more active job searching
behaviours?

Answer:

d: Do students with high levels of self-efficacy demonstrate more active job searching
behaviours?

11. A review of the literature prior to formulating research questions allows the researcher to :

a. Provide an up-to-date understanding of the subject, its significance, and structure

b. Guide the development of research questions
c. Present the kinds of research methodologies used in previous studies
d. All of the above

Answer:

d: All of the above

12. Sometimes a comprehensive review of the literature prior to data collection is not
recommended by:

a. Ethnomethodology
b. Grounded theory
c. Symbolic interactionism
d. Feminist theory

Answer:

b: Grounded theory

13. The feasibility of a research study should be considered in light of:

a. Cost and time required to conduct the study

b. Access to gatekeepers and respondents
c. Potential ethical concerns
d. All of the above

Answer:

d: All of the above

14. Research that uses qualitative methods for one phase and quantitative methods for the next
phase is known as:

a. Action research
b. Mixed-method research
c. Quantitative research
d. Pragmatic research

Answer:

b: Mixed-method research

15. Research hypotheses are:

a. Formulated prior to a review of the literature

b. Statements of predicted relationships between variables
c. B but not A
d. Both A and B

Answer:

c: B but not A

16. Which research approach is based on the epistemological viewpoint of pragmatism?

a. Quantitative research
b. Qualitative research
c. Mixed-methods research
d. All of the above

Answer:

c: Mixed-methods research

17. Adopting ethical principles in research means:

a. Avoiding harm to participants

b. The researcher is anonymous
c. Deception is only used when necessary
d. Selected informants give their consent

Answer:

a: Avoiding harm to participants

18. A radical perspective on ethics suggests that:

a. Researchers can do anything they want

b. The use of checklists of ethical actions is essential
c. The powers of Institutional Review Boards should be strengthened
d. Ethics should be based on self-reflexivity

Answer: d: Ethics should be based on self-reflexivity

18. A radical perspective on ethics suggests that:

a. Researchers can do anything they want

b. The use of checklists of ethical actions is essential
c. The powers of Institutional Review Boards should be strengthened
d. Ethics should be based on self-reflexivity

Answer:

d: Ethics should be based on self-reflexivity

20. The Kappa statistic:

a. Is a measure of inter-judge validity

b. Compares the level of agreement between two judges against what might have been
predicted by chance
c. Ranges from 0 to +1
d. Is acceptable above a score of 0.5

Answer:

b: Compares the level of agreement between two judges against what might have been
predicted by chance

RESEARCH METHODOLOGY:

1. Which research paradigm is most concerned about generalizing its findings?

a. Quantitative research

b. Qualitative research

c. Mixed-methods research

d. All of the above

Answer:

a: Quantitative research

2. A variable that is presumed to cause a change in another variable is called:

a. An intervening variable

b. A dependent variable

c. An independent variable

d. A numerical variable
Answer:

c: An independent variable

3. Researchers posit that performance-related pay increases employee motivation which in turn
leads to an increase in job satisfaction. What kind of variable is ‘motivation”’ in this study?

a. Extraneous

b. Confounding

c. Intervening

d. Manipulated

Answer:

c: Intervening

4. Which correlation is the strongest?

a. –1.00
b. +80
c. –60
d. +05

Answer:

a: –1.00

5. When interpreting a correlation coefficient expressing the relationship between two variables, it
is important not to:

a. Assume causality
b. Measure the values for X and Y independently
c. Choose X and Y values that are normally distributed
d. Check the direction of the relationship

Answer:

a: Assume causality

6. Which of the following can be described as a nominal variable?

a. Annual income
b. Age
c. Annual sales
d. Geographical location of a firm

Answer:
d: Geographical location of a firm

7. A positive correlation occurs when:

a. Two variables remain constant

b. Two variables move in the same direction
c. One variable goes up and the other goes down
d. Two variables move in opposite directions

Answer:

b: Two variables move in the same direction

8. The key defining characteristic of experimental research is that:

a. The independent variable is manipulated

b. Hypotheses are proved
c. A positive correlation exists
d. Samples are large

Answer:

a: The independent variable is manipulated

9. Qualitative research is used in all the following circumstances, EXCEPT:

a. It is based on a collection of non-numerical data such as words and pictures

b. It often uses small samples
c. It uses the inductive method
d. It is typically used when a great deal is already known about the topic of interest

Answer:

d: It is typically used when a great deal is already known about the topic of interest

10. In an experiment, the group that does not receive the intervention is called:

a. The experimental group

b. The participant group
c. The control group
d. The treatment group

Answer:

c: The control group

11. Which generally cannot be guaranteed in conducting qualitative studies in the field?

a. Keeping participants from physical and emotional harm

b. Gaining informed consent
c. Assuring anonymity rather than just confidentiality
d. Maintaining consent forms

Answer: c: Assuring anonymity rather than just confidentiality

12. Which of the following is not ethical practice in research with humans?

a. Maintaining participants’ anonymity

b. Gaining informed consent
c. Informing participants that they are free to withdraw at any time
d. Requiring participants to continue until the study has been completed

Answer:

d: Requiring participants to continue until the study has been completed

13. What do we call data that are used for a new study but which were collected by an earlier
researcher for a different set of research questions?

a. Secondary data
b. Field notes
c. Qualitative data
d. Primary data

Answer:

a: Secondary data

14. When each member of a population has an equal chance of being selected, this is called:

a. A snowball sample
b. A stratified sample
c. A random probability sample
d. A non-random sample

Answer:

c: A random probability sample

15. Which of the following techniques yields a simple random sample of companies?

a. Randomly selecting a district and then sampling all companies within the district
b. Numbering all the elements of a company sampling frame and then using a random
number table to pick companies from the table
c. Listing companies by sector and choosing a proportion from within each sector at random
d. Choosing volunteer companies to participate

Answer:
b: Numbering all the elements of a company sampling frame and then using a random number
table to pick companies from the table

16. Which of the following statements are true?

a. The larger the sample size, the larger the confidence interval
b. The smaller the sample size, the greater the sampling error
c. The more categories being measured, the smaller the sample size
d. A confidence level of 95 percent is always sufficient

Answer:

b: The smaller the sample size, the greater the sampling error

17. Which of the following will produce the least sampling error?

a. A large sample based on convenience sampling

b. A small sample based on random sampling
c. A large snowball sample
d. A large sample based on random sampling

Answer:

d: A large sample based on random sampling

18. When people are readily available, volunteer, or are easily recruited to the sample, this is
called:

a. Snowball sampling
b. Convenience sampling
c. Stratified sampling
d. Random sampling

Answer:

b: Convenience sampling

19. In qualitative research, sampling that involves selecting diverse cases is referred to as:

a. Typical-case sampling
b. Critical-case sampling
c. Intensity sampling
d. Maximum variation sampling

Answer:

d: Maximum variation sampling

19. In qualitative research, sampling that involves selecting diverse cases is referred to as:

a. Typical-case sampling
b. Critical-case sampling
c. Intensity sampling
d. Maximum variation sampling

Answer: d: Maximum variation sampling

DATA COLLECTION METHODS:

1. When designing a questionnaire it is important to do each of the following EXCEPT

a. Pilot the questionnaire

b. Avoid jargon
c. Avoid double questions
d. Use leading questions

Answer:

d: Use leading questions

2. One advantage of using a questionnaire is that:

a. Probe questions can be asked

b. Respondents can be put at ease
c. Interview bias can be avoided
d. Response rates are always high

Answer:

c: Interview bias can be avoided

3. Which of the following is true of observations?

a. It takes less time than interviews

b. It is often not possible to determine exactly why people behave as they do
c. Covert observation raises fewer ethical concerns than overt
d. All of the above

Answer:

b: It is often not possible to determine exactly why people behave as they do

4. A researcher secretly becomes an active member of a group in order to observe their

behaviour. This researcher is acting as:

a. An overt participant observer

b. A covert non-participant observer
c. A covert participant observer
d. None of the above

Answer:
c: A covert participant observer

5. All of the following are advantages of structured observation, EXCEPT:

a. Results can be replicated at a different time

b. The coding schedule might impose a framework on what is being observed
c. Data can be collected that participants may not realize is important
d. Data do not have to rely on the recall of participants

Answer:

b: The coding schedule might impose a framework on what is being observed

6. When conducting an interview, asking questions such as: "What else? or ‘Could you expand
on that?’ are all forms of:

a. Structured responses
b. Category questions
c. Protocols
d. Probes

Answer:

d: Probes

7. Secondary data can include which of the following?

a. Government statistics
b. Personal diaries
c. Organizational records
d. All of the above

Answer:

d: All of the above

8. An ordinal scale is:

a. The simplest form of measurement

b. A scale with an absolute zero point
c. A rank-order scale of measurement
d. A scale with equal intervals between ranks

Answer:

c: A rank-order scale of measurement

9. Which term measures the extent to which scores from a test can be used to infer or predict
performance in some activity?

a. Face validity
b. Content reliability
c. Criterion-related validity
d. Construct validity

Answer:

d: Construct validity

10. The ‘reliability’of a measure refers to the researcher asking:

a. Does it give consistent results?

b. Does it measure what it is supposed to measure?
c. Can the results be generalized?
d. Does it have face reliability?

Answer:

a: Does it give consistent results?

11. Interviewing is the favoured approach EXCEPT when:

a. There is a need for highly personalized data

b. It is important to ask supplementary questions
c. High numbers of respondents are needed
d. Respondents have difficulty with written language

Answer:

c: High numbers of respondents are needed

12. Validity in interviews is strengthened by the following EXCEPT:

a. Building rapport with interviewees

b. Multiple questions cover the same theme
c. Constructing interview schedules that contain themes drawn from the literature
d. Prompting respondents to expand on initial responses

Answer:

b: Multiple questions cover the same theme

13. Interview questions should:

a. Lead the respondent

b. Probe sensitive issues
c. Be delivered in a neutral tone
d. Test the respondents’ powers of memory

Answer: c: Be delivered in a neutral tone

14. Active listening skills means:

a. Asking as many questions as possible

b. Avoiding silences
c. Keeping to time
d. Attentive listening

Answer:

d: Attentive listening

15. All the following are strengths of focus groups EXCEPT:

a. They allow access to a wide range of participants

b. Discussion allows for the validation of ideas and views
c. They can generate a collective perspective
d. They help maintain confidentiality

Answer:

d: They help maintain confidentiality

16. Which of the following is not always true about focus groups?

a. The ideal size is normally between 6 and 12 participants

b. Moderators should introduce themselves to the group
c. Participants should come from diverse backgrounds
d. The moderator poses preplanned questions

Answer:

c: Participants should come from diverse backgrounds

17. A disadvantage of using secondary data is that:

a. The data may have been collected with reference to research questions that are not
those of the researcher
b. The researcher may bring more detachment in viewing the data than original researchers
could muster
c. Data have often been collected by teams of experienced researchers
d. Secondary data sets are often available and accessible

Answer:
a: The data may have been collected with reference to research questions that are not those of
the researcher

18. All of the following are sources of secondary data EXCEPT:

a. Official statistics
b. A television documentary
c. The researcher’s research diary
d. A company’s annual report

Answer:

c: The researcher’s research diary

19. Which of the following is not true about visual methods?

a. They are not reliant on respondent recall

b. The have low resource requirements
c. They do not rely on words to capture what is happening
d. They can capture what is happening in real time

Answer:

b: The have low resource requirements

20. Avoiding naïve empiricism in the interpretation of visual data means:

a. Understanding the context in which they were produced

b. Ensuring that visual images such as photographs are accurately taken
c. Only using visual images with other data gathering sources
d. Planning the capture of visual data carefully

Answer:

a: Understanding the context in which they were produced

ANALYSIS AND REPORT WRITING

1. Which of the following is incorrect when naming a variable in SPSS?

a. Must begin with a letter and not a number

b. Must end in a full stop
c. Cannot exceed 64 characters
d. Cannot include symbols such as ?, & and %
Answer:

b: Must end in a full stop

2. Which of the following is not an SPSS Type variable?

a. Word
b. Numeric
c. String
d. Date

Answer:

a: Word

3. A graph that uses vertical bars to represent data is called:

a. A bar chart
b. A pie chart
c. A line graph
d. A vertical graph

Answer:

a: A bar chart

4. The purpose of descriptive statistics is to:

a. Summarize the characteristics of a data set

b. Draw conclusions from the data
c. None of the above
d. All of the above

Answer:

a: Summarize the characteristics of a data set

5. The measure of the extent to which responses vary from the mean is called:

a. The mode
b. The normal distribution
c. The standard deviation
d. The variance

Answer:

c: The standard deviation

6. To compare the performance of a group at time T1 and then at T2, we would use:
 a. A chi-squared test
b. One-way analysis of variance
c. Analysis of variance
d. A paired t-test

Answer: d: A paired t-test

6. To compare the performance of a group at time T1 and then at T2, we would use:

a. A chi-squared test
b. One-way analysis of variance
c. Analysis of variance
d. A paired t-test

Answer:

d: A paired t-test

8. The significance level

a. Is set after a statistical test is conducted

b. Is always set at 0.05
c. Results in a p-value
d. Measures the probability of rejecting a true null hypothesis

Answer:

d: Measures the probability of rejecting a true null hypothesis

9. To predict the value of the dependent variable for a new case based on the knowledge of one
or more independent variables, we would use

a. Regression analysis
b. Correlation analysis
c. Kolmogorov-Smirnov test
d. One-way analysis of variance

Answer:

a: Regression analysis

10. In conducting secondary data analysis, researchers should ask themselves all of the
following EXCEPT:

a. Who produced the document?

b. Is the material genuine?
c. How can respondents be re-interviewed?
d. Why was the document produced?

Answer:

c: How can respondents be re-interviewed?

11. Which of the following are not true of reflexivity?

a. It recognizes that the researcher is not a neutral observer

b. It has mainly been applied to the analysis of qualitative data
c. It is part of a post-positivist tradition
d. A danger of adopting a reflexive stance is the researcher can become the focus of the
study

Answer:

c: It is part of a post-positivist tradition

12. Validity in qualitative research can be strengthened by all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Member checking for accuracy and interpretation

b. Transcribing interviews to improve accuracy of data
c. Exploring rival explanations
d. Analysing negative cases

Answer:

b: Transcribing interviews to improve accuracy of data

13. Qualitative data analysis programs are useful for each of the following EXCEPT:

a. Manipulation of large amounts of data

b. Exploring of the data against new dimensions
c. Querying of data
d. Generating codes

Answer:

d: Generating codes

14. Which part of a research report contains details of how the research was planned and
conducted?

a. Results
b. Design
c. Introduction
d. Background

Answer:

b: Design
15. Which of the following is a form of research typically conducted by managers and other
professionals to address issues in their organizations and/or professional practice?

a. Action research
b. Basic research
c. Professional research
d. Predictive research

Answer:

a: Action research

16. Plagiarism can be avoided by:

a. Copying the work of others accurately

b. Paraphrasing the author’s text in your own words
c. Cut and pasting from the Internet
d. Quoting directly without revealing the source

Answer:

b: Paraphrasing the author’s text in your own words

17. In preparing for a presentation, you should do all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Practice the presentation

b. Ignore your nerves
c. Get to know more about your audience
d. Take an advanced look, if possible, at the facilities

Answer:

b: Ignore your nerves

18. You can create interest in your presentation by:

a. Using bullet points

b. Reading from notes
c. Maximizing the use of animation effects
d. Using metaphors

Answer:

d: Using metaphors

19. In preparing for a viva or similar oral examination, it is best if you have:

a. Avoided citing the examiner in your thesis

b. Made exaggerated claims on the basis of your data
c. Published and referenced your own article(s)
d. Tried to memorize your work

Answer:
c: Published and referenced your own article(s)

20. Grounded theory coding:

a. Makes use of a priori concepts from the literature

b. Uses open coding, selective coding, then axial coding
c. Adopts a deductive stance
d. Stops when theoretical saturation has been reached

Answer:

d: Stops when theoretical saturation has been reached

 Business Research MCQs

1. In the research process, the management question has the following critical
activity in sequence.

a) Origin, selection, statement, exploration and refinement

b) Origin, statement, selection, exploration and refinement
c) Origin, exploration, selection, refinement, and statement
d) Origin, exploration, refinement, selection and statement

2. The chapter that details the way in which the research was conducted is the
_________________________ chapter

a) Introduction
b) Literature review
c) Research methodology
d) Data analysis
e) Conclusion and recommendations

3 . Business research has an inherent value to the extent that it helps management
make better decisions. Interesting information about consumers, employees, or
competitors might be pleasant to have, but its value is limited if the information
cannot be applied to a critical decision.

a) True
b) False

4. The researcher should never report flaws in procedural design and estimate
their effect on the findings.

a) True
b) False

5. Adequate analysis of the data is the least difficult phase of research for the
novice.

a) True
 b) False

6. The validity and reliability of the data should be checked occasionally

a) True
b) False

7. Researchers are tempted to rely too heavily on data collected in a prior study
and use it in the interpretation of a new study

a) True
b) False

8. What is a good research? The following are correct except

a) Purpose clearly defined

b) Research process detailed
c) Research design thoroughly planned
d) Findings presented ambiguously

9. Greater confidence in the research is warranted if the researcher is experienced,

has a good reputation in research, and is a person of integrity

a) True
b) False

10. A complete disclosure of methods and procedures used in the research study
is required. Such openness to scrutiny has a positive effect on the quality of
research. However, competitive advantage often mitigates against methodology
disclosure in business research.

a) True
b) False

11. Research is any organized inquiry carried out to provide information for
solving problems.

a) True
 b) False

12. In deduction, the conclusion must necessarily follow from the reasons given. In
inductive argument there is no such strength of relationship between reasons and
conclusions.

a) True
b) False

13. “Conclusions must necessarily follow from the premises.” Identify the type of
arguments that follows the above condition.

a) Induction
b) Combination of Induction and Deduction
c) Deduction
d) Variables

14. Eminent scientists who claim there is no such thing as the scientific method, or
if exists, it is not reveled by what they write, caution researchers about using
template like approaches

a) True
b) False

15. One of the terms given below is defined as “a bundle of meanings or

characteristics associated with certain events, objects, conditions, situations,
and the like

a) Construct
b) Definition
c) Concept
d) Variable

16. This is an idea or image specifically invented for a given research and/or theory
building purpose

a) Concept
b) Construct
c) Definition
d) Variables
17. The following are the synonyms for independent variable except

a) Stimulus
b) Manipulated
c) Consequence
d) Presumed Cause

18 The following are the synonyms for dependent variable except

a) Presumed effect
b) Measured Outcome
c) Response
d) Predicted from…

19. In the research process, a management dilemma triggers the need for a
decision.

a) True
b) False

20. Every research proposal, regardless of length should include two basic
sections. They are:

a) Research question and research methodology

b) Research proposal and bibliography
c) Research method and schedule
d) Research question and bibliography

21. The purpose of the research proposal is:

a) To generate monetary sources for the organization

b) To present management question to be researched and its importance
c) To discuss the research efforts of others who have worked on related
management question.
d) Choice a) is incorrect
22. A proposal is also known as a:

a) Work plan
b) Prospectus
c) Outline
d) Draft plan
e) All of the above

23. Non response error occurs when you cannot locate the person or could not
encourage the respondent to participate in answering.

a.) True
b.) False

24. Secondary data can almost always be obtained more quickly and at a lower cost
than __________data.

a.) Tertiary
b.) Collective
c.) Research
d.) Primary

25. The purpose of __________________ research is to help in the process of

developing a clear and precise statement of the research problem rather than in
providing a definitive answer.

a.) Marketing
b.) Causal
c.) Exploratory
d.) Descriptive

26. organizations that collect general information and sell it to clients are called
a) data providers
b) syndicated data services
c) indicated data services
d) dedicated data services
27. the quality of a research to produce almost identical results in successive
repeated trials reflects its:
a) reliability
b) validity
c) accuracy

28. A systematic, controlled, empirical, and critical investigation of natural

phenomena guided by theory and hypothesis is called _____________

a.) Applied Research

b.) Basic Research
c.) Scientific Research
d.) None Of The Above

29. __________________ is the determination of the plan for conducting the

research and as such it involves the specification of approaches and procedures..

a.) Strategy
b.) Research Design
c.) Hypothesis
d.) Deductive

30. If the researcher is concerned with finding out who, what where, when, or how
much, then the study is __________.

a) Exploratory
b) Descriptive
c) Empirical
d) Causal
e) Casual

31. If the study is carried out once and represent a snapshot of one point in time,
then the study is ___________

a) Time related study

b) Longitudinal study
c) Cross sectional study
d) Case studies
32. If the study is repeated over an extended period, then the study is called as
___________

a) Cross sectional study

b) Descriptive study
c) Time series analysis/study
d) Longitudinal study

33. When we try to explain the relationships among variables, the study is called

a) Exploratory study
b) Longitudinal study
c) Causal study
d) Cross sectional study

34. Some major descriptors of research design are the following except:

a) Descriptive and causal

b) Cross sectional vs longitudinal
c) Exploratory vs formalized
d) Observational vs interrogation/communication
e) Honorary vs beneficial

35. A research design is the strategy for a study and the plan by which the strategy
is to be carried out

a) True
b) False

36. We test causal hypothesis by seeking to do three things. Those are the
following except:

a) Measure the co-variation among variables

b) Ignoring the relationships of one variable with the other
c) Determine the time order relationships among variables
d) Ensure that other factors do not confound the exploratory relationships
37 The procedure by which we assign numbers to opinions, attitudes, and other
concepts is called ________________

a.) Scaling
b.) Measurement
c.) Sampling
d.) Data Collection

38. ____________________ presents a problem, discusses related research efforts,

outlines the data needed for solving the data and shows the design used to
gather and analyze the data.

a.) Research Question

b.) Research Proposal
c.) Research Design
d.) Research Methodology

39. “Number of cars in a parking lot”, “Number of students in a class” are

examples of :

a.) Dichotomous variable.

b.) Discrete variable.
c.) Continuous variable.
d.) None of the above.

40. The introduction of the new models of Nokia mobile will lead to a decrease in
the sales of Siemens mobiles”. In this statement :

a.) The introduction of the new models of Nokia mobile, is the

independent variable, and the decrease in the sales of siemens
mobiles is the dependent variable.
b.) The introduction of the new models of Nokia mobile, is the dependent
ariable, and the decrease in the sales of siemens mobiles is the
independent variable.
c.) There are no independent or dependent variables.
d.) None of the above.
41. Exploratory research design includes:

a.) Secondary Data Analysis.

b.) The who, what, when, where, and how of a topic.
c.) Reciprocal Relationship.
d.) Asymmetrical Relationship.

42. In Systematic sampling:

a.) The population is divided into groups, and some groups are randomly
selected for study.
b.) Every nth item is chosen in the sample, beginning with a random
start for the choice of n
c.) The population is divided into subpopulations.
d.) None of the above

43. A set of systematically interrelated concepts, definitions and propositions that

are advanced to explain and predict phenomena is called

a.) Research
b.) Model
c.) Theory
d.) None of the above

44. The process by which the sample is constructed to include all elements from
each of the segments is called:

a) Systematic sampling
b) Cluster sampling
c) Double sampling
d) Stratified random sampling

45. Which of these is not a characteristic of a good research?

a) Purpose clearly defined

b) Limitations frankly revealed
c) Research design thoroughly planned
d) Findings presented ambiguously.
46. ________ is a bundle of meanings or characteristics associated with certain
events, objects.

a) Concept
b) Construct
c) Variables
d) Moderating variables

47. Which of these is not a exploratory research design.

a) Secondary data analysis

b) Experience survey
c) Focus group
d) Reporting

48. ___________ exists when two variables mutually influence or reinforce each
other.

a) Reciprocal relationship
b) Symmetrical relationship
c) Asymmetrical relationship
d) Causal relationship

49. In _________ , each sample has equal and known chance of selection.

a) Simple random sampling

b) Cluster sampling
c) Stratified sampling
d) Snowball sampling

50. Data that is created, recorded or generated by an entity other than the
researcher's organisation is collectively called

a) Primary data
b) Secondary data
c) Internal data
d) External data
51. Total survey error can be broadly divided into random sampling error and

a) Non-random sampling error

b) Schematic error
c) Systematic error
d) Administrative error

52. A statistical fluctuation that occurs because of change variation in the elements
selected for the sample is called

a) Random sampling error

b) Systematic error
c) Administrative error
d) Error of judgment

53. When the results of a sample show a persistent tendency to deviate in one
direction from the true value of the population parameter, it is a case of

a) Interviewer bias
b) Respondent bias
c) Sample bias
d) None of the above

54. A bias that occurs when respondents tend to answer questions with a certain
slant that consciously or uncounsciously misrepresents the truth is called

a) Respondent bias
b) Non response bias
c) Response bias
d) Non response bias

55. The category of response bias that results because some individuals tend to
agree with all questions or to concur with a particular position is called

a) Auspices bias
b) Social desirability bias
c) Extremity bias
d) Acquiescence bias
56. Sue Smith, president of the local APICS chapter, had difficulty getting
members to assist in running the organization. She felt it was because of lack
of commitment to APICS. Her vice-president believed it was due to having too
many meetings. The organization’s secretary thought it was because there were
several other professional organizations to which the members also belonged.
If Sue wants to do research to determine the real reason why members are not
active in the organization, she should begin by:

a) Determining the optimum number of meetings

b) Evaluating the advantages APICS offers over other similar
organizations
c) Defining the problem
d) Developing the marketing research plan that she would employ
e) Holding focus groups with members of similar organizations to
determine whether the problems APICS is facing are universal or local

57. After working for a plumbing contractor for several years, Ken Crowe finally
established his own plumbing shop. Unfortunately, Crowe's first six months
have been disappointing. Crowe decided to conduct a marketing research study
to gather preliminary data to shed light on the nature of the problem and
suggest some new ideas. He needs to conduct _____ research.

a) Exploratory
b) Causal
c) Secondary
d) Descriptive
e) Observational

58. The manufacturer of Brother sewing machines wants to know the effect rebates
have on sales. It plans on dividing its retailers into three regions. One group
will offer consumers who buy a Brother sewing machine a $25 cash rebate.
One will offer buyers of the machine $50 worth of “free” machine accessory
parts. A third region will offer buyers a $40 store credit. The results of this
market research will provide Brother with _____________ data.

a) Observational
b) Survey
c) Secondary
 d) Experimental
e) Descriptive

59. Respondents are asked to rate an attitude object on a number of multiple-point

rating scales bounded at each end by one of two bipolar adjectives or phrases.
This type of question is called:

a) Dichotomous
b) A semantic differential
c) Multiple choice
d) Rating scale
e) A likert scale

60. If the guests at Bayside Resort were asked to rate their night’s sleep on a scale
with the following ratings: excellent, very good, good, fair, poor, the resort
would be using a(n) _____ to gather primary data.

a) Semantic differential
b) Importance scale
c) Rating scale
d) Dichotomous question
e) Likert scale

61. The question, “What is your opinion on the safety of American highways?” is
an example of a _____ question.

a) Completely unstructured
b) Thematic
c) Dichotomous
d) Semantic differential
e) Rating

62. The contact method that minimizes interviewer bias is:

a) Mail
b) Telephone
c) Intercept interview
d) Focus group
e) Personal interview
63. If time is of the essence for a research project, the preferred contact method is:

a) Mail
b) Telephone
c) Intercept interview
d) Personal interview
e) Focus group

64. The best contact method to use to quickly determine how many people saw the
commercial for the new Volkswagen Beetle that ran last night during the
television show Friends would be:

a) Mail
b) Internet
c) Telephone
d) Focus group
e) Personal interview

65. If flexibility is the most important criterion for a research project, the preferred
contact method is:

a) Intercept interview
b) Telephone
c) Focus group
d) Personal interview
e) Mail

66. Personal interviewing takes two forms. They are:

a) Arranged interview and intercept interview

b) Depth interview and simple interview
c) Online interview and offline interview
d) Focus-group interview and individual interview
e) Adaptive interview and static interview

67. Research is an expensive, sophisticated process that is often beyond the reach
of small businesses with their limited budgets.

a) True
 b) False

68. Primary data are generally available more quickly and at a lower cost than
secondary data.

a) True
b) False

69. A producer of herb mixes that wants to explore adding new products should
use close-ended questions in interviews with a sampling of its current
customers.

a) True
b) False

70. Students surveyed were asked the following question: "I would support a
company that provides my school with scholarships. "

Strongly Agree
Agree
Neither Agree Nor Disagree
Disagree
Strongly Disagree

This survey used a(n):

a) Semantic differential
b) Thematic apperception test
c) Importance scale
d) Open-ended question
e) Likert scale

71. A variable that is not influenced by or not dependent on other variables in

experiments is called

a) Independent variable
b) Dependent variable
c) Experimental variable
72. Personal interviewing of a certain percentage of individuals who pass by
certain points in a shopping center is also known as

a) On-site interviewing
b) Focus group interviewing
c) In-home interviewing
d) Intercept interviews

73. A researcher wants to study the characteristics of people who are heavy users
of film (purchase more than 12 rolls per year). This group is referred to as the:

a) Sample
b) Census
c) Population
d) None of the above

74. Kellogg seeks to determine consumer believability towards it's products' health
claims. The most appropriate technique for this purpose is

a) Observation
b) Survey
c) Experimentation
d) Simulation

75. Which data collection techniques cannot study attitudes?

a) Observation
b) Mail survey
c) Semantic differential
d) Multidimensional scaling

76 Which type of sampling uses whoever seems to be available

a) Stratified sampling
b) Area sampling
c) Quota sampling
d) Convenience sampling
77. _______________ sampling is especially useful when you are trying to reach
population that are inaccessible or hard to find.

a) Convenience sampling
b) Quota sampling
c) Snowball sampling
d) All of the above

78. If population = 100, sample size = 20, interval size = 5, and randomly selected
number from 1 to 5 is 4, then for choosing a systematic random sample, the first
unit 4 will be followed by

a) 5
b) 9
c) 24
d) 14

79. reactions of customers to current products, customer preferences, and a

record of past purchases can most often be obtained from
a) profit and loss statement
b) inventory records
c) salespeople call reports
d) customer billings

80. in the data analysis stage of marketing research, forms are

a) coded and analyzed
b) coded, tabulated and analyzed
c) tabulated and analyzed
d) analyzed

81. which of these statements about data collection is correct

a) a firm should approach data collection as an ongoing activity
b) a firm needs a computer to successfully implement collection and
retrieval of information
c) research projects should always include sampling
d) a firm should not spend on research
82. The quality of a research to produce almost identical results in successive
repeated trials reflects it's

a) Reliability
b) Validity
c) Accuracy

83. An easy reference about the sources of the data through which the research has
been compiled is provided by the

a) Footnotes
b) Executive summary
c) Introduction
d) Bibliography

84. What should a market researcher do once he or she has defined the problem
and the research objectives?

a) Collect the information

b) Budget for information collection
c) Develop the research plan
d) Sample the population
e) Develop a survey instrument

85. A survey asked questions like, “Are you currently married?”, “Do you have a
favorite TV show?”, “Do you go to the grocery store at least once a week?”,
and “Do you own a car?” What type of close-ended questions did this survey
have?

a) A Likert scale
b) Semantic approval
c) Experiential
d) Dichotomous
e) Dual answer

86. For answering questions about sensitive issues such as age, it is ideal to use

a) response brackets
b) response technique
c) hypothetical projective brackets
 d) none of the above

87. The group on which the researcher wants to generalize the results of his study
is called the

a) sampling frame
b) study population
c) theoretical population
d) sample

88. One of the best survey methods that can be used for all research situations is
the e-mail questionnaire surveys

a) True
b) False

89. A critical review of the information, pertaining to the research study, already
available in various sources is called

a) Research review
b) Research design
c) Data review
d) Literature review

90. When planning your literature search you need to:

a) Have clearly defined research questions and objectives

b) Define the parameters of your search
c) Generate key words and search terms
d) All the above

91. The first step in the research process is the:

a) Development of the research plan

b) Survey of stakeholders to determine if problems exist
c) Collection of the available sources for needed information
d) Definition of the problem and research objectives
92. Which of these is a precisely-defined issue (problem) definition?

a) why are current sales so poor?

b) Will additional advertising have a positive impact on sales
c) Are we in compliance with current local pricing legislation
d) What per cent of adults recall an ad two days after it appeared?

93. A base document for research purposes, providing the questions and structure
for an interview or self-completion and providing space for respondents
answers is more popularly known as a

a) questionnaire
b) scaling
c) tests
d) none of the above

94. Rosco Publishing Company sells books to college students on test-taking skills,
motivation, relationship management, and ways to deal with stress. Its wants to
use a probability sampling method that will ensure the percentage of freshmen,
sophomores, juniors, seniors, and graduate students in the sample reflect the
percentage on the college campus. What is the best sampling method for the
publisher to use?

a) simple random sample

b) stratified random sample
c) quota sample
d) judgment sample

95. The basic idea of sampling is that by _______________ some of the elements
in a population, we may draw conclusions about the entire population.

a.) clustering
b.) selecting
c.) commenting
d.) tabulating
96. The inclusion of open-ended questions on many questionnaire means that a
significant amount of ________________ data is also collected.

a.) secondary
b.) quantitative
c.) qualitative
d.) primary

97. Dividing population into subpopulations (strata) and using simple random on
each strata is called _____________________ sampling.

a.) stratified
b.) systematic
c.) cluster
d.) judgement

98. in depth interviews are exactly as the name suggests and use an interview
schedule rather than a formal questionnaire as the basic __________ collection
instrument

a) data
b) number
c) information
d) none of the above

99. an appropriate adage might be, "a problem well defined is a problem half
solved.," an orderly definition of the research problem gives a sense of
____________ to the investigation

a) direction
b) seriousness

100. The effective use of information requires a thorough understanding of the

___________ of information available and how the information is gathered
a) Mode
b) Plan
c) Types
d) None of the above
101. a significant proportion of the marketing research approaches is based on
_________ constructs from the social sciences and systems thinking
a) practical
b) effective
c) theoretical
d) none of the above

102. the key objective of any training activity is to ensure that the data collection
instrument will be administered by all interviewers in a uniform and
____________ manner
a) fashionable
b) smart
c) consistent
d) inconsistent

103. the conversion of the raw data into information means that the data needs to
be ___________ and coded so that it can be transferred onto a computer or
other data storage media
a) edited
b) audited
c) amalgamated
d) converted

104. the major disadvantage with in depth interviews is that because of their
time consuming nature it is usually only possible to carry out a relatively small
number of such interviews and as such the results are likely to be highly
____________
a) subjective
b) objective
c) questionable
d) objectionable

105. A population is the total collection of elements about which we wish to

make some __________
a) Census
b) Inferences
c) Demographic
d) None of the above
106. students surveyed were asked the following questions: "which cereals have
you seen advertised within the last three months?" The survey used a(n):
a) semantic differential
b) thematic apperception test
c) importance scale
d) open ended question
e) likert scale

107. which is not an element of a good sample

a) precision
b) accuracy
c) representation
d) large sample

108. It is not advisable to include a covering letter along with the questionnaire.
a) true
b) false

109. Until recently Canadian condo developers operated under the philosophy,
“Build it and they will buy.” Then, Stan Kates launched the Preferred Home
Buyer Alliance. He is in the process of creating a database of new homebuyers
and prospective homebuyers in Ontario who provide his organization with
information about what they want and don’t want in their homes. A builder can
contract with Kates and find out, for example, if homebuyers with small
children prefer track lighting or two sinks in the master bedroom. The database
also has information on homebuyer’s favorite restaurants and hobbies. One
way Kates collects this data is through a gathering of six to ten new and
prospective homebuyers who are invited to talk about their ideal home. Kates
uses _____ research.

a) Focus-group
b) Experiential
c) Observational
d) Causal
e) Behavioral

110. __________ bias is caused by the respondents being influenced by the

organization conducting the study
a) auspices bias
b) social desirability bias
c) extremity bias
d) acquiescence bias
111. once obtained there is no need to evaluate the relevance of the literature to
your research question and objectives
a) true
b) false

112. usually, syndicated data services can provide consumer panel data at a
much lower cost that if a company carried on it's own panel operations
a) true
b) false

113. which of the following types of causal research projects would a company
that publishes custom cookbooks used for fundraisers by churches, colleges,
and civic groups choose?
a) A study to determine the types of fundraising most commonly use by
church groups
b) A survey of previous customers to see if they are interested in a new
edition
c) A study determining if more people buy the custom cookbook when
the cover has a picture relating to the group selling it, rather than if
it has just a generic cover.
d) A study to determine the price range for an average sized cookbook
e) An industrial study of what similar publishing companies are doing to
better serve their customers

114 which of the following is an example of primary data that would be used by
the Ashton - Drake Galleries to determine the popularity of it's precious
moments doll series?
a) Input from a focus group that was put together specifically to
discuss their perception of the popularity of the doll series
b) An article about the precious moments doll in a recent issue of Crafts
magazine
c) Sales records for collectible dolls gathered by the industry's trade
council
d) A survey that noted that dolls are the most often collected item by
women between the ages of 40 and 60
e) Data from the sales records kept by the exclusive dealers of the precious
moments dolls
115. how would delta, a manufacturer of acrylic paints used in arts and crafts,
use observational research to gather primary data?
a) By surveying current users to find out the ways the paint could be
removed
b) By watching how members of a class learn to paint mailboxes using
the paint
c) By asking users of other brands of paint to list the most important
attributes for acrylic paint

116. you would expect the following question to be used in a ____________

interview: "if you were a pickle, what kind of pickle would you be?
a) Focus group
b) Depth
c) Prototyping
d) Behavioral

117. which is typically the most expensive step of marketing research process
a) problem definition
b) developing the research plan
c) information collection
d) information analysis
e) questionnaire design

118. which step in the marketing research process is generally considered to be

the most prone to error?
a) Problem definition
b) Sample framing
c) Questionnaire design
d) Data collection
e) Data analysis

119. inspite of the rapid growth of research, many companies still fail to use it
sufficiently or correctly. Which of the following describes a reason for this
failure
a) a narrow conception of marketing research
b) uneven caliber of researchers
c) poor framing of problems
d) personality and presentational differences
e) all of the above
120. a semantic differential scale takes a form such as "united airline food
service is __________ excellent ________very good _________good
_______fair _______poor"
a) true
b) false

121. data collection that focuses on providing an accurate description of the

variables in a situation forms the basis of which type of study
a) exploratory study
b) descriptive study
c) causal study

122. a condition that exists when an instruments measures what it is supposed to

measure is called
a) validity
b) accuracy
c) reliability

123. a “real world” environment in which experiments take place is also referred
to as
a) field settings
b) field trips
c) field
d) field research
e) accuracy

124. experiments in which households log their weekly purchases and

consumption patterns are known as
a) home placements
b) diary test
c) experiments
d) causal studies

125. a sampling method in which the final choice of respondent is left to the
interviewers who base their choices on one or more variables such as age,
nationality, education etc is called
a) area sampling
b) stratified sampling
c) random sampling
d) quota sampling
126. which of these is a precisely defined problem definition
a) why are current sales so poor
b) will additional advertising have a positive impact on sales
c) are we in compliance with current local pricing legislation
d) what per cent of adults recall an ad two days after it appeared

127. Imagine your college is in the process of measuring student satisfaction

with the college’s cafeteria. The college is concerned about the objectivity of
the research process. Which of the following strategies best illustrates
objectivity.
a) Developing the survey instrument on the basis of the researcher’s
preconceptions of the cafeteria
b) Asking students in a personal survey “why do you like the cafeteria?”
and reminding students that the cafeteria food is healthier than the
offerings of the nearby fast food restaurants
c) Mailing the questionnaire to a random sample of all students
d) Using a personal survey directed to students who purchased a meal card

128. according to the marketing director of a frozen food marketer, “we need to
determine why our coupon redemption rate dropped from 20 % last month to 5
% this month.” This statement outlines the firm’s
a) research design
b) issue (problem ) definition
c) secondary data needs
d) primary data needs

129. for questions which the respondents are not likely to answer truthfully, it is
ideal to use which technique
a) response technique
b) hidden response technique
c) hypothetical projective response technique
d) response brackets

130. the question “what kind of headache remedy do you use? Is free of any
errors?
a) True
b) False
131. the advantage of __________________ can be even more significant if the
responses are being entered directly on to a computer via a process of
“computer aided telephone interviewing” (CATI)
a) fast
b) sample
c) speed
d) mad cow

132. random sampling error is the difference between the sample _________and
the results of a complete survey of the total population using exactly the same
procedures
a) population
b) observation
c) result
d) sample

133. both stratified and quota sampling have the ______________ objective, the
approaches should not be confused
a) different
b) objection
c) same
d) deterrent

134. in the absence of more information to determine a sample size on the basis
of sound statistical principles, at every point the researcher must attempt to
____________- sources of error
a) maximize
b) minimize
c) reject
d) accept

135. the depth or in-depth interview is an unstructured __________ in which the

interviewee is encouraged to talk extensively
a) interview
b) interviewer
c) man
d) woman

136. in general terms, properly conducted, face to face interviews tend to be an

effective ______ to data collection even if they are a little costly
a) approach
b) complimentary
c) selective
 d) effective

137. the quality of the data will be influenced by the relative efficiency of the
questionnaire as a recording schedule. _________________, incomplete coding
and misunderstanding of questions and answers all arise from poor lay out and
a badly formulated questionnaire
a) coding
b) coating
c) mid coating
d) miscoding

138. in designing the questionnaire it is important to remember that the survey

researcher is ________ person who has to use the questionnaire
a) not the only
b) the only
c) only
d) the

139. closed ended questions are used when the majority of answers are known
and appropriate _____________ responses can be presented
a) functional
b) formatted
c) post coded
d) pre coded

140. while designing a questionnaire, it is best to use only one type of question so
that the respondents find it simple to answer
a) true
b) false

141. there is no need to give a reference for a journal when there is no obvious
author for the journal
a) true
b) false

142) what are the qualities of a good hypothesis

a) adequate for the purpose
b) testable
c) better than its rivals
d) all of the above
143) what are the two types of arguments
a) deduction and induction
b) exploratory and deductive
c) dejection and injection
d) none of the above

144) A ___________________ is conducted to detect weaknesses in research

instrument’s design
a) Pilot study
b) Questionnaire
c) Interview
d) Sampling

145) in research ethics, confidentiality should be guaranteed if the researcher

cannot promise anonymity
a) true
b) false

146) Which of the following is NOT one of the ways to increase response rate
for a questionnaire?
a) Attractive cover letter
b) Proper timing
c) Large number of questions
d) remuneration

147) In general the larger the sample, the smaller the

a) Sampling proportion
b) Population size
c) Size of the strata
d) Sampling error`

148) reliability is mostly a matter of ______________, while validity is mostly

about _____________
a) consistency, accuracy
b) accuracy, consistency
c) similarity, dissimilarity
d) similarity, consistency

149) ____________________ is the process of using rules to partition a body of

data
a) coding
b) data presentation
c) categorization
d) none of the above
 150) Text paragraphs, semi tabular form, tables and graphics are used in
____________________
a) Introduction
b) Presenting statistics
c) Appendix
d) Research methodology

151) research should be _________________

a) accessible
b) transparent
c) transferable
d) all of the above

152) which of the following is not a characteristic of email questionnaire

survey?
a) Instant speed of data collection
b) World wide global flexibility
c) High distribution and processing costs
d) Flexible but extensive difference in the capabilities of respondents

153) ------------ are Questions the researcher, must answer to satisfactory arrive
at a conclusion about the research question.
a) Investigate questions
b) Research question
c) Measurement question
d) Fine-tuning the research question

154) ---------------- Is the degree to which bias is absent from the sample.
a) Precision
b) Accuracy
c) Census
d) Presentation

155) The process of searching bibliographic databases includes the

following EXCEPT
a) Saving the valuable results of your research
b) Selecting a database appropriate to your topic
c) retrieve articles not available in the database
d) assigning each element within sampling frame
e) supplementing your sources with internet sources
156) Sampling _______________ is the list of elements from which the sample
is actually drawn
a) File
b) Record
c) Listing
d) Frame

157) Which of the following is the right way of writing a bibliography

a) Kotler, P (2000) “Marketing Management” : Prentice Hall
International
b) Marketing Management (2000) “Kotler, P: Prentice Hall International
c) Philip Kotler (2000) “Marketing Management” : Prentice Hall International
d) Marketing Management by Philip Kotler : Prentice Hall International
(2000)
e) None of the above

158) The appendix at the end of the dissertation normally includes a blank
sample questionnaire, tables of raw data and any other useful information not
provided in the main body of the research
a) True
b) False

159 Identify the dissertation chapter which involves drawing together the main
points revealed in the research, summing them up and stating the
implications of findings.
a. Introduction
b. Literature review
c. Research methodology
d. Data analysis and findings
e. Conclusion and recommendations

160. Through_______researchers develop concepts more clearly, establish

priorities, develop operational definitions, and improve the final research design

a) Data collection
b) Exploration
c) Description
d) Definition
161 Exploratory investigation of management question adapts the following
approaches except

a) Films, photographs, and videotape

b) In-depth interviewing
c) Document analysis
d) Street ethnography
e) Survey method

162 If we consider the possible relationships that can occur between two variables,
we can conclude that there are three possibilities. The following are the possible
except:

a) Property-behavior relationships
b) Reciprocal relationship
c) Symmetrical
d) Asymmetrical

163. the research design process involves identifying a __________ problem or

opportunity, translating that problem or opportunity into a research process, and
collecting, analyzing, communicating and disseminating the information
resulting from the research activity.

a) Communication
b) Marketing
c) Management
d) Information

164 the major ______________ in data storage and data retrieval system means
that there has been and continues to be a rapid growth in terms of secondary data
sources
a) Expense
b) Addition
c) Explosion
d) Function

104. A

165. it is also important to avoid asking embarrassing and _______ questions

a) personnel
b) private
c) personal
 d) stupid

166 Business research is a systematic inquiry that provides information to guide

business decisions. This includes the following except:

a) Reporting
b) Descriptive
c) Explanatory
d) Predictive studies

167. Identify the style of thinking that is defined as “to devote observations and
propositions based on sense experience and/or derived from such experience by
methods of inductive logic, including mathematics and statistics”

a) Idealism
b) Empricism
c) Extentialism
d) Rationalism

168. When we mean that reason is a primary source of knowledge, the style of
thinking is named as

a) Empricism
b) Rationalism
c) Idealism
d) Extentialism

169 All students studying in UAE College are having bright future. Abdul
Rahman is a student of UAE College. Abdul Rahman has a bright future. This
type of argument is called as

a) Introduction
b) Induction
c) Detective
d) Deduction
170 The introduction chapter is usually _____________ % of the total word limit
of the dissertation
a) 30
b) 40
c) 25
d) 10
 DIRECTORATE OF DISTANCE LEARNING EDUCATION
G.C UNIVERSITY, FAISALABAD

BBA-Business Administration
PROGRAM
5th Semester
SUBJECT Business Research Methods

Multiple Choice Questions

1) What is a good research? The following are correct except

a. Purpose clearly defined
b. Research process detailed
c. Research design thoroughly planned
d. Findings presented ambiguously √

2) Secondary data can almost always be obtained more quickly and at a lower cost
than __________data.
a. Tertiary
b. Collective
c. Research
d. Primary √

3) 1. In a qualitative research proposal you would not expect to see a_________.

a. Research question
b. Research aim
c. Hypothesis √
d. Operational definition

4) Which of the following statement is not true?

a. A research proposal is a document that presents a plan for a project
b. A research proposal shows that the researcher is capable of successfully
conducting the proposed research project
c. A research proposal is an unorganized and unplanned project √
d. A research proposal is just like a research report and written before the research
project

5) After identifying the important variables and establishing the logical reasoning in
theoretical framework, the next step in the research process is________.
a. To conduct surveys
b. To generate the hypothesis √
c. To focus group discussions
d. To use experiments in an investigation
6) The one which will always appear in a research proposal is_________.
a. Business objective
b. Research objective √
c. Marketing objective
d. Creative objective

7) The scientific method is preferred over other ways of knowing because it is

more_______.
a. Reliable
b. Systematic
c. Accurate
d. All of the given options√

8) The word 'Research' means________.

a. A lab experiment
b. A report
c. A systematic enquiry√
d. A procedure

9) Qualitative and Quantitative Research are the classification of research on the basis
of_________.
a. Use of the research
b. Time dimensions
c. Techniques used√
d. Purpose of the research

10) Basic research can also be called as______.

a. Practical research
b. Fundamental Research√
c. Action research
d. Assessment research

11) What should a market researcher do once he or she has defined the problem and the
research objectives?
a. Collect the information
b. Budget for information collection
c. Develop the research plan√
d. Sample the population

12) Business research is a systematic inquiry that provides information to guide

business decisions. This includes the following except________.
a. Reporting
b. Descriptive
c. Explanatory
d. Predictive studies √
13) Research hypotheses are ______________
a. Formulated prior from review of the literature
b. Statements of predicted relationships between variables
c. Stated such that they can be confirmed or refuted
d. Both b and c √

14) Hypotheses in qualitative research studies usually ______.

a. Are very specific and stated prior to beginning the study
b. Are often generated as the data are collected, interpreted, and analyzed √
c. Are never used
d. Are always stated after the research study has been completed

15) Variables are__________.

a. the main focus of research in science.
b. something that can vary in terms of precision
c. something that we can measure
d. all of the above √

16) Conducting surveys is the most common method of generating_________.

a. Primary data √
b. Secondary data
c. Qualitative data
d. None of the above

17) A list of questions which is handed over to the respondent, who reads the questions
and records the answers himself is known as the_________.
a. Interview schedule
b. Questionnaire √
c. Interview guided
d. All of the given options

18) The interview in which questions are already prepared is called_________.

a. Telephonic interview
b. Personal interview
c. Unstructured interview
d. Structured interview √

19) The directors of a graduate program in educational research wish to see what types
of jobs their graduates take after they finish their program. They randomly sample
students from the program and have them fill out questionnaires with items asking
about the types of jobs they have had. They also are asked to describe the roles they
play in their current positions. This project is best described as having what kind of
objective—-
a. Descriptive √
b. Predictive
c. Explanatory
 d. None of the above

20) Conclusions from qualitative research are________.

a. Less certain than from quantitative research √
b. Of little practical use
c. Seldom defensible
d. Of descriptive value only

21) The literature review that the researcher writes becomes the:
a. Conceptual framework for the research project.
b. Theoretical framework for the research project. √
c. Methodological framework for the research project.
d. Analytical framework for the research project

22) Data collection methods are:

a. The means by which literature is sourced for a research project.
b. The means by which data is analyzed for a research project.
c. The means by which data is gathered for a research project. √
d. The means by which the researcher develops a theoretical framework.

23) A key concept is:

a. A sub-section in the theoretical framework.
b. A source of data.
c. A key idea, a key word or a key phrase. √
d. A means of gathering data.

24) Data analysis is:

a. A very complex process.
b. The analysis of data. Data is analyzed, findings are produced, conclusions are
drawn and recommendations are made. √
c. The means by which data is gathered for a research project.
d. The final step in the research process.

25) When can a research project be said to be researchable?

a. When the researcher decides to carry it out.
b. When the researcher supervisor approves the research idea.
c. When ethical approval for the project has been secured.
d. When there is sufficient time and money (if money is needed) to carry out the
project, and if there is ready access to the necessary data. √

26) Qualitative data analysis:

a. The same as qualitative data analysis.
b. The analysis of numerical data using statistical methods.
c. Is an element of the theoretical framework?
d. Is the analysis of qualitative data? Qualitative data is non-numerical data. √
27) When each member of a population has an equally likely chance of being selected,
this is called:
a. A nonrandom sampling method
b. A quota sample
c. A snowball sample
d. An Equal probability selection method √

28) Which of the following statements are true?

a. The larger the sample size, the greater the sampling error
b. The more categories or breakdowns you want to make in your data analysis, the
larger the sample needed √
c. The fewer categories or breakdowns you want to make in your data analysis, the
larger the sample needed
d. As sample size decreases, so does the size of the confidence interval

29) Sampling in qualitative research is similar to which type of sampling in quantitative

research?
a. Simple random sampling
b. Systematic sampling
c. Quota sampling
d. Purposive sampling √

30) A technique used when selecting clusters of different sizes is called _____.
a. Cluster sampling
b. One-stage sampling
c. Two-stage sampling
d. Probability proportional to size or PPS √

31) What is the primary focus of establishment surveys in this case study?
a. Collect the data through past studies
b. Analyze the literature review
c. Using of quantitative techniques
d. Data collection through mail and Interview √

32) Hypothesis
a. Must be based on existing knowledge
b. Must be simple with high predictability
c. Must be empirical
d. All of these √

33) What does the term 'reliability' indicate?

a. We can trust that the research has being carried out to a high standard.
b. That the results are accurate.
c. That the researcher can be trusted.
d. That the tool of data collection can be regarded as measuring accurately and
consistently. √
34) Closed ended questions are those that:
a. Have a fixed range of possible answers √
b. Prevent respondents from allocating themselves to a category
c. Encourage detailed, elaborate responses
d. Relate to the basic demographic characteristics of respondents

35) When using a Likert scale with a long list of items, it is usually better to:
a. Arrange the answers horizontally, in abbreviated form √
b. List the answers vertically, for each consecutive item
c. Omit any instructions about how to select an answer
d. List all questions on one page and all answers on another

36) Which of the following levels of measurement provides the most information?
a. Ratio √
b. nominal
c. cardinal
d. ordinal

37) If the grading of diabetes is classified as mild, moderate and severe the scale of
measurement used is :
a. Interval
b. Nominal
c. Ordinal √
d. Ratio

38) In business research, attitudinal data obtained from rating scales are often treated
as _____ data.
a. nominal
b. ordinal
c. interval √
d. ratio

39) ‘Replicability’ refers to;

a. Closeness of findings to reality
b. That hypothesis must be testable
c. The results should be supported again and again √
d. Simplicity in explaining phenomena

40) Generalizability means;

a. Make something widely applicable √
b. Unwillingness to spend money
c. To make something happen again
d. Being extremely careful
41) The more objective the interpretation of data the more scientific the research becomes.
a. True √
b. False
42) Research is process of _______.
a. Finding solutions √
b. Sales production
c. Collecting feedback
d. Sample design

43) Price determination refer to;

a. Collecting data regarding people salary √
b. Collecting data regarding demand of customers
c. To compete the competition in market
d. Regarding inflation

44) Deep Research of Product and Competitor refer to;

a. Applied Research
b. Basis Research
c. Theoretical Research √
d. None of the Above

45) We can collect secondary data through;

a. Questionnaires
b. Interviews
c. Observation
d. Websites √

46) The process of observing and recording the observations that are collected as part of
research effort is called as;
a. Measurement √
b. Scale
c. Hypothesis
d. None of the above

47) All of these may appear in a research proposal, but which one will ALWAYS
appear?
a. Creative objective.
b. Research objective. √
c. Business objective.
d. Marketing objective.

48) Good research proposals will always:

a. Focus on the Harvard style.
b. Focus on addressing the research objectives. √
c. Consider all possible research that had previously been done on the topic.
d. Provide respondent names and addresses.
49) The proposal’s literature review is important because:
a. It looks authoritative. √
b. The tutor insists upon it.
c. It is expected by the university.
d. It shows that you are knowledgeable about the literature that relates to your
research topic

50) Which proposal section is intended to describe the purpose with a full statement of
the research question?
a. Proposed Method.
b. Literature review.
c. References.
d. Introduction √