1.

A client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) has been started on therapy
with zidovudine (Retrovir) (also called azidothymidine (AZT)). Then nurse monitors the
results of which laboratory blood study for adverse effects of therapy?
A. Complete blood count (CBC)
B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level
C. Creatinine level
D. Potassium concentration
2. A client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) complains of dyspnea on
exertion, tachypnea, and a dry cough on auscultation of the lungs, the nurse notes crackles.
Then nurse reports the findings to the physician, knowing that the most likely cause of
these symptoms is:
A. Cryptosporidiosis
B. Malignant lymphoma
C. Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia
D. Toxoplasmosis
3. A client with human immunodeficiency virus infection is diagnosed with herpes simplex.
The nurse prepares the client for which of the following diagnostic tests to determine the
presence of herpes virus infection?
A. Chest x-ray study
B. Neurological exam
C. Stool culture
D. Viral culture
4. A nurse has been assigned caring for a client with an immune disorder. In developing a
plan of care for this client, the nurse incorporates knowledge that the immune system
consists of specific major types of cells. Which of the following types of cells are associated
with the immune system? Select all that apply.
I. B lymphocytes
II. Helper T lymphocytes
III. Dendritic cells
IV. Red blood cells
V. Cytolytic T lymphocytes
A. I, V
B. II,II,IV
C. I,II,IV
D. I,II,III,V
5. A nurse mentor is describing the phases of the immune response to a recent nursing
graduate. The mentor determines that the graduate needs additional information if the
graduate states that which of the following is a phase of the immune response?
A. Recognition phase
B. Activation phase
C. Effector phase
D. Memory phase
6. A nurse is reviewing the diagnostic tests performed in an adult client with a connective
tissue disorder. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is reported as 40 mm/hr. the
nurse interprets this finding as:
A. Normal
B. Indicating mild inflammation
C. Indicating moderate inflammation
D. Indicating severe inflammation
7. John Paul was rushed to the hospital by his wife complaining that the patient suffered
from an acute blindness after being involved in a hit-and-run accident. The doctor revealed
that diagnostic testing cannot identify any organic reason why the patient cannot see.
Which of the following will be the focus of a mental health consult?
a. Dissociative disorder
b. Conversion disorder
c. Psychosis
d. Repression
8. Nurse Darwin is caring for a client diagnosed with Conversion disorder who has developed
paralysis of her legs. Diagnostic tests fail to identify a physiological cause. During the
working phase of the nurse-patient relationship, the client says to Nurse Darwin,
“You think I could walk if I wanted to, don’t you?” What would be Nurse Darwin’s best
response?
A. “Tell me why you’re concerned about what I think.”
B. “I think you are unable to walk now, whatever the cause.”
C. “Yes, if you really wanted to walk, you could”
D. “Do you think you could walk if you wanted to?”
9. Upon hearing this statement, the nurse would be able to conclude that the patient has
hypochondriasis.
A. “I’m frequently nauseous lately. Am I pregnant?”
B. “I’m having another terrible migraine and pain killers don’t seem to work.”
C. “I’m glad that tests show I do not have leukemia. I thought I was dying.”
D. “I’m having a second opinion. I can’t believe there’s nothing wrong with me.”
10. Ruby, a client diagnosed with hypochondriasis complains to the nurse about others’
doubting the seriousness of her disease. She is angry, frustrated, and anxious. Which
nursing intervention will you prioritize as her nurse?
A. Remind the client that lab tests showed no evidence of physiological problems.
B. Acknowledge the client’s frustration without fostering continued focus on physical
illness.
C. Document client’s unwillingness to accept anxiety as the source of the illness.
D. Discuss with the client’s family ways to avoid secondary gains associated with
physical complaints
11. Nursing management of pain consists of both independent and collaborative nursing
actions. Mr. Dolor complains that it seems that his left foot is still there even though it was
already amputated. The nurse correctly documents this assessment finding as a/an:
A. Referred pain
B. Phantom sensation
C. Intractable pain
D. Phantom pain
12. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) was formerly called multiple personality disorder.
This disorder is characterized by the existence of two or more personalities in a single
individual. Only one of the personalities is evident at any given moment, and one of them is
dominant most of the time over the course of the disorder. The nurse is assessing a client
experiencing dissociative identity disorder (DID). The nurse anticipates the client to make
which statement?
a. “My father wasn’t around much.”
b. “I feel good about myself.”
c. “I can recall many traumatic events from childhood.”
d. “My father loved me one day and hit me the next day.”
Rationale
13. The five types of amnesia are the following: 1. LOCALIZED AMNESIA: The inability to
recall all incidents associated with the traumatic event for a specific time period following
the event (usually a few hours to a few days). 2. SELECTIVE AMNESIA: The inability to
recall only certain incidents associated with a traumatic event for a specific
period after the event. 3. CONTINUOUS AMNESIA: The inability to recall events occurring
after a specific time up to and including the present. 4. GENERALIZED AMNESIA: The rare
phenomenon of not being able to recall anything that has happened during the individual’s
entire lifetime, including personal identity. 5. SYSTEMATIZED AMNESIA: With this type of
amnesia, the individual cannot remember events that relate to a specific category of
information (e.g., one’s family) or to one particular person or event. The nurse is assessing
a client with dissociative amnesia. Which circumstance would most likely contribute to this
condition?
a. Binge drinking
b. A hostage situation
c. A closed-head injury
d. A fight with a family member
14. During assessment, the nurse will anticipate that Kaye, the client who has a diagnosis of
Body Dysmorphic disorder, will have which of the following symptoms?
A. Dissatisfaction with body shape and size
B. Fantasizing oneself as changed into an ideal appearance
C. A history of eight or more plastic surgeries on various body parts
D. Preoccupation with an imagined or exaggerated defect in appearance
15. Which among the following statements made by Kaye would lead Nurse Roan to suspect
that her client has Body Dysmorphic Disorder?
A. “This cough is terrible, I know I have pneumonia.”
B. “My hair is so thin that is why I always wear a hat.”
C. “I can’t possibly go to work with all this pain.”
D. “I don’t know why I’m so sick when I’m so young.”
16. Paraphilia is a condition in which the sexual instinct is expressed in ways that are
socially unacceptable o prohibited or are biologically undesirable. One example of paraphilia
is scatophilia. The nurse is teaching the family of a client with scatophilia. Which response
by the nurse is most accurate in teaching about the characteristics of this disorder?
a. Uses telephone for sexual arousal
b. Uses nonliving objects such as women’s underwear for sexual gratification
c. Aroused through contact with children
d. Aroused by rubbing against nonconsenting person
17. Some theories suggest that a dysfunctional family pattern may have an etiological
influence in the development of homosexuality. They suggest that gay men often have a
dominant, overly protective mother and a weak, remote, or hostile father. The nurse is
working with a client with a gender identity disorder. The client recently started living as a
member of the opposite sex. Which of the following is an inappropriate outcome criterion for
this nurse-client relationship?
a. The client discusses feelings about reactions expected from family and friends
b. The client discusses feelings and issues regarding living in another gender role
c. The client schedules a date for sex-change surgery as a result of the discussion
d. The client identifies support persons may be helpful during the change from one
gender to another
18. Gender identity (determining whether one is male or female) is usually established by
the age of 2 to 3 years. Sexual identity (determining whether one is heterosexual or
homosexual or both) may continue to evolve throughout one’s lifetime. A nurse is caring for
several clients with gender identity disorders. Which client category is at highest risk for
anxiety related to transsexualism?
a. Elderly
b. Adolescent
c. Young adult
d. Prepubescent child
19. Gender identity disorder in adult involves the discomfort with one’s gender or the role of
that gender. In adult, this disorder can include the desire to live as the other gender or can
involve feelings and reactions of the other gender.
What is the gender identity disorder that results in the person believing he or she is the
opposite sex?
a. Exhibitionism
b. Homosexuality
c. Transsexualism
d. Transvestitism
20. The individual desiring sexual reassignment is generally in psychotherapy for 6 to 12
months. A transsexual client wishes to have a sexual reassignment operation and tells the
nurse he’s ready to begin hormonal therapy. Which fact about the client must be true before
estrogen therapy is administered?
a. He has cross-dressed and lived as the opposite sex for several years
b. He has decides against undergoing the operation
c. He has decided he needs more psychotherapy
d. He has been functioning sexually as a female
21 An individual who is transgendered has the self-perception of being of the opposite
gender. Individuals with this disorder do not feel comfortable wearing the clothes of their
assigned gender and often engage in cross-dressing. A 14-year-old female client admits to
having transsexual feelings and states, “I would rather die than live in this body.” What
is the most appropriate initial intervention by the nurse?
a. Explain to her that she is too young to have these feelings
b. Call her parents and let them know about her feelings
c. Encourage her to verbalize her feelings
d. Ask her if she plans to kill herself
22. In using the Glasgow Coma Scale, an assessment totaling to 15 points indicates that the
client is alert and fully oriented. Mr. Grand Magus was admitted to the hospital after falling
from the stairs. Upon examination, Nurse Neruvian called the patient’s name and that’s the
only time he opened his eyes. The patient raised his legs and hands when asked to do so.
The patient was also oriented to time, place, and person. The patient’s GCS score is:
a. M: 6, V: 5, E: 3
b. M: 5, V: 5, E: 3
c. M: 6, V: 5, E: 4
d. M: 5, V: 4, E: 4
23. Community participation is a fundamental requirement to achieve health and
sustainable development. Community organizing is the social development methodology
being used to achieve this. Which of the following is not true of community participation?
A. A process to help people develop their capability to assume greater responsibility
for assessing their health needs and problems.
B. It encourages them to rely on the plans and actions of the government towards
sustainable development.
C. It creates and maintains organization in support of these efforts.
D. It evaluates the effects and brings about necessary adjustments in goals and
collective action.
24. Nurse Martha is trying to think of strategies on how to increase community
participation. She consulted her friend who works in the marketing department of a certain
company on how they attract customers. Which among the following advices from her friend
is plausible for you as a community health nurse?
A. Hold a Pabingguhanand Pa-KTV ng Barangay to attract members of the
community to join in your program
B. Your programs should be congruent with the desire and health needs of the
people
C. Invite showbiz personalities to increase community participation
D. Give monetary incentives to people who will participate in your program
25. An adjunct to community organization is community development. The term
“development” can be viewed as a continuing and related process once the community has
been organized and prepared for action. Preparatory phase is the first phase in organizing
the community. Which of the following is the initial step in the preparatory phase?
A. Community profiling
B. Entry in the community
C. Area selection
D. Integration with the people
26. Community organization involves bringing together people who have similar needs and
interests to exchange and share ideas, give support to each other and undertake projects
together. In community organization, connections, relationships and collaboration between
people, sectors and institutions are formed and/or strengthened. The most important factor
in determining the proper area for community organizing is that this area should:
A. Be already served by another organization
B. Be able to finance the projects
C. Have problems and needs assistance
D. Have people with expertise to be developed as leaders.
27. Community organizing is a process by which the people, health services and agencies of
the community are brought together. All of the following are part of the Organization phase,
except:
A. Core group formation
B. Social preparation
C. Spotting and developing potential leaders
D. Leadership formation activities
28. The pre-entry phase of COPAR is considered to be the (SIMPLEST) phase. Nurse Henry
Jdrian would be correct in doing which of the following activities during the pre-entry phase?
A. Defining the roles and functions of the core group
B. Training of the research team
C. Conduct a preliminary social investigation
D. Deepening social investigation
29. The crucial stage of COPAR is the Entry phase which is also known as social preparation.
Nurse Kim Tony is in this phase of COPAR if he is doing which of the following activities?
A. Development of management systems and procedures
B. PIME (project implementation monitoring and evaluation)
C. SALT (self-awareness leadership training)
D. Setting up linkages and network referral systems
30. The actual exercise of people power in COPAR occurs during:
A. Integration
B. Mobilization
C. EDSA Revolution
D. Immersion
31. Integration is the process of establishing rapport with the people in the community. It
can BEST be achieved by:
A. Giving out gifts in order to win acceptance of the people in the community
B. Conversing with the people where they are and participating in various social
activities in their community
C. Cleaning the house and offering to do all the household chores
D. Sponsoring a sports festival to have an opportunity to interact with the people,
and promote healthy lifestyle