Airframe and Systems, Electrics

With regard to an aircraft fuselage, a FAIL SAFE structure is one:
A used for small aircraft only.
B that is easily manufactured.
C in which the adjacent structural members can carry the load for a limited time.
D in which the adjacent structural members can carry the load for an unlimited time.
Refer to figure 021-33.
In the attached diagram, which image represents the effect of more than one single force?
A 1
B 3
C 4
D 2
According EASA CS the worst effect of a MINOR FAILURE on the occupants of an aeroplane excluding
flight crew could be:
A physical distress, possibly including injuries.
B physical discomfort.
C serious or fatal injury to a small number of passengers or cabin crew.
D inconvenience.
In the attached diagram, which image represents BUCKLING?
A 4
B 2
C 3
D 1
A force is applied to an object. When the force is removed, the object returns to its original form. This
phenomenon is called…
A corrosion.
B plastic deformation.
C strain.
D elastic deformation.
In the attached diagram, which image represents TENSION?
A 1
B 2
C 3
D 4
In the context of airframe load path philosophies a FAIL SAFE component is:
A a component that does not affect the structural strength of the aircraft.
B a component incorporated in a large aircraft which is designed so that, following its failure,
the remaining structure can withstand reasonable loads without failure until the damage is detected.
C a component that has two operating conditions, safe and unsafe, and is designed so that
following a failure it is in the safe condition.
D a component that has a design fatigue life such that the probability of failure in that life is
assessed as remote.
According to EASA CS the allowable average failure probability per flight hour probability for a MAJOR
FAILURE should be on the order of:
A less than 10-9 (extremely improbable)
B between 10-3 and 10-5 (probable)
C between 10-5 and 10-7 (remote probability)
D between 10-7 and 10-9 (extremely remote probability)

When a structure is changed from a non-deformed into a deformed state, it has experienced...
A bending.
B stress.
C strain.
D corrosion.
A corrosive environment and sustained tensile stresses can lead to:
A strain.
B creep.
C stress corrosion.
D intergranular corrosion.
For FAIL SAFE designed structural parts:
1) the mounting principle is parallel mounting.
2) no routine check is necessary.
3) the member is removed at the end of the calculated life cycle.
4) certain components may not be accessible.
5) the principle is the redundancy of components.
6) the failure of a member causes the loads to be shared between the other system components.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
A 2, 3, 4
B 1, 3, 4
C 2, 5, 6
D 1, 5, 6
Strain is defined as the:
A deformation due to stress.
B yield point.
C ultimate load.
D expansion due to temperature rise.

For SAFE LIFE designed structural components:
1) there is more than one load carrying component.
2) one load carrying component is sufficient for a given load, provided it is strong enough.
3) the component is removed at the end of the calculated life time or number of cycles.
4) the design is based on the principle of redundancy of components.
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
A 2, 4
B 1, 3
C 2, 3.
D 1, 4
According to EASA CS the allowable quantitative average failure probability per flight hour for a
CATASTROPHIC FAILURE should be on the order of:
A less than 10-9 (extremely improbable)
B between 10-3 and 10-5 (probable)
C between 10-5 and 10-7 (remote probability)
D between 10-7 and 10-9 (extremely remote probability)
An aircraft in flight is affected by loads. These may be classified as:
A compressive, bending, shear and torsional.
B thrust, drag, lift and weight.
C tensile, shear, twisting and stretching.
D compressive, tensile, shear and torsional.
With regard to an aircraft fuselage, a FAIL SAFE structure is one:
A in which the load is carried by other components if a part of the structure fails.
B that is easily manufactured.
C used for small aircraft only.
D that is only used for a limited time.

The principle of ON CONDITION maintenance is based on the:
A capability to withstand a certain amount of weakening of the structure without catastrophic

failure.
B redundancy of the structure or equipment.
C replacement of parts after a given number of cycles or hours of use.
D monitoring of critical parameters and the replacement of parts if a limit value is exceeded.
The principle of DAMAGE TOLERANT structural design of an aircraft is based on the:
A fact that there is no need to inspect the structure.
B capability to withstand a certain amount of weakening of the structure without catastrophic

failure.
D monitoring of critical parameters and the replacement of parts if a limit value is exceeded.
Define the term "FATIGUE":
A if a material is continually loaded and unloaded it will eventually break even though the load
remains the same.
B a loading on the material but it returns fully to its former state when the load is removed.
C the material suffers progressively more permanent damage each time that it is loaded and
unloaded.
D a one off loading that breaks the material.
A certain amount of force is applied on the airframe of an aircraft. After the force has been removed,
the aircraft airframe recovers its original shape. What kind of deformation is this?
A Permanent deformation.
B Structural deformation.
C Plastic deformation.
D Elastic deformation.
Which of the following statements concerning the stresses "TORSION" and "TENSION" is correct?
A Torsion is caused by twisting and tension resists a force pulling it apart.
B Torsion is caused by twisting and tension is a crushing force.
C Tension is caused by twisting and torsion resists a force pulling it apart.
D Torsion is caused by two layers sliding apart and tension resists a force pulling it apart.
A SAFE LIFE aircraft structural component:
A has parallel load paths.
B may be used during a declared number of cycles or flight hours.
C should have enough strength during the whole lifetime of an aircraft.
D is so strong that it never will fail during a declared time period.
According EASA CS the worst effect of a MINOR FAILURE on the aeroplane could be:
A no effect on operational capabilities or safety.
B large reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins.
C slight reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins.
D significant reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins.
According EASA CS the allowable average failure probability per flight hour for a MINOR FAILURE should
be on the order of:
A between 10-5 and 10-7 (remote probability)
B between 10-7 and 10-9 (extremely remote probability)
C between 10-3 and 10-5 (probable)
D less than 10-9 (extremely improbable)
What is the definition of “strain”?
A A deformation due to stress.
B The absolute deformation of an object due to a force.
C A fracture caused by recurring deformations.
D A type of mechanical load.
Which of these statements about structural design principles are correct or incorrect?
1) In structural design, FAIL SAFE implies the structure will never fail.
2) In structural design, SAFE LIFE implies the structure will never fail during a declared time period or
number of cycles.
A 1) is correct, 2) is correct.
B 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect.
C 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect.
D 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct.
According EASA CS the worst effect of a CATASTROPHIC FAILURE on the aeroplane could be:
A significant reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins.
B slight reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins.
C large reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins.
D hull loss.
According EASA CS the worst effect of a CATASTROPHIC FAILURE on the occupants of an aeroplane
excluding flight crew could be:
A multiple fatalities.
B physical distress, possibly including injuries.
C serious or fatal injury to a small number of passengers or cabin crew.
D physical discomfort.
According EASA CS the worst effect of a MINOR FAILURE on the flight crew could be:
A physical discomfort or a significant increase in workload.
B physical distress or excessive workload, impairs ability to perform tasks.
C no effect on flight crew.
D a slight increase in workload.
The principle of the SAFE LIFE design of an aircraft is based on the:
A monitoring of critical parameters and the replacement of parts if a limit value is exceeded.
D capability to withstand a certain amount of weakening of the structure without catastrophic

failure.
How can you tell when metallic bonding is incorrect?
A VOR interference.
B Static noise on the radio.
C CB trips.
D Corrosion at skin joints.

According EASA CS the worst effect of a CATASTROPHIC FAILURE on the flight crew could be:
A fatalities or incapacitation.
B physical distress or excessive workload, impairs ability to perform tasks.
C physical discomfort or a significant increase in workload.
D a slight increase in workload.
1) In structural design, FAIL SAFE implies the structure will never fail.
2) A SAFE LIFE structure is based on a declared time period or number of cycles.
A 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect.
B 1) is correct, 2) is correct.
C 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct.
D 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect.
1) In structural design, FAIL SAFE implies parallel structural parts.
2) In structural design, SAFE LIFE implies the structure will never fail during a declared time period or
number of cycles.
C 1) is correct, 2) is correct.
In the attached diagram, the type of stress acting on the point indicated by the image number 4 is the:
A compression.
B tension.
C torque.
D shear.
For FAIL SAFE designed structural components:
1) there is more than one load carrying component.
2) one load carrying component is sufficient, provided it is strong enough.
3) the component is removed at the end of the calculated life time or number of cycles.
4) the design is based on the principle of redundancy of components.
A 1, 4
B 2, 3
C 2, 4
D 1, 3
According EASA CS the worst effect of a HAZARDOUS FAILURE on the aeroplane could be:
A hull loss.
B large reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins.
C significant reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins.
D slight reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins.
What is 'hard time' maintenance of an aircraft component?
A A component that is overhauled or replaced after a set number of hours, cycles or operations.
B A component that is monitored for critical parameters and replaced when a limit value is
exceeded.
C A component that is overhauled or replaced at some point when convenient to the operator.
D A component that is replaced when it approaches a certain percentage of predicted life.
1) The DAMAGE TOLERANCE principle takes cracking of the structure into account.
2) The SAFE LIFE principle is based on the replacement of parts after a given number of cycles or flight
hours.
B 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct.
C 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect.
D 1) is correct, 2) is correct.
According EASA CS the worst effect of a MAJOR FAILURE on the flight crew could be:
A physical distress or excessive workload, impairs ability to perform tasks.
B no effect on flight crew.
C a slight increase in workload.
D physical discomfort or a significant increase in workload.

In the attached diagram, which image represents SHEAR FORCE?
A 2
B 1
C 3
D 4
According EASA CS the worst effect of a MAJOR FAILURE on the aeroplane could be:
A large reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins.
B no effect on operational capabilities or safety.
C slight reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins.
D significant reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins.
A compression.
B shear.
C torque.
D tension.
1) The DAMAGE TOLERANCE principle assumes cracks in the structure will never occur.
2) The SAFE LIFE principle is based on the replacement of parts after a given number of cycles or flight
hours.
A 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct.
The principle of FAIL SAFE design of an aircraft is based on the:
A replacement of parts after a given number of cycles or hours of use.
C monitoring of critical parameters and the replacement of parts if a limit value is exceeded.
D capability to withstand a certain amount of weakening of the structure without catastrophic

failure.
According EASA CS the worst effect of a HAZARDOUS FAILURE on the flight crew could be:
A a slight increase in workload.
B fatalities or incapacitation.
C physical discomfort or a significant increase in workload.
D physical distress or excessive workload, impairs ability to perform tasks.
1) FAIL SAFE implies redundant load paths.
2) SAFE LIFE structure is the most favourable method.
A 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct
B 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect
C 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect
D 1) is correct, 2) is correct
Which of the following causes damage to an aircraft?
A Plastic deformation
B Elastic deformation
C Bending
D Stress
According EASA CS the worst effect of a HAZARDOUS FAILURE on the occupants of an aeroplane
excluding flight crew could be:
A physical distress, possibly including injuries.
B multiple fatalities.
C physical discomfort.
D serious or fatal injury to a small number of passengers or cabin crew.
A tension.
B shear.
C compression.
D torque.
According to EASA CS the allowable quantitative average failure probability per flight hour for a
HAZARDOUS FAILURE should be on the order of:
A between 10-5 and 10-7 (remote probability)
B between 10-7 and 10-9 (extremely remote probability)
C less than 10-9 (extremely improbable)
D between 10-3 and 10-5 (probable)
In the attached diagram, which image represents COMPRESSION?
A 4
B 1
C 3
D 2
During a violent avoidance manoeuvre, a light twin aircraft certified to EASA CS-23 requirements, was
subjected to an instantaneous load factor of 4.2. The Flight Manual specifies that the aircraft is certified
in the normal category for a load factor of -1.9 to +3.8. Considering the certification requirements and
taking into account that the manufacturer of the twin did not include, during its conception, a
supplementary margin in the flight envelope, it might be possible to observe:
A an elastic deformation whilst the load was applied, but no permanent distortion.
B no distortion, permanent or temporary, of the structure.
C rupture of one or more structural components.
D a permanent deformation of the structure.

Describe how stress in aircraft parts is calculated:
A force × area
B mass × acceleration
C mass × velocity
D force / area
According EASA CS the worst effect of a MAJOR FAILURE on the occupants of an aeroplane excluding
flight crew could be:
A physical discomfort.
B serious or fatal injury to a small number of passengers or cabin crew.
C physical distress, possibly including injuries.
D inconvenience.
1) In structural design, FAIL SAFE implies redundant load paths.
2) A SAFE LIFE structure is based on a declared number of cycles or time period.
B 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect.
Which of the following statements regarding loads and stresses is correct?
A Stress is the ratio of the original length to the new length after the action of a force.
B Only the material of a component decides whether a deformation is elastic or plastic.
C Strain is a measure of deformation of the fuselage.
D Possible loads on an object are bending and torsion.

A tension.
B compression.
C torque.
D shear.
Torque links on an undercarriage come under most stress when:
A during crosswind landings.
B during pushback.
C making tight turns when taxiing.
D after take-off.
Which of these statements regarding cockpit windows are correct or incorrect?
1) Cockpit windows never have an additional speed restriction, related to bird impact, when window
heating is inoperative.
2) Cockpit side windows are usually defogged only.
A 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect.
Which of these statements concerning a SANDWICH structural part are correct or incorrect?
1) The main function of the core material is sound insulation.
2) A sandwich structural part is unsuitable for absorbing concentrated loads.
Monocoque fuselages derive their strength from:
A metal stringers.
B bulkheads and longerons.
C longerons and formers.
D the skin.
What is the load in the upper respectively lower girder of a spar of a cantilever wing during straight and
level flight?
A Torsion in the lower- and upper girder.
B Tension in the upper girder and compression in the lower girder.
C Tension in lower- and upper girder.
D Compression in the upper girder and tension in the lower girder.
The advantage of mounting the tailplane on top of the vertical stabilizer (a "T-tail" configuration) is:
A to decrease fuel consumption by creating a tail heavy situation.
B that it does not require a de-icing system.
C to withdraw it from the influence of wing turbulence.
D to have greater effectiveness at high speed.

Which of these statements about the wing structure is correct?
A A wing main spar consists of a web with stringers.
B A semi-monocoque structure consists of the skin and frames.
C A torsion box is formed by wing spars, ribs and wing skin reinforced by stringers.
D The slats are a part of the torsion box.
On a non-stressed skin type wing, the wing structure elements which take up the vertical bending
moments Mx are:
A ribs
B skin
C spars
D stringers
Cockpit indications associated with a windscreen heating system usually comprise:
A a green system "ON" information light and an amber system failure light.
B amber lights when the system is functioning with a red warning should the windscreen enter an
overheat condition.
C green or blue lights which cycle on/off with the function of the heating elements.
D only the position of the selector switch.
Loads on the cylindrical part of the fuselage during pressurisation cycles are carried by the:
A spars.
B stringers.
C skin.
D ribs.
What are the most frequently used materials in a monocoque or semi-monocoque structure?
A Wood.
B Steel.
C Aluminium or magnesium alloy.
D Composite fibers.
Refer to the attached annex depicting various types of fuselage cross-sections. Place these cross-
sections in order of INCREASING structural suitability for a pressurized cabin.
A 2, 3, 4, 1
B 4, 2, 3, 1
C 1, 4, 3, 2
D 1, 3, 4, 2
Which of these statements about composite and metal structures are correct or incorrect?
1) For a structural component with given dimensions composite materials enable a structural
component's strength to be tailored to the direction of the load.
2) Composite materials enable structures with lower strength / weight ratio than metal structures.
To achieve control flutter damping the balance mass must be located:
A directly above the control surface hinge.
B behind the control surface hinge.
C directly below the control surface hinge.
D in front of the control surface hinge.
1) The main function of the core material is to stabilise the covering sheets.
2) A sandwich structural part is well suited for absorbing concentrated loads.
A structure in which the skin takes all of the load is:
A a box structure.
B a semi-monocoque structure.
C a semi-braced structure.
D a monocoque structure.
A SANDWICH structural part:
A is unsuitable for fuel tanks.
B always uses honeycomb as core material.
C consists of two thin sheets separated by a core of a light material.
D is a so-called integral construction.
Wings without any external support such as struts are called:
A mono-lever
B swept-back
C monocoque
D cantilever
A framework of truss type fuselage is used in:
A light training aircraft mainly.
B medium range commuter type turbo-props.
C supersonic aircraft.
D heavy wide bodied subsonic turbo-fan aircraft.
1) Composite structures will give you the same tensile strength in all directions.
2) Metal structures will give you higher strength to weight ratios than composite ones.
Significant torsion effects on a wing structure during flight can be caused by:
A wing tip vortices.
B wing dihedral.
C aileron deflection.
D propwash.
Which of these statements about SANDWICH structural parts are correct or incorrect?
1) A sandwich structural part consists of fibres and a resin.
2) A sandwich structural part is not suitable for absorbing concentrated loads.
A cantilever wing is:
A a high wing configuration.
B a low wing configuration.
C a wing attached to the fuselage at the wing root only.
D a wing with a rectangular planform.
An electrically heated windscreen is manufactured from:
A triple glass sheets with the grain laid at 45° to each other.
B a boron aluminide and glass laminate.
C a perspex and polycarbonate laminate with gold heating element.
D a glass and polycarbonate laminate.
1) For a structural component with given dimensions composite materials enable a structural
component's strength to be tailored to the direction of the load.
2) Composite materials enable structures with higher strength / weight ratio than metal structures.
1) The main function of the core material is sound insulation.
2) A sandwich structural part is well suited for absorbing concentrated loads.
A SANDWICH structural part is:
A composed of resin and fibres.
B composed of two thin sheets and a light core material.
C well suited for absorbing point concentrated loads.
D a so-called integral construction.
A non-cantilever wing is:
A a high wing configuration.
B a low wing configuration.
C a wing supported by braces or a strut connected to the fuselage.
D a wing planform other than rectangular.
The bending loads on a cantilever wing due to lift are carried by the:
1) upper skin surface.
2) lower skin surface.
3) wing root fairing.
4) spar or spars.
A 2, 3
B 1, 3, 4
C 1, 2, 4
D 3, 4
In straight and level flight the most important loads on a cantilever wing are:
A tension in both the upper and the lower skin.
B compression in both the upper and the lower skin.
C compression in the upper skin, tension in the lower skin.
D tension in the upper skin, compression in the lower skin.

Torsion in a wing can be caused by:
A wing tip vortex.
B positive sweep.
C dihedral.
D propwash.
A semi-monocoque aircraft fuselage structure usually consists of:
A ribs, front spar, rear spar.
B skin, frames ,stringers.
C frames, fittings, stringers.
D ribs, spars, skin.
Maximum Zero Fuel Mass (MZFM) is:
A the total maximum permissible mass of the aircraft without usable fuel.
B the minimum allowable mass of the aircraft without usable fuel.
C the recommended maximum mass of the aircraft without usable fuel.
D the actual maximum mass of the aircraft without usable fuel.
A typical wing structure consists primarily of:
A ribs and stringers only.
B ribs only to give optimum and cost effective simple construction.
C a front and rear main spar.
D a front and rear main spar with ribs and stringers.
The function of ribs in a wing structure is to:
A withstand all the structural loads.
B withstand the torsional loads.
C allow installation of fuel cells in the wing.
D give the wing the desired aerodynamic shape.

Among the different types of aircraft structures, the shell structures efficiently transmit the:
1) normal bending stresses.
2) tangent bending stresses.
3) torsional moment.
4) shear stresses.
A 1, 2, 4
B 1, 2, 3
C 2, 3, 4
D 1, 3, 4
The pressurisation load on the skin of a fuselage is:
A compression.
B bending.
C torsion.
D tension.
When a wing bends upwards, aileron flutter might occur if the aileron deflects:
A downwards, because the location of the aileron centre of gravity lies in front of the hinge line.
B downwards, because the location of the aileron centre of gravity lies behind the hinge line.
C upwards, because the location of the aileron centre of gravity lies in front of the hinge line.
D upwards, because the location of the aileron centre of gravity lies behind the hinge line.
Refer to the attached annex depicting various types of fuselage cross-sections. Place these cross-
sections in order of DECREASING structural suitability for a pressurized cabin.
A 2, 3, 4, 1
B 4, 2, 3, 1
C 1, 2, 3, 4
D 1, 3, 4, 2
A wing spar typically consists of:
A a web and girders.
B ribs and frames.
C frames and webs.
D ribs and stiffeners.

Control surface flutter can be avoided by:
1) a high torsional stiffness of the structure.
2) a low torsional stiffness of the structure.
3) locating a balancing mass in front of the control hinge.
4) locating a balancing mass behind the control hinge.
A 1, 3.
B 1, 4
C 2, 4
D 2, 3
1) Cockpit windows never have an additional speed restriction, related to bird impact, when window
heating is inoperative.
2) Cockpit side windows are always provided with a de-icing system.
D 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect.
A composite structural component consists of:
A aluminium alloy with a covering layer of pure aluminium.
B a matrix and fibres.
C two thin metal sheets and a light core material.
D two metal sheets bonded together.

How can the wing bending moments be reduced in flight?
A Aileron down float and using the fuel from center (fuselage) tanks while maintaining the fuel in
the wing tanks for as long as possible.
B Having inboard mounted engines and using the fuel from center (fuselage) tanks while
maintaining the fuel in the wing tanks for as long as possible.
C Aileron up float and using the fuel from center (fuselage) tanks while maintaining the fuel in
the wing tanks for as long as possible.
D Having inboard mounted engines and using the fuel from the wing tanks while maintaining the
fuel in the center (fuselage) tanks for as long as possible.
The purpose of stringers, used in fuselage construction, is to:
A assist the skin absorb longitudinal compressive loads.
B provide attachment for the sound and thermal insulation.
C carry the loads due to pressurisation and convert them into tensile stress.
D absorb shear stresses.
In flight, a cantilever wing of an aeroplane containing fuel is subjected to vertical loads that produce a
bending moment that is:
A lowest at the wing root.
B highest at the wing root.
C equal to the zero fuel weight multiplied by the span.
D equal to half the weight of the aircraft multiplied by the semi-span.
When a wing bends downwards, aileron flutter might occur if the aileron deflects:
A downwards, because the location of the aileron centre of gravity lies behind the hinge line.
B upwards, because the location of the aileron centre of gravity lies behind the hinge line.
C downwards, because the location of the aileron centre of gravity lies in front of the hinge line.
D upwards, because the location of the aileron centre of gravity lies in front of the hinge line.
A SANDWICH type structure is often used in aircraft design because of its:
A low mass and low stiffness.
B high temperature resistance.
C ease of deformation under load.
D low mass and high stiffness.
Engine compartment decking and firewalls are typically manufactured from:
A composite materials such as carbon, kevlar and fibre glass.
B aluminium alloy sheet.
C stainless steel or titanium sheet.
D asbestos blankets.
The fuselage structure of a pressurised transport aeroplane is an example of a:
A truss type structure.
B semi-monocoque structure.
C sandwich structure.
D pure monocoque structure.
1) On some aeroplanes the cockpit windows have an additional speed restriction, related to bird impact,
when window heating is inoperative.
2) Cockpit side windows are always provided with a de-icing system.
What are the three elements of the fuselage structure of a large transport aeroplane?
A skin, ribs, formers.
B skin, frames, stringers.
C skin, girders, webs.
D skin, spars, ribs.

The two deformation modes that cause wing flutter are:
A torsion and bending.
B bending and elongation.
C shearing and elongation.
D torsion and shearing.
One function of a rib is:
A to stabilise the fuselage skin against buckling.
B to be the primary structural member to carry wings loads.
C to carry tensile load of the fuselage pressure hull.
D to maintain the aerodynamic shape of the wing.
1) A sandwich structural part consists of two thin sheets enclosing a light core material.
2) A sandwich structural part is not suitable for absorbing concentrated loads.
1) In a structural component with given dimensions constructed of composite materials, the strength is
the same in all directions.
2) Composite materials enable structures with higher strength / weight ratio than metal structures.
A SANDWICH structural part is unsuitable for absorbing:
A concentrated loads.
B bending loads.
C shear loads.
D torsional loads.
1) In a structural component with given dimensions constructed of composite materials, the strength is
the same in all directions.
2) Composite materials enable structures with lower strength / weight ratio than metal structures.
1) A sandwich structural part consists of two thin sheets enclosing a light core material.
2) A sandwich structural part is suitable for absorbing concentrated loads.
Among the different types of aircraft structures, the shell structures efficiently transmit the:
1) normal bending stresses.
2) tangent bending stresses.
3) shear stresses.
4) tension stresses.
A 1, 2, 3
B 2, 3, 4
C 1, 3, 4
D 1, 2, 4
What is the reason for heating flight deck windows?
A To protect the windows against bird strike damage.
B To protect the windows against ice formation.
C To protect the windows against bird strike damage and ice formation.
D To de-mist the interior of the window if normal de-mist does not function correctly.
When do you say that an aircraft has a cantilever wing?
A When the wing is supported by braces or strut, linked to the fuselage.
B When the wing is not supported by any external structures such as struts or braces.
C When the wing is attached to the lower part of the fuselage.
D When the wing planform is other than rectangular.
The wing of an aircraft in flight, powered by engines mounted under the wings, is subjected to bending
moments due to thrust and drag. The loading on the front spar of the torsion box from the wing root to
the wing tip is:
A compression, and then tension.
B tension, and then compression.
C tension.
D compression.
1) The main function of the core material is to stabilise the covering sheets.
2) A sandwich structural part is unsuitable for absorbing concentrated loads.
When the wing skin is not able to carry loads, the structural elements of the wing, which carry the
bending moment, are:
A the ribs.
B the webs.
C the rivets.
D the spars.
The inner layer of a heated windscreen is made of:
A glass.
B soft polycarbonate.
C hard perspex.
D triplex.
The reason for the fact that an aeroplane designed for long distances cannot simply be used for short
haul flights at higher frequencies is that:
A the procedures and checklists for this kind of aeroplanes will take too much time.
B these aeroplanes often consume too much fuel on short haul flights.
C in that case some fuel tanks remain empty during the whole flight, which stresses the
aeroplane's structure in an unacceptable way.
D the lifetime of the fatigue sensitive parts has been based on a determined load spectrum.
One design method to avoid control surface flutter is:
A providing the wing structure with sufficient flexibility.
B through the correct use of balance tabs.
C ensuring correct mass distribution within the control surface.
D through the correct use of trim tabs.
1) On some aeroplanes the cockpit windows have an additional speed restriction, related to bird impact,
when window heating is inoperative.
2) Cockpit side windows are usually defogged only.
Whilst stationary on the ground in a hangar the most important loads on a cantilever wing are:
A tension in the upper surface, compression in the lower surface.
B compression in the upper surface, tension in the lower surface.
C tension in both the upper and the lower surfaces.
D compression in both the upper and the lower surfaces.
Windshield heating of a transport aeroplane is:
A essential to improve the strength of the cockpit windows.
B used only at low altitudes where there is a risk of ice formation.
C only used when hot-air defogging is insufficient.
D not affecting the strength of a cockpit windows.
The highest load on the torsion link in a bogie gear is experienced:
A when gear is selected down.
B when braking with an inoperative anti-skid system.
C on touchdown with a strong crosswind.
D while turning on the ground with a small radius.

1) A sandwich structural part consists of fibres and a resin.
2) A sandwich structural part is suitable for absorbing concentrated loads.
Axial piston pumps are often used in hydraulic systems due to:
A their low cost, simplicity and durability.
B the safety feature of the quill drive shearing due to pump seizure and the ease of repair by
replacement of pump and shaft only.
C their ability to produce high pressure when required but can be off-loaded to reduce power
consumption.
D their ability to produce high pressure combined with constant high flow rate.
The component that converts hydraulic pressure into linear motion is called:
A a hydraulic pump.
B an accumulator.
C a pressure regulator.
D an actuator or jack.
The main reason for using pressurized hydraulic reservoirs on jet transport aircraft is:
A to compress the hydraulic fluids.
B to assure the pump inlet is provided with a continuous and adequate supply of fluid free from
foaming.
C to increase the output pressure of the system.
D to maintain a minimum system pressure in case of hydraulic pump failure and enabling the pilot
to lower flaps and gear with the help of this reservoir pressure.
Pascal's law states that:
A the volume of a liquid is constant, regardless of pressure and temperature.
B the force produced by a fluid depends only on the amount of fluid.
C pressure in an enclosed container is transmitted equally and undiminished to all parts of the
container and acts at right angles to the enclosing walls.
D for every action there is an opposite and equal reaction.
The hydraulic device, which functions in a comparable (similar) way to an electronic diode, is a:
A flow control valve.
B shutoff valve.
C check valve.
D distribution valve.
When powering up a hydraulic system, the level in the reservoir will:
A always remain the same.
B increase as ambient temperature decreases.
C decrease slightly.
D initially increase with system pressurisation.
Hydraulic fluids most frequently used in the systems of modern large transport airplanes are:
A water base fluids.
B vegetable base fluids.
C phosphate ester base fluids.
D mineral base fluids.

State the advantages of the variable displacement hydraulic pump compared to the constant
displacement pump.
A The variable displacement pump is simple in construction and very well suited for light aircraft.
B The variable displacement pump adjusts the fluid pumped to the fluid required, and the pump
thereby adjusts the pressure output itself, and it moves fluid only when necessary.
C The variable displacement pump is very rugged and dependable, and inexpensive to
manufacture.
D The variable displacement pump only consists of two moving parts, and is therefore small in
size, and very efficient compared to size.
Hydraulic pressure can be described as:
A force × area
B force × 2 ÷ area
C force ÷ area
D force × area2
The viscosity of a hydraulic fluid should be:
A the highest to minimize power consumption and resistance to flow.
B the highest to provide excellent lubrication properties.
C the lowest to provide excellent lubrication properties.
D the lowest to minimize power consumption and resistance to flow.
The reservoirs of a hydraulic system of a transport aircraft are typically pressurized:
A by an auxiliary system.
B by the air conditioning system.
C in flight only.
D by bleed air coming from the turbine-engine.

Consider a transport aircraft with dual hydraulic system. How will the loss of hydraulic pressure from
one system normally be indicated in the cockpit?
A Master caution light, dedicated amber light and loss of pressure reading for the affected
system
B Red light only
C Master caution and dedicated red light for affected system and aural warning
D Red or amber light with “loss of system pressure” indication and aural warning
Discounting the possibility of leak, the level in a hydraulic reservoir will:
A always remain the same.
B fluctuate with jack displacement and accumulator pressure.
C initially increase with system pressurization.
D increase as ambient temperature decreases.
Which one is a correct unit, used for hydraulic pressure?
A GAL
B PSI.
C N
D kg
In the diagram (not to scale), the balancing force required on the right hand side is:
A 1N
B 1 000 N
C 100 N
D 20 N
Should a hydraulic pump seize during operation:
A the quill drive will shear to offload and protect the gearbox.
B the inner barrel of the pump will rotate thus offloading and protecting the gearbox.
C the freewheel unit will disengage the pump from the gearbox.
D a red light will illuminate in the cockpit to warn the pilot of the failure.
Parameters to monitor a hydraulic system in the cockpit can be:
A pressure and fluid viscosity.
B pressure, fluid temperature and quantity.
C pressure and RPM of the hydraulic pump.
D pressure and hydraulic pump output.
The accumulator in a hydraulic system works as:
A a fluid storage.
B an energy storage.
C a pressure storage.
D a volume storage.
A hydraulic low pressure alert is the first indication of:
A the pump output pressure being insufficient.
B the reservoir level being at a minimum acceptable level.
C a leak in the reservoir return line.
D the hydraulic system accumulator becoming deflated.
An accumulator in a hydraulic system will:
A reduce fluid temperature only.
B increase pressure surges within the system.
C store fluid under pressure and allows for thermal expansion.
D reduce fluid temperature and pressure.

Filters in hydraulic systems often incorporate pop out indicators to:
A warn of an impending by-pass situation.
B warn of a hydraulic system overheat.
C indicate that the filter is due for maintenance.
D indicate that the filter is clogged and unfiltered oil is passing around the system.
The color of a fresh synthetic hydraulic fluid is:
A purple
B yellow / straw
C blue
D pink
Hydraulic fluids used in aircraft are mainly synthetic and mineral fluids. Can both types of fluids be used
together?
A Yes, if the aircraft is certified for the use of both types.
B No, because the system components are specifically made for use of one of them.
C Yes, in any case.
D No, the system needs to be flushed out first.
Internal leakage in a hydraulic system will cause:
A a decreased fluid temperature.
B an increased fluid pressure.
C an increased fluid temperature.
D fluid loss.
In a hydraulic system the master cylinder's inner area is 10 mm2, and the actuator cylinder's inner area
is 100 mm2. If you press the master cylinder by 2 cm using a 100 N force, the actuator cylinder will
move:
A 2 mm and produce a force of 1 000 N.
B 1 mm and produce a force of 500 N.
C 2 mm and produce a force of 100 N.
D 2 cm and produce a force of 100 N.

Total number of hydraulic pumps in this hydraulic system (excluding the PTU pump) is:
A 5.
B 6
C 3
D 2
Which types of hydraulic fluids are commonly used in civil aviation?
A vegetable only.
B synthetic & mineral
C synthetic only
D mineral only
Select the best description of hydraulic movement.
A Lubricants are used to reduce forces required to set movable parts.
B Incompressible fluid under pressure is used to transmit forces.
C Hydraulic systems generate a large power output for a small power input.
D Hydraulic movement is required to cool the engine and pre-heat fuel.

In a hydraulic system, the reservoir is pressurized in order to:
A prevent pump cavitation.
B keep the hydraulic fluid at optimum temperature.
C reduce fluid combustibility.
D seal the system.
Filtration in a hydraulic system is usually ensured by:
A a filter on the return line only.
B filters in both the pressure and return lines.
C a filter in the pressure line only.
D the use of sealed containers only during replenishment.
Hydraulic fluids must have the following characteristics:
1) thermal stability.
2) low emulsifying characteristics.
3) non-corrosive.
4) good resistance to combustion.
5) high compressibility.
6) high volatility.
7) high viscosity.
A 1, 2, 3, 4
B 1, 3, 4, 6
C 2, 3, 4, 5
D 1, 2, 5, 7
To protect against excessive system pressure, a hydraulic system usually incorporates:
A an accumulator.
B a pressure relief valve.
C an automatic cut out valve.
D a non-return valve.
Large transport aircraft hydraulic systems usually operate with a system pressure of approximately:
A 2 000 psi
B 4 000 psi
C 1 000 psi
D 3 000 psi
A pressure regulator is used in a hydraulic system:
A as an interface between the system and the cockpit indicators.
B to ensure that an equal pressure flow is delivered to critical components such as servo
actuators.
C in conjunction with a variable delivery type pump.
D in conjunction with a constant delivery type pump.
One of the functions of an accumulator in a hydraulic system is:
A to damp pressure surges in the system.
B to store pressure.
C to act as a pressure relief valve.
D to store fluid.
The purpose of an accumulator in a hydraulic system is:
A to damp the fluid pressure variations.
B to eliminate the fluid flow variations.
C to bypass the pumps in the hydraulic system.
D to enable the starting of hydraulic devices.

Hydraulic fluid in the reservoir is slightly pressurised to:
A prevent overheating of the pump.
B ensure sufficient pump output.
C prevent vapour locking.
D prevent cavitation in the pump.
Relationships between the force, pressure and area is:
A force = volume / area
B pressure = area x distance
C pressure = force x area
D force = pressure x area
Viscosity is:
A the temperature dependence of a liquid.
B the pressure resistance of a liquid.
C the tendency of a liquid or gas to resist flow.
D the flow velocity inside the hydraulic lines.
In hydraulic system, a SHUTTLE VALVE:
A regulates pump delivery pressure.
B is a non-return valve.
C enables an alternate system to operate the same actuators in case of normal system failure.
D allows two units to be operated by one pressure source.
The purpose of a hydraulic fuse is to:
A Prevent over-pressurising the reservoir as altitude increases.
B Prevent loss of system fluid if the hydraulic line to a brake unit should rupture.
C Allow a reduced pressure to the wheel brake system to avoid locking the wheels.
D Allow the parking brake to remain set in the "on" position overnight if required.
Purposes of an accumulator in an hydraulic system are:
1) to damp pressure fluctuations.
2) to cool the hydraulic fluid.
3) to serve as a limited alternate source of pressure.
4) to serve as a main pressure source for normal operation.
The combination that regroups all of the correct statement is:
A 1, 3.
B 2, 4
C 2, 3
D 1, 4
A modern hydraulic system typically includes "hydraulic fuses". Their function is:
A to switch to the secondary system in case of a leak in the primary brake system.
B to allow by-passing of a hydraulic pump in case it is subject to excessive pressure, without

further damage to the system.
C to prevent total system loss in case of a leaking hydraulic line.
D to isolate a part of the system and protect it against accidental contamination.
To allow for a failure of the normal method of system pressure limiting control, a hydraulic system often
incorporates:
A a stand-by hydraulic pump.
B auxiliary hydraulic motors.
C an accumulator.
D a high pressure relief valve.
Synthetic hydraulic fluids:
A do not require special care.
B are irritating to eyes and skin and cause high fire risk.
C are irritating to eyes and skin.
D cause high fire risk.

What happens with the hydraulic fluid level (in the reservoir) as you energize the system?
A Increases and then stays the same.
B Stays the same.
C Decreases and then fluctuates.
D Increases initially and then returns.
In the typical hydraulic system represented by the illustration, assuming hydraulic pressure throughout
and no internal leakage:
A a condition of hydraulic lock exists and no movement of the jack will take place.
B since pressures are equal, the jack is free to move in response to external forces.
C the jack will move to the left due to pressure acting on differential areas.
D the jack will move to the right due to equal pressure acting on differential areas.
How can the pressure of hydraulic fluid be indicated in transport aircraft?
A Pressure transducer
B Aneroid capsule and gearing
C Bourdon tube and gearing
D Capacitance-based
A single action actuator:
A is a one shot actuator used for emergency systems only.
B travels one direction under one application of hydraulic power and in the opposite direction
under a second application of hydraulic power.
C is powered in one direction only by hydraulic power, the return movement being under spring
force.
D cannot be used for variable position operations as it is designed to lock in the extremities of
travel.
Hydraulic power is a function of:
A system pressure and volume flow.
B system pressure and tank capacity.
C pump RPM only.
D pump size and volume flow.
In the hydraulic press schematically shown, what balancing force would be acting on the right hand
side?
A 1N
B 4 N.
C 100 N
D 20 N
Which answer describes hydraulic fluids best?
A Mineral oil is coloured purple.
B Hydraulic fluids are interchangeable.
C Hydraulic fluids are incompressible and often irritating to eyes and skin.
D Hydraulic fluids are highly viscous since they also have to lubricate actuators and other
components.
A variable displacement type hydraulic pump:
A delivers almost constant pressure independent on system resistance.
B moves no fluid when engine runs on idle.
C moves a constant flow of fluid.
D moves fluid quantity dependent on the system demand.
The type of hydraulic fluid which has the highest resistance against cavitation is:
A synthetic fluid.
B water and glycol based fluid.
C mineral oil based fluid.
D vegetable oil based fluid.
The Ram Air Turbine (RAT) provides emergency hydraulic power for:
A flight controls in the event of loss of engine driven hydraulic power.
B nose wheel steering after the aeroplane has landed.
C flap extension only.
D undercarriage selection and automatic brake system.
For an aeroplane hydraulic supply circuit, the correct statement is:
A the regulation system deals only with emergency operation and is not applied to all hydraulic
services but only those considered as essential.
B the reservoir constitutes a reserve of hydraulic fluid maintained under pressure by a pneumatic
back pressure (air or nitrogen) and destined to serve as a fluid or pressure reserve.
C the pumps are always electric due to the high pressures which they must deliver (140 to 210
kg/cm2).
D the safety components comprise the filters, the pressure relief valves, the by-passes, and the
fire shut-off valve.
Maximum power output and low mass of aircraft hydraulic systems can be achieved with
A low system pressure and high volume flow.
B medium system pressure and high volume flow.
C medium system pressure and low volume flow.
D high system pressure and low volume flow.
Hydraulic fluid should have the following characteristic:
A incompressibility.
B high volatility.
C low flash-point.
D low thermal stability.
In hydraulic systems of large modern transport category aircraft the fluids used are:
A synthetic oil.
B vegetable oil.
C mineral oil.
D water and glycol.
If piston A has an area of 2 cm2 and piston B has an area of 10 cm2, when piston B moves down by 5 cm,
how far will piston A have moved?
A 25 cm
B 10 cm
C 0.5 cm
D 5 cm
The function of a hydraulic selector valve is to:
A automatically activate the hydraulic system.
B select the system to which the hydraulic pump should supply pressure.
C direct system pressure to either side of the piston of an actuator.
D discharge some hydraulic fluid if the system pressure is too high.
Which statement comprises the favourable qualities of hydraulic fluid?
A High flash point, high volatility, low compressibility, high viscosity and low flammability.
B Low flash point, low volatility, high compressibility, low viscosity and high flammability.
C Low flash point, high volatility, high compressibility, low viscosity and low flammability.
D High flash point, low volatility, low compressibility, low viscosity and low flammability.
Hydraulic fluids:
A are highly viscous.
B are highly flammable.
C are irritating to eyes and skin.
D can be used in the lubrication system.
The temperature of hydraulic fluid is typically measured:
A at the actuator.
B at the pumps.
C after the cooler.
D in the reservoir.
The hydraulic system that works correctly is shown in:
A diagram 4
B diagram 1
C diagram 2
D diagram 3
Which of these statements about an aeroplane's hydraulic system is correct?
A The hydraulic reservoir contains a membrane and is pressurised by nitrogen on one side of this
membrane.
B A hydraulic leak in a return line does not affect the functioning of the hydraulic system.
C The filters, the pressure relief valve(s), the by-pass valve(s), and the fire shut-off valve are
safety features installed in a typical system.
D The pumps are always electrically driven because they need to deliver a high pressure of 3 000
psi.
The hydraulic system of a transport aircraft is typically designed to produce:
A high pressure and large flow.
B high pressure and small flow.
C small pressure and large flow.
D small pressure and small flow.
The oil reservoir in a hydraulic system has the purpose to serve as:
A the compartment that stores the fluid.
B a point at which the fluid can purge itself of air.
C an expansion chamber to provide a space for the fluid when its volume increases due to a high
temperature.
D all of the above alternatives are correct.
What is the purpose of a "relief valve" in the hydraulic system?
A Make sure that the emergency hand pump will produce enough pressure when used.
B Make sure that the pressure in the system exceeds a certain minimum pressure.
C Make sure that the pressure does not exceed the max. permitted pressure in the system.
D To "even out" the pressure in the system.
The purpose of a shuttle valve is to:
A relieve excess pressure in hydraulic systems.
B prevent overloading of the hydraulic pump.
C supply an operating unit with the most appropriate system pressure.
D protect a hydraulic system from over-pressure.
In a typical hydraulic system, the overheat detectors are usually installed:
A at the pumps.
B at the actuators.
C at the coolers.
D in the reservoirs.
Shuttle valves will automatically:
A reduce pump loads.
B guard systems against over-pressure.
C shut down systems which are overloaded.
D switch hydraulically operated units to the most appropriate pressure supply.
Different types of hydraulic fluids can be mixed. This statement is:
A false.
B true, but only vegetable and mineral hydraulic fluids can be mixed. Synthetic hydraulic fluids for
high performance systems must not be mixed with any other type of fluid.
C true, mineral and synthetic hydraulic fluids can be mixed but vegetable fluids must not be mixed
with any other type of fluid.
D true.
The following is normally true regarding hydraulic hand pumps. They are:
A of a double cylinder design.
B connected to the bottom of the reservoir.
C connected to the reservoir stack pipe.
D single acting.
The type of hydraulic fluid most frequently used in the hydraulic systems of modern transport
aeroplanes is:
A Mixture of mineral oil and alcohol.
B Vegetable oil.
C Mineral oil.
D Synthetic oil
An automatic cut-out valve is used in a:
A fixed volume pressure control hydraulic system.
B constant pressure hydraulic system.
C neither of these.
D both of these.
Hydraulic fluids should have the following characteristics:
1) thermal stability.
2) anti-corrosive.
3) high flash-point.
4) high compressibility.
5) high volatility.
A 1, 4, 5
B 1, 2, 3.
C 1, 2, 5
D 2, 3, 4
When an emergency nitrogen bottle is used for the landing gear:
A it lowers the landing gear and the doors remain open.
B it lowers the landing gear and subsequently closes the doors.
C it retracts the landing gear only.
D it lowers and retracts the landing gear, depending on the setting in the cockpit.
When autobrake is used at full power,
A it delays full braking power to prevent excessive pitch-down moments.
B the brake pressure is similar to RTO mode.
C the anti-skid system is deactivated.
D deceleration is not constant on slippery runway surfaces.
In a typical commercial transport aircraft the landing gear operating system is usually:
A mechanically driven.
B pneumatically driven.
C electrically driven.
D hydraulically driven.
The number in the annex that shows the BRACE STRUT is:
A 3
B 6
C 7.
D 2
The operating principle of an anti-skid system. The brake pressure will be:
A increased on the faster turning wheels.
B increased on the slower turning wheels.
C decreased on the faster turning wheels.
D decreased on the slower turning wheels.

A torsion link assembly (torque link) is installed on the landing gear to:
A take up the lateral stresses to which the gear is subjected.
B provide damping of the vertical motion during touch-down.
C prevent the extension of the landing gear oleo strut rod.
D avoid rotation of the piston rod relative to the fixed part of the oleo strut.
The reason for fitting thermal plugs to aeroplane wheels is that they:
A prevent tire burst after excessive brake application.
B prevent heat transfer from the brake disks to the tires.
C release air from the tire in the event of overpressure due to over-inflation.
D prevent the brakes from overheating.
The brake assembly of transport aircraft is typically equipped with an anti-skid system. Which device or
system supplies the anti-skid control unit with information required to regulate the brake pressure?
A a hydraulic pressure sensor.
B a wheel speed sensor.
C the pitot-static system.
D the airspeed indicator, corrected to ground speed.
Choose the correct statement about auto-brake systems (ABS)...
A For a given touchdown ground speed on a dry runway without the use of reverse thrust, the
stopping distance solely dependents on the selected ABS setting and weight of the airplane.
B An armed auto-brake system will always try to achieve the selected deceleration level directly
after main wheel touchdown.
C A take-off warning during the take-off will be generated if the auto-brake system has not been
armed.
D Without pilot interference an auto-brake system continues to operate until standstill.
If the profile grooves or the tread of an aircraft tire are worn, the tire can be:
A repaired once.
B used on the nose wheel only.
C never repaired.
D repaired several times.

The number in the annex that shows the MAIN LEG OLEO STRUT is:
A 10
B 8.
C 1
D 3
The number in the annex that shows the DOWNLOCK STRUT is:
A 6.
B 3
C 10
D 9
The PLY RATING of a tire is?
A A parameter indicating the tire relative strength.
B The tread design.
C The inner liner used as a container for the air.
D The ratio between the section width and the section diameter.
On most large aircraft, the main source of braking power is derived from:
A pressure to the rudder pedals.
B the hydraulic system.
C the electrical system
D bleed air pressure.
Compared to a tire fitted with an inner tube, a tubeless tire presents the following characteristics:
1) high heating.
2) valve fragility.
3) lower risk of bursting.
4) better adjustment to wheels.
The combination containing all the correct statements is:
A 1, 2, 3, 4
B 3, 4.
C 2, 3
D 2, 4
The modern anti-skid processes are based on the use of a computer whose input data is:
1) idle wheel speed (measured).
2) braked wheel speed (measured).
3) brake temperature (measured).
4) desired idle wheel train slipping rate.
5) tire pressure.
A 2, 4
B 1, 3
C 1, 2, 4
D 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
You have lost your main hydraulic brake source. On most large and modern transport aeroplanes what
system will take over and enables you to brake?
A Thrust reverser.
B Braking parachute.
C An alternate hydraulic system.
D Accumulators only.
The number in the annex that shows the TORSION LINK is:
A number 3.
B number 6.
C number 4.
D number 5.
The number in the annex that shows the RETRACTION ACTUATOR is:
A number 4.
B number 3.
C number 1.
D number 2.
"Nose-wheel shimmy" may be described as:
A the oscillatory movement of the nose-wheel when moving on the ground.
B a possibly damaging vibration of the nose-wheel when extended prior landing.
C aircraft vibration caused by the nose-wheel upon extension of the gear.
D the amount of free movement of the nose-wheel before steering takes effect.
The number in the annex that shows the MOUNTING LUG is:
A 9
B 3
C 12.
D 11
The systems used for emergency extension of landing systems may comprise of:
1) compressed CO2.
2) compressed nitrogen.
3) compressed oxygen.
4) auxiliary hydraulic system.
5) free-fall (gravity).
A 2, 3, 4
B 1, 3, 4
C 1, 2, 5
D 2, 4, 5.
The number in the annex that shows the TORSION LINK is:
A 10.
B 5.
C 8.
D 11.
On the diagram shown, the landing gear element indicated by the number 3 is a:
A torque link.
B retraction actuator.
C bogie beam.
D shock absorber.
Evaluate the following statement regarding nose wheel steering using the tiller or rudder pedals.
A The steering tiller can also be used to operate the rudder when the connection between the
rudder pedals and the control surface is lost.
B The possible steering angle is larger with the rudder pedals than the tiller.
C Rudder pedals are normally used for steering at higher speeds.
D The use of the steering tiller is normally limited to speeds above 60 kts.
On the upper image on the diagram shown, the landing gear element indicated by the number 3 is the:
A side stay / strut.
B torsion link.
C retraction actuator.
D main leg oleo strut.

Must the anti-skid system be available when using autobrakes?
A No.
B Yes.
C No, if thrust reverser are used.
D No, if brake pedals are used.
On the lower image on the diagram shown, the landing gear element indicated by the number 11 is a:
A bogie beam.
B retraction actuator.
C bogie pitch trimmer.
D torque link.
Considering the autobrake system, evaluate the following statements:
Autobrake can be used if antiskid is inoperative
RTO mode applies the maximum possible constant deceleration
A 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect
B 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct
C 1 and 2 are both incorrect
D 1 and 2 are both correct
The function of a scissor (torsion link) in a landing gear is to:
A create the wheel pitch on bogie gears.
B make the body gears pivot when the nose-wheel is turned through more than 20°.
C prevent any rotation of the oleo strut in the landing gear shock absorber.
D transfer the rudder pedal deflection into nose wheel steering commands.
"Nose-wheel shimmy" may be described as:
A aircraft vibration caused by the nose-wheel upon extension of the gear.
B the oscillatory movement of the nose-wheel when extended prior to landing.
C the amount of free movement of the nose-wheel before steering takes effect.
D a possibly damaging vibration of the nose-wheel when moving on the ground.
To prevent the landing gear from collapsing when the aircraft is parked on the ground, following device
is used:
A locking pins with flags.
B hydraulic pressure.
C chocks.
D torque links.
The function of an accumulator in a hydraulic brake system is:
A to supply a limited amount of brake energy in the event of loss of all hydraulic systems
supplying the brakes.
B to store the hydraulic energy recovered by the anti-skid system to prevent wheel locking.
C to function as a buffer to assist the hydraulic system during heavy braking.
D to damp pressure fluctuations of the autobrake system.
The purpose of the oil and the nitrogen in an oleo-pneumatic landing gear strut is:
A the oil supplies the sealing and lubrication function, the nitrogen supplies the damping function.
B the oil supplies the spring function and the nitrogen supplies the damping function.
C the oil supplies the damping function and the nitrogen supplies the spring function.
D the oil supplies the damping and lubrication function, the nitrogen supplies the heat-dissipation
function.
The autobrake system automatically applies the level of braking selected together with anti-skid
facilities:
A if main wheel spin-up has been detected.
B if nose wheel spin-up has been detected.
C only if spin-up of all wheels has been detected.
D if manual wheel spin-up occurs or weight on wheels switch is activated.

The number in the annex that shows the ACTUATING CYLINDER is:
A 7
B 5
C 1.
D 10
The autobrake system is disconnected during landing:
A by pilot action.
B after a preset elapsed time.
C below a specific speed.
D when selecting the reverse thrust.
When a new tyre is fitted to an aircraft, creep:
A occurs only on high performance tyres.
B only occurs on tubeless tyres.
C occurs only if the tyre is over inflated.
D is normal.
When the anti-skid system is inoperative…
A manual braking will never ensure the required stopping distance – take-off has to be avoided.
B manual braking can be used; however, the stopping distance is likely greater than with anti-
skid in all surface conditions.
C manual braking will result in a longer stopping distance on wet or contaminated runways only.
D manual braking will result in a longer stopping distance on dry runways only.
To avoid the risk of tire burst from overheating there is:
A the "Emergency Burst" function of the anti-skid system that adapts braking to the tire
temperature.
B water injection triggered at a fixed temperature in order to lower tire temperature.
C a thermal plug that deflates the tire at a specific temperature.
D a pressure relief valve situated in the filler valve.
In a hydraulic brake system of a transport aircraft, an accumulator is pre-charged to 1 200 psi. If an

electrically driven hydraulic pump is started and provides a system pressure of 3 000 psi, the pressure
gauge, which is connected to the gas section of the accumulator, will read:
A 1 200 psi
B 1 800 psi
C 4 200 psi
D 3 000 psi
A tubeless tire is a tire:
1) which requires solid or branched wheels.
2) whose valve can be sheared in sudden accelerations.
3) whose mounting rim must be flawless.
4) which requires no rim protection between rim flange and tire removing device.
5) which does not burst in the event of a tire puncture.
6) which eliminates internal friction between the tube and the tire.
A 1, 2, 5
B 1, 5, 6.
C 2, 3, 6
D 3, 4, 5
When the hydraulic system supplying the brakes in normal operation is inoperative, the brakes can still
be operated:
A using a standby hydraulic system.
B manually.
C using their normal brake accumulator.
D using a pneumatic standby system.
In a typical high pressure hydraulic brake system of a large transport aircraft:
A the aircraft main hydraulic system is connected to the brake pistons by operation of a dual brake
control valve.
B a separate parking brake system is usually fitted together with its own accumulator and its
own system components.
C a non-return valve (NRV) is fitted to reduce the pressure of the aircraft hydraulic systems to that
of the brake operating pressure.
D a pressure relief valve (PRV) is fitted to maintain pressure in the brake system if the aircraft
hydraulic system fails.
How can wheel brake life be saved?
A With carbon brakes, use many small brake applications during taxi to prevent temperature
build-up.
B With steel brakes, use many small brake applications during taxi to prevent temperature
build-up.
C With steel brakes, use one large brake application during taxi.
D With carbon and steel brakes, use differential braking during taxi.
Which statement is correct regarding nose wheel steering using the tiller or rudder pedals?
A Pedals and nosewheel are usually disconnected during taxi.
B When checking the rudder during taxi, the pilot has to consider nose-wheel turn.
C Nose-wheel steering also works when using the rudder pedals in flight.
D The steering angle is the same when using the rudder pedals or nose-wheel steering tiller.
Shimmy occurs on the nose-wheel landing gear during taxiing when the wheels:
1) tend to describe a sinusoidal motion on the ground.
2) no longer respond to the pilot's actions.
This effect is overcome by means of:
3) the torque link.
4) an accumulator associated with the steering cylinder.
The combination of correct statements is:
A 2, 4
B 2, 3
C 1, 4.
D 1, 3
What effect would an unserviceable anti-skid system have on the aeroplane's landing performance?
A The pilot's own braking action is always most effective.
B The landing distance would only be adversely affected on a wholly dry runway.
C The landing distance would only be adversely affected on a wholly wet runway.
D The lack of anti-skid would increase the landing distance significantly.

The autobrake system is disconnected after landing:
A by pilot action by using the brake pedals.
B the system is always armed.
C at a certain low speed.
D automatically.
The autobrake system is deactivated:
1) below a preset minimum speed.
2) when reverse thrust is activated.
A 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect
B 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect
C 1) is correct, 2) is correct
D 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct
The maximum permitted tire creep is typically:
A reached after 5 landings.
B indicated when the edge of the tire mark aligns with the opposite edge of the wheel-rim mark.
C 1.5 inches for tires of 24 or less inches in diameter and 1 inch for tires greater than 24 inches in
diameter.
D specified by the manufacturer on the tire shoulder.
An autobrake system offers different level settings. What is correct about these levels?
A The low level is used, especially for wet and slippery runways.
B If the autobrake is set to a low braking power level, the autobrake will start to work with a
delay.
C If maximum braking action is required during landing, the RTO setting will be used.
D The low level is only used for emergencies.
Tire "creep" may be described as the:
A decrease in inflation pressure due to increase in ambient temperature.
B gradual circumferential increase of tire wear.
C increase in inflation pressure due to decrease in ambient temperature.
D circumferential movement of the tire in relation to the wheel flange.

In some aircraft, there is a protection device to avoid the landing gear being inadvertently retracted on
the ground. It consists of:
A a latch located in the landing gear lever.
B an aural warning horn.
C a bolt.
D a warning light which is activated by the WOW (Weight On Wheels) sensor system.
In some aircraft, there is a protection device to avoid the landing gear being inadvertently retracted on
the ground. It consists of:
A a latch located in the landing gear lever.
B an aural warning horn.
C a bolt.
D a warning light which is activated by the WOW (Weight On Wheels) sensor system.
Choose the correct answer.
A Rudder pedal moves do not cause nosewheel movement during take-off.
B The rudder pedals and steering tiller cause exactly the same movements of the nosewheel.
C The rudder pedals move the nosewheel, but do not move it when the aircraft is airborne.
D The rudder pedals cause greater nosewheel movements than the tiller.
What is the component of the nose landing gear shown by the number 2?
A Torsion link.
B Shock absorber.
C Steering actuator.
D Retraction actuator.
Overcentre mechanisms in landing gear systems are used to:
A ensure that the nose-wheel does not exceed the maximum steering arc.
B lock the landing gear in the up and/or down positions.
C lock the landing gear in the up position only.
D ensure the nose-wheel is positioned fore and aft prior to retraction.
The damping element in a landing gear shock absorber used on large aircraft is:
A nitrogen
B springs
C hydraulic fluid
D oxygen
A red or an amber light on an undercarriage position indicator signifies:
A all wheels are up and locked.
B all wheels are down and locked.
C the landing has been selected down using the emergency extension system.
D at least one wheel is in the travelling or unlocked condition.
VLO is the maximum:
A speed with flaps extended in a given position.
B flight speed with landing gear down.
C speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety.
D cruising speed not to be exceeded except in still air with caution.
An aural alert is generated by a landing gear extension system when:
A attempting to retract gear while on the ground (weight on wheels).
B not retracting gear after take-off.
C attempting to perform a landing with the gear retracted.
D flying too fast with the gear extended.
The pilot may be prevented from retracting the landing gear whilst the aircraft is on the ground by:
A the electrical control system being routed through the weight on wheels switch.
B a pneumatic interlock which disables the hydraulic up selector.
C any attempt to select the landing gear up will result in a flashing warning light and a loud horn.
D a guard on the selector switch which cannot be moved until the aircraft is airborne.
The autobrake system:
A will disconnect by pressing the pedals.
B will disconnect automatically below a certain speed.
C can only be disconnected by the pilot if the switch is set to OFF position.
D will disconnect automatically by turning on the ground (e.g. leaving the runway).
Associate the correct legend to each of the numbered diagrams:
A 1) half-fork; 2) single trace; 3) cantilever; 4) dual wheels
B 1) cantilever; 2) fork; 3) half-fork; 4) dual wheels
C 1) cantilever; 2) dual wheels; 3) half-fork; 4) fork
D 1) half-fork; 2) for; 3) cantilever; 4) tandem
An airplane is taxiing with armed autobrakes (RTO mode) but needs to brake hard at a low speed before
reaching the runway. What happens to the autobrake system?
A The RTO mode will remain armed.
B The autobrake system is disarmed automatically.
C The autobrake system remains armed and it is not possible to brake normally below a speed of
15 kts.
D The autobrake system kicks in and brakes.

The number in the annex that shows the DOWNLOCK STRUT is:
A 3
B 10
C 2.
D 8
How is an autobrake system going to react in case of an aborted take-off and if RTO mode has been
selected?
A The RTO mode will activate braking action depending on the remaining runway length, as soon
as the take-off is rejected.
B The RTO mode will activate maximum braking at any speed, as soon as the throttles are moved
to idle position.
C The RTO mode will activate braking action depending on the remaining runway length, as soon
as the take-off is rejected, the throttles are moved to idle and a certain speed has been exceeded.
D The RTO mode will activate maximum braking with anti-skid above a certain speed, as soon as
the take-off is rejected and the throttles are moved to idle position.
Generally, on modern jet transport aeroplanes, if there is a complete hydraulic system failure, the
landing gear can be extended by:
A alternate electrical extension.
B gravity extension.
C alternate pneumatic extension.
D hydraulic accumulators.
The number in the annex that shows the HYDRAULIC STRUT is:
A 5
B 9.
C 8
D 1
The illumination of the green landing gear light indicates that the landing gear is:
A in the required position.
B locked-down and its door is locked.
C not in the required position.
D locked-down.
Steering on most light aircraft is achieved by:
A hydraulic jacks powered by the aircraft system.
B a steering tiller connected to the nose-wheel.
C mechanical rods connected to the rudder pedals.
D asymmetric braking only.
The type of brake unit most frequently found on transport category aeroplanes is a:
A single disk brake.
B multiple disk brake.
C belt brake.
D drum type brake.
In a hydraulic brake system of a transport aircraft, an accumulator is pre-charged with nitrogen to 1 000
psi. If the hydraulic system is then pressurised to its operating pressure of 3 000 psi, the indicated
pressure on the nitrogen side of the accumulator should be:
A 3 000 psi
B 2 000 psi
C 1 000 psi
D 4 000 psi
Thermal plugs are installed in:
A the tyres.
B the wheels.
C the axles.
D the dampers.
A main landing gear is said to be "locked down" when:
A it is in the down position.
B the corresponding indicator lamp is amber.
C the actuating cylinder is at the end of its travel.
D the strut is locked by an overcentre mechanism.
In a hydraulic brake system of a transport aircraft, an accumulator is pre-charged with 1 000 psi. If the
hydraulic system is then pressurised to its operating pressure of 3 000 psi, the indicated pressure of the
gas side of the accumulator should be:
A 1 000 psi of oxygen
B 3 000 psi of nitrogen
C 3 000 psi of oxygen
D 1 000 psi of nitrogen
For aircraft equipped with a landing gear anti-retract latch, which of the following statements is correct?
A This system can not be overridden since an uncentred nose wheel can damage the wheel well
structure.
B This system can be overridden under specific conditions.
C This system prevents the gear retraction when the IAS is too high.
D This system prevents the gear retraction when the IAS is too low.
Which of the following statements with regard to the landing gear down-lock mechanism is correct?
A If necessary the landing gear down-locks can be engaged manually.
B The landing gear is usually locked in the down-lock position electrically.
C The nose wheel generally does not need a down-lock mechanism.
D The down-lock mechanism predominantly utilises the overcentre principle.
During hydroplaning, the friction coefficient between tire and runway surface is approximately:
A 0.
B 0.5
C 1
D 0.25
VLE is the maximum:
A speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety.
B speed with flaps extended in a given position.
C speed authorized in flight.
D flight speed with landing gear down.
An anti-retract latch blocks the landing gear lever when:
A the IAS is too high for gear retraction.
B the IAS is too low for gear retraction.
C the gear is in unsuitable configuration for extension.
D the aircraft is on the ground.
On the upper image on the diagram shown, the landing gear element indicated by the number 4 is the:
A side stay / strut.
B main leg oleo strut.
C retraction actuator.
D axle.
A tubeless tire has:
1) a built-in air tube.
2) no built-in air tube.
3) a crossed side casing.
4) a radial side casing.
A 1.3
B 2, 3
C 2, 4.
D 1, 4
The number in the annex that shows the PISTON is:
A 11
B 5.
C 3
D 4
A torsion link assembly is installed on the landing gear to:
A lock the landing gear.
B avoid rotation of the piston rod relative to the gear oleo strut.
C control the wheels.
D absorb the spring tension.
The function of a fusible plug is to:
A function as a special circuit breaker in the electric system.
B protect against excessive pressure in the pneumatic system.
C protect the brake against brake disk fusion due to excessive temperature.
D protect the tire against explosion due to excessive temperature.
An under-inflated tire will:
A be more subject to viscous aquaplaning.
B experience reduced wear at the shoulders.
C have an increased hydroplaning speed.
D experience increased wear at the shoulders.
Which statement is correct with regard to the autobrake system in RTO mode?
A RTO has a fixed force with which the aircraft is decelerated.
B With RTO not available, take-off might not be allowed because the minimum braking distance
with manual braking is longer.
C Without pilot input, the RTO mode will automatically brake the aircraft to a full stop.
D Manual braking is the most efficient way to decelerate the aircraft.
Thermal plugs are installed in:
A wheel rims.
B cargo compartments.
C cabin windows.
D fire warning systems.

Hydraulic brake system of transport aircraft: assuming an accumulator is pre-charged to 1 000 psi and
the hydraulic system is pressurized to 1 500 psi, the accumulator gauge will read:
A 1 500 psi
B 1 000 psi
C 2 000 psi
D 500 psi
The expression "primary flight control" applies to the:
1) elevator.
2) speed brake.
3) lift-augmentation devices.
4) roll spoilers.
A 1, 2, 3, 4
B 2, 4
C 1, 4.
D 2, 3
The reason for a double switch on the elevator trim is:
A because there are two trim motors.
B to be able to use two different trim speeds, slow trim rate at high speed and high trim rate at
low speed.
C to prevent both pilots from performing opposite trim inputs.
D to reduce the probability of a trim runaway.
Modern fly-by-wire systems usually feature different modes of operation. Which are the most common
ones?
A Normal mode, Direct mode and Mechanical Backup
B Alternative (secondary) mode, Direct mode and Mechanical Backup
C Normal mode, Alternative (secondary) mode, Direct mode and Mechanical Backup
D Normal mode, Alternative (secondary) mode and Direct mode

Which of these statements about a gust lock system are correct or incorrect?
1) A gust lock can be used in flight to reduce the effects of turbulence.
2) Reversible flight controls should have a gust lock.
The rudder is trimmed in a fully powered flight control system by:
A adjusting the position of the rudder trim tab.
B altering the neutral position of the artificial feel unit.
C moving the pilot's control column into a neutral position.
D moving the rudder limiter unit.
1) A gust lock can be used in flight to reduce the effects of turbulence.
2) There is no need for a gust lock on reversible flight controls.
Which of the following statements is UNTRUE?
A In a power assisted flight control system there is a physical link between the pilot and the
control surfaces.
B Powered flight control systems require an artificial feel system.
C In a powered flight control system there is no physical link between the pilot and the control
surfaces.
D Power assisted flight control systems require a Q-feel system.

1) There should be suitable design precautions to prevent flight with the gust lock engaged.
2) Reversible flight controls should have a gust lock.
PRIMARY flight controls are:
A ailerons, elevators and rudder.
B control wheel or stick, rudder pedals and speed brake.
C ailerons, elevators, rudder and flaps.
D control wheel or stick, rudder pedals, flap lever and throttle.
The function of the rudder limiter system is:
A to reduce pilot's workload during engine failure.
B to restrict rudder deflection during flight at high IAS.
C to limit pedal movement in heavy turbulence.
D to restrict the rudder deflection during flight at high altitudes.
Which controls act together in a V-tail aircraft?
A The stick in both axis (push, pull and turn).
B The stick in one axis and the rudder-pedals.
C The rudder-pedals and the mixture.
D The stick in one axis and the throttle.

If an artificial feel unit is fitted, it would be connected:
A to the secondary flight controls.
B in series with the primary controls.
C in parallel with the primary controls.
D close to the control column.
Some aircraft use a fly-by-wire system to move the primary flight controls. This system is based on:
A electrical signals from a computer sent to hydraulic actuators.
B secondary controls such as speed brakes.
C hydraulic power only.
D mechanical power transmitted by steel wires.
Most transport aeroplanes are provided with protection against control jamming. This means that:
A in case of seizure, engine control is taken over automatically by an alternate electric circuit.
B the flight control system has provisions to disconnect the part of the control system that
becomes blocked.
C seized brakes can be released from the cockpit.
D the aeroplane is protected against the adverse effects of strong electromagnetic radiation.
1) There is no need for a gust lock on irreversible flight controls.
2) There is no need for a gust lock on manual flight controls.
Which modes of operation can be found in fly-by-wire aircraft?
A Normal, Alternate (Secondary), Direct, Mechanical
B Take-off/Go-around, Flight, Landing, and sometimes Taxi
C Pitch, Roll, Yaw, Autobrake
D Automatic, Mechanical, Emergency, Backup

In its most common design, the trimmable horizontal stabiliser of large transport aeroplanes...
A adjusts its trim by control tabs.
B is moved by hydraulically actuated jacks.
C moves in response to lateral control column/stick movements.
D is moved by hydraulically actuated control tabs.
The expression "secondary flight control" applies to the:
1) elevator.
2) speed brake.
3) lift-augmentation devices.
4) roll spoilers.
A 1, 2, 3, 4
B 2, 4
C 1, 4
D 2, 3.
Which of these statements about rudder limiting are correct or incorrect?
1) A rudder ratio changer system reduces the rudder deflection for a given rudder pedal deflection as
the IAS increases.
2) A variable stop system limits both rudder and rudder pedal deflection as the IAS increases.
Which of these statements about trimming in a irreversible flight control system of a conventional
aeroplane are correct or incorrect?
1) The zero force position of the control column does not change when using the pitch trim.
2) The zero force position of the control wheel does not change when using the aileron trim.
1) Irreversible flight controls should have a gust lock.
2) There is no need for a gust lock on manual flight controls.
What is the function of hydraulic valves in fully powered control systems?
A They directly cause a movement of the control surface.
B They decrease the control force generated by the cables or pushrods.
C They act on the actuator of the control surface.
D They only provide the pilot with an “artificial feel” feedback.
A Krueger flap is normally located at the:
A trailing edge close to the wing root.
B trailing edge.
C leading edge.
D trailing edge close to the wing tip.

A flight control surface actuator is said to be "reversible" when:
A the flight control system has an alternate means of control in case of a control jam.
B the pilot does not feel any force when moving that flight control surface in flight.
C there is a need to have an artificial feel system.
D there is feedback to the pilot's controls of the aerodynamic forces acting on the control
surface.
The purpose of the trim tab is to
A Increase hinge moments, but it increases control surface efficiency.
B Reduce hinge moments, but it increases control surface efficiency.
C Reduce hinge moments, but it reduces control surface efficiency.
D Increase hinge moments, but it reduces control surface efficiency.
Over-tensioned cables in a flight control system could result in:
A no appreciable difference.
B insufficient friction in the system.
C restricted movement of control surfaces.
D excessive friction in the system.
The advantages of fly-by-wire control are:
1) reduction of the electric and hydraulic power required to operate the control surfaces.
2) lesser sensitivity to lightning strike.
3) direct and indirect weight saving through simplification of systems.
4) immunity to different interfering signals.
5) improvement of piloting quality throughout the flight envelope.
A 1, 5
B 3, 5.
C 1, 2
D 2, 3
Given a conventional transport aeroplane with irreversible flight controls on the ground with engines
running. Which of these statements about rudder trim actuation is correct?
A The rudder moves, the rudder pedals move in the corresponding direction.
B The rudder trim tab moves and the rudder pedals do not move.
C The "zero force point" of the artificial feel system changes, the rudder does not move.
D The rudder moves, the rudder pedals do not move.
1) The zero force position of the control column does not change when using the pitch trim.
2) The zero force position of the control wheel changes when using the aileron trim.
The elevators of a conventional airplane are used to provide rotation about the:
A lateral axis.
B vertical axis.
C longitudinal axis.
D directional axis.
the IAS increases.
2) A variable stop system limits both rudder and rudder pedal deflection as the IAS decreases.
The expression "secondary flight control" applies to the:
1) trimmable stabilizer.
2) rudder.
3) speed brake.
4) aileron.
A 1, 3.
B 2, 4
C 1, 2, 3, 4
D 2, 3
Deploying a Fowler flap, the flap will:
A move aft, then turn down.
B just move aft.
C just turn down.
D turn down, then move aft.
What is the name of the control surface that rotates an aeroplane about its longitudinal axis?
A The elevator.
B The rudder.
C The trim tabs.
D The ailerons.
An artificial feel system:
A is mounted in parallel with a spring tab.
B functions in series with an irreversible hydraulic actuator.
C functions in parallel with an irreversible hydraulic actuator.
D is necessary in a reversible flight control actuator unit.

Which of these statements regarding most gust lock systems is correct?
A When the gust lock is ON there is protection to prevent take-off.
B A gust lock is only fitted on the elevator and the rudder.
C On reversible flight controls, there is no need for a gust lock.
D A gust lock can be used in flight to reduce the effect of turbulence.
1) A rudder ratio changer system limits both rudder and rudder pedal deflection as the IAS increases.
2) A variable stop system reduces the rudder deflection for a given rudder pedal deflection as the IAS
increases.
Rudder trim adjustment in an aeroplane with irreversible flight controls is:
A an adjustment of the zero force rudder position.
B unnecessary because this aeroplane does not need rudder trim.
C an adjustment of the rudder trim tab.
D an adjustment of the rudder ratio changer.
A flight control surface actuator is said to be "irreversible" when:
A the flight control system has an alternate means of control in case of a control jam.
B there is no feedback to the pilot's controls of the aerodynamic forces acting on the control
surface.
C there is a need to lock the flight controls on the ground.
D the pilot does not feel any force when moving that control surface in flight.
1) The zero force position of the control column changes when using the pitch trim.
2) The zero force position of the control wheel does not change when using the aileron trim.
The automatic ground spoiler extension system is normally activated during landing by:
A idle thrust selection.
B main wheel spin up.
C brake pressure application.
D ground spoiler handle.
Select a valid option to ensure redundancy of control surfaces.
A Differential use of speed brakes instead of ailerons at high airspeeds.
B Interconnection of steering to use the combined force of both pilots.
C Interconnection of steering to allow inputs only if both pilots agree.
D Use of double or multiple clutches, connections, etc. with sufficient strength to allow failure of
one unit.
1) Irreversible flight controls should have a gust lock.
2) Manual flight controls should have a gust lock.
Where are flight spoilers fitted?
A Asymmetrically on the wing upper surface.
B Symmetrically on the wing upper surface.
C Symmetrically on the wing lower surface.
D Asymmetrically on the wing lower surface.
If the control stick of an aircraft is moved forward and to the right, the left aileron will move:
A up, and the elevator will move down.
B up, and the elevator will move up.
C down, and the elevator will move up.
D down, and the elevator will move down.
The range of movement of a control surface is limited by:
A control cable tension.
B primary stops at the surface.
C primary stops at the control column.
D secondary stops at the control column.
Trimming of aileron and rudder in an irreversible flight control system:
A is not possible.
B is achieved by adjusting the neutral point of the flight control actuator.
C is not necessary.
D is achieved by adjusting the "zero force point" of the feel system.
Given an aeroplane with irreversible primary flight controls, how is control maintained if one hydraulic
system is lost due to a hydraulic leak?
A The remaining systems will take over control.
B By switching to manual back-up mode.
C Sufficient reserve hydraulic fluid is available to compensate the effects of the leak.
D By switching the flight control system to the reversible mode.

the IAS decreases.
2) A variable stop system limits both rudder and rudder pedal deflection as the IAS increases.
An artificial feel unit is necessary in the pitch channel of a flight control system when:
A there is a trimmable stabilizer.
B the elevators are actuated by reversible servo-control units.
C the elevators are actuated by irreversible servo-control units.
D the elevators are fitted with servo-tabs or trim tabs.
A cable operated flight control system can be equipped with external gust locks.
A When fitted to the control surface, they will prevent movement of the control column if the
controls are not fitted with servo tabs.
B They will not be necessary because controls are irreversible and cannot be moved by the wind.
C They will prevent movement of a servo tab.
D They will not prevent movement of the control column.
The expression "primary flight control" applies to the:
1) stabilizer.
2) rudder.
3) speed brake.
4) aileron.
A 1, 4
B 1, 2, 3, 4
C 2, 4.
D 2, 3
The disadvantages of manual flight control systems include the following statements:
A Manual flying control systems are complex.
B Aerodynamic forces mean that the control loads increase with airspeed.
C Manual flying control systems rarely have redundancy built into them.
D Jammed controls may cause an accident.
A primary stop is mounted on an elevator control system in order to:
A restrict the range of movement of the control column.
B restrict the range of movement of the elevator.
C prevent overloading of control cables.
D maintain constant control cable tension.
An aeroplane equipped with reversible flight controls:
A does not require an artificial feel system.
B does not have mechanical back-up.
C is equipped with simple spring type feel units.
D need not be equipped with a separate gust lock system.
In large transport category aircraft, “artificial feel units” are
A Installed in line with the flight control system and are referred to as “A” feel.
B Installed in parallel with the flight control system and are referred to as “Q” feel.
C Installed in line with the flight control system and are referred to as “Q” feel.
D Installed in parallel with the flight control system and are referred to as “A” feel.
An aeroplane equipped with irreversible flight controls:
A must have a back-up control system.
B need not be equipped with a separate gust lock system.
C may be equipped with simple spring type feel units on all flight controls.
D does not require an artificial feel system.

On a large transport aeroplane, the auto-slat system:
A ensures that the (part of) slats are always extended when the ground/flight system is in the
"ground" position.
B assist the ailerons.
C provides for automatic slat retraction after take-off.
D extends (part of) the slats automatically when a certain value of angle of attack is exceeded.
An aeroplane equipped with fully powered flight controls (irreversible type):
A remains normally controllable in case of total loss of power to the flight control system.
B requires the use of an artificial feel system.
C does not require the use of an artificial feel system.
D must be equipped with control locks.
1) There should be suitable design precautions to prevent flight with the gust lock engaged.
2) There is no need for a gust lock on reversible flight controls.
1) The zero force position of the control column changes when using the pitch trim.
2) The zero force position of the control wheel changes when using the aileron trim.
1) There is no need for a gust lock on irreversible flight controls.
2) Manual flight controls should have a gust lock.
If the control stick of an aircraft with properly rigged flight controls is moved rearward and to the left,
the right aileron will move:
A down and the elevator will move up.
B up and the elevator will move down.
C down and the elevator will move down.
D up and the elevator will move up.
An aeroplane equipped with irreversible flight controls:
A does not require an artificial feel system.
B must be equipped with control locks.
C may be equipped with simple spring type feel units on all flight controls.
D requires an artificial feel system.
Most large conventional aeroplanes are not provided with aileron and rudder trim tabs. Is it still possible
to trim these control surfaces?
A Yes, but trimming is only possible when the autopilot is engaged.
B No, because without trim tabs trimming is not possible.
C Yes, but trimming is only possible when before the flight, the respective auxiliary surfaces are
correctly adjusted for cruising conditions by the maintenance department.
D Yes, trimming is possible by adjusting the neutral point of the artificial feel mechanism by
means of a trim switch.
Modern fly-by-wire systems feature different modes of operation. Which one is the most basic?
A Alternate mode
B Secondary mode
C Direct mode
D Direct computer mode
The flap load relief system....
A Extends the slats automatically when the angle of attack becomes too high.
B Extends the flaps automatically when the angle of attack becomes too high.
C Retracts the flaps when the airspeed is becoming too high and exceeds a certain limit.
D Blocks the flaps in the current position when a flap asymmetry is detected.
Why is the artificial feel required on some flight control systems and how is the degree of the feel set?
A It is fitted to prevent over-stressing of the aircraft and provides increased forces as the speed
increases.
B It is fitted to prevent over-stressing of the aircraft and provides decreased forces as the speed
increases.
C It is fitted to assist the pilot to move the controls and provides increased assistance as the speed
increases.
D It is fitted to assist the pilot to move the controls and provides decreased assistance as the
speed increases.
What is the name of the control surface that rotates an aeroplane about its vertical axis?
A The elevator.
B The ailerons.
C The rudder.
D The trim tabs.
On large transport category aircraft, trailing edge flaps are normally powered…
A Electrically with hydraulic backup.
B Pneumatically with hydraulic backup.
C Hydraulically with electrical backup.
D Manually with electrical backup.

Which statement is correct with regard to the fly-by-wire system?
A The PCU converts digital signals into analogue signals.
B Control wires feed pilot control movements into the PCUs.
C PCUs are operated by analogue signals.
D Flight controls are connected to control surfaces by direct wire linkages.
On an airplane, the Krueger flaps are:
A trailing edge flaps close to the wing tip.
B leading edge flaps close to the wing root.
C trailing edge flaps close to the wing root.
D leading edge flaps close to the wing tip.
In a "bootstrap" cooling system, the bleed air is compressed in the cold air unit to:
A ensure an adequate air flow across the secondary heat exchanger.
B maintain a constant cabin mass air flow.
C ensure a sufficient temperature drop in the secondary heat exchanger.
D increase the cabin air supply pressure when the inlet pressure is too low.
In a cabin air conditioning system with an air cycle machine (bootstrap system), the mass air flow is
routed via the:
A secondary heat exchanger outlet to the compressor inlet.
B compressor outlet to the primary heat exchanger inlet.
C turbine outlet to the primary heat exchanger inlet.
D secondary heat exchanger outlet to the turbine inlet.
On modern large pressurised jet transport aeroplanes, the maximum cabin differential pressure is
approximately:
A 13 - 15 psi
B 7 - 9 psi
C 3 - 5 psi
D 22 psi
Automatic temperature control of the system as shown, would be accomplished by:
A the temperature selector in conjunction with cabin sensors and the temperature regulator,
modulating the mix valve.
B the cabin sensors only, modulating the mix valve.
C the temperature selector only, modulating the mix valve.
D automatic control of the ram air.

In a pressurized aircraft whose cabin altitude is 8 000 ft, a crack in a cabin window makes it necessary to
reduce the differential pressure to 5 psi. The flight level to be maintained in order to keep the same
cabin altitude is:
A FL180
B FL230
C FL340
D FL280
In a turbo compressor air conditioning system (bootstrap system), the purpose of the heat exchangers is
to:
A cool bleed air before entering the complete pneumatic system.
B cool the bleed air in front and behind the compressor of the air cycle machine.
C allow a homogeneous temperature by mixing air flows from various air conditioning groups in
operation.
D allow a steady compressor outlet temperature.
Assuming cabin pressure decreases, the cabin rate of climb indicator should indicate:
A a rate of descent of approximately 300 feet per minute.
B a rate of descent dependent upon the cabin differential pressure.
C zero.
D a rate of climb.
On most large transport aeroplanes, the cabin pressure is controlled by regulating the:
A airflow entering the cabin.
B airflow leaving the cabin.
C bleed air valve.
D RPM of the engine.
An air cycle machine (air conditioning pack) :
A does not affect the bleed air.
B increases outlet pressure whilst causing the temperature to drop in the heat exchanger.
C causes a pressure and temperature drop in the bleed air.
D decreases bleed air pressure whilst causing the temperature to rise in the heat exchanger.
The term "pressure cabin" applies when an aeroplane:
A only pressurises the flight deck area.
B has the means to maintain cabin pressure higher than ambient pressure.
C has the ability to maintain a sea level cabin altitude at all altitudes.
D has the ability to maintain a zero cabin differential pressure at all altitudes.
Cabin pressurization is regulated by the:
A engine RPM.
B engine bleed valves.
C cabin inlet valves.
D cabin outflow valves.
The pack cooling fan provides:
A cooling air to the pre-cooler.
B air to the eyeball outlets at the Passenger Service Unit (PSU).
C cooling air to the primary and secondary heat exchanger during cruise.
D cooling air to the primary and secondary heat exchanger during slow flight and ground
operation.
A cabin pressurisation system is often installed on board turbine powered aircraft. If installed, it
normally has:
A three modes of operation.
B one mode of operation.
C four modes of operation.
D two modes of operation.
The purpose of the cabin pressure controller operating in automatic mode is to:
1) control the cabin altitude.
2) control the cabin altitude rate of change.
3) limit the differential pressure.
4) balance the aircraft altitude with cabin altitude.
5) ventilate the cabin.
6) keep a constant differential pressure throughout all the phases of flight.
A 1, 2, 3.
B 5, 6, 1
C 2, 6, 4
D 4, 5, 3
Assuming cabin differential pressure has reached the required value in normal flight conditions, if flight
altitude and air conditioning system setting are maintained:
A the mass air flow through the cabin is constant.
B the outflow valves will move to the fully open position.
C the pressurization system ceases to function until leakage reduces the pressure.
D the outflow valves will move to the fully closed position.
Main cabin temperature is:
A only controllable at maximum cabin differential pressure.
B controlled by individual passenger.
C not controllable at the maximum cabin differential pressure.
D controlled automatically, or by flight crew selection.

In a pressurized aircraft whose cabin altitude is 6 000 ft, a crack in a cabin window makes it necessary to
reduce the differential pressure to 7 psi. The flight level to be maintained in order to keep the same
cabin altitude is:
A 23 000 ft
B 28 000 ft
C 32 000 ft
D 19 000 ft
Pressurization systems are required on some aircraft because:
A at altitudes above approximately 10 000 ft the ambient air density is insufficient to force the
oxygen required into our lungs to allow us to breathe normally.
B at altitudes above approximately 10 000 ft there is insufficient ambient air pressure to force
the oxygen required into our lungs to allow us to breathe normally.
C there is insufficient oxygen present at altitudes above approximately 10 000 ft to allow us to

breathe normally.
D the percentage of oxygen in the air at altitudes above approximately 10 000 ft is too low to allow
us to breathe normally.
Cabin differential pressure means the pressure difference between:
A flight deck and passenger cabin.
B cabin pressure and ambient air pressure.
C cabin pressure and ambient air pressure at MSL.
D actual cabin pressure and selected pressure.
Engine bleed air used for air conditioning and pressurization in turbo-jet aeroplanes is usually taken
from the:
A turbine section.
B fan section.
C compressor section.
D by-pass ducting.
If the cabin altitude rises (aircraft in level flight), the differential pressure:
A increases.
B remains constant.
C decreases.
D may exceed the maximum permitted differential unless immediate preventative action is taken.
The cabin pressure is controlled by:
A the outflow valves.
B the inflow valves.
C maintaining a constant outflow.
D the cabin air re-circulation system.
In the pneumatic supply system of a modern transport aircraft, the air pressure is regulated. This
pressure regulation occurs just before the manifold by the:
A high pressure bleed air valve.
B intermediate pressure check-valve.
C low pressure bleed air valve.
D fan bleed air valve.
In an air cycle machine (bootstrap system), bleed air downstream of the first heat exchanger is:
A compressed, then passed across an expansion turbine and finally passed across the second heat
exchanger.
B passed across an expansion turbine, then directly passed to the second heat exchanger.
C passed across an expansion turbine, then compressed and passed through a secondary heat
exchanger.
D compressed, passed through a secondary heat exchanger, and then passed across an
expansion turbine.
A turbo compressor air conditioning system (bootstrap system) includes two heat exchangers - the
primary exchanger (P) and the secondary exchanger (S). The functions of these heat exchangers are as
follows:
A P: warms up engine bleed air; S: increases the temperature of air originating from the
compressor of the pack.
B P: pre-cools the engine bleed air; S: increases the temperature of the air used for air-
conditioning of cargo compartment (animals).
C P: precools the engine bleed air; S: cools air behind the pack's compressor.
D P: warms up engine bleed air; S: recirculates the cabin air, reducing its temperature.
During a normal pressurized climb after take-off:
A the pressurization system is inoperative until an altitude of 10 000 ft is reached.
B cabin pressure decreases more slowly than atmospheric pressure.
C absolute cabin pressure increases to compensate for the fall in pressure outside the aeroplane.
D the cabin differential pressure is maintained constant.
In an air cycle machine (bootstrap system) the:
A temperature drop across the turbine is the main contributor to the cooling effect of the air cycle
machine.
B turbine drives the compressor, which increases the temperature of the air, thus making the
second heat exchanger more efficient.
C turbine drives the compressor, which provides pressurisation.
D turbine increases the pressure of the air supply to the cabin.
Assuming that during cruise flight with air-conditioning packs ON, all the outflow valves fully close:
A the cabin pressure would become equal to the ambient outside air pressure.
B the skin of the cabin would be overstressed.
C the air supply would automatically be stopped.
D the pressure differential would go to the maximum value.
If the maximum certified altitude of an aeroplane is limited by the pressurised cabin, this limitation is
due to the maximum:
A cabin rate of climb.
B positive cabin differential pressure at maximum cabin altitude.
C cabin rate of descent.
D negative cabin differential pressure at maximum cabin altitude.
Cabin air for a large aeroplane during flight:
A has a constant oxygen ratio regulated to a preset value.
B is temperature controlled.
C has an increased oxygen ratio.
D has a reduced oxygen ratio.

Why is the combustion chamber of a heater in an aircraft pressurization system completely separated
from the ventilating system?
A To prevent any exhaust gases from contaminating the cabin air.
B To develop the required heat.
C To stop the solenoid valve.
D For proper operation of the heater.
From the options given below, select the three systems that could be provided with air from the
pneumatic system of a piston engine.
Gyroscopic instruments
Pitot/static instruments
Cabin heating
Anti-ice
Electrical generation
Hydraulic pump
A 1, 3, 4.
B 1, 2, 3
C 2, 5, 6
D 4, 5, 6
The pressurization system of a typical transport aeroplane:
A will maintain a zero cabin differential pressure at all altitudes.
B only pressurizes the passenger cabin area.
C will maintain approximately a sea level cabin altitude at all flight altitudes.
D has the capability to maintain a cabin pressure higher than ambient pressure.
The maximum cabin differential pressure of an aeroplane with a maximum certified altitude of 41 000 ft
is approximately:
A 3.5 psi
B 15.5 psi
C 13.5 psi
D 9 psi
If the automatic control of an air conditioning system fails:
A the pilot can revert to manual control and set the control valve to the required setting.
B manual control can be selected but this is limited to "hot air" or "cold air" setting only.
C the system must be shut down.
D a red failure light will illuminate.
The purpose of an air conditioning pack inlet flow valve (pack valve) is to:
A regulate cabin pressure at the maximum cabin pressure differential.
B maintain a constant and sufficient air mass flow to ventilate the cabin.
C discharge cabin air to atmosphere if cabin pressure rises above the selected altitude.
D regulate cabin pressure to the selected altitude.
A turbo compressor air conditioning system (bootstrap system) will:
A increase charge air pressure whilst causing the temperature to drop in the heat exchanger.
B decrease charge air pressure whilst causing the temperature to rise in the heat exchanger.
C not affect the charge air pressure.
D cause a pressure drop as well as an associated temperature drop in the charge air.
In flight, the cabin air for large jet transport aeroplanes is usually supplied by:
A ram air intakes.
B single radial compressors.
C piston compressors.
D engine compressors.
During level flight at a constant cabin pressure altitude (which could be decreased, even at this flight
level), the cabin outflow valves are:
A fully closed until the cabin climbs to a selected altitude.
B at the pre-set position for take-off.
C fully closed until the cabin descends to a selected altitude.
D partially open.
The purpose of a ditching control is to:
A open the outflow valve(s).
B achieve rapid depressurisation.
C close the outflow valve(s).
D direct pressurisation air to the flotation bags.
An aircraft with pressurized cabin has maximum cabin altitude of 8 000 feet, which equals 10.9 psi.
Present flight altitude is 30 000 feet, which equals 4.36 psi. Pressure at sea level equals 14.7 psi.
Calculate the pressure differential that influences the cabin structure:
A 4.36 psi
B 10.9 psi
C 6.54 psi
D 10.34 psi
At FL310, the cabin outflow valve moves to a completely open position, causing depressurisation. The
crew don their oxygen masks and start an emergency descent. The following indications can be seen on
the cabin VSI:
A The cabin altitude decreases more slowly than the aircraft altitude indication until the pressure
differential is zero, then it descends at the same speed.
B The cabin VSI shows a climb until it indicates the altitude of the valve failure, then it reads zero,
while the aircraft VSI indicates cabin and aircraft altitude.
C The cabin VSI shows a climb until cabin pressure equals ambient pressure, then a descent at half
the rate of the aircraft VSI.
D The cabin altitude increases until the pressure differential is zero, then the cabin VSI shows a
descent equal to the aircraft VSI.
If the maximum operating altitude of an airplane is limited by the pressurized cabin, this limitation is due
to the maximum:
A positive cabin differential pressure at maximum operating ceiling.
B negative cabin differential pressure at maximum operating ceiling.
C negative differential pressure at maximum cabin altitude.
D positive cabin differential pressure at maximum cabin altitude.
An aeroplane with a pressurised cabin flies at FL310 and, following a malfunction of the pressure
controller, the outflow valve runs to the open position. Given:
CAB V/S = Cabin rate of climb indication
CAB ALT = Cabin pressure altitude
DELTA P = Differential pressure
This will result in a:
A CAB V/S increase, CAB ALT increase, DELTA P increase
B CAB V/S decrease, CAB ALT decrease, DELTA P increase
C CAB V/S decrease, CAB ALT increase, DELTA P decrease
D CAB V/S increase, CAB ALT increase, DELTA P decrease
A cabin rate of descent:
A is always the same as the aeroplane's rate of descent.
B is not possible at constant aeroplane altitudes.
C results in a cabin pressure increase.
D results in a cabin pressure decrease.
If the pressure in the cabin tends to become lower than the outside ambient air pressure the:
A negative pressure relief valves will open.
B air cycle machine will stop.
C outflow valves open completely.
D negative pressure relief valves will close.

Under normal flight conditions, cabin pressure is controlled by:
A engine RPM.
B pressurisation duct relief valves.
C inward relief valves.
D regulating the discharge of air through the outflow valves.
A combustion heater system is normally supplied by:
A an inflammable mixture for this particular purpose.
B a flammable gas from a pressurised tank.
C fuel from the aircraft fuel system.
D oil from the hydraulic system.
A Bleed air may be supplied by an APU.
B Bleed air may be taken from the HP compressor of a gas turbine engine.
C Engine bleed air is considered to be high pressure.
D Use of engine bleed air reduces engine thrust.
Consider a piston engined aircraft. Which source is pneumatic air taken from?
A Supercharger air.
B Ram air.
C Inlet air manifold.
D Cylinder bleed air.
An aircraft climbs and in order to maintain the same cabin pressure during climb, what mode of
operation will the pressurisation system make use of?
A Manual.
B Max differential.
C Isobaric.
D Differential.
The excess cabin altitude alerting system must operate to warn the crew at:
A 10 000 ft
B 14 000 ft
C 8 000 ft
D 13 000 ft
The purpose of the pack cooling fans in the air conditioning system is to:
A supply the Passenger Service Unit (PSU) with fresh air.
B supply the heat exchangers with cooling air during cruise flight.
C supply the heat exchangers with cooling air during slow flights and ground operation.
D cool the APU compartment.
Temperature regulation of an air conditioning system:
A is automatically controlled by sensing cabin temperature in relation to engine compressor outlet

temperatures.
B cannot be automatically controlled.
C is automatically controlled by sensing the output temperature from the control valve in
relation to the temperature set on the pilot's control panel.
D is manually controlled by the pilot reading the cabin temperature gauge and increasing or
decreasing hot air as required.
"Conditioned" air is air that has:
A been controlled in respect of temperature and pressure.
B had any moisture removed from it.
C had the oxygen content reduced.
D had the oxygen content increased.
In a typical air conditioning system of modern large transport aeroplanes the reduction of air
temperature and pressure is achieved by:
A a condenser.
B an expansion turbine.
C a compressor.
D an evaporator.
When the air is compressed for pressurization purposes, the percentage oxygen content is:
A dependent on the degree of pressurization.
B unaffected.
C decreased.
D increased.
The term "bootstrap", when used to identify a cabin air conditioning and pressurization system, refers to
the:
A cooling air across the inter-cooler heat exchanger.
B source of the air supply.
C cold air unit (air cycle machine) arrangement.
D means by which pressurization is controlled.
Cabin heating in a large turbojet transport aeroplane is obtained from:
A hot air extracted from the engine turbines.
B a fuel heater system.
C an electrical heater system.
D hot air extracted from the engine compressors.
Most of the cabin pressurization systems have two modes of operation:
A The isobaric mode and the constant pressure differential mode.
B The cabin mode and the external mode.
C The differential mode and the pressure mode.
D The differential pressure and the constant pressure mode.
In a typical air conditioning system of a short-haul turbojet aircraft the cabin air is not controlled in
respect to the:
A temperature
B humidity
C purity
D pressure
In a manually operated system, the cabin altitude rate of change is normally controlled by:
A the difference between the barometric pressure selected on the cabin pressure controller and
ambient barometric pressure.
B the duct relief valve when operating at the maximum cabin differential pressure.
C the difference between the altitude selected on the cabin pressure controller and the aeroplane
altitude.
D a rate of change selector.
The term "cabin altitude" refers to the:
A difference in height between the cabin floor and ceiling.
B cabin pressure expressed as altitude.
C flight level at which the aeroplane is flying.
D altitude at maximum differential pressure.
Cabin air for modern transport airplanes is usually taken from:
A the high pressure stage of the LP compressor and from the low pressure stage of the LP
compressor if necessary.
B the low pressure stage of the LP compressor.
C the high pressure stage of the LP compressor.
D the low pressure stage of the HP compressor and from the high pressure stage of the HP
compressor if necessary.
The purpose of the "pressure relief valve" in a high pressure oxygen system is to:
A reduce pressure in the oxygen reservoir to a suitable manifold pressure for the regulator.
B act as a manual shut-off valve.
C maximize the charging pressure of the system.
D relieve overpressure if the pressure reducing valve malfunctions.
The turbine in a bootstrap air conditioning system (air cycle machine):
A increases the air temperature and drives the compressor.
B is driven by the compressor and reduces the temperature of the conditioned air.
C drives the compressor and creates a temperature drop in the conditioned air.
D increases the pressure of air supply to the cabin.

In a large transport aeroplane the main temperature reduction of the conditioned air is achieved in:
A the condenser.
B the evaporator.
C the expansion turbine.
D the heat exchangers.
In a turbo compressor air conditioning system (bootstrap system), the main water separation unit is
located:
A just after the heat exchangers.
B before the cooling turbine.
C after the cooling turbine.
D before the heat exchangers.
Cabin pressure is controlled by:
A the cabin air mass flow control inlet valve(s).
B delivering a substantially constant flow of air into the cabin and controlling the outflow.
C controlling the flow of air into the cabin with constant outflow.
D the cabin air re-circulation system.
Whilst in level cruising flight, an aeroplane with a pressurized cabin experiences a malfunction of the
pressure controller. If the cabin vertical speed indicator reads 200 ft/min rate of descent:
A the differential pressure will rise to its maximum value, thus causing the safety relief valves to
open.
B a descent must be initiated to prevent the oxygen masks dropping when the cabin altitude
reaches 14 000 ft.
C the aircraft has to climb to a higher flight level in order to reduce the cabin altitude to its initial
value.
D the crew has to intermittently cut off the incoming air flow in order to maintain a zero cabin
altitude.
In a typical "bootstrap" cooling system the supply air is:
A passed across an expansion turbine, then compressed and passed through a heat exchanger.
B compressed, passed through a secondary heat exchanger, and then across an expansion
turbine.
C passed across an expansion turbine, then through a secondary heat exchanger and then across a
compressor.
D passed across an expansion turbine, then directly to the heat exchanger.
If during a straight and level cruising flight at FL310 a malfunction of the pressure controller drives the
outflow/discharge valve to the fully closed position:
A the inward relief valves will operate at 0.5 psi differential pressure.
B the differential pressure will decrease.
C the cabin rate indicator will show a descent.
D the cabin altitude will increase.
The primary function of an air cycle machine is to:
A decrease the pressure of the bleed air.
B cool the bleed air.
C remove water from the bleed air.
D pump the conditioned air into the cabin.
Cabin air for modern transport airplanes is usually taken from:
A the LP compressor.
B HP compressor and from the LP compressor if necessary.
C the second fan stage.
D the HP compressor.
Under normal conditions (EASA CS-25) the cabin pressure altitude of a transport aeroplane is not
allowed to exceed:
A 8 000 ft
B 10 000 ft
C 4 000 ft
D 6 000 ft
A warning device alerts the crew in case of an excessive cabin altitude. This warning must be triggered
on reaching the following altitude:
A 14 000 ft (approx. 4 200 m)
B 12 000 ft (approx. 3 600 m)
C 8 000 ft (approx. 2 400 m)
D 10 000 ft (approx. 3 000 m)
The cabin pressure is regulated by the:
A outflow valve.
B air conditioning pack.
C cabin airflow inlet valve.
D air cycle machine.
Bleed air extracted from turbine engine can be used for:
A cabin pressurization.
B supplying the engine with high pressure airflow.
C provision of secondary airflow.
D generation of electricity.
The cabin differential pressure is:
A approximately 5 psi at maximum.
B the pressure differential between the air entering and leaving the cabin.
C cabin pressure minus ambient pressure.
D approximately 15 psi at maximum.
A cabin pressure controller maintains a pre-set cabin altitude by regulating the:
A position of the duct relief valves.
B position of the outflow valves.
C position of the inward relief valves.
D mass air flow into the cabin.

The ice protection for propellers of most turboprop aeroplanes works:
A with anti-icing fluid.
B electrically.
C pneumatically.
D with hot air.
Which of the following is true with respect to heating of pitot and static sensors on IFR certified aircraft?
A Pitot and static sensing is never heated on aircraft.
B Combined pitot/static tubes are always heated but static ports are never heated.
C Pitot tubes are always provided with a heater while static points may also be heated.
D Both pitot and static sensing is always heated.
A pneumatic de-icing system should be operated:
A only at take-off and during approach.
B when there are approximately 5 cm of ice on the leading edges.
C when there is approximately 1.5 cm of ice on the leading edges.
D when entering areas with icing conditions.
How does the advisory ice detection system operate?
A The flight crew activates ice protection systems based on the standard flight manual criteria of
a total temperature reading and the sighting of moisture. The ice detector signals serve as a back-up
indicator.
B The ice detector automatically activates ice protection systems at the optimal moment.
C The flight crew activates ice protection systems based on ice detector signals.
D All ice detection systems are only used to alert the cockpit crew and ice protection systems are
always activated by the flight crew manually.
How is ice removed when using de-ice boots on a turbo-prop airplane?
A Heat
B Deformation
C Blowing the ice away
D Vibration
How does the primary manual ice detection system operate?
A The flight crew activates ice protection systems based on ice detector signals.
C All ice detection systems are only used to alert the cockpit crew and ice protection systems are
D The flight crew activates ice protection systems based on the standard flight manual criteria of a
total temperature reading and the sighting of moisture. The ice detector signals serve as a back-up
indicator.
The de-icing of a propeller by fluid is achieved through:
A de-icing paste.
B spray mats.
C ground application of fluid only.
D slinger rings.
Which of the statements describes a Hot Rod Ice Detector System?
A The system consists of a vibrating detector which can be heated.
B The system consists of a temperature probe and moisture detector controller which in turn
incorporates two heated sensors.
C The system consists of a heated probe and a built-in floodlight.
D The system consists of a small heated pipe with several holes.
Airborne fluid de-ice systems, where installed, are mainly used on...
A pitot probes.
B engine pylons.
C wing leading edges.
D engine intakes.
In jet aeroplanes the thermal anti-icing system is primarily supplied by:
A ram air, heated via a heat exchanger.
B the APU.
C bleed air from the engines.
D turbo compressors.
With regard to pneumatic mechanical devices that afford ice protection the only correct statement is:
A they are used extensively on modern aircraft as they are inexpensive and easy to maintain.
B they can only be used as anti-icing devices.
C they can be used as both de-icing and anti-icing devices.
D they can only be used as de-icing devices.
A hot rod ice detector:
A accumulates ice and is visible from the cockpit.
B activates the aircraft de icing system.
C accumulates ice and is visible on an instrument in the cockpit.
D activates an ice warning light in the cockpit.
On which principle does the Rosemount Ice Detector operate on?
A Vibration.
B Translucence.
C Voltage difference.
D Pressure difference.
On most transport aircraft, flight deck windows are protected against icing by:
A vinyl coating.
B anti-icing fluid.
C rain repellent system.
D electric heating.
Concerning electrically powered ice protection devices, the only true statement is:
A on modern aeroplanes, electrical power supply being available in excess, this system is often
used for large surfaces de-icing.
B on modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices are typically used to prevent
icing on small surfaces (pitot-static, windshield, etc.).
C on modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices are typically used as de-icing
devices for pitot-tubes, static-ports, windshield etc.
D on modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices are very efficient, therefore they
only need little energy.
The heating facility for the windshield of an aircraft is:
A harmful to the integrity of the windows in the event of a bird strike.
B only used when hot air demisting is insufficient.
C used on a continual basis as it reduces the thermal gradients which adversely affect the useful
life of the components.
D used only at low altitudes where there is a risk of ice formation.
Electrically powered ice protection devices on aircraft are:
A used primarily because they are very efficient.
B used as anti-icing devices for pitot-tubes, static ports and windshield.
C used for large surfaces only.
D used as de-icing devices for pitot-tubes, static ports and windshield.
The anti-icing method for the wings of large jet transport aeroplanes most commonly used in flight is:
A chemical (glycol-based liquid).
B mechanical (pneumatic boots).
C electrical (electrical resistance).
D thermal (use of hot air).
The wing ice protection system currently used on most large jet transport aeroplanes is:
A an electrical de-icing system.
B a pneumatic system with expandable boots.
C a hot air system.
D a liquid de-icing system.
What is true about an ice detector which incorporates a rotor?
A Measurement is based on pressure differences.
B Measurement is based on torque.
C Measurement is based on vibrations.
D Measurement is based on measurement of temperature and humidity.

The wing ice protection system currently used for most large turboprop transport aeroplanes is:
A a pneumatic system with inflatable boots.
B a hot air system.
C an electrical de-icing system.
D a liquid de-icing system.
With transport category aeroplanes, de-icing of the vertical tail is...
A installed in some types.
B mandatory.
C accomplished using hydraulic fluid.
D not possible with rubber boots.
The differential pressure ice detector (Smiths Ice detector) is activated by:
A an increase in static pressure.
B an increase in dynamic pressure.
C a decrease in dynamic pressure.
D a decrease in static pressure.
Pneumatic mechanical ice protection systems are mainly used for:
A windscreens.
B wings.
C propellers.
D pitot tubes.
The use of a hot air wing anti-icing system:
A does not affect aerodynamic performance of the wing and causes no reduction in maximum
thrust.
B reduces aerodynamic performance of the wing and causes a reduction in maximum thrust.
C reduces aerodynamic performance of the wing and causes no reduction in maximum thrust.
D does not affect aerodynamic performance of the wing and causes a reduction in maximum
thrust.
The elements typically protected against icing on large transport aircraft are:
1) engine air intake and pod.
2) front glass shield.
3) radome.
4) pitot tubes and waste water exhaust masts.
5) leading edges of the wings.
6) cabin windows.
7) trailing edges of the wings.
8) electronic equipment compartment.
A 1, 2, 5, 6
B 1, 4, 5, 7
C 1, 2, 4, 5.
D 1, 2, 3, 8
The engine air intakes of large transport aircraft are usually protected against ice by:
A inflatable boots.
B pressurised fluid.
C hot engine oil.
D hot bleed air.
Windscreen heating systems usually:
A consist of warm air from the cabin conditioning system blown across the inner surface of the
windscreen.
B are powered from the emergency DC bus.
C cycle ON / OFF to maintain a windscreen temperature between approximately 18° and 35 °C.
D depend upon the pilot monitoring the windscreen temperature probe for control of the heating
system.
The wing anti-ice system has to protect:
A the leading edge or the slats, either partially or completely.
B the whole leading edge and the whole under wing surface.
C the whole upper wing surface and the flaps.
D the whole leading edge except the slats because they cannot be de-iced when extended.
The sequential pneumatic impulses used in certain leading edge de-icing devices:
1) prevent ice formation.
2) can be triggered from the flight deck after icing has become visible.
3) will inflate each pneumatic boot for a few seconds.
4) will repeat more than ten times per second.
The combination which regroups all the correct statements is:
A 2, 3.
B 1, 4
C 2, 4
D 1, 3
The heat for the anti-icing system of a turbofan engine intake is provided by:
A bleed air from the LP compressor.
B bleed air from the HP compressor.
C a dedicated generator on the gearbox of that engine.
D the electrical system of the aircraft.
Power for windscreen heating is usually:
A 28 volts DC.
B single phase AC.
C 3 phase AC.
D 115 volts DC.

During flight, the wing anti-ice system has to protect:
A the whole leading edge and the whole upper wing surface.
B slats and the leading edge flaps only.
C the whole upper wing surface and the flaps.
D a part of the whole leading edge.
In the case of a thermal anti-icing system, an over-temperature is typically indicated by:
A a buzzer.
B warning lights.
C yellow flags.
D temperature gauges.
How does the primary automatic ice detection system operate?
A The flight crew activates ice protection systems based on the standard flight manual criteria of a
total temperature reading and the sighting of moisture. The ice detector signals serve as a back-up
indicator.
C All ice detection systems are only used to alert the cockpit crew and ice protection systems are
D The flight crew activates ice protection systems based on ice detector signals.
Generally, for large aeroplanes, electrical heating for ice protection is used on:
A slat leading edges.
B pitot tubes.
C elevator leading edges.
D fin leading edges.
Which of the following components of a common turboprop aircraft (e.g. Dash 8) are protected by an
anti-icing system?
A Wings, pitot tubes, static ports and waste water exhaust.
B Wings, pitot tubes and static ports.
C APU inlet, pitot tubes, static ports and wings.
D Engine inlets, pitot tubes and static ports.

Pneumatic mechanical devices that provide ice protection:
A are usually used as de-icing devices.
B can only be used as anti-icing devices.
C require large quantities of bleed air.
D are usually used on aeroplanes equipped with turbo-fan engines.
What happens if icing occurs on a vibrating rod ice detector?
A A light in the cockpit will alert the flight crew about icing.
B This type of detector automatically activates the anti-icing system.
C The rod accumulates ice which is shown on a small monitor integrated in the cockpit panel.
D The rod accumulates ice which can be seen (illuminated at night) by looking out of the cockpit
window.
Which of the following statements is true regarding a differential pressure ice accretion detector?
A It always includes a temperature sensor and a moisture detector.
B Small holes are heated first.
C Large holes are heated first.
D The torque of a rotating, serrated shaft is measured.
In an aircraft with a fuel dumping system - how much fuel can be dumped?
A all fuel down to the maximum landing weight.
B all fuel to leave 15 gallons in each tank.
C all fuel down to the unusable fuel remaining.
D all fuel down to a predetermined safe value.
What does the expression usable fuel mean?
A The remaining fuel in the bottom of the tank when the pump is no longer immersed in fuel.
B The total amount of fuel that can be supplied to the engine.
C The total fuel on board the aircraft at start up.
D The total fuel remaining at any stage of flight.

A typical value of the fuel density of Jet A-1 fuel at 15°C is:
A 0.72 kg/l
B 0.8 kg/l
C 0.6 kg/l
D 0.9 kg/l
The high pressure fuel pumps are driven by:
A the electrical system.
B the engine.
C air pressure.
D hydraulic pressure.
An electromagnetically activated and operated fuel valve is called a/an:
A check valve.
B solenoid valve.
C electronic valve.
D PCU valve.
The fuel tanks in small aircraft are mainly located:
A in the tail section of the aircraft.
B in the fuselage.
C in the wings.
D close to the engine.
When checking the fuel for possible water content, the presence of water will be indicated by:
A the water will be found at the bottom of the strainer, because it is heavier than the fuel.
B change in the color of the fuel.
C impossible to tell because they will mix.
D the water will be on top of the fuel in the fuel strainer because the water is lighter than the fuel.
AVGAS 100 is associated with what colour?
A black and white
B green
C red
D blue
Kerosene (Jet A, Jet A-1, Jet B, JP 5) is associated with what colour?
A black and white
B no colour (transparent)
C green
D blue
The fuel cross-feed system is used to:
A quickly jettison the fuel in case of emergency.
B feed any engine from any fuel tank.
C eliminate unusable fuel from the tanks.
D automatically fill every tank up to the pre-selected level.
Which statement is correct?
1) The freezing point for Jet A is at a lower temperature than that for Jet B.
2) The flash point for Jet A is at about the same temperature as that for Jet B.
On a jet aircraft, fuel heaters are:
A not necessary at all.
B located on the engines.
C installed in each tank.
D installed only in the centre tank.

If the DC pump on the left tank is inoperative, how can you feed the left engine with fuel?
A By the centre AC pumps only.
B By any AC pump.
C By the right AC pumps only.
D By the left AC pumps only.
On most transport aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system are:
A centrifugal pumps.
B diaphragm pumps.
C piston pumps.
D gear type pumps.

Have a look at the current situation depicted by the attached figure. Which of the following statements
are correct or incorrect?
1) The DC fuel pump can feed any engine if the other pumps are not working.
2) The DC fuel pump can only feed the APU.
A 1) correct; 2) correct
B 1) correct; 2) incorrect
C 1) incorrect; 2) incorrect
D 1) incorrect; 2) correct
During refuelling (pressure refuelling) of a modern passenger transport aeroplane fuel system, which
component would prevent the required tank vent space being filled with fuel?
A the diffuser.
B the jettison valve.
C the cross-feed valve.
D the automatic fuelling shutoff valve.

The fuel cross-feed system:
A is only used in flight for fuel transfer from one tank to another.
B is only used on the ground for fuel transfer from one tank to another.
C allows feeding of any engine from any fuel tank.
D is only used to feed an engine from the tank of the opposite wing.
How much vent space is required in fuel tanks by EASA CS-23 and CS-25?
A Around 5% which is required for the thermal expansion and in flight movement of the fuel.
B 2% of the total tank space in each individual tank.
C Around 10% which is required for the thermal expansion and in flight movement of the fuel.
D 5% of the total tank space in each individual tank.
A volumetric top off valve on small aircraft typically works on the principle of:
A pressure sensors.
B capacitive sensing systems.
C float switches.
D flow rate sensors.
What is the function of a fuel drain valve on a piston engine?
A To allow for rapid fuel dumping for an emergency landing when landing mass is exceeded.
B To detect particles and contamination that could damage the engine.
C To remove excess fuel from the cylinders after a failed attempt to start the engine.
D To take a fuel sample and empty the tanks for maintenance reasons.
AVGAS 100LL is associated with what colour?
A black and white
B yellow and black
C blue
D red
On some large aeroplanes the fuel tanks may be vented through:
A a pressure regulator in the wing tip.
B bleed air from the engines.
C air intakes on the underside of the wing.
D the return lines of the fuel pumps.
In flight, with the centre tank empty and APU operating, a fuel imbalance is detected (quantity in left
main tank is less than in right main tank). Rebalancing of the two tanks is:
A impossible because there is no fuel in centre tank.
B possible with crossfeed valves "OPEN" and left main tank pumps "OFF" and right main tank
pumps "ON".
C impossible without causing the APU stop.
D possible with crossfeed valves "OPEN" and right main tank pumps "OFF".
Which fuel tanks are heated on a typical large transport aircraft?
A All tanks.
B None.
C Only the fuselage tanks.
D Only the wing tanks.
Fuel dump systems are required:
A on aircraft with a Maximum Take-off Weight (MTOW) higher than 5.7 tons.
B on all transport category aircraft.
C on all transport category aircraft where the Maximum Take-off Weight (MTOW) is significantly
higher than the Maximum Landing Weight (MLW).
D on all transport category aircraft with more than 150 seats.
The flash point of fuel is:
A highest temperature of vapour at which it ignites in contact with a flame.
B highest temperature of fluid at which it ignites in contact with a flame.
C lowest temperature of vapour at which it ignites in contact with a flame.
D lowest temperature of fluid at which it ignites in contact with a flame.
On most transport jet aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system are supplied with electric
power of the following type:
A 28 V DC
B 115 V AC
C 115 V DC
D 28 V AC
Aviation gasoline (AVGAS) fuel is normally used for:
A reciprocating piston engines.
B compression engines.
C turbine engines.
D turbojet engines.
The correct order of decreasing freezing points of the three mentioned fuels is:
A Jet B, Jet A-1, Jet A.
B Jet A-1 Jet A, Jet B.
C Jet A, Jet A-1, Jet B.
D Jet B, Jet A, Jet A-1.
Have a look at the current situation of the attached fuel-system schematic. Which statement about the
DC FUEL PUMP is correct?
A This pump is used to feed the APU.
B This pump is used to feed the left engine.
C This pump is used to feed both engines.
D This pump is used for crossfeed purposes only.

The purpose of baffles fitted in wing fuel tanks is to:
A close the vent lines in case of turbulence.
B prevent positive pressure build up inside the tank.
C restrict undesirable fuel movement during sideslip.
D limit high fuel flow during refuelling operations.
Which of the fuel pumps shown in the annex can generally provide fuel to the APU?
A The DC and AC pumps.
B The DC and left AC pumps only.
C The AC pumps only.
D The DC pump only.

One of the reasons for the fuel system booster pumps to be submerged in fuel is to:
A to improve the accuracy of the fuel quantity measurement.
B cool the pumps.
C shorten the fuel lines, so minimising the pressure losses.
D improve their efficiency.
On what principle does a fuel flow meter work?
A Pressure and temperature.
B Volume and viscosity.
C Capacitive dielectric.
D Quantity of movement.
Fuel system ice traps:
A may be fitted in the fuel delivery line between the fuel tank and the engine.
B are devices fitted to the engine and heated using engine oil or hot air tapped from the
compressor.
C are not required on helicopters due to the inability of the aircraft to fly at high altitude.
D are replaced by water traps at the bottom of the fuel tanks on helicopters.
What is the risk of using MOGAS in piston engine aircraft?
A Excessive MAP
B Carburettor icing
C Sparking
D Fumes entering the cockpit
What is the compensation for in a compensated capacitance fuel gauging system?
A For the change in volume associated with the change in local temperature.
B To compensate for the change in fuel reading resulting from aircraft manoeuvres.
C To compensate for changing fuel density associated with the change in local temperature.
D To prevent the fuel from reaching its flashpoint in high temperature conditions.
Magnetic drip stick fuel system measurement can be done:
A with the indication from the indicator and consideration of the fuel gravity specification.
B directly by reading from the indicator.
C with the indication from the indicator and using the documentation.
D with the indication from the indicator and OAT consideration.
The fuel system boost pumps are used to:
A avoid the bubbles accumulation and feed the lines with fuel for directing it to the engine at a
positive pressure.
B feed the lines with fuel for directing it to the engine at a positive pressure.
C avoid the bubbles accumulation.
D feed the fuel control units, which inject the pressurized fuel into the engine.
1) The freezing point for Jet A is at about the same temperature as that for Jet B.
2) The flash point for Jet A is at a higher temperature than that for Jet B.
2) The flash point for Jet A is at a lower temperature than that for Jet B.
Fire precautions to be observed before refuelling are:
A Ground Power Units (GPU) are not to be operated.
B aircraft must be more than 10 metres from radar or HF radio equipment under test.
C all bonding and connections to the earth terminal between ground equipment and the aircraft
should be made before filler caps are removed.
D passengers may be boarded (traversing the refuelling zone) providing suitable fire extinguishers
are readily available.
In a compensated capacitance type quantity indicating system, the contents gauge of a half-full fuel tank
indicates a fuel mass of 14 000 kg. If the volume of fuel decreases by 5% due to colder temperature, the
indicated fuel weight would:
A Increases by 5% for every degree rise in temperature.
B Increases by 5%.
C Remain the same.
D Decreases by 5%.
On most transport aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system are:
A electro-mechanical swash plate pumps, with self-regulated pressure.
B electrically driven centrifugal pumps.
C removable only after the associated tank has been emptied.
D mechanically driven by the engine's accessory gearbox.
The refuelling of a large transport jet aircraft is typically performed:
A through the refuelling cap of every tank.
B by means of the aircraft suction pumps through a unique point (an underwing refuelling centre).
C through a unique point (an underwing refuelling centre).
D by means of the aircraft suction pumps.
Fuel system indications available to the pilot are normally restricted to:
A fuel low level; fuel flow; fuel temperature; fuel filter monitor; tank transfer status.
B fuel contents; fuel low level; fuel pressure; fuel flow; fuel transfer status; fuel filter condition.
C fuel flow; tank transfer status; fuel contents; fuel temperature; fuel cooler status.
D fuel contents and low level only.

Using MOGAS, instead of AVGAS...
A there will be a lower risk of carburettor icing.
B is not permitted for aircraft.
C there will be a high manifold pressure.
D there will be a higher risk of engine fire.
Special fuel consumption schedules during flight are designed:
A to ensure fastest rate of fuel dumping in case of emergency where time is critical.
B to minimise the wing G-loads and preserve main tank fuel for landing.
C to keep wing fuel as low as possible in event of a crash-landing.
D to keep fuel from freezing during high level cruise for a longer period of time.
Given the following parameters, in a capacitance fuel gauge, the correct formula is:
C = capacitance
a = area of plates
d = distance between plates
e = dielectric permittivity
A C = e × (d ÷ a)
B C = e × (d × a)
C C = a × (d ÷ e)
D C = e × (a ÷ d)
Unusable fuel is:
A fuel drained from the aircraft due to water contamination.
B sometimes minimised by the incorporation of tank sump pads.
C the amount of fuel not available for use but included on the fuel contents gauge.
D always the same quantity irrespective of aircraft attitude or flight conditions.

State the main functions of the fuel system.
A Ensuring that the central tank is emptied first
B Provision of fuel to the engines, appropriate pressure to enable engine operation
C Even distribution of fuel among the tanks
D Fuel storage and filtering
In order to ensure that all fuel on board is available to any engine on a large multi-engined aircraft, the
fuel system must be fitted with:
A booster pumps.
B a cross-feed valve.
C a jet pump.
D a tank shut-off valve.
The types of fuel tanks used on most modern transport aircraft are:
A Combined fuel tanks.
B Integral tanks.
C Wet cell tanks.
D Fixed built-in tanks.
Which type of fuel tank is used in wet wing aircraft wing tanks?
A Integral fuel tank
B Tip tanks
C Bladder tanks
D Drum-type tanks
Fuel pressure is measured:
A in the line between the high pressure filter and the high pressure pump.
B in the line between the booster pump and the engine or at the outlet of the high pressure
filter.
C at the outlet from the fuel control unit.
D always at the outlet of the high pressure pump only.

The most appropriate statement concerning multi-engine jet aeroplane fuel systems, is:
A A mechanically operated and activated fuel valve is called a solenoid valve.
B The fuel system may have provisions for heating the fuel before it enters the fuel filter.
C There are no provisions for cross-feed, because each engine has its own tank(s).
D Fuel pumps have no provisions for by-pass of fuel.
Fuel stored in aircraft tanks will accumulate moisture. The most practical way to minimize this when a
plane is used every day or so is to:
A keep tank vents plugged and filler cap tight.
B use only high octane gasoline.
C drain tanks at end of each day's flight.
D keep tanks topped off (full) when plane is not in use.
During fuelling the automatic fuelling shut off valves will switch off the fuel supply system when:
A fuelling system has reached a certain pressure.
B the fuel has reached a predetermined volume or mass.
C there is fire.
D the surge vent tank is filled.
The functions of a LP booster pump in a gas turbine fuel system are to:
A increase the pressure during refuelling and prevent cavitation of the HP fuel pump.
B avoid vapour locking and increase the pressure during refuelling.
C pressurise the fuel dump system and increase the pressure during refuelling.
D avoid vapour locking and prevent cavitation of the HP fuel pump.
Why is the capacitance-type fuel quantity gauge system the system that is most often used on large
turbine aircraft?
A Because it is more cost efficient in the way it is constructed and installed.
B Because it measures the volume of fuel more accurately.
C Because it measures the mass of fuel rather than the volume of fuel in the tank.
D Because it is a lot simpler and its weight is less than other systems.
With regard to the fuel system, which parameters can be monitored by the pilot from the cockpit?
Select the combination of all correct statements.
1) Fuel pressure
2) Fuel temperature
3) Fuel density
4) Total fuel mass
5) Fuel flow
6) Fuel type
7) Total fuel used
A 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
B 2, 3, 4, 6, 7
C 1, 4, 5
D 1, 2, 4, 5, 7
The capacitance type fuel gauging system indicates the fuel quantity by measuring the:
A electrical resistance change.
B density variation of the fuel.
C resistivity variation of the fuel.
D dielectric change between fuel and air.
The purpose of baffles in an aeroplane's wing fuel tank is to:
A prevent mixture of the fuel and hydraulic fluid.
B prevent the fuel from flowing in the vent lines.
C restrict fuel movement in the tank.
D prevent overpressure in the tank.
Fuel tank air pressure is maintained at ambient by:
A the fuel dump system.
B the fuel top off unit.
C the fuel tank drains.
D the fuel vent system.

The fuel supply system on a jet engine includes a fuel heating device, upstream of the main fuel filter so
as to:
A maintain and improve fuel heating power.
B prevent, at low fuel temperature, the risk of ice formation from water contained in the fuel.
C ease low pressure pumps work by increasing fuel fluidity.
D prevent fuel from freezing in fuel pipes due to low temperatures at high altitude.
A large transport category jet aircraft is typically refuelled by which of the following methods?
A Suction refuelling.
B Open line refuelling.
C Pressure refuelling.
D Overwing refuelling.
AVGAS 80 is associated with what colour?
A green
B black
C red
D blue
Given the following information, which statement is the most correct?
While in cruise flight, a circuit breaker corresponding to one of the fuel boost pumps, trips. The circuit
breaker cannot be reset.
A The DC circuit breakers should be pulled to prevent the control relay from melting.
B The pump remains inoperative.
C The pump motor will fail unless the remaining circuit breakers are pulled immediately.
D The output of the pump will still be satisfactory for normal requirements.
Turbine fuel may contain additives to:
A reduce the risk of ice crystals forming at low temperatures.
B increase the flash point at high temperatures.
C increase the viscosity across a larger range of temperatures.
D enhance combustion temperatures.

For the fuel system depicted in the annex, select the correct statement.
A No fuel transfer is possible.
B Fuel transfer is possible from the centre tank into both wing tanks.
C Fuel transfer is possible from the left wing tank to the centre tank only.
D Fuel transfer is possible from the right wing tank to the centre tank only.
Have a look at the attached diagram. The APU ISOLATION VALVE is closed. How will the APU normally be
supplied with fuel in case of a failure of the DC FUEL PUMP?
A By the LEFT AC PUMP located in the centre tank.
B By the LEFT AFT AC PUMP located in the left wing.
C In this situation the APU cannot be supplied with fuel.
D By the right AC FWD AC PUMP via the crossfeed valve.
The purpose of baffle check valves fitted in aircraft fuel tanks is to:
A prevent fuel movement to the wing tip.
B prevent positive pressure buildup inside the tank.
C close the vent lines in case of turbulence.
D damp out movement of the fuel in the tank.

Which of the following statements are correct or incorrect?
1) The AC pumps failed but the DC pump is serviceable. The engines can be supplied with fuel from both
wing tanks by the DC pump.
2) Both engines can be supplied by the DC pump in a situation which is currently depicted by the
diagram.
A 1) incorrect; 2) incorrect
B 1) incorrect; 2) correct
C 1) correct; 2) incorrect
D 1) correct; 2) correct
What is the freezing point of Jet A-1?
A -40°C
B -60°C
C -45°C
D -47°C
1) The freezing point for Jet A is at a higher temperature than that for Jet B.
Fuel pumps submerged in the fuel tanks of large multi-engine aircraft are typically:
A centrifugal low pressure type pumps.
B high pressure variable swash plate pumps.
C centrifugal high pressure type pumps.
D low pressure variable swash plate pumps.
Which statement is true concerning the structure and possible advantage of an integral fuel tank?
A It is a separate metal container that is relatively cheap to manufacture.
B It is built internally using the aircraft structure, this saves weight and space.
C It is constructed of rubber so it can be fitted into any free space within the aircraft.
D It is a separate metal container that is relatively light weight.
The function of a feed box in the fuel tank is to:
A trap fuel deposits / sediments or sludge in the lower part of the tank.
B distribute the fuel to the various tanks during refuelling.
C increase the fuel level at the boost pump location and prevent cavitation.
D ventilate the tank during refuelling under high pressure.
The ventilation system in a fuel tank:
A can be used to drain the tanks, for daily checks.
B prevents low pressure or excessive overpressure in the tank.
C prevents vapour locking in the fuel lines.
D prevents fuel freezing during flight in icing conditions

Additives are used for turbine engine fuels in order to:
A decrease the flashpoint of the fuel for operation in high temperatures.
B increase the flashpoint of the fuel for operation in high temperatures.
C increase the freezing point when operating in low temperatures.
D prevent waxing of the fuel in low temperatures.
The cross-feed fuel system can be used to:
1) feed any engine from any fuel tank.
2) dump the unusable fuel.
3) adjust fuel distribution.
4) to transfer fuel from one tank to another located in the same wing.
A 2, 3
B 1, 4
C 1, 3.
D 2, 4
1) The freezing point for Jet A is at a higher temperature than that for Jet B.
2) The flash point for Jet A is at a lower temperature than that for Jet B.
The fuel temperature, at which, under standard conditions, the vapour ignites in contact with a flame
and extinguishes immediately, is the:
A self ignition point.
B fire point.
C flash point.
D combustion point.
The diagram shown in annex represents a jet fuel system. The fuel flow measurement is carried out:
A after high pressure pump first stage (item 2).
B after high pressure valve (item 4).
C in the fuel control unit (item 3).
D after low pressure valve (item 1).

The engine fuel control unit (FCU) is protected from damage by debris by:
A magnetic plugs located at various positions throughout the fuel supply usually at the outlet of
fuel pumps and valves.
B the fine filter located between the high pressure fuel pump and the governor unit.
C a fine filter located prior to the high pressure fuel pump at the inlet to the fuel control unit.
D strainers at the inlet to the low pressure fuel pumps.
On small aircraft the fuel content is typically measured by:
A the weight of fuel in the tank.
B the volume of fuel in the tank.
C calculation of the centre of gravity of the aircraft.
D the level of fuel in the tank.
One of the reasons for the fuel system booster pumps to be submerged in fuel is to:
A improve their efficiency.
B shorten the fuel lines, so minimising the pressure losses.
C facilitate the priming of the pumps.
D heat the fuel before it enters the pump.
The operating pressure of a booster pump in the fuel supply system of a gas turbine aircraft is typically
within the following range:
A 3 000 to 5 000 psi
B 20 to 100 psi
C 300 to 500 psi
D 5 to 10 psi
The automatic fuelling shut off valve:
A cuts off the fuel in case of engine fire.
B stops fuelling as soon as a certain fuel level is reached inside the tank.
C stops fuelling as soon as the fuel spills into the ventline.
D stops fuelling as soon as a certain pressure is reached.

Circuit breakers protecting circuits may be:
A reset at any time.
B used in AC and DC circuits.
C used only in AC circuits.
D used only in DC circuits.
The shunt-wound generator produces an output in which:
A voltage is proportional to the current.
B the voltage increases with increase in load.
C the voltage decreases slightly with increase in load.
D the voltage remains constant with increase in load.

In case of failure of the TRU 1:
(Note: all contactors not mentioned are assumed to remain open)
A
DC BUS 1 can be fed by TRU 2 if C3-1 and C3-2 are closed.
B DC BUS 1 cannot be fed via DC BAT BUS.
C DC BUS 1 can be fed by TRU 2 via DC BUS 2 and DC BAT BUS if C5-3, C7-4 and C7-1 are closed.
D DC BUS 1 can be fed via DC ESS BUS if C5-1, C3-1 and C5-2 are closed.
What is the purpose of the GCB (Generator Control Breaker)?
A Connects a generator busbar to a paired generator.
B Connects generator to its busbar.
C Connects synchronising busbars of paralleled generators.
D Controls the generator fixed excitation.
The difference between a fuse and a circuit breaker is:
A A fuse is not suitable for high currents and a circuit breaker is suitable for high currents.
B A fuse is not resettable and a circuit breaker is resettable.
C A fuse is not resettable and a circuit breaker is not resettable.
D A fuse is suitable for high currents and a circuit breaker is not suitable for high currents.
If two constant frequency AC generators are operating independently, then the phase relation between
both generators:
A is unimportant.
B must be 120° out of phase.
C must be 240° out of phase.
D must be synchronised.
Which logic gate is equivalent to figure 5?
A OR
B XOR
C NOR
D NAND
When AC generators are operated in parallel, they must be of the same:
A voltage and amperage.
B amperage and kVAR.
C voltage and frequency.
D frequency and amperage.
How is AC frequency described?
A Ampere
B Hertz
C Period
D Volt
The connection in series of two 12 volt / 40 Ah batteries, will create a unit with the following
characteristics:
A 24 volt / 40 Ah
B 12 volt / 80 Ah
C 12 volt / 40 Ah
D 24 volt / 80 Ah
The frequency of an AC generator is dependent on the:
A number of pairs of poles and the speed of the rotor.
B number of individual poles only.
C field strength and the speed of the rotor.
D number of individual poles and the field strength.
When load sharing AC generators, real and reactive loads are adjusted by controlling:
A frequency only.
B voltage only.
C frequency and voltage.
D CSD speed.
The frequency of the current provided by an alternator depends on:
A the strength of the excitation current.
B its phase balance.
C its load.
D its rotation speed.
Assume a constant speed DC generator providing a constant output voltage. If the electrical load
increases, the voltage regulator will:
A maintain the intensity of the excitation current constant.
B increase the intensity of the excitation current.
C change the direction of the excitation current.
D decrease the intensity of the excitation current.
When a persistent over-excitation limit fault exists on an AC generator connected to the aircraft mains
with another AC generator, the over-excitation protection device opens:
A the exciter breaker and the generator breaker.
B the generator breaker.
C the exciter breaker, the generator breaker and the tie breaker.
D the tie breaker.

The logic symbol 3 represents (assuming positive logic):
A an INVERT or NOT gate.
B a NOR gate.
C an EXCLUSIVE gate.
D a NAND gate.
GEN 2 can be used to feed the AC BUS 2 when:
A C1-1, C2-2 and C2-1 are closed.
B C1-1, C3-2 and C3-1 are closed.
C C1-4 is closed.
D C2-2 and C2-1 are closed.

Assuming the initiating cause is removed, which of these statements about resetting are correct or
incorrect?
1) A fuse is resettable
2) A circuit breaker is resettable.
On detection of a persistent phase imbalance between an AC generator connected to the main busbars
and other AC generators, the protection device that opens is/are the:
A generator breaker and the tie breaker(s).
B exciter control relay and the generator breaker.
C generator breaker.
D tie breaker(s).
When AC generators are operated in parallel, they must be of the same:
A voltage and phase.
B voltage and amperage.
C frequency and amperage.
D amperage and kVAR.
Alternating current can be derived from direct current by:
A the use of relays.
B an alternating current motor.
C a series wound motor.
D an inverter.
GEN 1 can be used to feed the DC BUS 1 when:
A C1-1, C3-1, C3-2 and C5-3 are closed.
B C1-4 and C5-3 are closed.
C C1-1 and C5-1 are closed.
D C1-4, C3-2, C3-1 and C5-1 are closed.

In a paralleled AC distribution system what regulates the real load?
A Torque from the CSD.
B Voltage sensing unit.
C Voltage regulator.
D Main control unit.
In a star-connected alternator, line current is...
A equal to phase current.
B phase current divided by cube root.
C the square root of phase current.
D cube root x phase current.
A "bus bar" is:
A a distribution means for electrical power.
B a device which may only be used in DC circuits.
C the stator of a moving coil instrument.
D a device permitting operation of two or more switches together.
If one of the 12 cells of a Lead-acid battery has a broken connection rendering it inoperable, the battery:
A has 1/12 less capacity, but can still be used.
B has 1/12 less voltage and less capacity, but can still be used.
C has 1/12 less voltage, but can still be used.
D is unserviceable.
When TRU 1 has a failure...
A AC BUS 1 can be restored through AC ESS BUS.
B DC BUS 1 can be restored through the DC ESS BUS.
C AC BUS 1 can be restored through AC X-TIE function.
D DC BUS 1 can be restored through DC X-TIE function.

On the ground, external power (EXT PWR) can be used to feed the AC BUS 1 when:
A C1-2 and C2-1 are closed.

GEN 2 can be used to feed the DC BAT BUS:
A via AC BUS 1 and DC ESS BUS when C1-4, C3-2, C5-2 and C7-3 are closed.
B via AC BUS 2 and DC BUS 1 when C1-4, C3-2, C3-1, C5-1 and C7-1 are closed.
C via AC BUS 1 and DC BUS 2 when C1-4, C3-2, C3-1, C5-1 and C7-1 are closed.
D via AC BUS 2 and DC BUS 1 when C1-4, C3-2, C3-1, C5-3 and C7-4 are closed.
Generators, when connected to the same busbar, are usually connected:
A dependent on the type of generator.
B dependent on the type of engine.
C in a series mode.
D in a parallel mode.
When an open circuit occurs in an electrical supply system, the:
A loss of continuity will prevent its working components from functioning.
B components will operate normally, but will not switch off.
C fuse or CB should isolate the circuit due to excess current drawn.
D load as indicated by the ammeter will increase.
In a Delta connected three-phase system, line current is (1) and line voltage is (2).
A (1) phase current divided by 1.73, (2) equal to phase voltage
B (1) equal to phase current, (2) cube root of phase voltage
C (1) equal to phase current, (2) phase voltage divided by 1.73
D (1) 1.73 x phase current, (2) equal to phase voltage
If the frequency of the supply in a series capacitive circuit is decreased, the current flowing in the circuit
will:
A increase.
B remain the same.
C increase or decrease, depending on the capacity of the circuit.
D decrease.
On the ground, external power (EXT PWR) can be used to feed the AC BUS 2 when:

How are DC bus bars usually powered on aircraft fitted with AC generators?
A Transformers
B Battery
C Transformer rectifier units (TRU)
D Static inverters
When a persistent under-excitation limit fault exists on an AC generator connected to the aircraft mains
with another AC generator, under-excitation protection device opens:
A the tie breaker.
B the generator breaker and the tie breaker.
C the exciter breaker, the generator breaker and the tie breaker.
D the exciter breaker and the generator breaker.

A via AC BUS 2 and DC BUS 2 when C1-4, C5-3, and C7-4 are closed.
B via AC BUS 1 and DC BUS 2 when C1-4, C5-3 and C7-4 are closed.
C via AC BUS 1 and DC BUS 1 when C1-4, C5-3 and C7-4 are closed.
D via AC BUS 2 and DC BUS 1 when C1-4, C5-3 and C7-4 are closed.
In order for DC generators to achieve equal load sharing when operating in parallel, it is necessary to
ensure that:
A adequate voltage differences exists.
B equal loads are connected to each generator busbar before paralleling.
C the synchronising busbar is disconnected from the busbar system.
D their voltages are almost equal.
Electrical potential is measured in:
A ohms
B amperes
C watts
D volts
The essential difference between aircraft AC alternators and DC generators (dynamos) is that the:
A induced (output) windings of the alternators are fixed (stator), and the dynamos have a fixed
inductor (field) coil.
B alternators supply all of the output current through the commutators and brush assemblies.
C alternators generate much less power than DC generators.
D induced windings of the alternators are rotating (rotor), and the dynamos have a rotary inductor
coil.
A "trip-free" type circuit breaker is a circuit protection device which:
A can be reset at any time.
B will not allow the contacts to be held closed while a current fault exists in the circuit.
C will allow the contacts to be held closed in order to clear a fault in the circuit.
D is free from the normal CB tripping characteristic.
The output of a generator is controlled by:
A the reverse current relay circuit breaker.
B varying the speed of the engine.
C varying the field strength.
D varying the length of wire in the armature windings.

The advantages of grounding the negative pole of the aircraft structure are:
1) weight saving.
2) easy fault detection.
3) increase of short-circuit risk.
4) reduction of short-circuit risk.
5) circuits are not single-wired lines.
A 1, 2, 4
B 1, 3, 5
C 1, 2, 3
D 2, 3, 5
When a conductor cuts the flux of a magnetic field:
A an electromotive force (emf) is induced in the conductor.
B the field will collapse.
C there will be no effect on the conductor.
D current will flow in accordance with Fleming's left hand rule.
The commonly used symbol of resistance is:
A I and it is measured in amperes.
B P and it is measured in watts.
C R and it is measured in ohms.
D U and it is measured in volts.

The symbol 4 represents an ___ logic gate.
A NOT
B OR
C XNOR
D AND
What is located in the box between DC ESS BUS and AC ESS BUS (marked with red number "1")?
A Generator
B Static Inverter
C Diode
D External Power
A rectifier is a unit that:
A prevents rectified current from occurring in the electrical system.
B transforms one AC voltage to a greater/smaller AC voltage.
C produces a DC output from AC input.
D protects the electrical system from over-voltages induced in the system itself.
One of the main functions of the battery in large transport aircraft is to:
A be an emergency source of electric power.
B provide electric power for heating.
C provide AC power for certain equipment.
D provide DC power for certain equipment.
The voltage of a fully charged lead-acid battery cell is approximately:
A 1.2 V
B 2.2 V
C 1.8 V
D 1.4 V
The current in a DC circuit, according to Ohm's law, can be described as:
A directly proportional to both the voltage and the resistance.
B inversely proportional to the resistance and directly proportional to the voltage.
C equal to the voltage and directly proportional to the resistance.
D inversely proportional to both the voltage and the resistance.
A unit that converts electrical DC into AC is:
A a transformer rectifier unit.
B an AC generator.
C a thermistor.
D an inverter.
A CSD (constant speed drive) is a:
A hydromechanical unit and can be disconnected in flight.
B electromechanical unit and cannot be disconneted in flight.
C hydromechanical unit and cannot be disconnected in flight.
D electromechanical unit and can be disconnected in flight.
An aircraft electrical circuit which uses the aircraft structure as a return path to earth, may be defined as
a:
A semi-negative system.
B double pole circuit.
C complete negative system.
D single pole circuit.
What is the correct formula to calculate the capacitance of the fuel in tanks?
(Note: C = capacitance, e = constant, A = area, d = distance)
A C=A÷d+e
B C=d×a÷e
C C=e×a÷d
D C=a÷e×d
The most widely used AC frequency in aircraft is:
A 50 Hz
B 115 Hz
C 400 Hz
D 200 Hz
The speed of an asynchronous 4-pole motor supplied at a frequency of 400 Hertz is:
A 12 000 revolutions per minute.
B 1 600 revolutions per minute.
C 6 000 revolutions per minute.
D 800 revolutions per minute.

In a two generator system, a differential relay will ensure that:
A one generator comes "on-line" before the other.
B generator voltages are not equal, dependent on load.
C only one generator can supply the busbar at the same time.
D generator voltages are almost equal before the generators are paralleled.
The function of a NOT logic gate within a circuit is to:
A invert the input signal such that the output is always of the opposite state.
B ensure the output signal is of the same state as the input signal.
C ensure the input signal is AC only.
D ensure the input signal is DC only.
The reasons for disconnecting a constant speed drive (CSD) of an AC generator in flight are:
1) low oil pressure in the CSD.
2) slight variation about the normal operating frequency.
3) high oil temperature in the CSD.
4) excessive variation of output voltage.
A 1, 3.
B 2, 3
C 2, 4
D 1, 4
On the ground, APU GEN can be used to feed both AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 when:
D C1-3, C2-1 and C2-2 are closed.

Select from the statements below the incorrect one:
A The starter warning light is illuminated when the starter motor clutch is engaged.
B If the starter warning light remains illuminated for more than 30 seconds after engine start, the
engine should be shut down.
C The starter warning light announces that the starter motor is turning.
D Electrical power for the spark plugs will only be generated when the engine is turning.
In an alternator rotor coil you can find:
A three-phase AC.
B only induced current.
C AC.
D DC.
How is the voltage controlled in a modern alternator?
A It is directly controlled by the voltage regulator.
B By changing the RPM of the high pressure turbine.
C By increasing the number of windings on the armature.
D By several diodes connected in series.
One indication of inadequate electrical bonding of aircraft components may be:
A a circuit breaker popping out.
B interference on the VOR receiver.
C heavy corrosion on the fuselage skin mountings.
D static noise on the radio.
The primary purpose of the reverse current relay is to:
A prevent the generator from delivering current to the generator.
B prevent the generator from delivering too much current.
C allow the battery to be charged.
D prevent the battery from delivering current to the generator.

"Frequency wild" in relation to an AC generation system means the generator:
A voltage regulator is out of adjustment.
B output frequency varies with engine speed.
C output frequency is too low.
D output frequency is too high.
Circuit Breakers are used for:
A DC electrical systems.
B oil systems.
C AC electrical systems.
D AC and DC electrical systems.

When all AC generators are lost in flight and the EMER GEN is not available, the AC ESS BUS can be fed
by the batteries when:
B C7-3, C7-4, C5-3 and C3-2 are closed.
C C7-2, C7-1, C5-1 and C3-1 are closed via the static inverter.
D C6-1 and C6-2 are closed and the bus is switched to the static inverter.
C C1-4, C2-2 and C2-1 are closed.

A Constant Speed Drive (CSD) of an AC generator may be disconnected in flight. The primary reason(s)
for disconnection are typically:
A excessive variation of voltage and kVAR.
B low oil pressure and/or high oil temperature of the generator drive.
C illumination of the CSD disconnect warning light.
D slight variation about the normal operating frequency.
In case of failure of the TRU 2:
A DC BUS 2 cannot be fed via DC BAT BUS.
B DC BUS 2 can be fed by TRU 1 via DC BUS 1 and DC BAT BUS if C5-1, C7-1 and C7-4 are closed.
C DC BUS 2 can be fed by TRU 1 if C3-1 and C3-2 are closed.
D DC BUS 2 can be fed via DC ESS BUS if C5-3, C3-2 and C5-2 are closed.
If the electrical load of an AC generator providing a constant output voltage increases, the voltage
regulator will:
A change the direction of the excitation current.
B increase the excitation current.
C decrease the excitation current.
D maintain the excitation current constant.
Which of the following parts is a typical semiconductor part?
A Coil
B Transistor
C Relay
D Resistor
How are the loads on an aircraft busbar connected?
A In series so that current through the busbar reduces as loads are switched off.
B In parallel so that voltage through the busbar reduces as loads are switched off.
C In parallel so that current through the busbar reduces as loads are switched off.
D In series so that voltage through the busbar reduces as loads are switched off.
The capacity of a battery is given in:
A internal resistance.
B volts.
C ampere hours.
D watts.
For this diagram, choose the answer which correctly states the outputs from the logic circuit shown:
A Both C and D are equal to 1.
B Both C and D are equal to 0.
C C=1 and D=0.
D C=0 and D=1.
A test to assess the state of charge of a Lead-acid battery would involve:
A comparing the "on-load" and "off-load" battery voltages.
B checking the discharge current of the battery "on-load".
C checking the level of the electrolyte.
D checking the battery voltage "off-load".
The true statement among the following in relation to the application of Ohm's law is:
A current in a circuit is inversely proportional to the applied electromotive force.
B the current in a circuit is directly proportional to the resistance of the circuit.
C power in the circuit is inversely proportional to the square of the current.
D current in a circuit is directly proportional to the applied electromotive force.
Large NiCd batteries in aircraft need to be monitored during charging to avoid damage resulting from...
A excessive temperature caused by outgassing when the voltage decreases.
B high current during the charging process when the battery is not yet fully loaded.
C excessive voltage due to overcharging.
D pressure build-up due to gas formation.

In an electrical circuit the reverse current relay will open:
A when the battery is being charged.
B when circuit voltage is less than generator voltage.
C when battery voltage exceeds generator voltage.
D when the batteries are fully discharged.
In order to produce an alternating voltage of 400 Hz, the number of individual poles required in an AC
generator running at 6 000 RPM is:
A 8.
B 4
C 12
D 24
incorrect?
1) A fuse is not resettable
2) A circuit breaker is resettable.
As regards three-phase AC generators, the following conditions must be met for paralleling AC
generators:
1) equal voltage.
2) equal current.
3) equal frequencies.
4) same phase rotation.
5) voltages of same phase.
A 1, 3, 5
B 1, 2, 3, 4
C 1, 3, 4, 5
D 1, 4, 5
B C1-1 is closed.
D C1-1, C5-1, C7-1, C7-4 and C5-3 are closed.

The main purpose of a constant speed drive (CSD) unit is to:
A maintain a constant frequency.
B take part in the voltage regulation.
C mechanically protect the alternator drive shaft during coupling.
D take part in the balancing of reactive loads.
The primary purpose of bonding the metallic parts of an aircraft is to:
A provide a single earth for all electrical devices.
B provide safe distribution of electrical charges and currents.
C prevent electrolytic corrosion between mating surfaces of similar metals.
D isolate all components electrically and thus make the static potential constant.
A thermal circuit breaker:
A can be re-engaged without any danger even if the fault remains.
B uses electromagnetic trip system to prevent overheating.
C limits any overcurrent.
D protects the system in the event of overload / overheating.
The reason for using inverters in an electrical system is:
A to change AC into DC.
B to change DC into AC.
C to change the DC voltage.
D to avoid a short circuit.

What does the following truth table represent?
A An OR gate.
B An XOR gate.
C A NOR gate.
D A NAND gate.
A feeder fault on a direct current circuit results from a flux unbalance between the:
A voltage coil and the parallel winding.
B generator and the series winding turn.
C voltage coil and the series winding turn.
D shunt exciter and the series winding turn.
Which of the following parts is a typical semiconductor part?
A Diode
B Condensator
C Relay
D Coil
Load shedding means:
A to leave behind extra cargo if the centre of gravity moves outside limits.
B reduction of airloads on the flaps by means of the flap load relief valve.
C temporary or permanent switching off of certain electric users to avoid overload of electric
generators.
D a procedure used in control systems to reduce the stick forces.

The diagram shown in annex represents a twin engine aeroplane electrical system. Batteries are located
positions:
A 1, 3
B 5, 6
C 1, 2
D 3, 4
What is the unit of measurement for electrical work?
A Ohm
B Watt
C Joule
D Volt
The purpose of a battery control unit is generally to isolate the battery:
1) from the bus when the battery charge has been completed.
2) when there is a battery overheat condition.
3) in case of an internal short circuit.
4) in case of a fault on the ground power unit.
A 1, 2, 3, 4
B 1, 2, 3
C 1, 2
D 1
When carrying out battery condition check using the aeroplane's voltmeter:
A the load condition is unimportant.
B a load should be applied to the battery in order to give a better indication of condition.
C no load should be applied to the battery because it would depress the voltage.
D the battery should be isolated.

C C1-1, C3-1, C3-2 and C5-3 are closed.

Because of the input/output relationship of an OR gate, it is often referred to as the:
A "all or nothing" gate.
B "any or all" gate.
C "state indicator" gate.
D "inhibited" or "negated" gate.
Immediately after starting engine(s) with no other electrical services switched on, an ammeter is
showing a high charge rate to the battery:
A indicates a faulty reverse current relay.
B indicates a generator failure, thus requiring the engine to be shut down immediately.
C would be normal and is only cause for concern if the high charge rate persists.
D indicates a battery failure since there should be no immediate charging.
What are the advantages of NiCd batteries?
A Higher voltage than lead-acid type.
B Less cells required than in lead-acid battery with the same voltage.
C Even voltage before rapid discharge.
D Simple charging systems can be used.
An AC generator driven by a constant speed drive (CSD) unit:
A requires a voltage controller to maintain constant frequency.
B requires a voltage controller to maintain constant voltage under load.
C does not need a voltage controller since an AC generator voltage cannot alter under load.
D does not need a voltage controller since the CSD will ensure constant voltage.
In an aeroplane fitted with a constant frequency AC power supply, DC power is obtained from a:
A 3-phase current transformer unit.
B rotary converter.
C static inverter.
D Transformer Rectifier Unit (TRU).

The most common overload protection device used in aircraft is:
A relays.
B circuit breakers.
C fuses.
D diodes.
The power required for field excitation of the main rotor in modern constant-frequency alternators is
directly controlled by:
A the voltage regulator.
B an AC generator.
C an excitation alternator with a permanent magnet generator.
D a battery.
The function of the generator breaker is to close when the voltage of the:
A generator is greater than battery voltage and to open when the opposite is true.
B alternator is greater than the battery voltage and to open when the opposite is true.
C battery is greater than the generator voltage and to open when the opposite is true.
D battery is greater than the alternator voltage and to open when the opposite is true.
In a modern alternator, how is the current flowing to the rotor controlled?
A By a voltage regulator.
B By the battery.
C By a separate AC alternator.
D By a separate AC source using permanent magnets.
The moving part in an AC generator is usually referred to as the:
A stator.
B rotor.
C slip ring.
D oscillator.
Pulling the fire shut-off handle causes a number of devices to disconnect. In respect of the AC generator
it can be said that the:
A exciter control relay opens.
B exciter control relay and the generator breaker open.
C exciter control relay, the generator breaker and the tie breaker open.
D generator breaker opens.
When a persistent over-excitation fault is detected on only one AC generator, the protection device
opens the:
A tie breaker.
B exciter breaker, generator breaker and tie breaker.
C exciter breaker and generator breaker.
D generator breaker and tie breaker.
The electrolyte in a Nickel-Cadmium battery is:
A potassium hydroxide.
B potassium chloride.
C hydrogen peroxide.
D nickel dioxide.
In flight, the AC ESS BUS can be fed by the EMER GEN when:
A C4-1 is closed.
B C4-1 and C5-2 are closed via the DC ESS BUS and the static inverter.
C C4-1 is closed via the static inverter.
D C4-1 and C5-2 are closed via the DC BAT BUS and the static inverter.
Assuming a Constant Speed Drive (CSD) fault is indicated, the CSD should be disconnected:
A provided the engine is running.
B at flight idle engine RPM only.
C when the AC generator voltage is outside limits.
D on the ground only.
A circuit breaker:
A can only be reset after major maintenance.
B is self resetting after the fault has been rectified.
C can be reset on the ground only.
D may be reset manually after the fault has been rectified.

GEN 1 can be used to feed the DC ESS BUS:
A via AC BUS 1 and AC ESS BUS, when C1-1, C3-1 and C5-2 are closed.
B via AC BUS 1, when C1-1, C3-1 and C5-2 are closed.
C via AC BUS 1 and AC ESS BUS, when C1-1, C1-4, C3-1, C3-2 and C5-2 are closed.
D via AC BUS 1, when C1-4, C3-2 and C5-2 are closed.

On the ground, APU GEN can be used to feed the AC BUS 2 when:

A component consuming 80 watts at 8 amps would require a supply of:
A 5 Volts
B 0.01 kV
C 0.008 kV
D 100 Volts
A via AC BUS 1 and DC BUS 2 when C1-4, C5-3 and C7-4 are closed.
B via AC BUS 2 and DC BUS 1 when C1-4, C5-3 and C7-4 are closed.
C via AC BUS 2 and DC BUS 2 when C1-4, C5-3 and C7-4 are closed.
D via AC BUS 1 and DC BUS 1 when C1-1, C5-1 and C7-1 are closed.
A static inverter is a:
A device for reversing the polarity of the static charge.
B static discharger.
C unit used to convert DC into AC.
D filter against radio interference.
The purpose of a voltage regulator is to control the output voltage of the:
A TRU.
B generator at varying loads and speeds.
C generators at varying speeds and the batteries at varying loads.
D batteries at varying loads.
The smoke detection in the aircraft cargo compartments is carried out by four sensors: C1, C2, C3 and
C4. They are associated with the logic circuit as described by the diagram. The repeating bell is activated
when:
A the C2 and C4 sensors detect smoke.
B the C1 and C3 sensors detect smoke.
C the C1 and C2 sensors detect smoke.
D only one sensor detects smoke.
The capacity of a battery is the:
A amount of ampere-hours that a fully charged battery can supply.
B number of cycles (charging and discharging) that a battery can withstand without deterioration
of its cells.
C intensity withstood by the battery during charging.
D no-load voltage of the battery multiplied by its rated output current.

Capacity of batteries is rated in:
A amperes / volts.
B watts.
C amperes × hours.
D ohms.
A constant speed drive (CSD) unit which has been disconnected in flight:
A automatically resets at engine shut-down.
B automatically resets in flight provided engine RPM is below a given value.
C may be reset in flight using the reset mechanism.
D may be reset on the ground only, after engine shut-down.
The voltage regulator of a DC generator is connected in:
A parallel with the armature.
B parallel with the shunt field coil.
C series with the shunt field coil.
D series with the armature.
When the AC generators are connected in parallel, the reactive loads are balanced by means of the:
A torque of the constant speed drive (CSD).
B frequency.
C voltage.
D excitation current.
Assume a constant speed DC generator providing a constant output voltage. If the electrical load
decreases, the voltage regulator will:
A decrease the intensity of the excitation current.
B increase the intensity of the excitation current.
C maintain the intensity of the excitation current constant.
D none of the above - voltage regulators are not used in DC generator systems.
In an aircraft electrical system where AC generators are not paralleled, the bus tie breaker (relay) may
allow:
A power to be supplied to the failed AC generator's busbar.
B connection of the AC generator to its distribution busbar.
C connection of the ground power truck to its distribution busbar.
D connection of the failed AC generator to the opposite generator's busbar.
Electrical bonding of an aircraft is used to:
1) protect the aircraft against lightning effects.
2) reset the electrostatic potential of the aircraft to a value approximating 0 volt.
3) reduce radio interference on radio communication systems.
4) set the aircraft to a single potential.
A 1, 2, 3
B 2, 4
C 1, 3, 4.
D 3, 4
The symbol 2 represents ___ logic gate.
A NAND
B AND
C XOR
D NOT
On the ground, external power (EXT PWR) can be used to feed both AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 when:
A C1-2 is closed.

The primary function of a constant speed drive (CSD) unit in an AC generating system is to:
A vary generator RPM in order to compensate for various AC loads.
B directly maintain a constant proportion between the RPM of engine and generator.
C vary the engine RPM (within limits) to compensate for various AC loads.
D drive the generator at a constant speed.
A C=0 and D=1.
B Both C and D are equal to zero.
C C=1 and D=0.
D Both C and D are equal to 1.
Static dischargers:
1) are used to set all the parts of the airframe to the same electrical potential.
2) are placed on wing and tail tips to facilitate electrical discharge.
3) are used to reset the electrostatic potential of the aircraft to a value approximating 0 volts.
4) are located on wing and tail tips to reduce interference with the on-board radio communication
systems to a minimum.
5) limit the risks of transfer of electrical charges between the aircraft and the electrified clouds.
A 3, 4, 5
B 1, 3, 4
C 2, 4, 5.
D 1, 2, 5
The purpose of static discharge wicks is to:
A reduce the likelihood of lightning strikes.
B safely dissipate the static charge of the aircraft in flight.
C eliminate radio interference.
D discharge static from the skin after landing.
A 3 phase AC generator has 3 separate stator windings spaced at:
A 45°
B 90°
C 60°
D 120°
The international symbol of electrical power is:
A P and it is measured in watts.
B U and it is measured in volts.
C R and it is measured in ohms
D I and it is measured in amperes.
To reverse the direction of rotation of a shunt-type (parallel field) DC electric motor, it is necessary to:
A connect a phase-shift capacitor to the field circuit.
B reverse the polarity of either the stator or the rotor.
C change the connections from shunt to series.
D reverse the polarity of the motor connections.
Because of the connection in parallel of electrical equipment on an AC busbar, isolation of individual

equipments:
A increases the busbar voltage.
B decreases the busbar voltage.
C decreases the busbar current consumption.
D increases the busbar current consumption.

During start of an engine fitted with a brushless AC generator with no commutator rings, the generator
is activated by:
A the auxiliary winding.
B the main field winding.
C a set of permanent magnets.
D the stabilizer winding jointly with the voltage regulator.
When the battery ammeter shows "+24" the battery...
A is fully charged to 24 V.
B has a remaining capacity of 24 AH (Ampere hours).
C is being charged with 24 A.
D is being discharged with 24 A.

A C1-1 is closed.
D C1-4, C2-1 and C2-2 are closed.

When a conductor cuts the field lines of a magnetic field:
A a Lorentz force is induced in the conductor.
B the current will stop.
C the field will collapse.
D there will be no effect on the conductor.
incorrect?
1) A fuse is resettable
2) A circuit breaker is not resettable.
In aeronautics, the most commonly used batteries are NiCd because:
A they are cheaper than lead-acid batteries.
B their output voltage is less constant than lead-acid batteries.
C their electrolyte is neither corrosive nor dangerous.
D they weigh less than lead-acid batteries.
When two DC generators are operating in parallel, control of load sharing is achieved by:
A an equalising circuit which, in turn, controls the speed of the generators.
B carrying out systematic load-shedding procedures.
C an equalising circuit which, in conjunction with the voltage regulators, varies the field
excitation current of the generators.
D the synchronous busbar.

Real load sharing in a parallel AC system is achieved by:
A automatic adjustment of the torque on each generator rotor via the CSD unit.
B monitoring the kVAR of each generator/alternator.
C carefully and systematically limiting the number of loads on the bus-bars at any one time.
D controlling the generator field current.
The resistors R1 and R2 are connected in parallel. The value of the equivalent resistance (Req) so
obtained is given by the following formula:
A 1/Req = 1/(R1 + R2)
B Req = R1 + R2
C Req = R1 × R2
D 1/Req = 1/R1 + 1/R2
On board typical modern aircraft, the batteries used are mainly nickel-cadmium. Their advantages are:
1) low risk of thermal runaway.
2) high internal resistance, hence higher power.
3) good charging and discharging capability at high rating.
4) wider permissible temperature range.
5) good storage capability.
6) sturdiness owing to its metal casing.
A 3, 4, 6
B 1, 2, 5, 6
C 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
D 3, 4, 5, 6.
A significant increase in battery temperature is an indication of:
A excess load on the battery.
B alternator failure.
C voltage regulator failure.
D thermal runaway.
The so called HOT BUSSES or DIRECT BUSSES are:
A directly connected to the battery.
B kept in operating conditions by an electrical resistance in the case of energy failure.
C automatically connected to the battery if generators have failed.
D providing an alternate current (AC).
incorrect?
1) A fuse is not resettable
2) A circuit breaker is not resettable.
In an AC power generation system, the constant speed drive (CSD):
1) can be disconnected from the drive shaft.
2) can be disconnected from the generator.
3) is a hydromechanical system.
4) is an electronic system.
5) cannot be disconnected during the flight.
6) can be disconnected during the flight.
A 1, 3, 6.
B 1, 4, 5
C 1, 2, 5
D 2, 3, 4
To ensure correct load sharing between AC generators operating in parallel:
A both real and reactive loads must be matched.
B only reactive loads need to be matched.
C the matching of loads is unimportant.
D only real loads need to be matched.
The conditions to be met to activate a shunt generator are:
1) presence of a permanent field.
2) closed electrical circuit.
3) generator terminals short-circuited.
4) minimum rotation speed.
A 1, 4.
B 2, 4
C 1, 2
D 1, 3
When an underspeed fault is detected on an AC generator connected to the aircraft AC busbar, the
protection device opens the:
A exciter breaker and generator breaker.
B exciter breaker.
C generator breaker.
D exciter breaker, generator breaker and tie breaker.
The input and output of a static inverter are respectively:
A AC and DC.
B DC and DC.
C DC and AC.
D AC and AC.
In an aeroplane equipped with a DC main power system, AC for instrument operation may be obtained
from:
A a rectifier.
B a TRU.
C an inverter.
D a contactor.
A magnetic circuit breaker:
A can be reset without any danger even when fault remains.
B is a protection system that has a quick tripping response.
C is a system with a slow response time.
D permits an overcurrent limited in time.

GEN 2 can be used to feed the DC ESS BUS:
A via AC BUS 2, when C1-4, C3-2 and C5-2 are closed.
B via AC BUS 2 and AC ESS BUS, when C1-4, C3-2 and C5-2 are closed.
C via AC BUS 2 and AC ESS BUS, when C1-1, C1-4, C3-1, C3-2 and C5-2 are closed.
D via AC BUS 2, when C1-1, C3-1 and C5-2 are closed.

A via AC BUS 2 and DC BUS 1 when C1-1, C3-1, C3-2, C5-3 and C7-4 are closed.
B via AC BUS 1 and DC BUS 2 when C1-1, C3-1, C3-2, C5-1 and C7-1 are closed.
C via AC BUS 1 and DC BUS 2 when C1-1, C3-1, C3-2, C5-3 and C7-4 are closed.
D via AC BUS 2 and DC ESS BUS when C1-1, C3-1, C5-2 and C7-3 are closed.
The symbol 1 represents an ___ logic gate.
A AND
B XNOR
C NOT
D NOR
If the frequency of the supply in a series capacitive circuit is increased, the current flowing in the circuit
will:
A increase.
B increase or decrease, depending on the capacity of the circuit.
C decrease.
D remain the same.

In case of failure of the static inverter:
A DC ESS BUS will not be provided, even if GEN 1 and 2 are supplying AC and the appropriate
contactors are closed.
B AC ESS BUS can be powered, if required, by the EMER GEN if C4-1 is closed.
C AC ESS BUS can be fed by DC ESS BUS.
D AC can be generated by the batteries using the ESS TRU, provided the appropriate contactors
are closed.
Regarding Ohm's law:
A the power in the circuit is inversely proportional to the square of the current.
B the current in a circuit is directly proportional to voltage.
C the current in a circuit is directly proportional to the resistance of the circuit.
D the current in a circuit is inversely proportional to voltage.
A relay is:
A another name for a solenoid valve.
B a unit which is used to convert electrical energy into heat energy.
C a device which is used to increase electrical power.
D an electromagnetically operated switch.
The rating of electrical fuses is expressed in:
A volts
B ohms
C amperes
D watts
Direct current generators are connected:
A in series to provide maximum power.
B in parallel to provide maximum power.
C in parallel to provide maximum voltage.
D in series to provide maximum voltage.
The purpose of static wick dischargers is to:
A dissipate static charge of the aircraft in flight thus avoiding radio interference as a result of
static electricity.
B dissipate static charge from the aircraft skin after landing.
C be able to fly higher because of less electrical friction.
D provide a path to ground for static charges when refuelling.

In order to produce an alternating voltage of 400 Hz, the number of pairs of poles required in an AC
generator running at 6 000 RPM is:
A 12
B 8
C 4.
D 24
What is located in box 4?
A emergency generator
B static inverter
C transformer rectifier unit
D generator 2
The advantages of alternating current on board an aircraft are:
1) simple connection.
2) high starting torque.
3) flexibility in use.
4) lighter weight of equipment.
5) easy to convert into direct current.
6) easy maintenance of machines.
A 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
B 3, 4, 5, 6.
C 1, 4, 6
D 1, 2, 3, 5, 6
If a current is passed through a conductor which is positioned perpendicular to a magnetic field:
A there will be no effect unless the conductor is moved.
B a force will be exerted on the conductor.
C the current will increase.
D the intensity of the magnetic field will decrease.
On detection of a persistent overvoltage fault on an AC generator connected to the aircraft AC busbars

(paralleled bus system), the on-board protection device opens:
A the exciter breaker and the generator breaker.
B the exciter breaker, the generator breaker and tie breaker.
C the generator breaker.
D the generator breaker and tie breaker.

The advantages of Nickel-Cadmium compared with Lead-acid batteries are:
1) lower risk of thermal runaway.
2) higher internal resistance, hence higher power.
3) reduced charging time.
4) constant output voltage.
A 1, 3
B 1, 2
C 3, 4.
D 2, 4
The phase relationship between two unparalleled AC generators:
A must be in opposition.
B must be synchronous.
C is unimportant.
D must be 90° out of synchronisation.
A current limiter fuse (thermal) in a DC generation system is used to:
A limit the current in the armature.
B limit the current in the field circuit.
C allow a short term overload before rupturing.
D instantaneously rupture to limit the current in the load.
A relay is:
A an electrical security switch.
B a switch specially designed for AC circuits.
C an electromagnetically operated switch.
D an electrical energy conversion unit.

A battery capacity of 5 Ah means that the battery can provide
A Maximum current for 5 hours
B 10 Ampere for 10 minutes
C 5 Ampere for 1 hour
D 5 Ampere for 5 hours
A Both C and D are equal to 0.
B C=1 and D=0.
C C=0 and D=1.
D Both C and D are equal to 1.
The commonly used symbol of voltage is:
A R and it is measured in volts.
B I and it is measured in amperes.
C U and it is measured in volts.
D I and it is measured in volts.
The total resistance of a number of power consuming devices connected in series is equal to:
A the sum of the resistances divided by the total resistance.
B the reciprocal of sum of the individual resistances.
C the sum of the individual resistances.
D the sum of the reciprocals of the individual resistances.

GEN 2 can be used to feed the DC BUS 2, when:
C C1-1, C3-1, C3-2 and C5-3 are closed.

When a battery is almost fully discharged there is a tendency for the:
A voltage to increase due to the current available.
B voltage to decrease under load.
C current produced to increase due to the reduced voltage.
D electrolyte to "boil".
In a simple electrical circuit, if the power consuming devices are connected in parallel, the total current
consumed is equal to:
A the sum of the currents taken divided by the number of devices.
B the sum of the reciprocals of the currents taken by the devices.
C the sum of the currents taken by the devices.
D the sum of the individual resistances.
A "Zener" diode is used for:
A reverse current protection.
B rectification.
C voltage stabilisation.
D digital displays.
On the ground, APU GEN can be used to feed the AC BUS 1 when:

What does the following truth table represent?
A NAND.
B OR.
C Exclusive AND.
D NOR.
On an aeroplane using AC as primary power supply, the batteries are charged in flight from:
A a DC transformer and rectifier.
B a Transformer Rectifier Unit.
C the AC bus via current limiters.
D a static inverter.
In flight, if the Constant Speed Drive (CSD) temperature indicator is in the red arc the:
A pilot can disconnect it to allow it to cool and use it again.
B pilot must disconnect it, and the generator is not available for the rest of flight.
C pilot must disconnect it and manually control the alternator.
D pilot has to throttle back.
The type of gate that requires all "TRUE" inputs for a "TRUE" output is:
A NOR
B OR
C AND
D NAND
A C1-1 is closed.
C C1-4, C5-3, C7-4, C7-1 and C5-1 are closed.

In the event of an AC generator fault, on a twin engine aircraft, the protection device will open:
A the generator breaker and the bus tie breaker.
B the exciter control relay, the generator breaker and the bus tie breaker
C the bus tie breaker.
D the exciter control relay and the generator breaker.
Because of the input/output relationship of an AND gate, it is often referred to as the:
A "any or all" gate.
B "all or nothing" gate.
C "state indicator" gate.
D "inhibited" or "negated" gate.
A constant speed drive (CSD) aims at ensuring:
A that the electric generator produces a constant frequency.
B that the starter-motor maintains a constant RPM irrespective of the engine acceleration /
deceleration.
C that the CSD remains at a constant RPM irrespective of the generator RPM
D an equal AC voltage output from all generators.
In an electrical AC circuit, a capacitor will cause the
A Voltage to lag the current by 180°.
B Voltage to lead the current by 180°.
C Voltage to lag the current by 90°.
D Voltage to lead the current by 90°.

The purpose of bonding the metallic parts of an aircraft is to:
1) prevent electrolytic corrosion between mating surfaces of similar metals.
2) ensure zero voltage difference between aircraft components.
3) isolate all components electrically.
4) provide a single earth for electrical devices.
A 2, 3
B 1, 4
C 2, 4.
D 1, 3
The type of windings commonly used in DC starter motors are:
A series-wound.
B compound-wound.
C series-shunt-wound.
D shunt-wound.
When the AC voltage across a capacitor is kept constant and the frequency is increased, the current
through the capacitor will:
A increase.
B be zero.
C decrease.
D remain the same.

On-board electrical systems are protected against faults of the following type:
1) AC generator over-voltage.
2) AC generator under-voltage.
3) over-current.
4) over-speed.
5) under-frequency.
6) undue vibration of AC generators.
A 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
B 1, 3, 5, 6
C 1, 2, 4, 5
D 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
A thermal circuit breaker:
A protects the system in the event of a prolonged overcurrent.
B protects the system in the event of any overcurrent.
C protects the system in the event of a prolonged overheating.
D protects the system in the event of any overheating.
A constant speed drive (CSD) unit is normally provided with means of monitoring the following
parameters during the flight:
A oil temperature and synchronous speed.
B low oil temperature and low oil quantity.
C output speed and oil pressure.
D oil over-temperature and low oil pressure.
Usually, in conductive materials:
A resistance and temperature are not related.
B the resistance increases with increasing temperature.
C the resistance decreases with increasing temperature.
D the resistance remains constant regardless of temperature.

As regards the Generator Control Unit (GCU) of an AC generator, it can be said that:
1) the GCU controls the AC generator voltage.
2) modern GCUs are provided with a permanent indication to record the failure.
3) all the commands originating from the control panel are applied via the GCU, except dog clutch
release.
4) the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) provides the excitation of the AC generator as soon as the APU starts
up.
A 3, 4
B 1, 3
C 2, 4
D 2, 3.
The measured output power components of a constant frequency AC system are:
A amperes and kilowatts.
B volts and amperes.
C kVA and kVAR.
D volts and kilowatts.
Modern aircraft can have many different types of circuit breakers (CB). Generally speaking a CB is an
electric component that:
A when excessive current flows through it, it will open the circuit. It has to be replaced to regain a
closed electrical circuit.
B is seldom used in electrical systems.
C when excessive current flows through it, it will open the circuit, but a closed circuit is regained
when it is reset.
D prevents high voltage, but can not handle high values of current.
The connection in parallel of two 12 volt / 40 Ah batteries, will create a unit with the following
characteristics:
A 24 volt / 40 Ah
B 12 volt / 80 Ah
C 12 volt / 40 Ah
D 24 volt / 80 Ah
A diode:
A allows current flow if it is in phase with the voltage.
B allows current to flow in one direction only.
C can be used as an inverter.
D allows current flow if its lags the voltage by 90°.
The slipstream effect of a propeller is most prominent at:
A low airspeeds with high power setting.
B low airspeeds with low power setting.
C high airspeeds with high power setting.
D high airspeeds with low power setting.
Define a normally aspirated engine:
A An engine that is turbocharged.
B An engine that is supercharged and turbocharged.
C An engine that is neither supercharged nor turbocharged.
D An engine that is supercharged.
Pre-ignition refers to the condition that may arise when:
A the sparking plug ignites the mixture too early.
B a rich mixture is ignited by the sparking plugs.
C the mixture is ignited before the piston has reached top dead centre.
D the mixture is ignited by abnormal conditions within the cylinder before the spark occurs at
the plug.
Which one of the following factors would be most likely to increase the possibility of detonation
occurring within a piston engine?
A Slightly retarding the ignition timing.
B High cylinder head temperature.
C The use of a fuel with a high octane rating as compared to the use of one with a low octane
rating.
D Using an engine with a low compression ratio.
A normally aspirated engine has:
A a density controller and a rate controller.
B a density controller.
C a dual controller to maintain turbine speed.
D no power augmentation devices.
The compression ratio of a piston engine is the ratio of the:
A volume of the cylinder with the piston at bottom dead centre to that with the piston at top
dead centre.
B diameter of the bore to the piston stroke.
C area of the piston to the cylinder volume.
D weight of the air induced to its weight after compression.
Carburettor heating is generally not used with take-off and climb-power settings, because of the:
A fire hazard involved.
B increased drag.
C loss of power and possible detonation.
D impossibility of engine supplying enough heat.
For internal cooling, reciprocating engines are especially dependent on:
A the circulation of lubricating oil.
B a properly functioning thermostat.
C a rich fuel/air mixture.
D a lean fuel/air mixture.

With respect to a piston engined aircraft, ice in the carburettor:
A will only form at outside air temperatures (OAT's) below the freezing point of water.
B will only form at OATs below the freezing point of fuel.
C may form at OATs higher than +10 °C.
D will only form at OATs below +10 °C.
The function of an accelerator pump in the carburettor of a piston engine is to:
A pressurize the fuel in the float chamber so allowing more fuel to pass through the main jet.
B temporarily enrich the mixture by pumping more fuel into the induction system during rapid
throttle movements.
C assist in atomizing the fuel before it leaves the discharge nozzle.
D give a positive flow of fuel to the main jet.
On an aeroplane equipped with a constant speed propeller, the RPM indicator and its associated control
lever enable:
A on a twin-engine aeroplane, automatic engine synchronisation.
B control of power.
C selection of engine RPM.
D display of propeller RPM and control of the propeller regulator.
In which sections of the carburettor would icing most likely occur?
A Venturi and the throttle valve.
B Main air bleed and main discharge nozzle.
C Accelerator pump and main metering jet.
D Float chamber and fuel inlet filter.
During climbing flight using a turbocharged airplane, the manifold pressure will remain approximately
constant until:
A the waste gate is fully open and the turbine is operating at maximum speed.
B the engine's critical altitude is reached.
C an atmospheric pressure of 500 mB is reached.
D an outside temperature of -18 °C is reached.

The power output of a piston engine is directly proportional to:
A exhaust back pressure and RPM.
B force and distance.
C work and velocity.
D torque and RPM.
The primary function of the diffuser tube in a carburettor is to:
A decrease air velocity.
B maintain constant fuel flow through the main jet at all powers.
C emulsify the fuel before it enters the main jet.
D maintain a constant mixture ratio over the operating range of the engine.
The main advantage of a constant speed propeller as compared to a fixed pitch propeller is that it:
A maintains its maximum propeller efficiency over a wider range of airspeeds.
B has a lower propeller blade stress.
C has a higher maximum propeller efficiency over a wider range of airspeeds.
D does not require propeller blade twist.
Diesel engines always produce a certain amount of soot, because:
A the fuel droplets coming from the atomiser do not burn completely.
B the fuel droplets are too small.
C the intake air is too cold.
D the mixture is always too rich.
An asymmetric loading (p-factor) on the propeller exists:
A if there is an unbalanced propeller.
B only if the "constant speed propeller" mechanism is broken.
C only for counter-rotating propeller.
D if the aeroplane has a large angle of attack.

The relationship between compression ratio of a piston engine and the required fuel octane rating is
that the:
A required octane rating is independent of the compression ratio.
B higher the compression ratio, the lower the octane rating required.
C lower the compression ratio, the higher the octane rating required.
D higher the compression ratio, the higher the octane rating required.
Concerning a constant speed propeller of a twin engine aeroplane controlled by a single-acting pitch
control unit:
A the aerodynamic force turns the propeller blades towards higher pitch angle.
B the spring force turns the propeller blades towards smaller pitch angle.
C the oil pressure turns the propeller blades towards smaller pitch angle.
D the oil pressure turns the propeller blades towards higher pitch angle.
The propeller blade angle is defined as the acute angle between the airfoil section chord line (at the
blade reference station) and which of the following?
A The relative wind.
B The plane of rotation.
C The axis of blade rotation during pitch change.
D The propeller thrust time.
When applying precautionary carburettor heating on a reciprocating engine with a constant speed
propeller:
A the RPM increases.
B the mixture becomes richer.
C the mixture becomes leaner.
D the RPM decreases.

Given the following statements about diesel engines:
1) power is set by the mixture control.
2) there is no mixture control.
3) the amount of power is determined by the fuel flow only.
4) thermal efficiency is higher than that for a petrol engine.
5) diesel fuel is more inflammable than petrol.
A 1, 2, 3
B 1, 3, 5
C 2, 3, 4.
D 2, 4, 5
A condenser in parallel with breaker points will:
A permit arcing across points.
B intensify current in secondary winding.
C assist in negative feedback to secondary coil.
D assist in collapse of secondary winding.
On design purpose, the relationship between the fuel octane rating and the maximum compression ratio
of a piston engine is:
A the lower the octane rating is, the higher the maximum compression ratio is
B the maximum compression ratio is independent of the octane rating.
C the higher the octane rating is, the lower the maximum compression ratio is.
D the higher the octane rating is, the higher the maximum compression ratio is.
A turbo-charger impeller is driven by:
A diversion of exhaust gases by the waste gate using energy that would otherwise have been
lost.
B a ram air turbine.
C excess torque from the reduction gearbox.
D a connection through a gearbox connected to the crankshaft.

For piston engines fuel/air ratio or mixture is the ratio between the:
A mass of fuel and volume of air entering the carburettor.
B volume of fuel and volume of air entering the cylinder.
C mass of fuel and mass of air entering the cylinder.
D volume of fuel and volume of air entering the carburettor.
The blade angle of a constant-speed propeller:
A is independent of the true air speed.
B decreases with increasing true air speed.
C only varies with engine RPM.
D increases with increasing true air speed.
Which one of the following factors would be likely to increase the possibility of detonation occurring
within a piston engine?
A Using an engine with a low compression ratio.
B Using too lean a air/fuel mixture ratio.
C Slightly retarding the ignition timing.
D The use of fuel with a high octane rating as compared to the use of one with a low octane rating.
When altitude increases, in a normally aspirated piston engine, mixture must be adjusted because there
is:
A an increase of air density resulting in too lean a mixture.
B a decrease in air density resulting in too rich a mixture.
C a decrease of air density resulting in too lean a mixture.
D an increase of air density resulting in too rich a mixture.
The angle of attack of a rotating propeller blade is measured between the blade chord or face and which
of the following?
A The relative airstream.
B The geometric pitch angle required producing the same thrust.
C Full low-pitch blade angle.
D The plane of blade rotation.

During climb with constant throttle and RPM lever setting (mixture being constant) the:
A RPM increases.
B RPM decreases.
C Manifold Absolute Pressure (MAP) increases.
D Manifold Absolute Pressure (MAP) decreases.
As altitude increases, if the mixture is not leaned:
A the volume of air entering the carburettor remains constant and the fuel flow decreases.
B the density of air entering the carburettor decreases and the amount of fuel remains constant.
C the volume of air entering the carburettor decreases and the amount of fuel decreases.
D the density of air entering the carburettor decreases and the fuel flow increases.
The power of a piston engine, which is measured by a friction brake, is:
A heat loss power.
B friction horse power.
C indicated horse power.
D brake horse power.
Fuel is delivered to the engine under pressure to:
A keep constant fuel flow in negative G.
B prevent fuel icing.
C prevent cavitation at the carburettor.
D prevent vapour lock.
Vapour lock is the phenomenon by which:
A heat produces vapour bubbles that can block the fuel line.
B burnt gas plugs forming and remaining in the exhaust manifold following an overheat and
thereby disturbing the exhaust.
C water vapour plugs are formed in the intake fuel line following the condensation of water in fuel
tanks which have not been drained properly.
D abrupt and abnormal enrichment of the fuel/air mixture following an inappropriate use of
carburettor heat.
Ignition systems of a running piston engine receive electrical energy from:
A capacitors.
B generators.
C rotating permanent magnets.
D batteries.
During the compression stroke of a piston engine during the practice cycle, valves are open as follows:
A the intake valve is open in last part of the stroke, the exhaust valve is open in the first part of the
stroke.
B both valves are closed during the complete stroke.
C both valves are open in the last part of the stroke.
D the intake valve is open in the first part of the stroke, then both valves are closed.
The purpose of the venturi in a carburettor is to:
A prevent enrichment of the mixture due to high air velocity through the carburettor.
B create the suction necessary to cause fuel to flow through the carburettor main jets.
C create a rise in pressure at the throat before the mixture enters the induction system.
D ensure complete atomisation of the fuel before entering the injection system.
In order to get the optimum efficiency of a piston engine, the positions of the intake and exhaust valve
just after the power stroke are:
A both valves closed
B intake valve closed and exhaust valve open
C both valves open
D exhaust valve closed and intake valve open
Select the incorrect statement with regard to pre-ignition.
A It occurs when local hot spots in the cylinder ignite the fuel-air mixture before the spark plug has
fired
B It can be associated with engine run-on.
C It is most likely encountered when the cylinders are excessively hot or contaminated by deposits
of carbon.
D It is less likely with RPM increase.

The purpose of the barometric correction in a carburettor is to:
A maintain the correct weight fuel-to-air ratio when the altitude increases
B increase the fuel-to-air mass ratio when altitude increases
C maintain a constant fuel flow irrespective of the altitude
D reduce the fuel-to-air mass ratio when altitude increases
The thermal efficiency of a diesel engine is higher than that of a petrol engine because:
A the EGT is higher.
B the air mass flow through the engine is higher.
C the calorific value of the fuel is higher.
D the compression ratio is much higher.
In a wet sump lubrication system, the oil supply is kept in the:
A engine and tank.
B sump and tank.
C engine and sump.
D tank and oil cooler.
If the turbocharger waste gate is completely closed:
A all the exhaust gases are directed through the turbine.
B the turbo/supercharger is in the OFF position.
C the manifold pressure will be lower than normal.
D none of the exhaust gases are directed through the turbine.
An EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) indicator for a piston engine is used to:
A control the carburettor inlet air flow.
B assist the pilot to set the correct mixture.
C control the fuel temperature.
D control the cylinder head temperature.

The application of the carburettor heating reduces:
A the density of the air entering the carburettor, thus enriching the mixture.
B the volume of air entering the carburettor, thus enriching the mixture.
C the volume of air entering the carburettor, thus leaning the mixture.
D the density of the air entering the carburettor, thus leaning the mixture.
The richness of a fuel/air mixture ratio is the:
A mass of fuel relative to the volume of air.
B volume of fuel relative to the volume of air.
C real mixture ratio relative to the theoretical ratio.
D volume of fuel relative to the mass of the volume of air.
The function of the propeller drive gearbox is to cause the propeller to rotate at an RPM:
A less than engine RPM.
B the same as engine RPM.
C greater than engine RPM.
D which varies in its ratio with engine RPM.
The kind of compressor normally used as a supercharger is:
A a hybrid compressor.
B a piston compressor.
C an axial compressor.
D a radial compressor.
What is the total volume in the cylinder of a four stroke engine?
A Swept volume plus clearance volume.
B A value equal to the cubic capacity.
C Swept volume minus clearance volume.
D Volume between TDC and BDC.

Excessive pressure in the cylinders of an engine equipped with a constant speed propeller, can be
caused by the combination of:
A low manifold pressure and low RPM.
B high manifold pressure and low RPM.
C high manifold pressure and high RPM.
D low manifold pressure and high RPM.
For take-off, the correct combination of propeller pitch and propeller lever position at brake release is:
___ propeller pitch and ___ propeller lever position.
A High; aft
B Low; forward
C Low; aft
D High; forward
Volumetric efficiency is:
A the amount of charge induced into a cylinder compared with that which would fill the swept
volume.
B IHP - FHP.
C swept volume + unswept volume divided by the swept volume.
D the thermal conversion factors concerning swept volume.
A propeller is said to be "double-acting" when it:
A uses oil pressure to move the blade towards fine and coarse pitch angles.
B uses a spring to move the propeller blade toward coarse pitch angle.
C employs an electrically driven booster pump to move the blades in both directions.
D uses a spring to move the propeller blade toward fine pitch angle.
The blade angle of a propeller is the angle between the:
A reference chord line and the propeller axis of rotation.
B reference chord line and the propeller plane of rotation.
C reference chord line and the relative airflow.
D plane of rotation and the relative airflow.

The conditions which can cause detonation are:
A low manifold pressure and high fuel flow.
B low manifold pressure and high revolutions per minute.
C high manifold pressure and low revolutions per minute.
D high manifold pressure and high revolutions per minute.
When TAS increases, the blade angle of a constant speed propeller will (RPM and throttle levers are not
moved):
A first reduce and after a short time increase to its previous value.
B decrease.
C increase.
D stay constant.
A cylinder head temperature gauge measures:
A the temperature of the two cylinders furthest away from each other divided by two.
B the temperature of the coolest cylinder.
C the temperature of the hottest cylinder.
D the temperature of all the cylinders and gives an average reading.
On the diagram showing the power output of a piston engine as a function of mixture ratio, the leanest
mixture is shown at...
A point 5.
B point 4.
C point 3.
D point 1.
Air flowing through a venturi of a carburettor causes:
A a decrease in pressure at the throat.
B an increase in pressure at the throat.
C a reduction of air velocity at the throat.
D an increase in velocity and pressure.
The valves are held shut by:
A the rocker arms.
B the pushrods.
C the valve springs.
D the tappets.
Two of the forces acting on a propeller are ATM and CTM. Which one tends to turn the propeller blade
in which direction?
A CTM to fine, ATM to coarse.
B ATM to coarse, CTM to coarse.
C CTM to coarse, ATM to fine.
D ATM to fine, CTM to fine.
The auxiliary fuel pumps installed on single-engine low-wing aeroplanes are typically used:
1) during take-off.
2) during cruise.
3) during landing.
4) in emergency situations.
5) in case of a suspected vapour lock.
6) in case of failure of the engine fuel pump.
A 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
B 1, 3, 4, 5, 6.
C 1, 3, 4, 5
D 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
If a fuel sample is cloudy and clears slowly from the top it is an indication of:
A air in the fuel.
B cold soaked fuel.
C water in the fuel.
D wax in the fuel.
The crankcase is the component which:
A converts reciprocating motion into rotary motion.
B operates within the float chamber.
C provides a mounting point for most of the engine components and in which are the main
rotating assemblies located.
D provides a mounting for an oil cooler.

For the fuel system depicted in the annex, evaluate the following statements:
If all the AC pumps are switched off, it is still possible to feed both engines from the main tanks.
The DC pump can be used to feed the left engine only.
A 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect
B 1 and 2 are both incorrect
C 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct
D 1 and 2 are both correct

Excessive priming of a piston engine should be avoided because:
1) it drains the carburettor float chamber.
2) the risk of engine fire.
3) the risk of flooding the engine.
4) it fouls the spark plugs.
A 1, 2, 3
B 1, 2, 4
C 2, 3, 4.
D 1, 3, 4
In a piston engine the manifold pressure:
A is unaffected by throttle position.
B increases as the throttle is opened.
C is affected only by altitude.
D decreases as the throttle is opened.
When leaning the mixture for the most economic cruise fuel flow, excessive leaning will cause:
A high manifold pressure.
B high cylinder head temperature.
C high engine RPM.
D low cylinder head temperature.
The camshaft of a piston engine rotates at:
A Twice the speed of the crankshaft.
B Half the speed of the crankshaft.
C The same speed as the crankshaft.
D Four times the speed of the crankshaft.

Which statement is correct regarding operation of a Diesel engine?
A During the power stroke, the exhaust valve is open.
B The inlet valve shuts before the fuel is injected.
C The fuel starts to burn only after the piston has passed the TDC.
D Engine power output can be increased by closing the throttle.
A high cylinder head temperature (CHT) typically indicates:
A excessively high oil pressure.
B excessively rich mixture.
C incorrectly set propeller pitch.
D excessively lean mixture.
A fuel strainer, when fitted to a carburettor will be positioned:
A between the needle valve and the metering jet.
B upstream of the needle valve.
C downstream of the discharge nozzle.
D between the metering jet and the discharge nozzle.
The purpose of the feathering stop on a variable pitch propeller is to:
A prevent the propeller from feathering above a set RPM.
B allow the blades to be feathered when ground running.
C prevent the propeller blades from moving beyond the feather position.
D allow the blades to be feathered on engine shut down.
During take-off, the angle of attack of the blades of a fixed pitch propeller, optimised for cruise condition
is:
A relatively high.
B relatively small.
C negative.
D zero.
On a normally aspirated engine, the manifold pressure gauge always indicates:
A a lower value than atmospheric pressure when the engine is running.
B a greater value than atmospheric pressure when the engine is running.
C a value equal to the atmospheric pressure when the engine is at full power on the ground.
D zero on the ground when the engine is stopped.
A piston engine may use a fuel of a different grade than the recommended:
A provided that the grade is higher.
B provided that the grade is lower.
C provided that it is an aeronautical petrol.
D never.
The dry sump oil system for a piston engine incorporates an oil tank with normally two stack pipes
installed. Where can you find those stack pipes?
A One in the top and one in the bottom of the tank.
B Both in the bottom of the tank.
C Both in the top of the tank.
D Both in the sides of the tank.
The useful work area in an ideal Otto engine indicator diagram is enclosed by the following gas state
change lines:
A 2 adiabatic and 2 isobaric lines.
B 2 adiabatic, 1 isochoric and 1 isobaric lines.
C 2 adiabatic and 2 isochoric lines.
D 2 adiabatic and 1 isothermic lines.
To adjust the mixture ratio of a piston engine when altitude increases, means to:
A decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture in order to compensate for the increasing air density.
B decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for the decreasing air density.
C increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decreasing air pressure and
density.
D increase the mixture ratio.

What are the functions of the lubricating oil in an aircraft engine?
A Lubricates, cools, cleans and prevents fatigue of parts.
B Lubricates, seals, cools, cleans and prevents corrosion.
C Lubricates and increases friction between moving parts.
D Lubricates, cools, seals and prevents internal pressure build-up.
In a four-stroke piston engine, the only driving stroke is the
A Exhaust stroke
B Power stroke
C Compression stroke
D Intake stroke
When detonation is recognised in a piston engine, the correct procedure is to:
A increase manifold pressure and fully enrich the mixture.
B increase manifold pressure and lean the mixture.
C reduce manifold pressure and lean the mixture.
D reduce manifold pressure and fully enrich the mixture.
The speed of a turbocharger is controlled by:
A waste gate position.
B propeller pitch and altitude.
C engine RPM.
D altitude only.
One of the advantages of a turbocharger is:
A that there is no torsion at the crankshaft.
B an increased propulsive efficiency.
C the power available is less affected by altitude.
D that there is no danger of detonation.

Under normal running conditions a magneto draws primary current:
A directly from the aircraft batteries.
B from the booster coil.
C from a self-contained electromagnetic induction system.
D from the aircraft batteries via an inverter.
The ignition occurs in each cylinder of a four-stroke engine (TDC = Top Dead Centre):
A behind TDC at each second crankshaft revolution.
B before TDC at each crankshaft revolution.
C before TDC at each second crankshaft revolution.
D behind TDC at each crankshaft revolution.
A turbocharger in a reciprocating engine consists of a:
A compressor and turbine on individual shafts.
B compressor and turbine mounted on a common shaft.
C compressor driving a turbine via a reduction gear.
D turbine driving a compressor via a reduction gear.
The function of an accelerator pump in the carburettor of a piston engine is to:
A maintain a constant mixture in a piston engine at low and high power settings.
B enable proper functioning of a piston engine during rapid throttle advance.
C enable engine idling.
D enable engine starting.

On the diagram showing the power output of a piston engine as a function of mixture ratio, theoretical
best economy on the rich side of the peak EGT is shown at:
A point 2
B point 4
C point 1
D point 3
As altitude increases, the mixture ratio of a piston engine should be adjusted to:
A reduce the fuel flow in order to compensate for the decreasing air density.
B reduce the fuel flow in order to compensate for the increasing air density.
C increase the mixture ratio.
D increase the fuel flow in order to compensate for the decreasing air pressure and density.
In a piston engine, what ratio would be considered as a rich mixture?
A 20:1
B 15:1
C 30:1
D 9:1
A capacitor in parallel with breaker points:
A permits arcing across the points.
B induces a very high current across the primary windings.
C induces a very high current across the secondary windings.
D induces a very high voltage across the secondary windings.
To unfeather a propeller during flight, the pilot typically has to:
A use an electric unfeathering pump.
B increase speed for aerodynamic un-feathering.
C increase speed so as to use the engine unfeathering pump.
D manually release the blade latch mechanism.
What happens to the angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller as the aircraft accelerates down the
runway during take-off roll?
A Decreases.
B Blade angle changes to compensate for forward speed.
C Increases.
D Remains the same.
The cylinder head and oil temperatures may exceed their normal operating ranges if:
A the engine is operated at a higher than normal oil pressure.
B a higher octane rating than specified for the engine is used.
C a lower octane rating than specified for the engine is used.
D the engine is operated at a too rich mixture.

The correct formula to calculate the total displacement (engine capacity) of a multi-cylinder piston
engine is the:
A piston area × piston stroke
B cylinder volume × number of cylinders
C cylinder length × cylinder diameter
D piston area × piston stroke × number of cylinders
The conditions most likely to produce the highest engine power are:
A warm and dry air at high pressure.
B cold and dry air at high pressure.
C warm and humid air at low pressure.
D cold and humid air at high pressure.
On the attached diagram showing the power output of a piston engine as a function of mixture richness,
best economy is at the point marked:
A 1.
B 2
C 4
D 3
Dual ignition provides a factor of reliability and:
A improves starting.
B improves combustion efficiency.
C saves wear caused by using one magneto constantly.
D provides more voltage.
The power of a normally aspirated piston engine decreases during a climb with a constant power lever
setting because of the decreasing:
A humidity.
B air density.
C engine temperature.
D temperature.
To maintain a constant mixture at low and high power settings in a piston engine, a carburettor is fitted
with:
A a diffuser (compensating jet).
B an accelerator pump.
C a mixture control.
D a power jet.
The main purpose of the mixture control is to:
A adjust the fuel flow to obtain the correct fuel/air ratio.
B decrease the air supplied to the engine.
C increase the oxygen supplied to the engine.
D decrease the oxygen supplied to the engine.
The safest method of priming a piston engine for starting is:
A pumping the throttle.
B injection of fuel in the cylinder intake ports.
C injection of fuel through spark plug holes.
D by turning the propeller several times with the throttle wide open.
When does the mixture get richer?
A From point 3 to point 4.
B From point 2 to point 4.
C From point 1 to point 2.
D From point 4 to point 1.
For a piston engine, the chemically correct fuel/air ratio is:
A 1:9
B 1:10
C 1:15
D 1:13
The pitch angle of a propeller is the angle between the:
A propeller reference chord line and the extremity of the propeller.
B reference chord line and the propeller plane of rotation.
C propeller reference chord line and the relative airflow.
D propeller plane of rotation and the relative airflow.

The very rapid magnetic field changes (flux changes) in the primary coil of a magneto are accomplished
by the:
A contact breaker points opening.
B rotor turning past the position of maximum flux in the armature.
C distributor arm aligning with one of the high tension segments.
D contact breaker points closing.
A piston engine compression ratio is the ratio of the:
A swept volume to the clearance volume.
B total volume to the swept volume.
C clearance volume to the swept volume.
D total volume to the clearance volume.
The best power mixture is that fuel/air ratio at which:
A a given power can be obtained with the highest manifold pressure or throttle setting.
B climbs or descents can be made without adjusting the mixture control.
C the most power can be obtained for any given throttle setting.
D cylinder head temperatures are the coolest.
In a piston engine if the ratio of air to fuel is approximately 9:1, the mixture is:
A weak.
B rich.
C normal.
D too weak to support combustion.
Consider magnetic ignition. A low tension booster coil supplies (1) current directly to the (2).
A (1) high-voltage, (2) secondary circuit
B (1) high-voltage, (2) Distributor
C (1) high-voltage, (2) spark plugs
D (1) low-voltage, (2) primary circuit

The use of too low an octane fuel may cause:
A a cooling effect on cylinders.
B higher manifold pressure.
C vapour locking.
D detonation.
What is the best method to stop a running engine if the magneto switch ground wire becomes
disconnected?
A No special method is required, if the wire becomes disconnected the engine will stop.
B Shut off the fuel supply.
C Lean out mixture until engine backfires and stops.
D Feather the propeller.
The function of the primer pump in a reciprocating engine is to:
A inject additional fuel during engine acceleration.
B serve as main supply pump in a fuel injection system.
C serve as an alternate pump in case of engine driven pump failure.
D provide additional fuel for engine start.
A mixture setting richer than best power has to be used during climb segments. This results in a:
A higher torque.
B higher efficiency.
C lower cylinder head temperature.
D significant reduction of power.
What is the principle advantage of using propeller reduction gears?
A To enable the engine RPM to be increased with an accompanying increase in power and allow
the propeller to remain at a lower, more efficient RPM.
B The diameter and blade area of the propeller can be increased.
C To enable the engine RPM to be increased with an accompanying increase in propeller RPM.
D To enable the propeller RPM to be increased without accompanying increase in engine RPM.
When performing a magneto ground check on an engine, correct operation is indicated by:
A a decrease in manifold pressure.
B no drop in RPM.
C a slight drop in RPM.
D an increase in RPM.
Spark timing is related to engine speed in the way that the:
A faster the engine functions, the more the spark is advanced.
B faster the engine functions, the further past TDC the spark occurs.
C faster the engine functions, the more retarded the spark is.
D slower the engine functions, the more the spark is advanced.
The power output of a diesel engine without a turbo charger is regulated by:
A fuel flow only.
B mixture.
C airflow only.
D fuel flow and airflow.
Valve overlap occurs between:
A compression and power stroke.
B induction and compression stroke.
C exhaust and power stroke.
D exhaust and induction stroke.
The purpose of the vents in oil tanks is primarily to:
A prevent excessive pressure from building up in tank.
B allow for expansion of hot oil.
C prevent overthrow.
D eliminate foaming.
In a reciprocating four-stroke engine, the only "driving" stroke is the:
A exhaust stroke.
B power stroke.
C compression stroke.
D induction stroke.
The operating principle of float-type carburettors is based on the:
A increase in air velocity in the throat of a venturi causing an increase in air pressure.
B measurement of the fuel flow into the induction system.
C difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet.
D automatic metering of air at the venturi as the aircraft gains altitude.
The air space in the top of the oil tank of a dry sump lubrication system is for:
A expansion and foaming.
B inverted flight.
C separation of water vapour from the oil.
D topping up.
If the manifold pressure is increased, the blade angle of a constant speed propeller will:
A increase.
B increase and after a short time will reduce.
C remain the same.
D reduce so that the engine RPM can increase
Vapour lock is:
A the effect of water vapour bubbles in the induction manifold caused by condensation.
B the exhaust gas obstruction caused by an engine overheating.
C a blockage in a fuel feed line caused by a fuel vapour bubble.
D the abnormal mixture enrichment caused by a greater gasoline vaporisation in the carburettor.
If an aeroplane is equipped with a manual feathering system, a pilot can actuate the feathering system
by:
A pulling the propeller control lever rearwards.
B pushing the propeller control lever forwards.
C pushing the power lever forwards.
D pulling the power lever rearwards.
The lubricating system of an air cooled piston engine is used to:
A reduce internal friction and provide cooling.
B operate constant speed propellers.
C keep the engine warm.
D to operate the fuel control unit.
The first indication of carburettor icing during cruise, in aeroplanes equipped with constant speed
propellers, would most likely be a:
A decrease in manifold pressure.
B decrease in RPM.
C rough running engine followed by loss in RPM.
D rough running engine followed by an increase in manifold pressure.
What may happen during a continuous climb with a mixture setting fully rich?
A Fouling of spark plugs.
B Increase of the power available.
C The engine will overheat.
D The engine will operate smoother even though fuel consumption is increased.
The main function of a carburettor in a piston engine is to:
A control the amount of air entering the air-scoop.
B prevent vapor lock.
C prevent detonation.
D supply a correct fuel-air mixture at all speeds.

When applying precautionary carburettor heating on a reciprocating engine with a constant speed
propeller:
A the mixture becomes leaner.
B the RPM remains constant.
C the RPM decreases.
D the RPM increases.
On an air-cooled reciprocating engine the cooling airflow is provided by:
A a pneumatic system.
B a supercharger.
C ram air.
D a turbocharger.
The ignition timing of a piston engine needs to be advanced:
A at high RPM because flame rate and time for complete combustion remain constant.
B at low RPM because otherwise the engine could run backwards.
C at low RPM because the flame rate increases and the time for complete combustion decreases.
D at high RPM because flame rate reduces due to the selection of a rich mixture.
The presence of carburettor ice in an airplane equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verified by
applying carburettor heat and noting:
A a decrease in RPM and then constant RPM.
B an increase in RPM and then a gradual decrease in RPM.
C a decrease in RPM, followed by an increase in RPM.
D an immediate increase in RPM with no further change in RPM.
In addition to the fire hazard introduced, excessive priming should be avoided because:
A it drains the carburettor float chamber.
B the gasoline dilutes the oil and necessitates changing oil.
C it washes off the lubricant from the cylinder walls.
D it fouls the spark plugs.

Apart from flight into known icing conditions, the intake system of a diesel engine:
A needs to be heated to prevent ice on the air filter.
B is never heated because diesel engines operate at very high temperatures.
C is never heated because a diesel engine is an injection engine.
D needs to be heated at low power settings, due to vaporisation heat.
As manifold pressure increases in a reciprocating engine the:
A volume of air in the cylinder decreases.
B volume of air in the cylinder increases.
C weight of the fuel/air charge decreases.
D density of air in the cylinder increases.
Fixed pitch propellers are usually designed for maximum efficiency at:
A full throttle.
B idling.
C take-off.
D cruising speed.
The mechanism to change the propeller blade angle of a small piston engine aeroplane in flight is
operated:
A manually by the pilot.
B by aerodynamic forces.
C hydraulically by engine oil.
D hydraulically by hydraulic fluid.
Which of the following is used for monitoring the cylinder head temperature?
A A radiation pyrometer
B A thermocouple
C A Bourdon tube
D A bimetallic strip
The torque of an aeroplane engine can be measured at the:
A gear box which is located between the engine and the propeller.
B camshaft.
C accessory gear box.
D propeller blades.
When the pilot moves the mixture lever of a piston engine towards a lean position the:
A volume of air entering the carburettor is reduced.
B amount of fuel entering the cylinders is reduced.
C volume of air entering the carburettor is increased.
D amount of fuel entering the cylinders is increased.
The main reason for opening the cowl flaps is to control the:
A EGT (exhaust gas temperature).
B cabin temperature.
C oil temperature.
D CHT (cylinder head temperature).
An impulse magneto coupling:
A gives a retarded spark at starting.
B gives an automatic spark increase during high speed operation.
C advances ignition timing and gives a hotter spark at starting.
D reduces magneto speed during engine warm-up.
The primary purpose of a supercharger is to:
A Increase quantity of fuel at metering jet.
B Provide a richer mixture at high altitudes.
C Provide leaner mixtures at altitudes below 5 000 ft.
D Maintain power at altitude.

If the manifold pressure gauge of a piston engine shows an increase shortly after carburettor heater is
turned on, it indicates:
A that mixture was too lean.
B an overheating of cylinder walls.
C an excessive heat is being used.
D that ice was forming in the carburettor.
Which of these statements is correct regarding piston engine induction system icing?
A Ice accretion affects both fuel injection systems and engines equipped with carburettors.
B Ice on the throttle valve is usually formed in the induction system of fuel injection systems.
C Fuel ice is normally formed in the induction system of fuel injection systems.
D Induction system icing affects only engines equipped with carburettors.
Assuming the same swept volume and no turbo charger, diesel engines compared to petrol engines:
A produce a higher maximum power output.
B show a higher fuel flow at the same power output.
C produce less maximum power output.
D operate at higher exhaust gas temperatures.
When engine power is increased, the constant-speed propeller tries to function so that it will:
A increase the RPM, increase the blade angle.
B maintain the RPM, decrease the blade angle.
C increase the RPM, decrease the blade angle.
D maintain the RPM, increase the blade angle.
Vapour lock is:
A the inability of a fuel to vaporize in the nozzles.
B vaporizing of fuel prior to reaching the engine.
C vaporizing of fuel in the nozzles.
D the formation of water vapour in a fuel system.

The octane rating of a fuel characterises the:
A fuel electrical conductivity.
B quantity of heat generated by its combustion.
C fuel volatility.
D resistance to detonation.
In liquid-cooled engines, the composition by volume of the coolant mixture is:
A 30% ethylene glycol and 70% water.
B 70% ethylene glycol and 30% water.
C 60% ethylene glycol and 40% water.
D 50% ethylene glycol and 50% water.
Overheating of a piston engine is likely to result from an excessively:
A low barometric pressure.
B high barometric pressure.
C rich mixture.
D weak mixture.
An impulse coupling is installed on a magneto of a piston engine to:
A provide a stronger spark on top dead centre for engine starting.
B facilitate quick removal and installation.
C absorb starting loads.
D advance the ignition timing.
Prolonged running at low RPM may have an adverse effect on the efficiency of the:
A carburettor.
B oil pump.
C fuel filter.
D spark plugs.
In a piston engine, the purpose of an altitude mixture control is to:
A weaken the mixture strength because of reduced exhaust back pressure at altitude.
B enrich the mixture strength due to decreased air density at altitude.
C prevent a weak cut when the throttle is opened rapidly at altitude.
D correct for variations in the fuel/air ratio due to decreased air density at altitude.
Name the functions of oil in an engine.
A Lubrication, cooling, cleaning, weight saving, hydraulic operation
B Lubrication, cooling, cleaning, engine protection, hydraulic operation
C Lubrication only
D Lubrication, cooling, cleaning, engine protection
The part of a piston engine that transforms reciprocating movement into rotary motion is called the:
A reduction gear.
B camshaft.
C crankshaft.
D piston.
The purpose of an impulse coupling used on a magneto of a piston engine is to:
A provide a retarded spark for engine starting.
B advance ignition timing.
C provide an advanced spark for engine starting.
D increase the power and give a hotter spark for engine starting.
Spark plug fouling is more likely to happen if:
A power is increased too abruptly.
B the aircraft cruises at low speed with the correct mixture.
C the aircraft descends for a prolonged time at idle power.
D the engine runs at maximum continuous power for too long.

In a piston engine, magnetos are used to produce the spark which ignites the fuel/air mixture. The
operating principle of magnetos consists of:
A obtaining a high amperage, low voltage current in order to generate the spark.
B accumulating in a capacitor a low voltage current from the battery and inducing it as a high
voltage current at the moment the spark is generated.
C breaking the primary circuit in order to induce a low amperage, high voltage current, which is
distributed to the spark plugs.
D creating a brief high intensity magnetic field that will be sent through the distributor at the
appropriate time.
The air in a piston engine supercharger enters the centrifugal compressor at:
A the eye of the impeller and leaves it almost at a tangent to the periphery.
B a tangent to the rotor and leaves via the stator.
C the diffuser and is fed to the impeller at the optimum angle of attack.
D the periphery and leaves via the eye of the impeller.
With an aircraft fitted with a fixed pitch propeller, during flight at normal cruising speed, one magneto
fails completely. This will first cause:
A the engine to overheat.
B loss of approximately 100 RPM.
C an additional load on the other magneto.
D excessive vibration.
Concerning the twisting force acting on a propeller blade:
A the centrifugal twisting force tends to increase the blade angle.
B the centrifugal twisting force tends to decrease the blade angle.
C the aerodynamic twisting force tends to decrease the blade angle.
D the aerodynamic twisting force have no effect on the blade pitch.

The "constant speed propeller" has:
A only above and below the design point a better efficiency than the fixed propeller with the
same design speed.
B in general a worse efficiency than the fixed propeller.
C only at the design speed a better efficiency than the fixed propeller.
D its best efficiency during climb.
The primary purpose of a turbocharger is to:
A reduce the fuel flow.
B provide a leaner mixture at sea level.
C provide a richer mixture at high altitudes.
D maintain power at altitude.
When in flight, a piston engine is stopped and the propeller blade pitch angle is near 90°, the propeller is
said to be:
A at zero drag.
B feathered.
C transparent.
D windmilling.
An aircraft magneto is switched off by:
A opening the primary circuit.
B grounding the primary circuit.
C grounding the secondary circuit.
D opening the secondary circuit.
Consider a fuel injection system. Which is the central point from where fuel is distributed to the
individual cylinders?
A Manifold valve
B Fuel pump selector valve
C Injection valve
D Discharge nozzle
During the compression stroke:
A the volume increases and the temperature decreases.
B the temperature remains constant and the volume decreases.
C the volume decreases and the temperature increases.
D the volume remains constant and the temperature increases.
In an air-cooled engine:
A fins increase the cylinder and head surface areas.
B air is ducted through the oil cooler first.
C the air cooler matrix is water cooled.
D the header tank is placed above the system.
In an airplane equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller the carburettor heat is selected ON. This results in:
A a reduction in RPM as a result of richer mixture.
B a leaner mixture but no change in RPM.
C a reduction in RPM as a result of leaner mixture.
D no change in mixture and no change in RPM.
In a reciprocating engine oil system, the temperature sensor detects oil temperature:
A at a point after the oil has passed through the oil cooler.
B and indicates the average oil temperature.
C immediately before the oil enters the oil cooler.
D while the oil is in the hottest area of the engine.
The ignition system generally used for small piston engine aircraft is a:
A low tension system.
B high tension system.
C high intensity system.
D battery ignition system.

To enable proper functioning of a piston engine during rapid throttle advance a carburettor can be fitted
with:
A a power jet.
B a diffuser (compensating jet).
C a mixture control.
D an accelerator pump.
If an engine detonates during climb-out, the normal corrective action would be to:
A lean the mixture.
B apply carburettor heat.
C increase the rate of climb.
D retard the throttle.
Maximum exhaust gas temperature (EGT) of a piston engine is theoretically associated with a:
A cruising mixture setting.
B mixture ratio very close to idle cut-out.
C full rich mixture setting.
D air to fuel ratio of 15:1.

On the diagram showing the power output of a piston engine as a function of mixture ratio, best
economy is shown at:
A point 1.
B point 4.
C point 3.
D point 2.
Diesel engines, compared to petrol engines have:
A a variable compression ratio.
B the same compression ratio.
C a lower compression ratio.
D a higher compression ratio.
One of the advantages of a turbocharger over a supercharger is that:
A there is no torsion at the crankshaft.
B it has a better propulsive efficiency.
C it uses the exhaust gas energy which normally would be lost.
D there is no danger of detonation.

Aircraft fuel tanks should be checked for water at least:
A immediately after every refuelling.
B during refuelling.
C before each flight.
D before the first flight of the day.
If an engine fails to stop with the magneto switch in OFF position, the cause may be:
A fouled spark plugs.
B defective condenser.
C excessive carbon formation in cylinder head.
D switch wire grounded.
In an engine fitted with a turbocharger, where is the waste gate installed?
A In parallel with the turbine.
B Down stream of the turbine.
C In the inlet manifold.
D In parallel with the compressor.
In an engine equipped with a float-type carburettor, the low temperature that causes carburettor ice is
normally the result of:
A low volatility of aviation fuel.
B freezing temperature of the air entering the carburettor.
C vaporization of fuel and expansion of the air in the carburettor.
D compression of air at the carburettor venturi.
Specific fuel consumption is defined as the:
A designed fuel consumption for a given RPM.
B maximum fuel consumption of the aircraft.
C quantity of fuel required to run the engine for one minute at maximum operating conditions.
D mass of fuel required to produce unit power for unit time.

Which of the following conditions would most likely lead to detonation?
A Improper valve grinding at overhaul.
B Use of fuel with too high octane rating.
C Use of fuel with too low octane rating.
D Improper ignition timing.
Assuming the modified Otto cycle, what is the position of the inlet and exhaust valve at the end of the
exhaust stroke?
A Both valves open.
B Inlet open and exhaust closed.
C Inlet closed and exhaust open.
D Both valves closed.
The power output of a piston engine can be calculated by:
A pressure × arm.
B torque × RPM.
C force × distance.
D work × velocity.
When starting an engine or when the engine runs at an idle RPM on ground, the mixture is:
A lean, to prevent that the engine consumes too much fuel.
B rich, because the choke valve is closed.
C rich, because carburettor heat is switched on.
D rich, to make starting possible and to cool the engine sufficiently when idling.
On a normally aspirated aero-engine fitted with a fixed pitch propeller:
A the propeller angle of attack is constant at all indicated airspeeds.
B in a descent at a fixed throttle setting manifold pressure will always remain constant.
C in level flight, manifold pressure will remain constant when the RPM is increased by opening the
throttle.
D manifold pressure decreases as the aircraft climbs at a fixed throttle setting.

The primary purpose of a supercharger is to:
A increase the velocity of the fuel/air mixture entering the cylinder.
B raise the temperature of the fuel/air mixture entering the cylinder.
C improve engine scavenging and hence power output.
D increase the mass of the fuel/air mixture entering the cylinder.
Both gas turbine and piston engines use a cycle made up of induction, compression, combustion and
exhaust phases. Which of these statements about a piston engine are correct or incorrect?
1) The process in a piston engine is continuous.
2) Theoretically the combustion occurs at constant pressure.
What is meant by a wet sump engine?
A One that carries its oil supply in an external oil tank.
B One that uses hydraulic valve lifters.
C One that carries its oil supply in the engine itself.
D One that uses water injection for detonation suppression.
The waste gate of a turbocharged engine seizes during the climb before the aircraft reaches the critical
altitude. As the aircraft continues to climb the manifold pressure would:
A decrease.
B remain constant.
C initially increase but then decrease.
D increase until critical altitude, then fall.

A spark occurs when the magneto:
A contact breakers open.
B rotor arm is trailed.
C contact breakers close.
D contact breakers are nearly closed.
An impulse coupling does not function at such speeds above those encountered in starting. Its engaging
pawls are prevented from operating at higher speeds by:
A electromagnetic induction.
B centrifugal force.
C hydraulic clutch.
D pilot operated switch.
On a four stroke reciprocating engine, the ignition in one cylinder will occur:
A Once every two crankshaft revolutions.
B Twice each crankshaft revolution.
C Four times each crankshaft revolution.
D Once each crankshaft revolution.
For a given type of oil, the oil viscosity depends on the:
A quantity of oil.
B oil temperature.
C oil pressure.
D outside pressure.
When altitude increases without adjustment of the mixture ratio, the piston engine performance is
affected because of:
A an increase of air density with a fuel flow which becomes too high.
B an increase of air density with a fuel flow which becomes too low.
C a decrease of air density with a fuel flow which becomes too low.
D a decrease of air density with a fuel flow which becomes too high.
Given the following statements about diesel engines.
1) power is regulated by the throttle valve.
2) there is no throttle valve.
3) power is set by the fuel flow.
4) thermal efficiency is lower than that for a petrol engine.
5) diesel fuel is less inflammable than petrol.
A 2, 4, 5
B 1, 2, 3
C 1, 3, 5
D 2, 3, 5.
On the diagram showing the power output of a piston engine as a function of mixture ratio, best power
is shown at...
A point 5.
B point 1.
C point 2.
D point 4.
On the diagram showing the power output of a piston engine as a function of mixture ratio, best
economy is shown at...
A point 5.
B point 4.
C point 2.
D point 1.
The power output of a piston engine without turbocharging increases with increasing altitude in
standard atmosphere at constant MAP and RPM because of the:
A leaner mixture at higher altitudes.
B lower cooling losses.
C increase of the air density behind the throttle valve.
D lower frictional losses.

On the diagram showing the power output of a piston engine as a function of mixture ratio, the richest
mixture is shown at...
A point 1.
B point 4.
C point 3.
D point 5.
A pilot usually uses the propeller auto-feather system during:
A take-off.
B landing.
C cruise.
D take-off and landing.
The power output of a normally aspirated piston engine increases with increasing altitude at constant
Manifold Absolute Pressure (MAP) and RPM because of the:
A leaner mixture at higher altitudes.
B lower friction losses.
C lower back pressure.
D lower losses during the gas change.

On four-stroke piston engines, the theoretical valve and ignition settings are readjusted in order to
increase the:
A piston displacement.
B compression ratio.
C overall efficiency.
D engine RPM.
Variations in the mixture ratios for carburettors are achieved by the adjustment of:
A fuel flow and airflow.
B fuel flow.
C fuel flow, airflow and temperature.
D airflow.
An impulse coupling is inhibited at higher than normal rotational starting speeds by:
A engine oil pressure.
B centrifugal force.
C electro-magnetic action of an operating magneto.
D a coil spring.
In very cold weather the pilot notices slightly higher than normal oil pressure on startup. This:
A is abnormal and requires the engine to be shut down.
B indicates an incorrect oil type is being used and engine should be shut down immediately.
C is abnormal, but does not require an engine shut down.
D is acceptable provided it returns to normal after startup.
In a piston engine, turbocharger boost pressure may be monitored by:
A both engine RPM readings and a manifold pressure gauge.
B both a CHT gauge and manifold pressure gauge.
C a manifold pressure gauge only.
D a cylinder head temperature gauge (CHT), a manifold pressure gauge, and engine RPM readings.
The maximum power output of an altitude boosted supercharged engine is slightly less than a normally
aspirated engine of the same power rating at sea level ISA because:
A of the power required to drive the impeller.
B the spring drive mechanism is not rated for full power.
C the charge temperature is too low.
D the throttle is not fully open.
1) The process in a piston engine is intermittent.
The crankshaft of a piston engine rotates at:
A Four times the speed of the camshaft.
B Half the speed of the camshaft.
C Twice the speed of the camshaft.
D The same speed as the camshaft.
The dry sump oil system for a piston engine incorporates an oil cooler that is fitted:
A between the oil tank and the pressure pump.
B in the return line to the oil tank after the oil has passed through the scavenge pump.
C after the oil has passed through the engine and before it enters the sump.
D after the pressure pump but before the oil passes through the engine.
The reading on the oil pressure gauge is the:

A pressure of the oil on the inlet side of the pressure pump.
B pressure in the oil tank reservoir.
C difference between the pressure pump pressure and the scavenge pump pressure.
D pressure of the oil on the outlet side of the pressure pump.
A turbocharger system in a reciprocating engine is normally driven by:
A a hydraulic motor.
B an electric motor.
C an electrically activated hydraulically powered clutch.
D the exhaust system.
With which instrument(s) do you monitor the power output of an aeroplane fitted with a fixed pitch
propeller?
A RPM and EGT indicator.
B RPM and MAP indicator.
C RPM and fuel flow indicator.
D RPM indicator.
A capacitor in parallel with breaker points:
A induces a very high current across the primary windings.
B prevents arcing across the breaker points.
C induces a very high current across the secondary windings.
D permits arcing across the breaker points
When increasing true airspeed with a constant engine RPM, the angle of attack of a fixed pitch
propeller:
A stays constant because it only varies with engine RPM.
B stays constant.
C increases.
D reduces.
Once the engine has started, ignition systems of piston engines are:
A dependent on the AC generator.
B dependent on the battery.
C independent of the electrical system of the aircraft.
D dependent on the DC generator.
The type of oil most commonly used in piston engines is:
A vegetable
B mineral
C synthetic
D castor
The working cycle of a four-stroke engine is:
A induction, compression, power, exhaust.
B induction, power, compression, exhaust.
C induction, compression, expansion, power.
D compression, induction, power, exhaust.
The purpose of a contact breaker (ignition switch) is to:
A connect the contact breaker and condenser in series with the primary coil.
B connect the battery to the magneto.
C control the primary circuit of the magneto.
D connect the secondary coil to the distributor.

On the diagram showing the power output of a piston engine as a function of mixture ratio, theoretical
best economy on the rich side of the peak EGT is shown at...
A point 5.
B point 2.
C point 4.
D point 3.
When excessively leaning the mixture for a better fuel economy, but still on the rich side of the peak
EGT, the following engine parameter(s) may exceed their normal operating ranges:
A high cylinder head and exhaust gas temperature.
B high manifold pressure.
C high engine RPM.
D low cylinder head and exhaust gas temperature.
An intercooler is sometimes fitted between supercharger and inlet manifold to:
A minimize the risk of detonation.
B reduce pre-ignition.
C increase the combustion temperature.
D reduce the mass flow through the engine.
If the magneto selector switch is set to the OFF position a piston engine continues to run normally. The
most probable cause is that:
A there are local hot points in the engine (probably due to overheating of the cylinder heads).
B there is a carbon deposit on the spark plugs electrodes.
C a wire from the magneto is in contact with a metallic part of the engine.
D the grounding wire of one of the magnetos is broken.
The purpose of a barometric capsule in a fuel/mixture system of a carburettor during a climb is to:
A reduce fuel to match air.
B reduce air to match fuel.
C increase air to match fuel.
D increase fuel to match air.
The feathering pump of a hydraulic variable-pitch propeller:
A controls the propeller, if the speed governor fails.
B is intended to control the pitch setting of the propeller during flight in order to obtain a constant
speed.
C is an electrically driven oil pump, which supplies the propeller with oil under pressure, when
the engine is shut-down.
D is driven by the engine and supplies pressure oil to the propeller in case of engine problems.
Assume an initial condition at a high cruise altitude with a constant speed propeller. What will happen if
the altitude is decreased while the throttle remains fully open and the waste gate is seized in the cruise
position?
A The blade angle may reach the full fine limit.
B The power of the engine will decrease.
C The manifold absolute pressure (MAP) value may exceed the maximum allowed value.
D The manifold absolute pressure (MAP) value will stay constant.
At constant RPM with a normally aspirated engine and a fixed pitch propeller, as altitude increases, if
the mixture is not leaned:
A the density of air entering the carburettor decreases and the fuel flow increases.
B the volume of air entering the carburettor remains constant and the fuel flow increases.
C the mixture remains constant and the fuel flow decreases.
D both the density of air entering the carburettor and the fuel flow decrease.
Viscosity is:
A the flow velocity inside the oil lines.
B the temperature dependence of an oil.
C the pressure resistance of an oil.
D the tendency of a liquid or gas to resist flow.
An excessively rich mixture can be detected by:
A white smoke from exhaust.
B black smoke from exhaust.
C a long purple flame from exhaust.
D high cylinder head temperatures.
When applying carburettor heating:
A the mixture becomes richer.
B no change occurs in the mixture ratio.
C the mixture becomes leaner.
D a decrease in RPM results from the lean mixture.
Regarding carburettor ice, state the environmental caution areas most conducive for the formation of
this type of ice.
A Temperature between +5°C and +18°C and clouds present.
B Temperature between -5°C and +18°C, visible moisture or relative humidity greater than 60%.
C Temperature less than 0°C, and clouds present.
D Temperature between +5°C and +18°C, visible moisture or relative humidity greater than 60%.
The crank assembly of a piston engine comprises the:
A Crankcase, crankshaft, pistons and connecting rods.
B Crankshaft, camshaft, valve springs.

C Crankshaft, pistons and connecting rods.
D Propeller, crankshaft, connecting rods.
When changing power on engines equipped with constant-speed propeller, engine overload is avoided
by:
A reducing the RPM before reducing the manifold pressure.
B adjusting fuel flow before the manifold pressure.
C increasing the manifold pressure before increasing the RPM.
D increasing the RPM before increasing the manifold pressure.
From the cruise, with all the parameters correctly set, if the altitude is reduced, to maintain the same
mixture the fuel flow should:
A increase or decrease, depending on the engine type.
B decrease.
C increase.
D remain the same.
The function of a diffuser (compensation jet) is to:
A enable engine starting.
B enable proper functioning of a piston engine during throttle advance.
C enable engine idling.
D maintain a constant mixture in a piston engine at low and high power settings.
How does a feathering pump work when used in conjunction with double acting propeller control units?
A It operates from engine oil pressure.
B It is a mechanical device driven by the windmilling propeller.
C It is a mechanical device driven by the engine.
D It is an electrical device and can work when the engine has stopped.
1) The process in a piston engine is continuous.
2) Theoretically the combustion occurs at constant volume.
If the ground wire between the magneto and the ignition switch becomes disconnected, the most
noticeable result will be that the engine:
A will not operate on the right magneto.
B cannot be started with the switch in the ON position.
C cannot be shut down by turning the switch to the OFF position.
D will not operate on the left magneto.
An aircraft magneto is switched off by:
1) grounding the primary circuit.
2) opening the primary circuit.
3) opening the secondary circuit.
4) grounding the secondary circuit.
A 2, 3
B 1, 3
C 1, 4.
D 2, 4
The purpose of a distributor in the ignition system of a piston engine is to distribute:
A secondary current to the condenser.
B primary current to the condenser.

C secondary current to the sparking plugs.
D primary current to the sparking plugs.
A propeller blade is twisted in order to:
A avoid the appearance of sonic phenomena.
B maintain a constant angle of attack along the blade.
C allow an increased mechanical load.
D reduce the blade tangential velocity from root to tip.
1) The process in a piston engine is intermittent.
During a climb in a standard atmosphere with constant MAP and RPM indications and at a constant
mixture setting, the power output of a piston engine:
A only stays constant if the speed control lever is pushed forward.
B stays constant.
C increases.
D decreases.
The maximum horsepower output which can be obtained from an engine when it is operated at
specified RPM and manifold pressure conditions established as safe for continuous operation is termed:
A rated power.
B critical power.
C take-off power.
D maximum power.
If the ground wire between the magnetos and the ignition switch becomes disconnected the most
noticeable result will be that:
A the engine cannot be shut down by turning the ignition switch to the "OFF" position.
B the power developed by the engine will be strongly reduced.
C the engine cannot be started with the ignition switch in the "ON" position.
D a still operating engine will shut down.
The mixture controller of a carburettor:
A alters the pressure drop at the main discharge nozzle.
B moves the butterfly valve through a separate linkage to the main throttle control.
C varies the air supply at the main discharge nozzle.
D varies the fuel supply to the main discharge nozzle.
The spark plug will produce a spark when
A The contact breaker stays open.
B The contact breaker stays closed.
C The contact breaker opens.
D The contact breaker closes.
On the diagram showing the power output of a piston engine as a function of mixture ratio, the
chemically correct mixture is shown at...
A point 2.
B point 4.
C point 3.
D points 1 & 5.
In the event of an engine failure during flight, the blades of a constant speed propeller in a single engine
aeroplane not fitted with a feathering system tend to move:
A towards the highest blade angle by the aerodynamic twisting moment.
B to a blade angle dependent on windmilling RPM.
C towards the smallest blade angle by centrifugal twisting moment and/or spring force.
D towards the highest blade angle by oil pressure created by the windmilling propeller.
The thermal efficiency of a piston engine is approximately:
A 30%.
B 75%
C 50%
D 90%
In a theoretical gas turbine cycle, combustion takes place at constant:
A volume.
B energy.
C pressure.
D temperature.
A twin-spool engine with an inlet air mass flow of 220 kg/s and a HP compressor mass flow of 220 kg/s
has a bypass ratio of:
A 10
B 0.
C 1
D 1.1
The oil system of a gas turbine engine may be fitted with magnetic plugs, or chip detectors, that:
A are fitted in the pressure line upstream of the oil filter.
B monitor oil pressure and oil temperature.
C dispense with the requirement to fit an oil filter.
D provide warning of impending failure without having to remove the filters for inspection.
The purpose of a compressor bleed valve is to prevent surging:
A with altitude.
B of the first compressor stages.
C generated by foreign object ingestion.
D at low compressor RPM.
The accessory units driven by the accessory gearbox of a turbo-jet engine are the:
1) tacho-generator N1.
2) tacho-generator N2.
3) thrust reverser pneumatic motors.
4) AC generator and its Constant Speed Unit (CSD).
5) oil pumps.
6) hydraulic pumps.
7) high pressure fuel pumps.
A 2, 4, 5, 6, 7
B 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7
C 4, 5, 6, 7
D 1, 2, 4, 5, 6
Which statement is correct for a gas turbine engine with a constant speed propeller and free power
turbine, when the power setting is increased?
1) The gas generator speed increases.
2) The EGT decreases.
The rotor blades of an axial compressor of a gas turbine engine are often mounted on a disk or drum
using a "loose fit" because this:
A limits damage to the blades due to vibration.
B limits FOD damage.
C facilitates easy assembly and removal.
D limits damage due to creep.
The fuel/oil heat exchanger in a turbine engine uses:
A hydraulic fluid and is connected to the low pressure area.
B engine oil and is connected to the low pressure area.

C engine oil and is connected to the high pressure area.
D hydraulic fluid and is connected to the high pressure area.
The term used to describe a permanent and cumulative deformation of the turbine blades in a gas
turbine engine is:
A stretch.
B twist.
C distortion.
D creep.
The use of igniters in a gas turbine engine is required:
1) throughout the operating range of the engine
2) during engine accelerations
3) for ground starts
4) for in-flight relights
5) during turbulence in flight
6) under heavy precipitation or in icing conditions
The combination which regroups all the correct statements is:
A 3
B 3, 4, 5, 6
C 2, 3, 4
D 1
The primary reason for venting an engine oil tank is to:
A prevent overflow.
B allow for expansion of hot oil.
C cool the oil.
D prevent excessive pressure in the tank.
Which of these statements about a reaction turbine are correct or incorrect?
1) The pressure drops across the nozzle guide vanes.

2) The pressure remains constant across the rotor blades.
On a FADEC gas turbine engine during normal flight, the power for the FADEC's sensors comes from:
A the APU generator.
B the aircraft battery.
C the FADEC power source(s) on the engine.
D the aircraft generator.
When a gas turbine engine accelerates from idle to take-off thrust and the compressor RPM is too high
in comparison with the air inlet velocity, this may result in:
A a compressor stall.
B supersonic airflow at the compressor blade trailing edges.
C stagnation.
D a compressor blade airflow angle of attack that is too small.
In a turbo-jet engine, the purpose of the turbine is to:
A drive the compressor by using part of the energy from the exhaust gases.
B compress the air in order to provide a better charge of the combustion chamber.
C clear the burnt gases, the expansion of which provide the thrust.
D drive devices like pumps, regulator, generator.
The thrust reversers of jet engines may use clamshell doors in order to:
A stop the flow of the exhaust gas stream.
B absorb any surge in engine thrust.
C reduce the pressure of the exhaust gas stream by diffusing it to atmosphere.
D change the direction of the exhaust gas stream.
Which of these statements about an impulse turbine are correct or incorrect?
1) The pressure remains constant across the nozzle guide vanes.

The bypass ratio:
1) is the ratio of inlet air mass flow to HP compressor mass flow.
2) can be determined from the inlet air volume flow and the HP compressor volume flow.
A turbofan engine with an inlet air mass flow of 200 kg/s and a HP compressor mass flow of 20 kg/s has
a bypass ratio of:
A 10
B 9.
C 11
D 5
The FADEC (Full Authority Digital Engine Control):
1) provides fully automatic engine starting.

2) modifies aircraft airspeed in order to allow for the lowest fuel consumption.
3) counters any yaw movement in case of engine failure.
4) provides thrust reverser control.
A 1, 4
B 2
C 1, 2, 3, 4
D 1, 2, 4
Both gas turbine and piston engines utilise a cycle of induction, compression, combustion and exhaust.
However in the gas turbine these processes are ___ and combustion occurs at ___ .
A intermittent; constant pressure
B continuous; constant pressure
C continuous; constant volume
D intermittent; constant volume
A turbofan engine with an inlet air mass flow of 1 000 kg/s and a bypass mass flow of 889 kg/s has a
bypass ratio of:
A 1.12
B 2.12
C 17.02
D 8.01
With a constant speed propeller and free turbine, the power setting is increased in flight. What has
changed after three minutes?
A The blade pitch has decreased, the free turbine speed is the same as before
B The blade pitch has increased, the speed of the free turbine is the same as before
C Blade pitch and free turbine speed have increased
D The blade pitch has not changed, the speed of the free turbine has decreased
Which parameter is indicated during APU start?
A Fault status
B Flow at air inlet

C Oil temperature
D Fuel flow
A twin-spool engine with an inlet air mass flow of 500 kg/s and a bypass mass flow of 250 kg/s has a
bypass ratio (BPR) of:
A 0
B 3
C 2
D 1.
Which of the following statements is correct about the flow in a divergent (subsonic) gas turbine engine
intake?
1) The static pressure increases in flow direction.
2) The total temperature remains constant in flow direction.
The selection of bleed air to "ON" will cause:
A an increase in exhaust temperature, gas generator speed and power.
B a decrease in gas generator RPM with no change in power or exhaust temperatures.
C a reduction of torque and gas generator RPM with an increase of exhaust temperature.
D a decrease in power and an increase in exhaust temperature.
In a gas turbine engine, the propelling jet is generated by:
A expansion of hot gases resulting in a conversion of potential energy (pressure) into kinetic
energy (velocity).
B expansion of hot gases resulting in a conversion of potential energy (pressure) into (mechanical)
work.
C compression of hot gases resulting in a conversion of potential energy (pressure) into kinetic
energy (velocity).
D compression of hot gases resulting in a conversion of kinetic energy (velocity) into (mechanical)
work.
A gas turbine engine is run at ground idle for a period of time prior to shutdown to:
A prevent seizure of the rotor blades in their seals.
B prevent vapour lock in the fuel control and/or fuel lines.
C allow the engine oil to cool.
D prevent seizure of the engine bearings.
A turbofan engine with an inlet air mass flow of 1 000 kg/s and a HP compressor mass flow of 111 kg/s
A 10.01
B 9.01
C 8.01
D 1.12
The take-off of a jet aeroplane may be performed with "reduced thrust" in order to:
A reduce maintenance costs.
B reduce the risk of engine failure during take-off.
C reduce take-off noise.
D save fuel.
A "hung start" is the failure of an engine to accelerate to its normal idle speed. It may be caused by:
A an attempt to ignite the fuel before the engine has been accelerated sufficiently by the starter.
B the starter cutting out early in the starting sequence before the engine has accelerated to the
required RPM for ignition.
C failure of the fuel to ignite in the starting sequence after the engine has been accelerated to the
required RPM by the starter.
D compressor surging.
Consider the variable-pitch propeller of a turbo-prop aircraft. During deceleration:
A with propeller windmilling, the thrust is zero and the propeller supplies engine power.
B when braking, the propeller supplies negative thrust and absorbs engine power.
C at zero power, the propeller thrust is zero and the engine power absorbed is nil.
D when feathered, the propeller produces thrust and absorbs no engine power.
The bypass ratio:
1) is the ratio of bypass air mass flow to HP compressor mass flow.
2) can be determined from the inlet air mass flow and the HP compressor mass flow.
Which of the following parameters remains constant in a divergent (subsonic) gas turbine engine
intake?
A Total temperature.
B Dynamic pressure.
C Static pressure.
D Static temperature.
Bypass turbine engines are mainly used in commercial aviation, because:
A at high subsonic airspeeds they have a better propulsive efficiency than propeller or straight
jet engines.
B they are lighter than straight jet engines.
C they produce less noise.
D twin-spool or triple-spool jet engines require a high by pass ratio.
The output of a turboprop engine is usually indicated by:
A torque.
B propeller RPM.
C SHP.
D engine RPM as a percentage.
A turbofan engine with an inlet air mass flow of 300 kg/s and a bypass mass flow of 250 kg/s has a
bypass ratio of:
A 2.2
B 5.
C 6
D 1.2
turbine, when the propeller RPM is increased?
1. The gas generator speed increases.
2. The free power turbine speed increases.

A 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect.
B 1 and 2 are both incorrect.
C 1 and 2 are both correct.
D 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct.
The blades in an axial flow compressor decrease in size from the:
A high pressure to the low pressure stages in order to allow for expansion at increased velocity.
B root to the tip in order to maintain a constant angle of attack.
C low pressure to the high pressure stages in an attempt to sustain axial velocity.
D root to the tip in order to increase tip clearance.
Ice formation on turbofan engine intakes is usually:
A prevented by using compressor bleed air.
B removed by using electrical heating.
C prevented by using turbine bleed air.
D removed by using pneumatic boots.
On the ground, the auxiliary power unit (APU) can be substituted for the following ground support
equipment:
A ground power unit.
B ground power unit, the starting system.
C ground power unit, the starting system, the air conditioning unit (cart).
D ground power unit, the air conditioning unit (cart).
In a gas turbine engine, the auxiliary gearbox is driven by...
A a shaft, via an internal gear, to the external gearbox.
B an electric motor.
C compressor bleed air.
D a ram air turbine.
A "free turbine" in a gas turbine engine is a turbine:
A in a twin-spool aircraft gas turbine driving a fan.
B that can be decoupled with a free-wheel clutch.
C that drives the high pressure compressor of a twin-spool engine.

D that does not drive a compressor.
intake?
1) The static pressure increases in flow direction.
2) The total temperature increases in flow direction.
Compressor surge during gas turbine engine acceleration is prevented by:
A outlet guide vanes.
B controlling the fuel flow (by the FCU - Fuel Control Unit).
C anti-ice bleed valves.
D variable setting type nozzle guide vanes.
2) The pressure rises across the rotor blades.
Compare the pressure ratio of a centrifugal compressor stage with the pressure ratio of an axial flow
compressor stage. A typical value of the pressure ratio of a centrifugal compressor stage is:
A 5:1
B 1.2 : 1
C 12 : 1
D 35 : 1
What is the correct sequence during the start of a turbine engine on the ground?
A Rotation, fuel, ignition.
B Starter, ignition, rotation, fuel.
C Starter, rotation, ignition, fuel.
D Rotation, ignition, fuel.
Static gas temperature decrease when flowing at a subsonic speed through a jet engine exhaust nozzle
because the:
A velocity of the gas stream decreases.
B ambient air cools the exhaust casing.
C exhaust nozzle is convergent.
D static pressure increases when passing the nozzle.
The compressor blades in a rotating gas turbine engine are held in position by:
A abradable seals and aerodynamic forces.
B the mountings and the resultant of aerodynamic and centrifugal forces.
C a centrifugal latch.
D the mountings and thermal expansion only.
Which parameter should be observed when operating the APU?
A Oil temperature
B Fault status
C MAP
D Fuel consumption
2) The pressure drops across the rotor blades.

Compressor stall in a gas turbine engine:
A only occurs during engine start-up.
B can be caused by an axial airflow velocity that is low relative to the rotor speed.
C does not occur with well-designed compressor blades.
D is unlikely to occur in a compressor with many stages.
Where is EGT typically measured?
A In the jet pipe.
B HP turbine outlet.
C Combustion chamber.
D HP compressor outlet.
In a compressor stage, if the axial air velocity increases more than the rotor blade velocity the:
A pressure ratio will be too high.
B relative air velocity becomes supersonic.
C stall margin decreases.
D stall margin increases.
A reverse thrust door warning light on the flight deck instrument panel illuminates when:
A reverse has been selected but the doors have remained locked.
B the reverser doors are locked.
C the reverser doors are unlocked.
D the reverser doors have moved to the reverse thrust position.
1) The gas generator speed remains constant.
2) The EGT increases.

A twin-spool gas turbine engine is one in which the:
A LP turbine drives both the LP compressor and the HP compressor.
B LP compressor drives the HP compressor.
C LP turbine drives the LP compressor and the HP turbine drives the HP compressor.
D turbines are free to rotate at speeds that differ from their associated compressors.
The electronic engine control of a FADEC gas turbine engine checks:
A all input and output data.
B output data only.
C input data only.
D ACTIVE CHANNEL input and output data only.
A gas turbine blade is most frequently of the:
A impulse / reaction type.
B Pelton wheel type.
C reaction type.
D impulse type.
Engine auxiliary gearboxes:
A provide the drives for a wide variety of services and may even provide for the support of the
engine in the airframe.
B always provide drives for fuel pumps, oil pumps, speed sensing and torque sensing.
C never provide a torque sensing facility.

D are driven by the output from the free power turbine.
Creep of turbine blades is caused by:
A high blade temperature whilst under centrifugal loading.
B static imbalance of the blades.
C prolonged idling at low RPM.
D bending stresses set up by gas pressure.
A twin-spool axial flow turbojet engine, when compared with a single-spool engine, is:
A heavier and has a lower power to weight ratio.
B mechanically more complicated and has an overall lower compression ratio with high turbine
inlet temperatures.
C much less fuel efficient.
D more flexible in operation, less prone to surge and with higher compression ratios has better
overall performance.
Fuel flow information for gas turbine engines is:
A measured at the outlet of the high pressure fuel pump.
B not used on aircraft.
C measured in the line between the fuel control unit and the engine burners.
D measured in the line between the booster pump and the engine.
Regarding a jet engine:
1) The maximum thrust decreases as the pressure altitude increases.
2) The specific fuel consumption decreases slightly as the pressure altitude increases at constant TAS.
The auxiliary gearbox of a turbofan engine is driven by...
A a hydraulic motor.
B the fan shaft.
C the HP shaft.
D an electric motor.
In a subsonic convergent duct the:
A velocity increases, pressure decreases and temperature decreases.
B temperature increases, velocity increases and pressure decreases.
C pressure increases, velocity decreases and temperature increases.
D pressure increases, velocity decreases and temperature decreases.
Bleeding air from the HP compressor of a turbofan, whilst maintaining thrust, increases:
A EGT and N1.
B EGT and fuel flow.
C HP compressor discharge pressure and N2.
D N2 and fuel flow.
The FADEC of a gas turbine engine normally includes:
A an overheat protection for the electronic engine control unit.
B the engine fire loops.
C an excessive fuel flow detection function.
D an engine overspeed and/or an EGT protection function.
Compare the pressure ratio of a centrifugal compressor stage with the pressure ratio of an axial flow
compressor stage. A typical value of the pressure ratio of an axial compressor stage is:
A 1.2 : 1
B 12 : 1
C 5:1
D 35 : 1
If there is a single input data failure on a FADEC gas turbine engine:
A the electronic engine control unit uses a constant data value for computation.
B the engine stops.
C the engine is set at a fail-safe thrust.
D the engine continues to operate normally.
In a single spool gas turbine engine, the compressor RPM is:
A the same as turbine RPM.
B less than turbine RPM.
C independent of turbine RPM.
D greater than turbine RPM.
intake?
1) The speed remains constant in flow direction.
2) The total pressure remains constant in flow direction.
One function of the diffuser, located between the compressor and the combustion chamber, of a gas
turbine engine is to:
A decrease total pressure of the compressed air.
B increase the flow velocity and decrease total pressure of the compressed air.
C increase the flow velocity of the compressed air.
D increase the temperature of the compressed air.

What limits the maximum temperature in a gas turbine engine?
A Temperature at the turbine.
B Temperature at the exhaust.
C Temperature entering the combustion chamber.
D Temperature in the combustion chamber.
The primary reason for a limitation being imposed on the temperature of gas flow in a gas turbine is to:
A ensure that the maximum acceptable temperature at the turbine blades is not exceeded.
B ensure that the maximum acceptable temperature within the combustion chamber is not
exceeded.
C prevent overheating and subsequent creep of the nozzle guide vanes.
D prevent damage to the jet pipe from overheating.
Where is torque measured in a turboprop engine?
A Reduction gearbox.
B At the constant speed unit oil pump.
C At the turbine.
D Accessory gearbox.
In a gas turbine engine, compressor blades, which are not rigidly fixed in position when the engine is
stationary, take up a rigid position when the engine is running due to:
A thermal expansion.
B blade creep.
C oil pressure.
D the resultant of aerodynamic and centrifugal forces.
The air flow passages between adjacent axial compressor rotor blades are divergent, but the absolute
exit velocity is higher than the absolute entry velocity of the rotor. This is because:
A it is a constant temperature process.
B part of the compressor work delivered to the air is converted into kinetic energy.
C the compressor rotational velocity slows down the air flow.
D the gas expands between the blades.

In a gas turbine engine the "creep" phenomenon is the most severe in the:
A compressor blades.
B combustor liner.
C turbine rotors.
D combustor casing.
A flat rated turbofan engine has a constant maximum rated thrust level:
A above a specific OAT.
B up to a specific OAT.
C above a specific pressure altitude.
D up to a specific pressure altitude.
A pressure relief valve in an oil system that does not seat correctly would result in:
A low oil pressure.
B high oil pressure.
C excessive oil consumption.
D low oil temperature.
One of the purposes of the bleed valves fitted to axial flow compressors is to:
A control the acceleration time of the engine.
B reduce the tendency to compressor stall.
C spill compressor air should the engine overspeed thus controlling the speed.
D enable an external air supply to spin up the compressor for engine starting.
Increasing the frequency of variations in thrust setting during normal operation is detrimental to the life
of HP turbine blades because:
A low cycle fatigue damage is more severe.
B the EGT limit would be exceeded more often.
C fatigue due to vibration is more severe.
D creep will be more severe.
1) The gas generator speed decreases.
2) The EGT remains constant.
If air is tapped from a gas turbine HP compressor (engine N2 controlled), the effect on the engine
pressure ratio (EPR) and the exhaust gas temperature (EGT) is that:
A EPR decreases and EGT remains constant.
B EPR decreases and EGT increases.
C EPR remains constant and EGT increases.
D both EPR and EGT decrease.
Using compressor bleed air to power systems:
A has no influence on aircraft performance.
B increases aircraft performance.
C is limited to the phases of take-off and landing.
D decreases aircraft performance.

1) The pressure rises across the nozzle guide vanes.
By-pass ratio in a turbine engine is the ratio of the:
A speed of the combusted air to the speed of the by-pass air.
B intake air pressure to the turbine delivery air pressure.
C tertiary air mass flow to the primary air mass flow.
D cold air mass flow to the hot air mass flow.
1) The maximum thrust increases slightly as the pressure altitude increases.
2) The specific fuel consumption decreases slightly as the pressure altitude increases at constant TAS.
Which of these statements about compressor stall in a gas turbine engine are correct or incorrect?
1) A compressor stall is most likely to occur in a compressor designed for a high pressure ratio operating
at low RPM.
2) A compressor stall is most likely to occur when the air flow stagnates in the front stages of the
compressor.
In the axial flow compressor the flow duct is tapered. Its shape is calculated so as to:
A maintain a constant axial speed in cruising flight.
B reduce the axial speed, whatever the engine rating.
C maintain a constant axial speed whatever the engine rating.
D reduce the axial speed in cruising flight.
In a free turbine engine, the energy delivered by the free turbine stages:
A is used to drive the compressor and the main rotor gearbox.
B is dependent on the rotational speed of the gas generator.
C is not connected with the rotation speed of the generator.
D is used to drive the compressor only.
Select the statement which is untrue about thrust reverse interlocks.
A There is usually only one interlock system.
B Interlocks are essential equipment because the inadvertent activation of reverse thrust could be
catastrophic.
C An aircraft usually has three interlock systems, one of which is located in the cockpit.
D Some interlock systems are operated and controlled by the engine.
The bypass ratio:
1) is the ratio of the volume of air passing through the inlet to that through the HP compressor.
2) can be determined from the inlet air mass flow and the bypass mass flow.
In a gas turbine engine, the maximum gas temperature is attained:
A within the combustion chamber.
B across the turbine.
C at the entry to the exhaust unit.
D in the cooling airflow around the flame tube.
The most important oil system instrument indication during gas turbine engine start is:
A oil quantity.
B oil filter clogged warning signal.
C oil pressure.
D oil temperature.
1) The maximum thrust remains constant as the pressure altitude increases.
2) The specific fuel consumption remains constant as the pressure altitude increases at constant TAS.
At constant fuel flow, if engine compressor air is bled off for engine anti-icing or a similar system, the
turbine temperature:
A will rise.
B will be unchanged.
C will fall.
D may rise or fall depending on which stage of the compressor is used for the bleed and the RPM
of the engine at the moment of selection.
A diffuser in a gas turbine engine is a device in which the:
A velocity rises and pressure falls.
B pressure rises at a constant velocity.
C pressure rises and velocity falls.
D velocity, pressure and temperature rise.
If an abortive start (hung start) occurs when starting a gas turbine engine, the correct action is to:
A move the thrust lever forward to increase fuel flow.
B activate both igniter systems.
C select the other igniter system.
D shut down the engine.

The purpose of the blow-in-doors at the air inlets is to:
A feed cooling air to the engine cowling.
B provide the engine with additional air at high power settings at cruising speed.
C provide the engine with additional air at high power settings and low air speeds.
D serve to increase the relative velocity at the first compressor stage.
The Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) has its own AC generator which:
A supplies the aircraft with three-phase 115 V, 400 Hz AC.
B is driven at constant speed through a Constant Speed Drive (CSD) in the same way as the main
AC generator.
C is excited by its Generator Control Unit (GCU) as soon as the APU starts up.
D must have the same characteristics as the main AC generator so that it can be easily coupled
with the latter.
intake?
1) The dynamic pressure remains constant in flow direction.
2) The static temperature remains constant in flow direction.
Jet engine total efficiency indicates the efficiency at which:
A potential energy in the jet is transformed into propulsive energy.
B chemical power in the fuel is transformed into an increase of jet kinetic energy per second.
C the increase of jet kinetic energy is transformed into propulsive energy.
D chemical power in the fuel is transformed into propulsive power (T x V).

In an engine having a free turbine:
A there is a mechanical connection between the power output shaft and the free turbine.
B there is a mechanical connection between the compressor and the propeller shaft.
C air enters via compressor inlet on the turbine.
D there is no mechanical connection between the power output shaft and the free turbine.
The most favourable conditions to apply the flexible take-off procedure are:
1) high take-off mass.
2) low take-off mass.
3) high outside temperature.
4) low outside temperature.
5) high atmospheric pressure.
6) low atmospheric pressure.
A 2, 4, 5.
B 1, 3, 5
C 2, 3, 6
D 2, 4, 6
The accessory units driven by the accessory gearbox of a turbo-jet engine are the:
1) thrust reverser pneumatic motors.
2) AC generator through its constant speed drive (CSD).
3) oil pumps.
4) hydraulic pumps.
5) high pressure fuel pumps.
A 1, 2, 3, 4
B 2, 3, 4, 5.
C 2, 3, 4
D 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
For a turbine engine, the self-sustaining speed relates to the minimum RPM at which the engine:
A is designed to IDLE after starting.
B will continue to run without further assistance.
C operates most efficiently in the cruise.
D will enable the generators to supply bus-bar voltage.
intake?
1) The static pressure remains constant in flow direction.
2) The total temperature decreases in flow direction.
The primary performance indicator (cockpit instrument) for the thrust of a turbofan engine is:
A either EPR or N1.
B either N1 or fuel flow.
C either torque or RPM.
D either N1 or N2.
Which system ensures correct functioning during the start of the engine at high altitude and in cold
temperatures?
A Continuous ignition operation.
B Two sets of igniter plugs.
C Spark of large heat intensity.
D Two independent sets of igniter systems.
For a subsonic airflow, in a divergent duct the:
A static pressure decreases, speed increases and static temperature increases.
B static pressure decreases, speed increases and static temperature decreases.
C static pressure increases, speed decreases and static temperature increases.
D static pressure increases, speed decreases and static temperature decreases.
In the alpha and beta ranges respectively the governed elements of turboprop propeller controls are as
follows:
A fuel flow and pitch.
B propeller RPM and engine RPM.
C engine RPM and fuel flow.
D reverse thrust and blade angle.

What is true about a compressor stage in a turbine engine?
A Velocity decreases and pressure increases.
B Velocity and pressure, both decrease.
C Velocity increases and pressure decreases.
D Velocity and pressure, both increase.
One of the advantages of annular combustion chamber over a multiple can is that:
A only one igniter is required.
B the thermal load distribution on the HP turbine is more favourable.
C engine length is shorter because no diffuser is required.
D assembly and disassembly is easier.
The most unfavourable conditions for adequate inlet air flow of a turbofan engine are:
A maximum take-off thrust, zero forward speed and strong crosswind conditions.
B maximum thrust at rotation speed on the ground during take-off.
C maximum thrust during climb out with strong crosswind.
D idle thrust, zero forward speed with no wind.
1. The gas generator speed increases.
2. The free power turbine speed remains constant.
A 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct.
B 1 and 2 are both correct.
C 1 and 2 are both incorrect.
D 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect.
A twin-spool engine with a bypass mass flow of 250 kg/s and a HP compressor mass flow of 250 kg/s has
a bypass ratio of:
A 0.5
B 2
C 0
D 1.
1) The maximum thrust increases as the pressure altitude decreases.
2) The specific fuel consumption is proportional to pressure altitude, at constant TAS.
What are secondary air holes used for in a gas turbine combustion chamber?
A To increase power at low altitudes.
B To increase the mixture strength.
C To increase engine cooling.
D To increase mass flow at high Mach number cruise speed.
The disadvantages of axial flow compressors compared to centrifugal flow compressors are:
1) more expensive to manufacture.
2) lower airflow.
3) greater vulnerability to foreign object damage.
4) lower pressure ratio.
A 2, 3
B 2, 4
C 1, 3.
D 1, 2
What would cause an APU to automatically shut-down?
1) High oil pressure
2) Low oil pressure
3) High EGT
4) Low APU speed

5) Overspeed
6) APU fire
A 2), 3), 5), 6)
B 2), 3), 4)
C 2), 3). 4), 5), 6)
D 1), 2), 3), 4), 5), 6)
In a gas turbine engine lubrication system fitted with an oil to fuel heat exchanger the:
A fuel is heated as required whenever fuel filter clogging is detected.
B oil is cooled through thermal exchange with the fuel.
C fuel is cooled to prevent vapour locking interrupting the fuel supply to the nozzles.
D oil is heated through thermal exchange with the fuel.
In a gas turbine engine lubrication system fitted with an oil to fuel heat exchanger the:
A fuel is heated as required whenever fuel filter clogging is detected.
B oil is cooled through thermal exchange with the fuel.
C fuel is cooled to prevent vapour locking interrupting the fuel supply to the nozzles.
D oil is heated through thermal exchange with the fuel.
The function of a vibrator in some gas turbine ignition systems is to provide:
A an AC voltage in order to facilitate transformation to a higher voltage.
B a pulsating AC voltage in order to generate a more powerful spark.
C DC current if the ignition system is fed by AC voltage.
D a DC current to the transformer to facilitate the generation of a higher voltage to the igniters.
Turbine blade stages may be classed as either IMPULSE or REACTION. In an impulse turbine stage:
A the pressure remains constant across the stator blades and rises constant across the rotor
blades.
B the pressure remains constant across the stator blades and drops across the rotor blades.
C the pressure rises across the stator blades and remains constant across the rotor blades.
D the pressure drops across the stator blades and remains constant across the rotor blades.
Engine temperature limitations of a gas turbine engine are usually imposed due to temperature
limitations on the:
A compressor section.
B turbine section.
C casing of the combustion chamber.
D jet pipe.
A simple bypass engine has:
A a fan that delivers about half the engine thrust.
B a portion of air routed through the engine core and the rest goes down the bypass duct.
C none of the airflow routed through the engine core.
D all of the airflow through the engine routed through the bypass duct.
In the airflow through a single-spool axial flow turbo-jet engine, the axial velocity of the air is greatest:
A on exit from the propelling nozzle.
B as it leaves the compressor.
C within the combustion chamber.
D as it leaves the turbine.
One reason to fit a tip shroud to a turbine blade is to:
A provide a seal for the cooling airflow.
B reduce turbine temperatures.
C prevent blade creep.
D increase turbine efficiency.
The engine type represented in the drawing is a:

A twin-spool turbofan.
B single spool turbofan.
C twin-spool turbojet.
D triple-spool turbofan.
The function of the drain valve in a gas turbine combustion chamber is to:
A vent the combustion chamber after engine shutdown.
B prevent a wet start.
C remove unburned fuel from the combustion chamber.
D check whether the fuel nozzles leak fuel after engine shutdown.
In a high bypass engine exhaust, the cold flow is usually exhausted:
A separately.
B through the air conditioning system.
C into the LP compressor inlet.
D with the hot gas flow and flows through a mixer unit.
The function of the swirl vanes round the fuel nozzles is to:
1) increase air pressure at the fuel nozzles.
2) reduce the average axial flow speed in order to stabilise the flame front.
3) generate a swirl of incoming air to enhance mixing of the fuel with air.
A 2, 3.
B 1, 3
C 1, 2, 3
D 1, 2
intake?
1) The dynamic pressure increases in flow direction.
2) The static temperature increases in flow direction.
With regard to a twin spool turbofan, an abortive start (hung start) will result in:
A N2 speed stabilising at a higher than normal RPM and a subsequent decrease in EGT.
B N2 speed stabilising at a lower than normal RPM and a subsequent increase in EGT.
C N2 speed stabilising at a lower than normal RPM and a subsequent decrease in EGT.
D N2 speed stabilising at a higher than normal RPM and a subsequent increase in EGT.
Calculate the engine pressure ratio (EPR) from the parameters given below:
Compressor inlet pressure: 15

Compressor outlet pressure: 40
Turbine inlet pressure: 55
Exhaust pressure: 45
A 1.1
B 3.7
C 0.3
D 3.
turbine, when the power setting is decreased?
1. The gas generator speed decreases.
2. The free power turbine speed decreases.
A 1 and 2 are both incorrect.
B 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect.
C 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct.
D 1 and 2 are both correct.
Which of the following statements regarding variable inlet guide vanes (VIGVs) and variable stator vanes
(VSVs) on a high-bypass engines is correct?
A VIGVs are located at the front of the HP compressor and, together with the VSVs, control
compressor airflow.
B VIGVs are located in the front of the fan and control both fan and compressor air flow. VSVs are
used in the compressor only and are used to increase pressure ratio.
C VIGVs prevent LP compressor stall and VSVs prevent HP compressor stall.
D If VIGVs move towards the open position, VSVs move towards the closed position.
intake?
1) The dynamic pressure increases in flow direction.
2) The static temperature decreases in flow direction.
The LP compressor of a twin-spool gas turbine engine rotates at:
A half the engine speed.
B the speed of the Low Pressure (LP) turbine.
C a constant speed.
D the speed of the High Pressure (HP) turbine.
intake?
1) The speed decreases in flow direction.
2) The total pressure remains constant in flow direction.
intake?
1) The speed decreases in flow direction.

2) The total pressure decreases in flow direction.
A turbofan engine with a bypass mass flow of 888 kg/s and a HP compressor mass flow of 111 kg/s has a
bypass ratio of:
A 7
B 1.12
C 9
D 8.
In a gas turbine engine fuel system, why is the fuel heater typically installed before the filter?
A To prevent water in the fuel freezing and blocking the filter.
B To prevent waxing.
C To help vaporization of the fuel.
D To prevent the fuel from freezing and blocking the filter.
The fuel-oil heat exchanger:
A heats the fuel only.
B cools both the oil and the fuel.
C cools the oil only.
D cools the oil and heats the fuel.
The principle of aeroplane propulsion is to generate a propelling force by:
A accelerating air or gas in order to obtain a reaction force.
B heating up air in order to obtain a reaction force.
C generating a high velocity jet pushing against the outside air.

D pressurising air or gas in order to obtain a reaction force.
Labyrinth seals in the lubrication system of a gas turbine engine are designed to provide a seal that is:
A completely tight, allowing no movement between rotating and static parts.
B not completely tight, allowing only some radial movement between rotating and static parts.
C completely tight, allowing some axial movement between rotating and static parts.
D not completely tight, allowing some movement between rotating and static parts.
The noisiest part of a turbojet engine is the:
A fan.
B HP compressor.
C jet efflux.
D LP compressor.
Some gas turbine engines have multiple stages in the HP and LP turbines:
A to facilitate balancing of the turbine assembly.
B to help stabilise the pressure between the compressor and the turbine.
C to reduce noise in the propelling nozzle.
D because one stage does not generate sufficient shaft power.
Concerning the starting procedure of a gas turbine engine:
A the higher the starter air pressure, the higher the EGT during starting.
B If the HP fuel valve is opened at a relatively high compressor rpm, this may result in a hot start.
C the selected igniters are activated before fuel is delivered to the fuel nozzles.
D If the air starter seizes, the engine can still be started by means of another air bleed source.
1) The HP spool speed increases.

The propulsive efficiency of a turbo jet is the ratio of:
A propelling nozzle thrust to energy supplied to the nozzle.
B jet pipe pressure to air intake pressure.
C nozzle gas flow to intake gas flow.
D lbs fuel burned to lbs thrust developed.
Increasing the power setting of a gas turbine engine with a constant speed propeller and free power
turbine causes:
A both HP spool speed and EGT to increase.
B HP spool speed to remain constant and EGT to increase.
C HP spool speed to increase and EGT to remain constant.
D HP spool speed to decrease and EGT to increase.
The by-pass air in a turbo fan engine has the effect of a lower specific fuel consumption by causing an
overall:
A decrease in average exhaust gas flow velocity and a higher mass flow.
B decrease in combustion chamber temperature and higher thermal efficiency.
C increase in average exhaust gas flow velocity thus increasing engine pressure ratio.
D increase in the mean jet temperature and increase in thermal efficiency.
The station numbers before and after the HP compressor are:

A 2 and 3.
B 6 and 7.
C 3 and 4.
D 5 and 6.
Specific fuel consumption for a turbo-prop engine can be expressed in kg per:
A hour per unit of shaft power.
B hour per km.
C hour per NM.
D per unit of shaft power.
The gas turbine illustrated is of the following type:

A single shaft turbine and axial compressor.
B free turbine and axial compressor.
C single shaft turbine and centrifugal compressor.
D free turbine and centrifugal compressor.
If a twin-spool gas turbine engine is controlled by a conventional N2 control system, rupture of the LP
shaft may result in:
A N1 decrease and EPR increase.
B N2 and EPR increase.
C overspeed of the LP turbine.
D N1 and N2 increase.
In a centrifugal compressor:
A the air enters the eye radially and leaves the tip tangentially.
B the air enters the eye tangentially and leaves the periphery axially.
C the air enters the impeller axially at the eye and leaves at the periphery tangentially.
D the air enters the periphery axially and leaves the eye tangentially.
Consider a flat rated twin-spool turbofan with conventional hydromechanical fuel control. When using
maximum take-off thrust at an outside air temperature OAT that is below the flat rated temperature:
A thrust depends on fuel density.

B the thrust lever is always positioned at the maximum stop for take-off.
C the thrust lever is not positioned at the maximum stop.
D thrust depends on OAT.
1) The maximum thrust decreases as the pressure altitude increases.
2) The specific fuel consumption is inversely proportional to pressure altitude, at constant TAS.
Severe compressor stall can be indicated amongst others by:
A a rise in TGT and an increase in fuel flow.
B an increase in engine pressure ratio (EPR) and a decrease in TGT and fuel flow.
C a rise in turbine gas temperature (TGT) and a change in vibration level.
D a decrease in TGT and a change in vibration level.
You can find the inlet duct between the stations:

A 2 and 2.5
B 7 and 8
C 3 and 4
D 1 and 2
An axial compressor stage is represented by:

A figure 1.
B figure 4.
C figure 3.
D figure 2.
Variable inlet guide vanes and bleed valves are fitted to:
A reschedule the fuel system or operating medium if there is a tendency for the engine to surge.
B ensure that the intake mechanism is set for efficient operation at all speeds and power settings,
to avoid surge onset.
C reduce opportunities for the engine to surge.
D none of the above.
In a compressor stage of a gas turbine engine, the sequence is:
A stator - rotor
B stator - stator - rotor
C rotor - rotor - stator
D rotor – stator
The oil supply to gas turbine engine bearings is maintained in the event of the main oil filter becoming
clogged by:
A a back-up oil system.

B the HP fuel pump.
C differential pressure opening the bypass valve of the main oil filter.
D the scavenge pumps.
a bypass ratio of:
A 12
B 15
C 11
D 10.
Ice protection for gas turbine engine intakes is typically required:
A at all times when the engine is running.
B when flying in cloud through super-cooled water droplets.
C when on the ground in temperatures greater than +10°C.
D when flying in clouds in temperatures of +15°C.
The purpose of a chip detector in the oil system of an engine/gearbox is to indicate that:
A the seals are worn.
B the piston rings are worn.
C the oil temperature is too high.
D there are metal particles in the oil.
In a jet engine the propelling nozzle:
A directs the hot gas stream onto the turbine at the optimum angle of attack.
B must be designed to obtain the correct balance of pressure and velocity to prevent flow
separation.
C reduces noise.
D decreases the velocity and increases the pressure in the jet pipe to provide greater thrust.
1) The HP spool speed decreases.
You can find the fan between the stations:
A 1 and 2
B 2.5 and 3
C 2 and 2.5
D 6 and 7
Assuming the jet pipe is not choked, the equation to calculate jet engine thrust T (with mass flow m,
airspeed VV and jet velocity VJ ) is:
A T = m × (VV + VJ)
B T = m × (VV - VJ)
C T = m × VJ
D T = m × (VJ - VV)
The volume of the scavenge pump(s) in an engine lubrication system is greater than that of the pressure
pump(s) in order to?
A Ensure that the engine sump remains dry.
B Prevent cavitation of the oil system feed-lines.
C Compensate for thermal expansion of the lubricating fluid.
D Ensure heat is dissipated more effectively.
Compressor stall is due to:
A an inadequate fuel flow.
B an excessively high axial velocity.
C an excessively high angle of attack of the rotor blades.
D an excessively low angle of attack of the rotor blades.
Select from the options below the incorrect statement.
A The main function of the exhaust section in a turboprop engine is acceleration of the exhaust
gases.
B A divergent exhaust duct reduces friction losses.
C Residual swirl of the exhaust gas is removed, among others, by the tail cone support struts.
D One purpose of the tail cone is to reduce exhaust noise.
Derated or reduced thrust take-offs save engine life primarily due to:
A reduced low cycle fatigue damage.
B reduced creep damage due to higher EGT levels during take-off.
C reduced corrosion of the HP turbine blades.
D the maximum oil temperature not being exceeded.
A torque meter is situated:
A on the auxiliary gearbox.
B between the engine and propeller.

C between the turbine and the gearbox.
D in the spinner housing.
The station numbers before and after the HP compressor are:
A 3 and 4.
B 2 and 2.5.
C 5 and 6.
D 2.5 and 3.
Inlet guide vanes are used to:
A impart an angular change to the airflow.
B speed up the airflow.
C cool the engine inlet.
D remove foreign objects.
A stage in an axial compressor:
A has a compression ratio in the order of 0.8.
B is made of ring of stator blades followed by a rotor disc.

C is made of a rotor disc followed by a ring of stator blades.
D has a compression ratio in the order of 2.1.
To provide redundancy in the ignition system of a gas turbine engine, the system:
A has exciter units equipped with internal batteries.
B is cross-connected directly between the engines.
C is equipped with two exciter units and two igniter plugs.
D operates on a continuous basis following an engine start.
exhaust phases. Which of these statements about a gas turbine are correct or incorrect?
1) The process in a gas turbine engine is continuous.
The fan stage of a turbo-fan engine is driven by:
A airflow drawn across it by the HP compressor.
B the Low Pressure (LP) turbine.
C the High Pressure (HP) compressor through reduction gearing.
D the HP turbine.
The FADEC (Full Authority Digital Engine Control) provides:

1) engine automatic shut-down if maximum N1 is exceeded.
2) engine automatic shut-down if maximum EGT is exceeded.
3) automatic thrust rating control.
4) fully automatic engine starting.
A 1, 3
B 1, 3, 4
C 3, 4.
D 2, 3, 4
The internal geometry of a turbofan intake for a subsonic commercial aeroplane is:
A divergent in order to reduce airflow velocity and increase static pressure in front of the fan.
B convergent in order to reduce airflow velocity in front of the fan.
C divergent in order to increase both airflow velocity and static pressure in front of the fan.
D convergent in order to increase airflow velocity and reduce static pressure in front of the fan.
The FADEC of a gas turbine engine consists of:
A an electronic engine control unit and its peripherals (fuel metering, actuators, electrical
wiring, sensors…).
B an electronic engine control unit and the engine display units in the cockpit.
C an electronic engine control unit only.
D all electronic engine control units installed on the aircraft.
One function of the diffuser, located between the compressor and the combustion chamber, of a gas
turbine engine is to:
A convert kinetic energy into mechanical energy.
B increase total pressure.
C increase the flow velocity of the compressed air.
D decrease the flow velocity.
intake?
1) The dynamic pressure decreases in flow direction.
2) The static temperature decreases in flow direction.
You can find the exhaust nozzle between the stations:
A 1 and 2
B 1 and 2.5
C 6 and 7
D 7 and 8
at low RPM.
2) A compressor stall is most likely to occur when the air flow stagnates in the rear stages of the
compressor.
The electronic engine control unit of a gas turbine engine FADEC uses data from:
1) aircraft systems.
2) cockpit display units.
3) its own engine sensors.
4) electronic engine control units of the other engines(s).
A 2, 3
B 1, 3.
C 1, 4
D 2, 4
After a successful start of a high bypass turbofan engine, the air starter:
A is disengaged by the coupling between engine N1 spool and starter by the use of centrifugal
forces.
B remains engaged and rotates continuously with the N2 spool.
C is disengaged by using a clutch that is controlled by the main engine control.
D is disengaged by the coupling between engine N2 spool and starter by the use of centrifugal
forces.
1) The propeller blade angle increases.
2) The free power turbine speed decreases.
A 1 and 2 are both correct.
B 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect.
C 1 and 2 are both incorrect.
If the main oil filter of a gas turbine engine becomes clogged, oil to the main bearings is still assured:
A because the oil filter bypass valve opens.
B if a higher engine RPM is selected to increase oil pressure.
C if breather pressure in the main compartments is increased to ensure positive lubrication of the
bearings.
D because fuel upstream of the oil filter will be mixed with oil to allow easier passage through the
filter.
Compressor surge may be controlled by means of:
A a variable metering orifice.
B bleed valves.
C fixed inlet guide vanes.
D a pressure drop control orifice.
You can find the combustion chamber between the stations:

A 3 and 4.
B 7 and 8.
C 2 and 3.
D 4 and 5.
Concerning the fuel system high-pressure shut-off valve (HPSOV) of a gas turbine engine:
A ignition is activated before fuel is delivered by the HPSOV to the fuel nozzles.
B the HPSOV is located between the HP fuel pump and the fuel control unit.
C the HPSOV is mounted in the wing front spar near the pylon.
D manual HPSOV control from the cockpit is not possible with FADEC equipped engines.
During take-off, the fan in a high by-pass ratio turbofan engine produces:
A the lesser part of the thrust.
B half the thrust.
C the greater part of the thrust.
D all the thrust.
The turbine in a gas turbine engine generates shaft power using:
A expansion of hot gas followed by conversion of potential energy (pressure) into (mechanical)
work.
B compression of hot gas followed by conversion of potential energy (pressure) into kinetic energy
(velocity).
C compression of hot gas followed by conversion of kinetic energy into (mechanical) work.
D expansion of hot gas followed by conversion of kinetic energy (velocity) into (mechanical)
work.
In a turbine engine, what is provided with the engine ignition in continuous ignition mode?
A Low power ignition for flameout risk situations
B High power ignition for all phases of flight
C High power ignition for the engine start sequence
D Low power ignition for engine restart in flight
One of the purposes of compressor bleed valves is to:
A decrease the airflow across the rear compressor stages, whilst that across the early stages is
increased.
B decrease the load on the compressor when the engine is approaching maximum RPM.
C limit the acceleration period of the engine.
D increase the airflow across the rear compressor stages, whilst that across the early stages is
decreased.
at high RPM.
2) A compressor stall is most likely to occur when the air flow stagnates in the rear stages of the
compressor.
A gas turbine engine turbine section may employ active clearance control:
A in order to reduce "creep" in the blades.
B in order to cool the disc.
C to provide enhanced clearances between the blade tips and the casing.
D as a method of attaching the stators and rotors to the hub of the disc.
An aircraft flying in conditions of continuous heavy rain and high ambient temperatures may require the
precautionary use of:
A airframe de-icing only.
B engine intake anti-icing only.
C both engine intake anti-icing and airframe de-icing.
D engine igniters.
In the stator of a turbine, the gas velocity "V" and static pressure "p" vary as follows:
A V decreases; p increases.
B V increases; p decreases.
C V increases; p increases.
D V decreases; p decreases.

1) The maximum thrust decreases slightly as the pressure altitude decreases.
2) The specific fuel consumption increases slightly as the pressure altitude decreases at constant TAS.
When a gas turbine engine is fitted with can-type combustion chambers:
A each chamber is fitted with two igniters.
B each chamber has its own igniter.
C a total of only two igniters are usually fitted since the chambers are inter-connected.
D each chamber is fitted with one igniter and one glow plug.
How is an auxiliary gearbox lubricated?
A By oil.
B By means of high-pressure fuel.
C By grease.
D Lubrication is unnecessary, but it is cooled with fan air.
When a turbo prop pneumatic de-icing system is switched on whilst at cruise:
A propeller RPM remains unchanged, turbine temperature rises and torque reduces.
B propeller RPM reduces, turbine temperature reduces and torque increases.
C propeller RPM remains unchanged, turbine temperature reduces and torque reduces.
D propeller RPM remains unchanged, turbine temperature remains unchanged and torque
remains unchanged.
The meaning of abbreviation "FADEC" on a gas turbine engine is:
A Failure Analysis / Dispatch Evaluation Computer
B Failsafe Adapter Direct Effect Computation.
C Fool Adapter Dual Electronic Computer.
D Full Authority Digital Engine Control.
In a multi-spool turbofan engine, the fan is driven by:
A all three turbines since they are on a common shaft with the compressor.
B the intermediate turbine.
C the rearmost turbine.
D the foremost turbine.
Vibration sensors are used in a gas turbine engine to indicate:
A imbalance of one or both of the spools.
B that there is too much free movement of the engine strut (pylon).
C bearing problems only.
D that tip clearance of turbine blades has decreased below a minimum value.
One of the causes of high oil temperature in a gas turbine engine at constant power setting is:
A malfunction of the heat exchanger.
B unusually high scavenge pump oil flow.
C high oil pressure.
D high outside air temperature.
In a gas turbine engine, the power changes are normally made by controlling the amount of:
A air leaving the compressor by opening or closing of bleed valves.
B air entering the compressor and fuel entering the combustion chambers.
C air entering the compressor.
D fuel supplied.
The re-light envelope defines the optimum conditions in which a turbine engine can be re-ignited
following an engine flame-out. It is based upon…
A Wind direction and humidity
B Groundspeed and RPM
C Aircraft mass and humidity
D Airspeed and altitude

1) The maximum thrust remains constant as the pressure altitude decreases.
2) The specific fuel consumption decreases slightly as the pressure altitude decreases at constant TAS.
Name the possible causes and indications of tailpipe fire.
A Fuel in the tailpipe can ignite due to fuel mis-scheduling or in strong tailwind. The turbine
temperature will increase the certification limit.
B Fuel that has puddled in the turbine casing or exhaust during start-up or shut-down may ignite.
However, the EGT remains constant.
C Fuel that has puddled in the turbine casing or exhaust during start-up or shut-down may
ignite. It can cause a well visible jet flame from the rearward side of the engine.
D Fuel that has puddled in the turbine casing or exhaust during start-up or shut-down may ignite.
An engine fire warning is triggered in the cockpit.
1) The process in a gas turbine engine is intermittent.
1) The HP spool speed decreases.
In a centrifugal compressor, air enters via the:
A eye of the impeller.
B variable IGV.
C combustion chamber.
D diffuser.
a bypass ratio of:
A 5.
B 6
C 7
D 1.2
1) The propeller blade angle remains constant.
2) The free power turbine speed decreases.
A 1 and 2 are both incorrect.
B 1 and 2 are both correct.
C 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect.
Most high-bypass turbofan engines are equipped with a cold exhaust reverser (fan reverser) only in
order to:
A reduce the risk of exhaust gas re-ingestion.

B prevent extra fuel consumption due to operation of the hot exhaust reverser (turbine reverser).
C prevent disturbance of cold exhaust reversed airflow by the hot exhaust reversed gas flow.
D save costs and mass at the expense of a reduction in available reverse thrust.
1) The maximum thrust remains constant as the pressure altitude increases.
2) The specific fuel consumption increases slightly as the pressure altitude increases at constant TAS.
When the combustion gases pass through a turbine the:
A temperature increases.
B pressure drops.
C pressure rises.
D axial velocity decreases.
You can find the high pressure (HP) turbine between the stations:
A 5 and 6.
B 4 and 5.
C 3 and 4.
D 6 and 7.
The engine pressure ratio (EPR) is the ratio of:
A total compressor inlet pressure to the total turbine outlet pressure.
B the total turbine inlet pressure to the total compressor inlet pressure.
C total compressor outlet pressure to the total turbine outlet pressure.
D the total turbine outlet pressure to the total compressor inlet pressure.
During the cycle of a gas turbine engine combustion takes place:
A continuously.
B twice per revolution.
C once per revolution.
D once per two revolutions.
The static thrust of a turbo-jet:

1) equals the product of the exhaust gas mass flow and the exhaust gas velocity.
2) is obtained by pressure of the exhaust gas on the ambient air.
3) is equivalent to zero mechanical power since the aeroplane is not moving.
4) is independent of the outside air temperature.
A 1, 2
B 4
C 2, 3
D 1, 3.
The effect of ram air on the operation of a gas turbine engine is:
A an increase in the engine rpm for take-off.
B an increase in the indicated airspeed (IAS) at which the aircraft should be flown for optimum
range.
C a lower efficiency of the engine with an increase in aircraft speed.
D an increase in the efficiency of the engine.
In which part of a gas turbine engine are high temperature requirements most critical for the materials
used?
A The turbine and exhaust nozzle.
B The combustion chamber and exhaust nozzle.
C The last part of the HP compressor and front part of the HP turbine.
D The combustion chamber and front part of the HP turbine.
A turbofan engine with a bypass mass flow of 250 kg/s and a HP compressor mass flow of 50 kg/s has a
bypass ratio of:
A 6
B 1.2
C 5.
D 4
On landing and prior to shutdown, a gas turbine engine should be run at "ground idle" for a short
period. This allows:
A the engine to be compressor washed.

B cool oil flushing of bearings, particularly those in the turbines.
C the core temperature to stabilize.
D the turbine blade temperature to reduce only.
On the ground, the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) can provide:
1) electricity.
2) air for main engine starting.
3) hydraulic pressure.
4) air for air conditioning.
A 1, 2, 4
B 1
C 1, 3, 4
D 1, 2, 3, 4
1) The process in a gas turbine engine is continuous.
Creep in a gas turbine engine is:
A the permanent increase in length of metal parts due to a combination of tensile stress and
high temperatures over a prolonged period.
B crack formation in metal parts due to cyclic mechanical loads and high temperatures.
C the elastic increase in length of metal parts due to tensile stress and high temperatures.
D expansion of metal parts due to temperature increase.
One of the functions of a gas turbine engine subsonic intake is to:
A decrease airflow velocity.
B increase airflow velocity.
C increase total pressure.
D decrease static temperature.
A twin-spool engine with an inlet air mass flow of 500 kg/s and a HP compressor mass flow of 250 kg/s
A 0
B 2
C 1.
D 3
You can find the low pressure (LP) compressor between the stations:
A 5 and 6
B 6 and 7
C 2 and 3
D 3 and 4
For a turbo fan engine, the by-pass ratio is the:
A internal airflow mass divided by the external airflow mass.
B internal airflow mass divided by the fuel flow mass.
C fuel flow mass divided by the internal airflow mass.
D external airflow mass divided by the internal airflow mass.
Fuel for gas turbine engines is usually heated in order to:
A prevent icing-up of the LP filter.

B improve the specific fuel consumption.
C improve thermal efficiency.
D improve atomisation at low temperature.
In an ignition system during a normal start of a gas turbine engine, igniter activation:
A commences upon starter motor engagement, and is deactivated at a rotor speed of

approximately 15% below idle rpm.
B should commence prior to starter motor engagement to prevent a hot start.
C should commence after fuel has entered the combustion chamber.
D should commence prior to fuel entering the combustion chamber.
The purpose of magnetic chip detectors is to:
A perform the function of a micron filter.
B remove large items of debris from the system.
C increase lubricating oil adhesion to main surfaces.
D warn of impending failure.
Exhaust gas temperature sensing is usually taken:
A between the stages of the gas generator turbine.
B at the outlet from the combustion chamber.
C between the gas generator turbine and the free power turbine.
D after the free power turbine.
Flat rated jet engines are designed to provide constant maximum take-off thrust up to a certain level of:
A engine pressure ratio.
B pressure altitude.
C ambient pressure.
D ambient temperature.
Given the following information about an aeroplane with a turbojet engine:

• mass air flow 50 kg/s
• TAS 90 m/s
• exhaust nozzle gas velocity 150 m/s
• exhaust nozzle static pressure 1 050 hPa
• ambient static pressure 1 000 hPa
• cross-sectional area of the nozzle 0.10 m2
Net engine thrust equals:
A 4 000 N.
B 2 500 N.
C 3 500 N.
D 3 000 N.
In very cold weather, a slightly higher than normal engine oil pressure during startup:
A is unacceptable and requires the engine to be shut down.
B is unacceptable but does not require the engine to be shut down.
C requires an oil change.
D is acceptable, if it decreases after startup.
1) The HP spool speed remains constant.
During the ram recovery process in a gas turbine engine subsonic intake, the:
A total pressure increases.

B flow velocity decreases.
C total temperature increases.
D static temperature decreases.
You can find the inlet duct between the stations:
A 1 and 2.
B 4 and 5.
C 7 and 8.
D 2 and 3.
A reverse thrust alert on the flight deck occurs when:
1) the reverser doors are unlocked with the reverse lever in the stowed position.
2) the reverser doors are locked with the reverse lever in the stowed position.
3) the reverser doors remain stowed with the reverse lever in the deployed position.
4) the reverser doors have moved to the reverse thrust position with the reverse lever in the deployed
position.
A 2, 3
B 1, 4
C 1, 3.
D 2, 4
In addition to providing 'customer' bleed for aeroplane systems, air may be bled from compressors of a
turbofan engine to increase stall margin:
A and prevent stall at high rotor speed.
B and recover from stall at high rotor speed.
C at low rotor speed.
D at high rotor speed.
Compare the pressure ratio of a centrifugal compressor with the pressure ratio of an axial flow
compressor. A typical value of the pressure ratio of an axial compressor is:
A 35 : 1
B 5:1
C 1.2 : 1
D 12 : 1
The design of a fan or bypass engine spinner is such that:
A rain/hail can be deflected into the engine core.
B ice protection is never required.
C damage caused by the ingestion of foreign bodies can be minimised.
D rain/hail can be deflected into the bypass duct.
One of the advantages of an annular combustion chamber is:
A that fewer igniters are required.
B a simpler assembly.
C a reduced thermal stress on the turbine.
D a higher structural strength.
One of the advantages of multiple-spool jet engine designs is that:
A a smaller air starter driving only a single spool can be used.
B a compressor stall cannot occur under any condition.
C if one spool seizes, the remaining spool(s) will continue to operate normally.
D engine length can be reduced.
A flat rated turbofan will be temperature limited if:
A ambient pressure is higher than standard sea level ambient pressure.

B OAT is higher than flat rated temperature.
C ambient pressure is lower than standard sea level ambient pressure.
D OAT is lower than flat rated temperature.
The characteristics of a centrifugal compressor are:
1) a high pressure ratio by stage.
2) a large diameter.
3) a low pressure ratio by stage.
4) a small diameter.
The combination containing all of the correct statements is:
A 1, 4
B 2, 3
C 1, 2.
D 3, 4
A modern auxiliary power unit (APU) is designed to provide power for ground starting of an engine. It
also supplies both in the air (subject of certification limitations) and on the ground:
A either air conditioning or electrical services, but never both at the same time.
B air conditioning and electrical services.
C air conditioning and thrust in the event of engine failure.
D air conditioning and electrical services (on the ground) electrical and hydraulic back-up services
(in the air).
A magnetic plug in an engine oil system can be used to:
A collect carbon found in the oil.
B collect static electricity.
C prevent metallic particles from entering the oil system.
D collect ferrous particles.
The station numbers before and after the LP turbine are:

A 4 and 5
B 6 and 7
C 3 and 4
D 1 and 2
Primary airflow is routed:
A to the oil cooler.
B to the fuel nozzle area for combustion.
C to the compressor.
D to the combustion area for cooling.
You can find the combustion chamber between the stations:

A 5 and 7
B 3 and 4
C 2.5 and 3
D 4 and 5
A turbine stage is represented by:
A figure 2.
B figure 1.
C figure 3.
D figure 4.
You can find the low pressure (LP) turbine between the stations:
A 5 and 6.
B 4 and 5.
C 2 and 3.
D 6 and 7.
Name the correct function of the main components of a turbine engine system.
A High pressure fuel pumps and a compressor increase the pressure of the air-fuel mixture for
starting.
B A combustion chamber starter and bleed air ignite the air-fuel mixture.
C A starter and igniter ignite the air-fuel mixture in the combustion system.
D A turbine compresses and ignites the air-fuel mixture in the combustion chamber.
Below its design speed an axial compressor:
A has a tendency to surge in the center stages.
B has a tendency to surge in the front stages.
C has a tendency to surge in the rear stages.
D has no tendency to surge.
at high RPM.
2) A compressor stall is most likely to occur when the air flow stagnates in the front stages of the
compressor.
The capacity of a scavenge pump in an oil system:
A is greater than the pressure pump in a wet sump system.
B is greater than the pressure pump in a dry sump system.
C is the same as the pressure pump.
D varies with fuel pressure.
Compressor surge is typically associated with:
A compressor choke, usually at low powers and flow reversal and/or with aircraft unusual
attitude situations.
B turbine overspeed which affects compressor output characteristics.
C compressor start malfunctions primarily.
D combustion chamber overpressure caused by overfuelling only.
The compressor pressure ratio of an axial flow compressor is primarily determined by the:
A rotor diameter.
B number of stages.
C compressor inlet pressure design value.
D compressor inlet temperature design value.
If a gas turbine engine fuel/oil heat exchanger is located downstream of the HP fuel pump, internal
leakage of the heat exchanger will cause the oil level to:
A rise and the fuel nozzles eventually to become clogged.

B rise.
C fall.
D fall and the oil jets eventually to become clogged.
The following problems may occur when starting a twin-spool turbofan engine:
A a hung (abortive) start with fuel flow indication zero after 'fuel-on' selection.
B no N1 rotation, although N2 may accelerate normally.
C a hung (abortive) start with no light-up indication after 'fuel-on' selection.
D no N2 rotation, although N1 may accelerate normally.
You can find the high pressure (HP) turbine between the stations:
A 6 and 7
B 2.5 and 3
C 3 and 4
D 5 and 6
Engine oil reservoirs are sometimes located at the front of the engine:
A to allow the hot oil to heat the air intake.
B because it is the most distant position from the exhaust.

C to utilise the structure necessary to contain the oil to form the engine accessory gearbox and
provide mounting points for oil and fuel pumps.
D to provide an attachment point for the mounting of the compressor and turbine bearings.
An aeroplane engine usually has two idle settings: Flight idle and ground idle, whereat flight idle is a
higher power setting. This is because…
A engine thrust needs to be readily available upon go-around.
B less fuel is consumed with flight idle, increasing endurance.
C flight idle allows for better altitude loss during descent.
D the air is less dense at altitude than on the ground.
The control of free turbine engines on turboprops, is accomplished by:
PROPELLER control lever used to select:
1) propeller RPM
2) turbine temperature
3) turbine RPM
FUEL control lever used to select:
4) propeller RPM
5) torque
6) turbine temperature
The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is:
A 1, 5, 6.
B 1, 3, 5
C 3, 4, 6
D 2, 4, 5
The reason for having a low pressure fuel-cooled oil cooler in a recirculatory type oil system is to:
A cool the oil only.
B heat the fuel only.

C cool both the oil and the fuel.
D cool the oil and heat the fuel.
The primary input signals for a hydro-mechanical gas turbine engine fuel control system include:
A N1, N2, bypass ratio, fuel shut-off, thrust lever angle.
B N2, bypass ratio, EPR, fuel shut-off, thrust lever angle.
C N2, turbine inlet temperature, fuel shut-off, generator, thrust lever angle.
D N2, compressor discharge pressure, compressor inlet temperature, fuel shut-off, thrust lever
angle.
The pressurising function of the pressurising and dump valve in a gas turbine engine fuel system is:
A to prevent overpressure at the fuel nozzles.
B to admit oil to the fuel-oil heat exchanger preventing ice crystals blocking the fuel lines.
C to prevent fuel leakage in the combustion chamber after engine shutdown.
D to admit fuel to the nozzles only if the fuel pressure is high enough for sufficient atomisation.
intake?
1) The static pressure remains constant in flow direction.
2) The total temperature remains constant in flow direction.

The thermal efficiency of a gas turbine engine will increase with a:
A increase in humidity.
B decrease in ambient air pressure.
C increase in ambient air temperature.
D decrease in ambient air temperature.
1) The maximum thrust remains constant as the pressure altitude decreases.

2) The specific fuel consumption remains constant as the pressure altitude decreases at constant TAS.
intake?
1) The speed increases in flow direction.
2) The total pressure increases in flow direction.
In a free turbine engine:
A its power output shaft may be connected to either a compressor or another turbine.
B the air enters the compressor via the turbine inlet.
C there is no mechanical connection between the compressor and the power output shaft.
D the compressor and power output shaft are mechanically connected.
For a subsonic airflow, air passing through a divergent duct:
A decreases in pressure and velocity.
B decreases in velocity and increases in pressure.
C increases in pressure and velocity.
D increases in velocity and decreases in pressure.

Turbine blade efficiency is increased by:
A the fir-tree method.
B providing air cooling.
C compressor air bleeds.
D fitting shrouds.
A turbofan engine with a bypass air mass flow of 200 kg/s and a HP compressor mass flow of 20 kg/s has
a bypass ratio of:
A 11
B 10.
C 9
D 1.1
The flexible take-off mode:
1) can be used only if the engines are new or recently overhauled.
2) reduces engine wear.
3) can be used in situations where take-off can be executed without the need for full engine power.
4) can only be used with an autothrottle.
A 2, 3.
B 1, 4
C 1, 2, 3
D 2, 3, 4
An axial compressor, when operating below its design speed, has:
A a tendency to stall in the rear stages.
B a tendency to stall in the centre stages.

C a tendency to stall in the front stages.
D no tendency to stall.
Compare the pressure ratio of a centrifugal compressor with the pressure ratio of an axial flow
compressor. A typical value of the pressure ratio of a centrifugal compressor is:
A 5:1
B 12 : 1
C 1.2 : 1
D 35 : 1
intake?
1) The dynamic pressure decreases in flow direction.
2) The static temperature increases in flow direction.
The purpose of gas turbine engine trending is:
A to enhance maintenance planning and detect anomalies.
B to obtain a timely indication when an engine requires to be shut down due to problems.
C to assess engine condition using non-destructive inspection.
D to collect metal particles from the oil system.
Exhaust noise of a jet engine can be reduced by:
A lowering the jet exhaust velocity.
B decreasing fan diameter and increasing fan rotation speed.

C increasing the jet exhaust velocity.
D lowering the engine bypass ratio and increasing exhaust gas temperature.
You can find the exhaust nozzle between the stations:
A 3 and 4.
B 1 and 2.
C 7 and 8.
D 4 and 5.
The by-pass ratio of a turbine engine is the ratio of:
A Cold stream air to that flowing through the hot core of the engine.
B Primary to secondary air.
C Exhaust gas pressure to air intake pressure.
D Primary to tertiary air.
A FADEC on a gas turbine engine:
A is a single channel system.
B is a three channel system.
C consists of two identical channels cross linked through an non engine related aircraft computer.
D is single fault tolerant.
A Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) has the following functions:
1) flow regulation (fuel, decelerations and accelerations monitoring).

2) automatic starting sequence.
3) transmissions of engine data to the pilot's instruments.
4) thrust management and protection of operation limits.
5) monitoring of the thrust reversers.
A 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
B 1, 3, 5
C 2, 4, 5
D 1, 3, 4, 5
On most high by-pass ratio (fan) engines, reverse thrust is achieved by reversing:
A only the direction of the exhaust gas flow.
B the direction of both the exhaust gas flow (hot stream) and the fan airflow (cold stream).
C the direction of rotation of the fan.
D only the direction of the fan airflow.
You can find the low pressure (LP) turbine between the stations:
A 2.5 and 3
B 6 and 7
C 2 and 2.5
D 3 and 4
When a turbo-prop aeroplane decelerates during the initial part of the landing roll, a constant speed
propeller within the beta range:
A produces negative thrust.
B produces positive thrust.
C is feathered.
D produces zero thrust.
Each stage of an axial compressor comprises:
A a row of rotor blades followed by a row of stator vanes.
B a row of rotor blades followed by a row of inlet guide vanes.
C inlet guide vanes followed by a row of rotor blades and a row of stator vanes.
D a row of inlet guide vanes followed by a row of rotor blades.
One advantage of having three instead of two spools in some high-bypass turbofan engine is that:
A there is a lower fuel consumption due to a higher overall pressure ratio.

B there is a lower fuel consumption and more thrust due to higher overall pressure ratio.
C fewer variable stator vanes and variable inlet guide vanes are required to prevent compressor
stall at high rotor speeds.
D fewer variable stator vanes and variable inlet guide vanes are required to prevent compressor
stall at low rotor speeds.
An abortive (hung) start is the term used to describe an attempt to start in which the engine:
A will not rotate.
B lights up, but fails to accelerate sufficiently.
C commences initial rotation, but fails to receive any fuel.
D fails to light up.
A hung (abortive) start of a gas turbine engine may be caused by:
A compressor surging.
B a too low pneumatic starter pressure.
C the starter cutting out early in the starting sequence before the engine has accelerated to the
required rpm for ignition.
D failure of the fuel to ignite in the starting sequence after the engine has been accelerated to the
required rpm by the starter.
You can find the low pressure (LP) compressor between the stations:
A 7 and 8
B 6 and 7
C 3 and 4
D 2.5 and 3
Consider a jet engine whose control is based on the engine pressure ratio (EPR):
1) with a constant EPR, the thrust decreases when the altitude increases.
2) with a constant EPR, the thrust is independent of the Mach number.
3) at same environmental conditions, a given EPR setting maintains the thrust irrespective of engine
wear due to ageing.
4) the EPR is determined by the total pressure difference between the turbine outlet and the
compressor inlet.
5) on take-off, in the event of icing not detected by the crew, the indicated EPR is lower than the real
EPR.
A 1, 3.
B 1, 5
C 2, 3, 4
D 3, 4, 5
The purpose of variable by-pass valves in a high bypass turbofan engine between the LP compressor and
the HP compressor is to:
A prevent fan surge at high rotor speeds (high rpm).

B prevent HPC stall during engine start.
C prevent fan stall and LP compressor stall during engine start and low rotor speeds.
D provide sufficient air to the HPC during engine start.
In a gas turbine combustion chamber:
A the gas temperature is highest at the chamber outlet.
B the gas pressure increases in an axial (downstream) direction.
C the axial velocity of the gas stream is greatest behind the swirl vanes.
D secondary air is required for cooling of the inner casing.
For a fan jet engine, the by-pass ratio is the:
A hot air mass flow divided by the fuel flow.
B fuel flow divided by hot air mass flow.
C hot air mass flow divided by the cold air mass flow.
D cold air mass flow divided by the hot air mass flow.
A hot start can be caused by…
A A late starter cutout or strong headwinds. The engine will accelerate to flight idle RPM and
turbine temperature may appear low.
B High OAT, fuel mis-scheduling or high starter RPM. The engine may spend most of time at very
high RPM, but stops accelerating, turbine temperature may appear low.
C Early starter cutout, fuel mis-scheduling or strong tailwinds. The engine may spend
considerable time at very low RPM, but should continue to accelerate. Turbine temperature may
exceed limitations.
D An early starter cutout, fuel mis-scheduling or strong tailwinds. The engine may spend
considerable time at low RPM and stop accelerating. Turbine temperature may appear high or exceed
limitations.
A turbofan engine with an inlet air mass flow of 220 kg/s and a bypass mass flow of 200 kg/s has a
bypass ratio of:
A 1.1
B 9
C 11
D 10.
What is described by the term alpha range when talking about a turboprop?
A Ground idle to maximum power.
B Ground idle to flight idle.
C Flight idle to maximum power.
D Maximum reverse to flight idle.
To achieve reverse thrust on a turbine engine with a high by-pass ratio, generally:
A the fan flow is deflected.
B the direction of rotation of the fan is reversed.
C the fan is stopped.
D the flow of hot stream air is reversed.
Which of the jet engine ratings below is not a certified rating?
A Maximum Cruise Thrust.
B Maximum Take-off Thrust.
C Maximum Continuous Thrust.
D Go-Around Thrust.
By comparison with an axial flow compressor, a centrifugal compressor is:
A fuel efficient and has higher thermal efficiencies.
B lighter and has a high power to weight ratio.
C more robust and technologically less complicated.
D more efficient and with a higher compression ratio.
An engine pressure ratio (EPR) can be defined as the ratio of:
A combustion chamber pressure to compressor inlet total pressure.

B jet pipe total pressure to compressor inlet total pressure.
C jet pipe total pressure to combustion chamber pressure.
D compressor outlet pressure to compressor inlet total pressure.
The engine type represented in the annex is:
A twin-spool turbojet.
B triple-spool turbofan.
C twin-spool turbofan.
D single-spool turbofan.
What should a pilot do when critical engine parameters (EGT, EPR) are exceeded?
A Exceeding either EGT or EPR, or both of them, has to be reported in the technical log book.
B Only exceeding the EGT has to be reported in the technical log book.
C Reporting in the technical log book is not required when critical values are only exceeded briefly.
D Only exceeding the EPR has to be reported in the technical log book.

1) The maximum thrust increases as the pressure altitude decreases.
2) The specific fuel consumption increases slightly as the pressure altitude decreases at constant TAS.
The purpose of a variable bypass valve, fitted between the LP and HP compressor of an axial flow
compressor, is to:
A enable to start the engine with an external air supply.
B prevent stall in the LP compressor.
C control the acceleration of the engine.
D prevent the engine from an overspeed.
The bypass ratio:
1) is the ratio of inlet airflow to HP compressor flow.
2) can be determined from the inlet air mass flow and the HP compressor mass flow.
The FADEC (Full Authority Digital Engine Control) can provide:

1) thrust reverser control.
2) engine operation within safe limits.
3) automatic engine starting sequence.
4) automatic thrust rating control.
A 2, 3, 4
B 2, 4
C 1, 2, 4
D 1, 2, 3, 4
A booster or LP compressor in a twin-spool turbofan:
A rotates at a rotor speed different from both fan, HP compressor and HP turbine.
B rotates at the same rotor speed as the HP compressor.
C rotates at the same rotor speed as the HP turbine.
D rotates at the same rotor speed as the fan.
The characteristics of an axial compressor are:
1) a low pressure ratio by stage.
2) a high pressure ratio by stage.
3) the possibility of compressing a large mass airflow.
4) the inability of compressing a large mass airflow.
A 1, 3.
B 2, 4
C 1, 4
D 2, 3
1) The process in a gas turbine engine is intermittent.
When the combustion gases pass through a turbine stage the:
A pressure decreases.
B temperature increases.
C temperature remains constant.
D pressure increases.
The generator of the auxiliary power unit (APU) can only be used when:
A another generator is online.
B no other power source is feeding the busbar.
C the aircraft is on the ground.
D the busbar is being fed from another source.
What is located between station 4 and 5?

A LP compressor
B HP turbine
C combustion chamber
D HP compressor
The bypass ratio:
1) is the ratio of bypass air mass flow to HP compressor mass flow.
2) can be determined from the inlet air volume flow and the HP compressor volume flow.
Concerning the flexible take-off mode, the temperature selected in the FMS is:
A lower than the ambient airfield temperature, in order to achieve an increased power setting.
B higher than the ambient airfield temperature, in order to achieve a reduced power setting.
C lower than the ambient airfield temperature, in order to achieve a reduced power setting.
D higher than the ambient airfield temperature, in order to achieve an increased power setting.
intake?
1) The speed remains constant in flow direction.
2) The total pressure decreases in flow direction.
In a fuel system, the oil to fuel heat exchanger allows:
A fuel heating as required whenever fuel filter clogging is detected.
B jet engine oil cooling through thermal exchange with fuel flowing from tanks.
C temporary (on as needed basis) fuel heating by the engine oil to prevent icing in fuel filter.
D fuel cooling so as to prevent vapour creation likely to unprime the nozzles.
Turbine blade stages may be classed as either "impulse" or "reaction". In an impulse blade section the
pressure ___ across the nozzle guide vanes and ___ across the rotor blades.
A remains constant; rises
B rises; remains constant
C remains constant; drops
D drops; remains constant
Given:
p0 = static ambient pressure
t0 = static ambient temperature
m = air mass flow
VV = True Air Speed
VJ = jet efflux (exhaust) velocity
pJ = jet efflux (exhaust) static pressure
tJ = jet efflux (exhaust) static temperature
A = exhaust cross-sectional area
The thrust T of a jet engine is:
A T = m(VV - VJ) + A(tJ - t0).
B T = m(VJ - VV) + A(tJ - t0).
C T = m(VJ - VV) + A(pJ - p0).
D T = m(VV - VJ) + A(pJ - p0).
The bypass ratio:
1) is the ratio of inlet air mass flow to exhaust air mass flow.
2) can be determined from the bypass air mass flow and the HP compressor mass flow.

1) The HP spool speed increases.
When starting the APU, which instruments should be monitored?
A N1
B APU fuel pumps
C APU bleed air
D Fault status
The Throttle Lever Angle (TLA) information of a FADEC controlled gas turbine engine is provided:
A to the hydro mechanical main engine control.
B to the electronic engine control unit by a direct electrical wiring connection.
C to a single dedicated channel of the FADEC.
D via cables and pulleys.

In addition to fire detection/protection, most auxiliary power units (APUs) have automatic controls for
starting, stopping and maintaining operation within safe limits. These controls provide correct
sequencing of the starting cycle as well as protection against:
A high TGT and loss of oil pressure only.
B high turbine gas temperature (TGT), overspeed, loss of oil pressure and high oil temperature.
C high TGT only.
D overspeed and high oil temperature only.
What is the correct sequence during the in-flight windmilling start of a turbine engine?
A Rotation, ignition, fuel.
B Ignition, rotation, fuel.
C Starter, rotation, fuel, ignition.
D Starter, rotation, ignition, fuel.
The axial compressor of a gas turbine engine usually has more stages than its driving turbine because:
A bleed air is taken from the compressor.
B the power output of a turbine stage is higher than the power consumption of a compressor
stage.
C turbine speed is much higher than compressor speed.
D the compressor consumes much more power than the turbine.
About a twin spool compressor:
A When operating at very high RPMs, the later stages within the high pressure spool will have a
large negative angle of attack.
B Both spools run at the same RPM.
C The low pressure spool runs at a lower RPM than the high pressure spool.
D The low pressure spool runs at a very high RPM, thus preventing the onset of compressor stall.
intake?
1) The static pressure decreases in flow direction.
2) The total temperature increases in flow direction.
An engine fire detection system of a large multi-engine transport aircraft typically includes:
A one warning light and one aural alert common to all engines.
B a warning light for each engine and a single aural alert common to all engines.
C both a warning light and an aural alert unique to each engine.
D a warning light common to all engines but a separate aural alert for each engine.
In order to enable a fire to be controlled as quickly as possible, the fire detectors are located in the
highest risk compartments. These compartments are:
1) the main landing gear wheel wells.
2) the fuel tanks.
3) the oil tanks.
4) the auxiliary power unit.
5) around the engines.
A 2, 5
B 2, 3
C 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
D 1, 4, 5
Explain the working principle of a gaseous fire detection system:

A A closed tube, when heated, causes the gas inside to expand and trigger an alarm via a
pressure switch.
B A closed tube, when heated, causes the gas inside to become a conductor and thereby closes an
alarm circuit.
C A closed tube consists of a gas which changes its translucence when heated. Light sensors will
sense such change in translucence and trigger an alarm.
D A closed tube, when heated, causes the gas inside to contract which causes a negative pressure
and thereby trigger an alarm via a pressure switch.
The most common extinguishing agent used in gas turbine engine fire protection system is:
A halon
B water
C powder
D CO2
The bimetal strip detectors of an engine fire detection system:
1) are arranged in series
2) are arranged in parallel
3) open during a fire
4) close during a fire
The combination containing all of the correct statements is:
A 1 and 3 only.
B 2 and 3 only.
C 1 and 4 only.
D 2 and 4 only.
Photoelectric cells:
A are carbon-monoxide detectors which are found mainly in aircraft of American manufacture.
These devices detect concentrations of CO and activate a warning system.
B are alpha-particle detectors and consist of ionisation chambers which measure alpha radiation
from radium. Alpha particles are absorbed by smoke, which reduces the ionisation current of the device,
to operate an alarm.
C are smoke detectors and detect the diffusion of a beam of light which occurs when the beam
is interrupted by smoke. The scattering of the light increases the conductance of the cell and its
output is amplified to operate a warning circuit.
D are visual smoke detectors which are only fitted as alarm verification devices.
Describe the functional principle of rain repellent liquid.
A Chemical reactions using up heat energy cool down the rain droplets and cause the formation of
ice pellets which are blown away by the airflow.
B Flooding the entire windscreen with a thin layer of liquid provides clear view even with rain
falling on it.
C Heat-releasing chemical reactions cause the water to evaporate.
D Hydrophobic chemicals prevent droplets from adhering to the window surface.
In the event of an gas turbine engine fire:
A the fuel supply is disconnected by a quick release coupling.
B an automatic shut-off valve is moved to the closed position controlled by the fire sensing
system.
C the fuel supply is isolated from the engine by pilot action.
D the fuel installation is protected by an automatic fire extinguishing system.
A flight deck indication that a fire extinguishing agent has been discharged would be?
A Horn only.
B Light and horn.
C Light only.
D Aural warning.
When a continuous loop wire type fire detection system is tested:

A a part of the wire is heated.
B the warning function is tested.
C the whole wire is heated.
D the wiring and the warning are tested.
Most modern aeroplanes have fire extinguishers in the toilet compartments which are:
A operated by a switch in the cockpit and/or a switch at each cabin attendant station.
B manually operated to release the extinguishant.
C automatic and self activated by heat.
D fully automatic and activated by smoke.
Which of the following is NOT used as a rain protection system on aircraft windshields?
A Repellent liquids
B Coating
C Wipers
D Electrical heating
Halon is used as a fire extinguishing agent because it:
A is highly volatile.
B is an electrical conductor.
C uses the cooling effect created by the venturi during discharge.
D acts as a very effective flame inhibitor.
Firewire detects a fire by:
A detecting the smoke that is produced by the fire.
B detecting the heat caused by the fire.
C detecting the flame produced by the fire.
D all of the above.
Power plant fire extinguishers are operated by:

A a mechanical link withdrawing a safety pin and allowing a spring operated plunger to rupture
the bottle seal.
B an electrically fired cartridge rupturing a seal in the head of the bottle.
C an electrically heated capsule rupturing a seal in the pipeline at the engine.
D manual remote control opening a discharge valve.
What could be a cause of a loop fault in a gas-filled fire detection system?
A Decrease in loop pressure.
B Increase in loop resistance.
C Decrease in atmospheric pressure.
D Increase in loop capacitance.
The correct statement about rain protection for cockpit windshields is that:
A the alcohol de-icing system for cockpit windows is also suitable for rain protection.
B wipers are sufficient under heavy rain conditions to provide adequate view through the cockpit
windows.
C the electric de-icing system for cockpit windows is also suitable for rain protection.
D rain repellent should never be sprayed onto the windshield unless the rainfall is very heavy.
When an engine bay fixed fire extinguisher is activated, to what location is the extinguishant directed?
A Into the combustion chambers.
B The low pressure end of the outside of the engine compressor.
C The engine intake.
D The high pressure end of the engine turbine.
Smoke detectors fitted on transport aircraft are of the following type:
A chemical
B magnetic
C optical or ionization
D electrical
Assess the statements given below regarding Halon fire extinguishers.

1. When released from a Venturi under pressure, Halon acts as a cooling agent.
2. Halon should only be used with caution, as it is highly corrosive on aluminum components.
A 1 and 2 are both correct.
B 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct.
C 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect.
D 1 and 2 are both incorrect.
An engine fire in a large transport aircraft is indicated by a:
A bell.
B visual warning only.
C aural alert only.
D visual warning and an aural alert.
Smoke detector systems are installed in the:
A wheel wells.
B engine nacelles.
C fuel tanks.
D upper cargo compartments (class E).
In transport aeroplanes overheat detection systems are typically installed in the:
A cabin.
B fuel tanks.
C landing gear bays / wheel wells.
D tires.
How is a typical gas turbine engine fire detection system tested?
A Using a pressure source.
B Using a heat source.
C There is a test circuit that carries out a continuity check.
D It cannot be checked apart from a physical wiring check.
Generally, when the fire handle of the engine fire-extinguishing system on an aeroplane is pulled, the
effects are:
1) opening of the bleed air valves and HP valves on the engine concerned.
2) arming of the extinguishing system.
3) immediate discharge of extinguishing agent.
4) deactivation of the electric generators.
A 2, 4.
B 2, 3
C 1, 3
D 1, 4
Regarding detection systems, ion detectors are used to detect:
A overtemperature and fire.
B smoke.
C overtemperature.
D fire.
When a part of a continuous loop fire detection system is heated:
1) its resistance decreases.
2) its resistance increases.
3) the leakage current increases.
4) the leakage current decreases.
A 2, 4
B 1, 3.
C 2, 3
D 1, 4
In a fire detection system with single-loop continuous components (with no fault protection), if the inner
core contacts the outer casing:
A there will be no effect on the system.
B the engine fire extinguisher striker is automatically activated.
C the fire alarm is triggered.
D the power supply is cut off automatically.
In a fire detection system with single-loop continuous components, with no fault protection, the sensing
element is crushed, but the inner core does not touch the outer casing.
A The power supply is automatically cut off.
B The fire alarm will be triggered.
C The fire extinguisher is automatically activated.
D There will be no effect.
An automatic toilet fire extinguisher is activated by:
A smoke detection.
B CO2.
C odor detection.
D heat detection.
When the fire handle of the engine fire-extinguishing system of an aircraft is pulled, the effects are:
1) closing of the LP valve of the fuel system.
2) opening of the air bleed valves and HP valves on the engine concerned.
3) setting of extinguishing systems.
4) closing of the isolation and de-icing valves.
5) isolation of the associated electric current generators.
6) immediate discharge of extinguishing agent.
A 1, 3, 4
B 1, 3, 4, 5
C 1, 2, 5, 6
D 2, 3, 4, 5
Considering CS 25, how many fire extinguisher discharger bottles are required per engine?
A 2.
B 4
C 3
D 1
How do smoke detectors operate?
A A light attenuation optical detector - light reflects towards the photosensitive cell and the
labyrinth has a shielding function.
B A labyrinth optical detector - the photosensitive cell is blocked from the light source by smoke.
C A labyrinth optical detector - light reflects towards the photosensitive cell and the labyrinth
has a shielding function.
D A light attenuation optical detector - light reflects away from the photosensitive cell.
Continuous loop fire detector systems operate on the principle that an increase in temperature
produces:
A a decrease in the reference current and an increase in the resistance
B a decrease in the reference current and a decrease in the resistance
C an increase in the reference current and a decrease in the resistance
D an increase in the reference current and an increase in the resistance
When a bimetallic strip is used as a switch in a fire detection loop, a delay is incorporated after a fire
alarm is triggered in order to:
A delay the triggering of the fire extinguishers and increase their efficiency.
B allow temperatures to equalize.
C wait for the triggering of the second fire detection loop in order to confirm the fire.
D avoid false alarms in case of vibrations.
Which statements concerning the use of halon gas in engine fire extinguishing systems are correct /
incorrect?
1) Halon gas suppresses the chemical reaction of fire.
2) Halon gas is more effective than any other type of fire extinguisher.
On an aircraft provided with resistance and capacitance variation type fire detection loops, a fire alarm
is initiated by a temperature increase detected:
A at any isolated point of the loops or else generally on all the loops.
B only in a uniform way along the loops.
C only at an isolated point of the loops.
D on at least one loop.
A fault protection circuit in a fire detection system will:
A automatically initiate APU shutdown and fire extinguisher striker activation in the event of fire.
B inhibit the fire detector when the detection line is connected to ground.
C activate the fire detection system when the detection line is connected to ground.
D activate an alarm in the cockpit and in the landing gear bay for ground crew.
What is true when a fire loop detector detects low resistance and low capacity?
A They are working normally.
B A test of the system is made.
C At least one engine is on fire.
D The loop is faulty.
A continuous loop detector system is a:
A smoke detection system.
B fire fighting system.

C overheat detection system.
D carbon dioxide warning system.
A gaseous fire loop system is tested by:
A heating up the sensor.
B checking the continuity of the system.
C checking the sensor with external pressurised gas.
D checking the wiring harness for faults but not the sensor.
When fire is detected on engine #2, the fire shutoff handle #2 is pulled and the extinguishing agent #1 is
discharged. This results in:
A the discharge of fire extinguisher bottle #1 and illumination of the DISCH indicator lamp of agent
#1 on both engines.
B the discharge of fire extinguisher bottle #2 and illumination of the DISCH indicator lamp of agent
#1 on engine #1 and agent #2 on engine #2.
C the discharge of fire extinguisher bottle #1 and illumination of the DISCH (discharge) indicator
lamp.
D the discharge of fire extinguisher bottle #2 and illumination of the DISCH indicator lamp of
agent #1 on engine #2 and DISCH indicator lamp of agent #2 on engine #1.
The opening of the doors giving access to the oxygen masks for the passengers is:
1) pneumatic for the gaseous oxygen system.
2) electrical for the chemical oxygen system.
3) pneumatic for the chemical oxygen system.
4) electrical for the gaseous oxygen system.
A 2, 3
B 2, 4
C 1, 2.
D 1, 3
Which of these statements about the oxygen system in transport aeroplanes is incorrect?
A It is possible to visually verify when the oxygen flows to a passenger mask.
B Passengers must leave the toilet(s) immediately after a decompression because oxygen
systems are not installed in toilets.
C The chemical oxygen generator incorporates a heat shield.
D A chemical oxygen generator cannot be switched off.
The oxygen masks have dropped down from the passengers service units. The oxygen flow starts:
A after the system has been switched on by a crew member.
B after pulling the oxygen mask downwards.
C only above FL200.
D immediately.
The "DILUTE" position of a cockpit oxygen mask should not be used when:
A there is smoke in the cockpit.
B the oxygen bottle is almost empty.
C chemical oxygen generators are used.
D oxygen is used in the cabin.
A diluter-demand oxygen regulator selected to 100%:
A delivers oxygen flow only above FL100.

B mixes air and oxygen in a passenger oxygen mask.
C delivers oxygen flow when inhaling.
D is only recommended for use with smoke in the cockpit.
Who are smoke hoods available to and for how long must they provide oxygen?
A The flight deck crew and must last for 20 minutes.
B The aircraft crew and must last for 20 minutes.
C The aircraft crew and must last for 15 minutes.
D Everyone on board the aircraft and last for 15 minutes.
The replenishment of an onboard oxygen bottle must be done:
A with the engine(s) off.
B with a ground power unit connected, electrical power supplied.
C with the engine(s) at idle.
D with the engine(s) on.
With regard to flight crew PBE, which of the following statements is correct?
A When flying above 32 000 ft, 100% oxygen has to be demanded manually.
B Above 32 000 ft, or when demanded manually, 100% oxygen is supplied.
C Above 32 000 ft, 100% oxygen is supplied.
D 100% oxygen is always supplied for flight crew PBE.
Which of these statements about chemical oxygen generators are correct or incorrect?
1) Chemical oxygen generators are often used to supply passenger oxygen.
2) The oxygen supply of chemical oxygen generators, once activated, cannot be switched off.
When quick donning masks are in use, the pilot is:
A only able to transmit.

B not able to do any radio communication.
C only able to receive.
D able to radiotelephone.
Concerning the oxygen system of a passenger airplane the following is true:
A After activation the chemical oxygen generator can also be turned off.
B In case of a failure of the chemical oxygen generators, the pilot can activate the gaseous oxygen
system for passengers.
C Passengers must leave the toilet(s) immediately after a decompression because oxygen systems
are not installed in toilets.
D The chemical oxygen generator incorporates a heat shield.
What is breathed in when using a passenger oxygen mask?
A Cabin air and oxygen.
B 100% oxygen.
C Cabin air and oxygen or 100% oxygen.
D A mixture of oxygen and freon gas.
When selected to normal, the oxygen/air ratio of the mixture supplied by the cockpit oxygen system
regulator:
A is constant whatever the altitude.
B increases when the altitude increases.
C is 100%.
D decreases when the altitude increases.
The passenger oxygen mask will supply:
A a mixture of oxygen and freon gas.
B 100% oxygen.
C a mixture of compressed air and oxygen or 100% oxygen.
D a mixture of cabin air and oxygen.
With regard to an oxygen system, what is the emergency selector?
A Demand-regulated 100% oxygen supply under positive pressure

B Demand-regulated 100% oxygen flow under ambient pressure
C Reduced-partial pressure oxygen supply to extend time of availability
D Continuous-flow 100% oxygen supply under positive pressure
When the oxygen system of a large aeroplane is set to the diluted mode:
A the same circuit is used by the crew and the passengers.
B the passenger circuit does not use the chemically generated oxygen.
C the cockpit crew breathes a mixture of oxygen/cabin air.
D the passengers are supplied with a mixture of oxygen and cabin air.
The chemical oxygen generator supplies oxygen for about:
A 5 minutes
B 30 minutes
C 2 hours
D 15 minutes
1) Chemical oxygen generators are often used to supply passenger oxygen.
2) The oxygen supply of chemical oxygen generators, once activated, can be switched off.
If the maximum operating pressure of the oxygen system is exceeded the:
A oxygen becomes unusable for the passengers.
B oxygen is discharged overboard via a safety plug.
C passenger oxygen masks will drop down.
D oxygen bottles will explode.
Which of these statements about the oxygen system in transport aeroplanes is correct?
A If the automatic passenger mask presentation fails, it is possible to retrieve an individual mask
by opening the mask storage compartment with a sharp pointed object.
B Chemical oxygen generators are used in the cockpit to supply the flight crew because of the low
weight of this system.
C It is not possible to visually verify when the oxygen flows to a passenger mask.
D A chemical oxygen generator can be switched off.
The installation and use of on-board oxygen generators is such that:
1) the smoking ban is imperative when used.
2) in case of accidental drop of the "continuous flow" passenger masks, no crew action is required.
3) no trace of grease must be found in the system assembly.
4) the system's filling adaptors must be greased with non-freezable or graphite grease.
The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is:
A 2, 3
B 2, 4
C 1, 3.
D 1, 4
A passenger oxygen mask is:
A an on-demand type mask and in principle should not be used if there is smoke in the cabin.
B an on-demand type mask and must be used if there is smoke in the cabin.
C a continuous flow mask and must be used if there is smoke in the cabin.
D a continuous flow mask and in principle should not be used if there is smoke in the cabin.
The built-in passenger oxygen system can be activated by:
A switching the passenger oxygen ON.
B switching the diluter-demand regulator and the passenger oxygen ON.
C switching the diluter-demand regulator ON.
D opening the oxygen-bottle valves.
A smoke hood is a device covering:
A the whole head and with a continuous oxygen flow.
B only the nose and the mouth and with a continuous oxygen flow.
C only the nose and the mouth and with an oxygen/air mix.
D the whole head and with an oxygen flow only on demand.
The advantages of a chemical oxygen source for the passenger cabin are:
1) reduced weight and volume.
2) easy storage.
3) greater autonomy.
4) less risk of explosion.
5) reversible functioning.
6) no maintenance required.
A 1, 4, 6
B 2, 3, 4, 5
C 1, 2, 3, 6
D 1, 2, 4, 6
Chemical oxygen generators are used to furnish oxygen to the:
1) cockpit.
2) cabin.
3) toilets.
4) smoke hood.
A 1, 3
B 1, 2
C 2, 3, 4
D 1, 4
In case of smoke in the cockpit, the crew oxygen regulator must be set to:
A emergency
B on demand
C 100%
D normal
A public transport aircraft is cruising at FL390. It is fitted with individual oxygen masks for the
passengers. In the event of cabin depressurization, the passenger oxygen masks must be automatically
released before the cabin pressure altitude exceeds:
A 14 000 ft
B 10 000 ft
C 15 000 ft
D 13 000 ft
The advantages of a chemical oxygen source compared with a gaseous one for the passenger cabin are:
1) easier maintenance.
2) greater capacity.
3) reduced risk of explosion.
A 1, 3
B 1, 2, 3
C 2, 3
D 1, 2
1) Chemical oxygen generators are used to supply the cockpit oxygen system.
2) The oxygen supply of chemical oxygen generators, once activated, cannot be switched off.
A smoke mask is a:
A mask with flow on request and covers only the nose and the mouth.
B continuous flow mask and covers only the nose and the mouth.
C mask with flow on request and covers the whole face.
D continuous flow mask and covers the whole face.
You can determine the amount of oxygen in a portable bottle by observing its:
A pressure.
B temperature.
C level.
D volume.
The disadvantages of a chemical oxygen source for the passenger cabin are:
1) a flow which cannot be modulated.

2) a heavy and bulky system.
3) non-reversible functioning.
4) risks of explosion.
5) poor autonomy.
A 1, 3, 5.
B 1, 2, 3, 5
C 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
D 2, 4
When a cabin oxygen mask is pulled downwards, the passenger breathes:
A a mixture of oxygen and cabin air.
B cabin air under pressure.
C pure oxygen at the ambient pressure.
D pure oxygen under pressure.
The advantages of a gaseous oxygen source for the passenger cabin are:
1) a greater autonomy.
2) no risk of explosion.
3) reversible functioning.
4) easy storage and maintenance.
5) possibility to regulate flow.
A 1, 3, 5.
B 2, 4, 5
C 2, 3, 4
D 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Regarding the chemical oxygen generator, to enable the oxygen to flow, the passenger must:
A operate the relevant switch in his armrest.
B firmly pull the door compartment of the oxygen mask storage.

C turn the oxygen valve to open.
D firmly pull the mask towards his face.
In a pressurized transport aircraft, the protective breathing equipment:
A protects the members of the crew against fumes and noxious gases.
B protects all the occupants against the effects of accidental depressurization.
C gives medical assistance to certain passengers with respiratory disorders.
D protects the members of the crew against the effects of accidental depressurization.
In modern jet transport aeroplanes, oxygen for the flight deck oxygen system is typically stored:
A in a gaseous state.
B in a liquid state.
C as a chemical compound.
D in a gaseous state or as a chemical compound.
What is supplementary oxygen used for in a pressurised aircraft?
A To protect flight and cabin crew against smoke and fumes.
B To provide medical assistance to passengers and crew.
C To protect certain passengers and carried only for those passengers.
D To protect passengers and crew against the effects of accidental depressurisation.
Oxygen regulators used by the flight crew for most commercial jet aircraft are of the:
A continuous flow type.
B continuous pressure diluter-demand type.
C pressure demand type.
D diluter-demand type.
The type of an aircraft oxygen system intended for use by passengers is mostly:
A a continuous flow system.
B portable equipment only.

C an air recycle system.
D a pressure demand system.
In a pressurized aircraft, the first aid (therapeutic) oxygen is designed to:
A protect the flight crew and cabin attendants against fumes and noxious gases.
B give medical assistance to passengers with pathological respiratory disorders.
C protect certain passengers, and is only carried on board for these people.
D protect all the occupants against the effects of accidental depressurisation.
Consider the flight deck oxygen supply system. The purpose of the oxygen regulator (as a function of
demand and altitude) is to:
1) decrease oxygen pressure from 1 800 psi (in the bottles) down to about 50-75 psi (low pressure
system).
2) supply pure oxygen.
3) supply diluted oxygen.
4) supply oxygen at normal pressure.
5) supply oxygen at emergency/positive pressure.
6) trigger the continuous cabin altitude warning at 10 000 ft cabin altitude.
A 1, 3, 4, 6
B 2, 3, 4, 5
C 1, 2, 3, 4
D 3, 4, 5, 6
1) Chemical oxygen generators are used to supply the cockpit oxygen system.
2) The oxygen supply of chemical oxygen generators, once activated, can be switched off.
A substance which may never be used in the vicinity or on parts of an oxygen installation is:
A nitrogen
B water
C grease
D halon
An oxygen supply system must be kept absolutely free of oil or grease as:
A the oxygen system would be contaminated.
B these substances catch fire spontaneously in the presence of oxygen.
C these substances could plug the oxygen masks filters.
D these substances mixed with oxygen could catch fire in the presence of a spark.
The demand valve of a diluter-demand type oxygen regulator in normal mode, operates when the:
A user requires 100% oxygen.
B user breathes in.
C diluter control is in normal position.
D pressure in the oxygen reservoir is more than 500 psi.
To use passengers oxygen in case of severe cabin smoke is:
A useless because the toxic cabin smoke is mixed with the breathing oxygen.
B useless because breathing oxygen would explode under smoke conditions.
C possible and recommended.
D useless because the oxygen units do not operate under smoke conditions.
A pressurised aeroplane is flying at FL370 and experiences a rapid decompression. Which of the
following statements is correct about the oxygen system?
A The oxygen masks are automatically presented to flight crew members.

B Manual override of the automatic presentation of passenger oxygen masks is, generally
speaking, not possible.
C If the automatic mask presentation has been activated, the oxygen will flow within the first 3
minutes.
D The oxygen masks are automatically presented to cabin crew members and passengers.
Regarding the oxygen system of EASA CS-25 certified aeroplane:
A the seals must be carefully greased to avoid sparks.
B the same source of supply is used by the crew and passengers.
C with the setting on "NORMAL", the cockpit crew breathes a mixture of oxygen and cabin air.
D the passenger source of supply never uses chemically generated oxygen.
The advantages of a gaseous oxygen source compared with a chemical source for the passenger cabin
are:
1) no risk of fire and/or explosion.
2) possibility to regulate flow.
3) more capacity.
A 2, 3.
B 1, 2
C 1
D 2
A flight deck oxygen system regulator has 3 controls:

POWER lever: ON / OFF
"O2" lever: NORMAL / 100%
EMERGENCY lever: ON / OFF
Among the following statements, the correct proposition is:
A with the EMERGENCY lever in the OFF position, in an emergency situation, one cannot use the
oxygen mask to breathe.
B the EMERGENCY lever in the ON position enables breathing of pure oxygen at ambient pressure.
C the "O2" lever in the ON position enables breathing of the over-pressure oxygen at a constant
flow rate.
D the POWER lever in the ON position, and, the "O2" lever in the NORMAL position allows the
oxygen to enter the regulator and enables breathing of a mixture of air/oxygen according to altitude.
Fixed oxygen systems in pressurised aeroplanes are used to provide oxygen:
1) in the event of depressurisation.
2) in the event of any passenger indisposition.
3) during a normal flight.
4) in the event of smoke or toxic fumes in the cockpit.
A 3
B 1, 2, 4
C 2, 3
D 1, 4.
Modern pressurized transport airplanes are equipped with:
A two independent oxygen systems, one supplying the cockpit, the other the cabin.
B only portable oxygen bottles.
C two oxygen systems both supplying the cockpit and the cabin.
D only one oxygen system supplying the whole aircraft.
The disadvantages of a chemical oxygen source compared with a gaseous one for the passenger cabin
are:
1) a flow which cannot be modulated.
2) less capacity.
3) risk of fire and/or explosion.
A 2, 3
B 3
C 1, 2.
D 1, 3

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With regard to an aircraft fuselage, a FAIL SAFE structure is one:

A used for small aircraft only.

B that is easily manufactured.

Refer to figure 021-33.

A physical distress, possibly including injuries.

C serious or fatal injury to a small number of passengers or cabin crew.

In the attached diagram, which image represents BUCKLING?

In the attached diagram, which image represents TENSION?

A less than 10-9 (extremely improbable)

B between 10-3 and 10-5 (probable)

C between 10-5 and 10-7 (remote probability)

D between 10-7 and 10-9 (extremely remote probability)

A corrosive environment and sustained tensile stresses can lead to:

For FAIL SAFE designed structural parts:

1) the mounting principle is parallel mounting.

2) no routine check is necessary.

3) the member is removed at the end of the calculated life cycle.

4) certain components may not be accessible.

5) the principle is the redundancy of components.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

Strain is defined as the:

A deformation due to stress.

D expansion due to temperature rise.

1) there is more than one load carrying component.

4) the design is based on the principle of redundancy of components.

The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:

A less than 10-9 (extremely improbable)

B between 10-3 and 10-5 (probable)

C between 10-5 and 10-7 (remote probability)

D between 10-7 and 10-9 (extremely remote probability)

An aircraft in flight is affected by loads. These may be classified as:

A compressive, bending, shear and torsional.

B thrust, drag, lift and weight.

C tensile, shear, twisting and stretching.

D compressive, tensile, shear and torsional.

With regard to an aircraft fuselage, a FAIL SAFE structure is one:

B that is easily manufactured.

C used for small aircraft only.

D that is only used for a limited time.

A capability to withstand a certain amount of weakening of the structure without catastrophic

B redundancy of the structure or equipment.

C replacement of parts after a given number of cycles or hours of use.

The principle of DAMAGE TOLERANT structural design of an aircraft is based on the:

A fact that there is no need to inspect the structure.

B capability to withstand a certain amount of weakening of the structure without catastrophic

C replacement of parts after a given number of cycles or hours of use.

Define the term "FATIGUE":

D a one off loading that breaks the material.

A Torsion is caused by twisting and tension resists a force pulling it apart.

B Torsion is caused by twisting and tension is a crushing force.

C Tension is caused by twisting and torsion resists a force pulling it apart.

A has parallel load paths.

B may be used during a declared number of cycles or flight hours.

C should have enough strength during the whole lifetime of an aircraft.

D is so strong that it never will fail during a declared time period.

A no effect on operational capabilities or safety.

B large reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins.

C slight reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins.