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Mid Final
Mid Final
Mid Final
http://www.hwmojo.com/products/cis-501-exam-and-quizzes
Chapters 1 Through 18
Chapter 1
Introduction to Decision Support Systems
True-False Questions
1. The role of a DSS is to provide support to the decision-maker during the process of
making a decision.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 3
4. The DSS should always be under the ultimate control of the user.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 3
8. A highly unstructured decision is one where the objectives of the situation are often
conflicting, the alternatives available to the decision maker are difficult to isolate or
determine, and the effect of a particular course of action or selection of an alternative
carries with it a high degree of uncertainty.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 7
9. The user interface of a DSS performs activities related to problem recognition and
generation of interim or final solutions.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 9
10. The data management component of a DSS is where the activities associated with the
retrieval, storage and organization of the relevant data for the particular decision
context are managed.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 9
11. The data management component of a DSS is responsible for maintaining the logical
independence of the data.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 12
12. The model library stores and manages all solver algorithms within a DSS.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 15
13. Model acquisition is the process by which new information is derived from a
combination of existing or previously derived information.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 16
14. Rules, heuristics and constraints are stored within a knowledge base of a DSS.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 16
15. A model is a simplification of some event or process constructed for the purpose of
studying the phenomenon and thus developing a better understanding of it.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 13
16. Internal data normally comes from an organization’s transaction processing systems
as a normal course of conducting the daily affairs of the organization.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 11
17. Knowledge engineers are specially trained to interact with domain experts for the
purposes of acquiring all of the knowledge the expert has in a particular domain and
all of the relationships among that knowledge.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 18
18. The model base contains the various statistical, financial, mathematical, and other
quantitative models used in performing the variety of analytical capabilities in a DSS.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 14
19. Silver proposed a method of DSS classification based upon the attributes of the
problem-solving context.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 25
20. Hypertext systems are useful for knowledge bases that are document based.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 27
Multiple Choice Questions
21. The realization of the benefits to be derived from using a DSS is dependent upon
which of the following?
a. The decision maker
b. The context of the decision
c. The design of the DSS
d. All of the above.
22. Which of the following contributed to the development of the concept of decision
support systems?
a. J.P. Little
b. Gorry
c. Scott Morton
d. All of the above.
27. The components of a DSS can be classified into which of the following?
a. Data management system, data repository, knowledge engine, model
repository, user(s)
b. Data query facility, model management system, model execution processor,
user interface, user(s)
c. Data management system, model management system, knowledge engine,
user interface, user(s)
d. Data management system, model management system, knowledge engine,
internal data, external data
28. Which of the following is considered a subsystem within the data management
system?
a. Database(s)
b. Database management system
c. The data query facility
d. All of the above.
32. The person who may work closely with the decision maker to assist in
interpreting and explaining the DSS output is called the:
a. domain expert.
b. intermediary.
c. domain operator.
d. knowledge generator.
33. Which of the following are the two primary support orientations for a DSS?
a. Data-centric and model-centric
b. Procedural and non-procedural
c. Programmed and non-programmed
d. Simulated and actual
39. Which of the following is the DSS classification proposed by Donovan and
Madnick?
a. Structured and unstructured
b. Mechanical and decisional
c. Formal and ad-hoc
d. None of the above.
40. Which type of decision support system keeps track of a large amount of disparate
documents?
a. Hypertext system
b. Document encyclopedia
c. Silver junction system
d. None of the above.
41. Describe the general functions of the Model Base Management System.
48. How does knowledge get into the DSS? How can it be retrieved
and organized as useful information?
Chapter 2
Decisions and Decision Makers
True-False Questions
21. The decision maker is considered both an element and participant in the decision.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 35
22. All decisions in an organization are ultimately made by a single individual.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 38
23. A problem is defined as the perception of a difference between the current state of
affairs and a desired state of affairs.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 36
24. A typical decision is often made using the exact order suggested by a normative
model of decision making and tends to use all of the steps contained in the model.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 35
25. Two examples of group decision making are organizational committees and juries.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 39
28. The reason there are so many different types of DSSs is that there are many different
types of decisions.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 37
31. Programmed decisions are more difficult to automate in a DSS than non-programmed
decisions.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 51
32. When conflict exists in either goals or approaches to the decision then Delbecq would
classify that as the need for a creative decision.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 55
33. When a novel approach is needed to handle the complexity of the problem, then
Delbecq would classify that as the need for a negotiated decision.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 54
34. Mintzberg classifies adaptive activities as characterized by high risk and motivated
by the proactive and reactive considerations.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 55
40. The tendency to view alternatives as mutually exclusive events is a bias of individual
decision makers.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 73
Multiple Choice Questions
22. Which of the following is not a category of decision makers within an organization?
a. Individual decision makers
b. Team decision makers
c. Group decision makers
d. All of the above are categories of decision makers.
23. Which of the following is not a factor that affects decision style?
a. Context
b. Inference
c. Values
d. Perception
27. According to Thompson, which of the following is not a type of strategy based
decision scheme?
a. Inspirational strategies
b. Judgmental strategies
c. Conversational strategies
d. Compromise strategies
29. The term used to describe the manner in which a manager makes decisions is called:
a. decision methodology.
b. decision model.
c. decision style.
d. cognitive style.
30. In any problem context, before any effective investigation of alternative solutions can
be conducted, the decision maker must first:
a. establish the available resources.
b. determine the best solution.
c. define the problem.
d. None of the above.
32. Which of the following involves factors relating to the forces acting on the decision
maker in the course of making the decision?
a. Problem space
b. Problem style
c. Problem context
d. Decision style
33. Which of the following best describes the basic characteristics of the directive
decision style? A directive decision style is characterized by:
a. a high need for structure in the problem context combined with a relatively low
tolerance for context ambiguity and a tendency to function best in a verbal setting
rather than through written communication or other multichannel media.
b. a relatively greater tolerance for context ambiguity, a tendency toward the need for
greater volumes of information and the consideration of large sets of alternatives,
and a preference for written communication media.
c. a long-term thinker with a high tolerance for ambiguity and a tendency to be much
more of a “people person”.
d. conflict-averse with a tendency to rely on meetings and consensus for
communicating to and organizing subordinates.
a. a high need for structure in the problem context combined with a relatively low
tolerance for context ambiguity and a tendency to function best in a verbal setting
rather than through written communiqué or other multichannel media.
b. a relatively greater tolerance for context ambiguity, a tendency toward the need for
greater volumes of information and the consideration of large sets of alternatives,
and a preference for written communication media.
c. a long-term thinker with a high tolerance for ambiguity and a tendency to be much
more of a “people person”.
d. conflict-averse with a tendency to rely on meetings and consensus for
communicating to and organizing subordinates.
35. Which of the following best describes the basic characteristics of the conceptual
decision style? The conceptual decision style is characterized by:
a. a high need for structure in the problem context combined with a relatively low
tolerance for context ambiguity and a tendency to function best in a verbal setting
rather than through written communiqué or other multichannel media.
b. a relatively greater tolerance for context ambiguity, a tendency toward the need for
greater volumes of information and the consideration of large sets of alternatives,
and a preference for written communication media.
c. a long-term thinker with a high tolerance for ambiguity and a tendency to be much
more of a “people person”.
d. conflict-averse with a tendency to rely on meetings and consensus for
communicating to and organizing subordinates.
36. Which of the following best describes the basic characteristics of the behavioral
decision style? The behavioral decision style is characterized by:
a. a high need for structure in the problem context combined with a relatively low
tolerance for context ambiguity and a tendency to function best in a verbal setting
rather than through written communiqué or other multichannel media.
b. a relatively greater tolerance for context ambiguity, a tendency toward the need for
greater volumes of information and the consideration of large sets of alternatives,
and a preference for written communication media.
c. a long-term thinker with a high tolerance for ambiguity and a tendency to be much
more of a “people person”.
d. conflict-averse with a tendency to rely on meetings and consensus for
communicating to and organizing subordinates.
38. Which of the following is not included in the Keen and Scott Morton classification of
decision-making perspectives?
a. Process-oriented perspective
b. Knowledge-engineer perspective
c. Political perspective
d. Rational manager perspective
The three factors of context, perception, and values intertwine in their relationship to
decision style. The problem context involves factors relating to the forces acting on
the decisionmaker in the course of making the decision. Organizational and
environment forces such as government regulation, new technologies, market
competition, internal power struggles, etc. all serve to reform or affect the problem
context. Further, forces of a more individual nature such as skill set, energy,
motivation, and perceived abilities, among others can also serve as forces that shape
the problem context for the decisionmaker. The totality of these forces must be
balanced and managed by the decisionmaker during the problem-solving process.
57. List and briefly describe the forces that can act on a problem
context and on a decisionmaker during the course of making a
decision.
Chapter 3
Decisions in the Organization
True-False Questions
42. Organizations can be said to be defined by the decisions that they make.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 88
45. Strategic decisions are typically made at the middle management level and approved
by senior management.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 91
46. The competence of decision-making ability at each level within an organization can
affect the design of a DSS.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 91
47. Cultural fit is a method of viewing the relationship between organizational culture
and decision making.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 93
48. An organization can either have an internal fit or external fit but may not have both
simultaneously.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 93
50. While an organization may be greater than the sum of its parts, it does not allow its
members to collectively pursue and achieve greater goals than they could by acting
individually.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 91
51. The line personnel who make decisions regarding day-to-day activities relating to
production or services are called operations personnel.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 90-91
52. A good external fit suggests a culture that is shaped to both the organization’s
strategy and its marketplace.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 93
53. Internal fit refers to the match between an organization’s culture and its leaders.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 93
54. Informal power is the term used to define how a manager exercises authority and
whether he or she wishes to exercise the power available to them.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 95
25. Of the various factors affecting organizational decisions, the concept of group roles
is best described as:
a. the relationships between the actual point of decision (the person or persons
actually making the decision) and the participants in the decision-making
process.
b. each member of a decision-making body has one or more specified purposes that
can affect both the nature of the decision strategy employed as well as the scope
of decision types assigned.
c. the process employed by a decision-making body can impact the type of
decisions that can be effectively made by that body which can conversely affect
the method or process that must be used to make those types of decisions.
d. issues relating to shared meaning among constituents, individual and collective
social pressures, genres and prescriptions regarding behavior, personal beliefs,
and potential sanctions.
a. the relationships between the actual point of decision (the person or persons
actually making the decision) and the participants in the decision-making
process.
b. each member of a decision-making body has one or more specified roles that can
affect both the nature of the decision strategy employed as well as the scope of
decision types assigned.
c. the process employed by a decision-making body can impact the type of
decisions that can be effectively made by that body which can conversely affect
the method or process that must be used to make those types of decisions.
d. issues relating to shared meaning among the constituents, individual and
collective social pressures, genres and prescriptions regarding behavior, personal
beliefs, and potential sanctions.
27. Of the various factors affecting organizational decisions, the concept of group norms
is best defined as:
a. the relationships between the actual point of decision (the person or persons
actually making the decision) and the participants in the decision-making
process.
b. each member of a decision-making body has one or more specified roles that can
affect both the nature of the decision strategy employed as well as the scope of
decision types assigned.
c. the process employed by a decision-making body can impact the type of
decisions that can be effectively made by that body which can conversely affect
the method or process that must be used to make those types of decisions.
d. issues relating to shared meaning among the constituents, individual and
collective social pressures, genres and prescriptions regarding behavior, personal
beliefs, and potential sanctions.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 90
30. Cultures where initiative, creativity, and risk-taking are supported or rewarded:
33. The concept which states that an individual will eventually be promoted to their
level of incompetence is known as the:
a. Law of Incompetence.
b. Parretto Principle.
c. Peter Principle.
d. None of the above.
35. Which of the following is not one of the five factors of power?
a. Judgment
b. Authority
c. Informal power
d. None of the above.
40. Identify and describe the three levels of organizational decision making.
Chapter 4
Modeling Decision Processes
True-False Questions
59. The typical decision-maker, more often than one might imagine, fails to formally and
concisely identify the problem at hand before beginning the process of solving it.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 103
60. A problem is defined as the difference between the current state of affairs and the
desired state of affairs.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 103
61. A common error when creating a problem statement is to prematurely focus on the
possible solutions.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 103
62. One way to determine what the real underlying problem is to expore the reasons why an
alternative is viable.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 103
63. The priorities of a decision maker are determined by the size of the solution.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 104
64. The priorities of a decision maker are affected by the scope of the problem.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 104
65. A designer must never revise a decision made at one point in the process to account for
a change made in another.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 105-106
66. There are always at least two possible alternative problem solutions.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 104
67. Problem structures can be described in terms of three fundamental components: (1)
choices, (2) uncertainties, and (3) objectives.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 110
69. In an influence diagram, the three components of a problem structure are represented by
specific shapes and are combined and connected to represent the problem being
modeled.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 106-107
70. Although the solution may be obvious, problem structures always have a clear
beginning.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 112
73. In a deterministic model, a variable can have multiple values and must therefore be
described by a probability function.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 114
74. In a stochastic model, no variable can take on more than one value at a given time.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 114
75. According to Howard’s test of clarity, the events of every model should be fully
determined without interpretation.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 119
77. Hayes Model Base Rule is used to determine the appropriate forecasting technique for
DSSs.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 129
78. Odds forecasting is a common technique for eliciting subjective probability.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 125
Multiple Choice Questions
22. Which of the following is not part of the design of a problem structure?
a. The relationship between elemental details and the final appearance of the solution
b. The interim solution
c. The final problem solution
d. None of the above.
23. Which of the following is not a tool for modeling the structure of a problem?
a. Problem analysis case
b. Decision tree
c. Influence diagram
d. None of the above.
30. The concept of __________ suggests that while a probability may be derivable, its
accuracy may not be acceptable under any circumstances.
a. subjective probability
b. logical probability
c. long-run probability
d. stochastic probability
33. Rather than a single probability estimation we might benefit from an estimation of the
worst-case scenario and the best-case scenario. Properly constructed, we can say that the
actual probability estimate lies somewhere between these two values. This range of
values is referred to as a ________.
a. probability estimation
b. t-test
c. logical probability
d. confidence interval
34. A method used to determine the degree to which the alteration of an underlying
assumption has a material effect on the results obtained from a model is known as:
a. simulation.
b. sensitivity analysis.
c. discriminant validity.
d. None of the above.
35. Which of the following is not a suitable technique for eliciting numerical subjective
probability estimations that can then be combined with other estimates using the laws of
probability?
a. Direct forecasting
b. Odds forecasting
c. Ad hoc forecasting
d. Comparison forecasting
36. A model in which at least one of the variables in the model is uncertain and must be
described by some probability function is known as a:
a. static model.
b. stochastic model.
c. deterministic model.
d. dynamic model.
39. In any choice there is a(n) _____ probability of at least one alternative being selected and
there is an ____ probability of any particular one being selected.
a. unequal, equal
b. 0%, unequal
c. 100%, equal
d. 100%, unequal
40. Which type of forecasting presents the decision maker with a choice between
participating in one or two lottery-type games?
a. Comparison forecasting
b. Odds forecasting
c. Direct probability forecasting
d. Calibration forecasting
Chapter 5
Group Decision Support and Groupware Technologies
True-False Questions
79. A group can be defined as a simple collective entity that is independent of its members.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 141
82. MDMs can be classified in terms of the degree of centralization characterized by each
of the four network structures.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 143
83. In a chain network, each participant can communicate with the decision maker at the
center but not with each other.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 144
84. In a wheel network, the decision maker can communicate with anyone.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 143
85. In a circle network, all members have an equal opportunity for communication.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 144
86. The completely connected network structure is the least restrictive structure.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 145
87. The chain network displays a high degree of centrality and is appropriate for routine or
recurring decisions with high-probability outcomes.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 144
88. The circle network serves as the basis for the group and committee MDM structures and
is often employed in situations where negotiation or consensus must be the basis for the
final decision.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 144-145
89. When the expertise of the decision maker is critical, then the most appropriate decision
structure is a committee.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 146
90. In group decision making, the factor that has the greatest impact is the size of the group.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 147
91. Think-tank is the term referred to as a mode of thinking that people engage in when
their desire to fit in overrides their decision-making ability.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 148
92. One common method used to control sources of potential conflict is participant
anonymity.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 149
98. Nominal group techniques works best when there is a single decision maker structure.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 165
Multiple Choice Questions
21. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a highly centralized network structure?
a. They are efficient for routine and recurring decisions.
b. They tend to produce lower average levels of satisfaction among the participants.
c. They promote innovative solutions.
d. They tend to result in a stable set of interactions among the participants.
24. Which of the following is not true regarding the relationship between group size and its
affect on MDM?
a. Participant interaction increases as the size increases.
b. Affective relationships tend to decrease as size increases.
c. Central leadership tends to increase as size increases.
d. None of the above.
25. Which of the following communication networks displays a high degree of centrality and
is appropriate for routine or recurring decisions with high-probability outcomes?
a. Wheel
b. Chain
c. Circle
d. Completely connected
27. Which of the following networks is most appropriate when routine or recurring decisions
are being made?
a. Wheel
b. Chain
c. Circle
d. Completely connected
28. Which of the following network structures serves as the basis for the group and
committee MDM structure and is often employed in situations where negotiation or
consensus must be the basis for the final decision?
a. Wheel
b. Chain
c. Circle
d. Completely connected
29. A mode of thinking that people engage in when they are deeply involved in a cohesive
ingroup, where the members’ striving for unanimity overrides their motivation to
realistically appraise alternative courses of action is known as:
a. structured decision making.
b. groupthink.
c. team MDM.
d. MDM analysis.
30. A(n) _____ is a complex system of computer-based technologies, including those that
facilitate communication, that provides support for decision-makers spanning the range
of organizational roles and functional levels and accommodates decision contexts that cut
across organizational units.
a. ODSS
b. GSS
c. GDSS
d. DSS
32. A(n) ___ is a collective of computer-based technologies that are specifically designed to
support the activities and processes related to multiparticipant decision making.
a. ODSS
b. GSS
c. GDSS
d. DSS
33. A(n) ____ is a system under the control of one or more decision makers that assists in the
activity of decision making by providing an organized set of tools intended to impart
structure to portions of the decision-making situation and to improve the ultimate
effectiveness of the decision outcome.
a. ODSS
b. GSS
c. GDSS
d. DSS
34. Which of the following is not one of the four basic approaches that have been identified
through which MDM support can be provided?
a. Process support
b. Process structure
c. Task support
d. Organizational structure
a. Process support
b. Process structure
c. Task support
d. Task structure
a. Process support
b. Process structure
c. Task support
d. Task structure
37. ______ involves the application of mechanisms that can select, organize, or even derive
information and knowledge that is specifically relevant to the task or decision at hand.
a. Process support
b. Process structure
c. Task support
d. Task structure
a. Level 1
b. Level 2
c. Level 3
d. None of the above.
39. The _____________ MDM systems are designed to reduce uncertainty that can evolve
from an MDM problem-solving activity. Both process and task structuring mechanisms
are typically found in this class of MDM support.
a. Level 1
b. Level 2
c. Level 3
d. None of the above.
a. Level 1
b. Level 2
c. Level 3
d. None of the above.
Chapter 6
Executive Information Systems
True-False Questions
99. An EIS is a special type of DSS designed to facilitate the analysis of information to
support strategic decision-making.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 174
101. An EIS is a unique DSS designed exclusively to analyze the operations of a firm.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 174
102. An EIS can be designed and built quickly because it only deals with summarized
information.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 175
103. A sales report showing revenue against forecast targets along with projections for the
next two quarters is an example of an EIS output.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 176
104. The ability to perform drill down analysis is an important feature of an EIS.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 176
105. A well designed EIS will replace the need for MIS applications
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 176
106. A well designed EIS replaces the need for all other DSSs within an organization
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 176
107. Executives spend more time on disturbance management than organizational staffing.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 178-179
108. The majority of executive time is spent in some form of disturbance management
activity.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: pp. 178-179
109. The total study method, critical success factor method or key indicator method could be
used to define an EIS
Difficulty: Easy Reference: pp. 182-183
110. An EIS normally requires unique hardware configurations, making them expensive to
build.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 184
112. An organization that does not wish to build their own EIS can purchase one “off-the-
shelf”.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 185
113. In the structural perspective of the EIS development framework, the focus is on people
and data as they relate to the EIS.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 188
114. The structural perspective of the EIS development framework builds upon the elements
and their relationships contained within the structural model and adds a time dimension
to the framework. In this component, the various activities and sequences of events are
delineated and actual project management issues relating to time, critical path, and
milestones are established.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 188-189
115. The dialog system of an EIS contains an action language where the user is directed in
how to use the system, and learns where the various commands and elements of
manipulation are contained and processed.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 189
116. The knowledge base in an EIS is the sum of what the executive knows about using the
system and all of the support mechanisms designed to assist in its use.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 190
117. Two organizational limitations of an EIS are time bias and loss of managerial
synchronization.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 191
118. The development framework of an EIS is used to establish development guidelines.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 190
Multiple Choice Questions
25. Which of the following is not a method for determining executive information
needs?
a. Null method
b. Normal method
c. By-product method
d. Total study method
27. Which method for determining executive needs could best be described by the
phrase management by walking around?
a. Null method
b. Normal method
c. By-product method
d. Total study method
28. Which method for determining executive needs gathers information from a
sample of top-level executives concerning the totality of information needs?
a. Null method
b. Normal method
c. By-product method
d. Total study method
29. Which method for determining executive needs is the most comprehensive?
a. Normal method
b. Key indicators method
c. Case study method
d. Critical success factors method
32. When something unexpected occurs, particularly something that could materially
and negatively impact the financial health of the organization, the immediate
attention of executives and the deployment of resources are usually warranted.
Executive activity during these periods is called:
a. entrepreneurial.
b. disturbance management.
c. resource allocation.
d. negotiation.
35. The ____________ portion of the EIS development framework builds upon the
elements and their relationships contained within the structural model and adds a
time dimension to the framework. In this component, the various activities and
sequences of events are delineated and actual project management issues relating
to time, critical path, and milestones are established.
a. structural
b. development process
c. dialog system
d. knowledge base
37. The _________________ portion of an EIS is the sum of what the executive
knows about using the system and all of the support mechanisms designed to
assist in its use.
a. structural
b. development process
c. dialog system
d. knowledge base
38. _______________ activities fall under the general heading of strategic planning
tasks. Executives spent a significant portion of their time focusing on the
selection, design, and implementation of improvements and projects intended to
improve performance and initiate controlled change within the organization.
a. Entrepreneurial
b. Disturbance management
c. Resource allocation
d. Negotiation
39. Managers at various levels are given authority to manage and deploy assets from
a predetermined allocation and based upon a control mechanism such as a budget
or operational plan. The authority to deploy those assets and the various behind
the scenes activities to obtain them normally performed by top executives is
associated with which of the following activities?
a. Entrepreneurial
b. Disturbance management
c. Resource allocation
d. Negotiation
Chapter 7
Expert Systems and Artificial Intelligence
True-False Questions
120. Artificial Intelligence can be defined as the study of how to make computers do things
that people do better.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 208
121. Reverse reasoning begins with a series of subproblems and builds into one cohesive
problem statement.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 208
122. All expert systems are based upon the use of reverse reasoning.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 208
124. Categorization involves the creation of a loose set of hierarchies where lower-level
pieces of information inherit characteristics from a higher-level category.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 209
127. Rule-based reasoning is a process in which the computer is given the characteristics of
the problem space in the form of input values. It then uses the rules contained within its
knowledge base to methodically change the state of the problem space to the desired
condition.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: pp. 211-212
128. The form of knowledge that is formed from antecedents and consequents is referred to
as inferential knowledge.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 212
129. The form of knowledge where the conditions take the form of a stated situation and the
operative becomes an action to take when the stated situation is logically true is referred
to as procedural knowledge.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 212
130. The form of knowledge whereby a conclusion is reached as a result of one or more
premises being established is referred to as declarative knowledge.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 212
131. In an object network, concepts are represented as nodes and the arcs connecting the
nodes represent their relationships.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 213
132. Representations of objects that are typical of a category are referred to as frames.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 213
133. In a frame, a trigger is a short procedure that can be triggered whenever a slot is created,
modified or accessed.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 214
134. Frames are the most useful knowledge domain for analyzing legal precedent.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 215
135. Genetic algorithms figure out which rules from prior cycles did not fire, which rules
from the prior cycle will not fire in the next cycle, and which rules from the prior cycle
that did not fire are most likely to fire next.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 216
136. Neural networks are the branch of AI that most closely resemble how the human brain
operates.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 217
137. The inference engine of an ES contains the specific knowledge collected from the
sample of domain experts.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 219
138. The inference engine performs deductions or inferences based on rules or facts. In
addition, it is capable of performing inexact or fuzzy reasoning based on probability or
pattern matching.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 220
Multiple Choice Questions
25. Which of the following forms of knowledge can be encoded via a rule set?
a. Procedural knowledge
b. Declarative knowledge
c. Inferential knowledge
d. All of the above.
29. Which of the following is most useful in a knowledge domain where precedence
reasoning is most appropriate?
a. Frames
b. Pattern recognition
c. Case-based reasoning
d. Rete algorithms
30. Which branch of AI most closely resembles how the human brain operates?
a. Genetic algorithms
b. Neural networks
c. Machine learning
d. Rete algorithms
35. Chaining is a simple method used by most IEs to produce a line of reasoning.
Using this method the set of rules are organized in a recursive manner such that a
fact concluded by one rule is used as the premise for the next. The two types of
chaining bases which are possible in an ES are:
a. straight and link.
b. forward and backward.
c. upward and downward.
d. inside and outside.
39. Which of the following is not a criterion for the evaluation of an expert system?
a. The system should be responsive and easy to use.
b. The knowledge base should contain generally accepted knowledge.
c. The explanatory facility should be user-friendly.
d. All of the above are criteria.
42. List and explain the different types of human reasoning processes.
Chapter 8
Knowledge Engineering and Acquisition
True-False Questions
139. Both knowledge engineers and system analysts have the same goal; to create a
thorough specification of an information system that can be successfully
implemented.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 238
140. Knowledge engineers need to have a high degree of domain knowledge combined
with a broad set of system development skills.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 238
141. Each expert system is a one-of-a-kind system and its success is predicated on the skill
of the KEs to extract knowledge that is deeply hidden in the mind of a human expert.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 238
149. As the state of knowledge is increased, the chance for information overload is
diminished and the quality of the knowledge is extended.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 241
152. The acquisition of knowledge from external sources must be an active process.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 242
153. The primary functions of the performance model are to fully define the task under
study, assist in the selection of the expert(s), establish the user characteristics and
performance criteria for the system, and to function as an interpretive framework for
protocol analysis of the experts’ responses.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 244
155. Kim and Courtney proposed that knowledge be classified across strategic and
performance dimensions.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 245
156. When using the expert-driven approach to KA, the expert encodes his or her own
expertise and knowledge and enters it directly into the computer system.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 245
157. Interviewing is probably the most widely used and familiar of all KA techniques.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 247
158. Validation is concerned with whether or not the system we built conforms to its
original specifications.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 254
Multiple Choice Questions
23. Data organized in such a manner as to render it useful and relevant to a problem
solver in making decisions is referred to as:
a. Knowledge
b. Expertise
c. Information
d. Wisdom
27. According to van Lohuizen, which of the following is not a knowledge state?
a. Structured information
b. Wisdom
c. Judgment
d. None of the above.
a. Descriptive
b. Assimilative
c. Reasoning
d. None of the above.
30. The process by which elicitation, gathering, organizing, and formalization of the
knowledge of experts in a specific domain is conducted with the goal of
transforming that knowledge into some computer-usable representation is called:
a. Knowledge inference.
b. Requirements determination.
c. Knowledge acquisition.
d. Performance modeling.
32. The primary vehicle by which the information necessary to construct the
performance model is gathered is through verbalization by the expert, often
referred to as
a. political analysis.
b. knowledge engineering.
c. protocol analysis.
d. machine-driven learning.
34. When using the ___________ approach to KA, the expert encodes his or her own
expertise and knowledge and enters it directly into the computer system. In this
regard, the expert is serving two roles: expert and KE.
a. expert-driven
b. KE-driven
c. machine-driven
d. None of the above.
35. _____________is that part of the evaluation process that focuses on the
performance aspects of the knowledge base.
a. Verification
b. Efficiency
c. Validation
d. Criterion measurement
38. Which of the following is a necessary task condition for successful concurrent
protocols?
a. Each task must have a clearly defined conclusion.
b. The task must be able to be completed within two protocol sessions.
c. All data must be presented to the expert in a familiar form.
d. All of the above.
39. The knowledge validation measure that defines how credible the knowledge is is
referred to as:
a. depth.
b. breadth.
c. face validity.
d. robustness.
40. The knowledge validation measure that defines the impact of changes in the
knowledge base on the quality of the outputs is referred to as:
a. sensitivity.
b. appeal.
c. adaptability.
d. None of the above.
70. What are the benefits and limitations of the repertory grid method
of knowledge gathering?
Chapter 9
Machines That Can Learn
True-False Questions
162. The human language has evolved to allow for the conveyance of meaning through
semantic approximation rather than precise content
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 261
163. Fuzzy logic deals with the likelihood that something has a particular property while
probability deals with the degree to which a particular property is present in something
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 261
164. Fuzzy logic is a new development in the computing industry that emerged as a result of
the development of Internet search engines.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 262
165. Fuzzy logic can deal with any degree of change in input.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 262
166. When continuous variables are involved, traditional rule-based systems tend to provide
more accurate results than fuzzy logic.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 264
167. Fuzzy logic allows for the modeling of contradiction within a knowledge base.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 265
168. One of the limitations of a fuzzy logic system is that each rule is dependant upon all of
the other rules in the knowledge base.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 266
169. Under highly complex situations, fuzzy logic rules are highly verifiable.
170. Artificial neural networks are simple computer-based programs whose primary
function is to construct models of a problem space based upon trial and error.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 266
171. The transmission of signals from one neuron to another in an artificial neural network
occurs at the neural synapse via a complex chemical process in which specific
substances, called neurotransmitters, are released from one side of the synaptic
junction.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 266-267
172. The ANN involves an interconnected system of nodes called neurodes that are
associated with one or more weighted connections that are equivalent to human neural
synapses, inside the memory of a digital computer. The construction of the ANN is one
of multiple layers with the connections running between the layers.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 267
173. The basic structure a typical neurode consists of is a set of weighted input connections,
a bias input, a state function, a nonlinear transfer function, and an output connection.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 268
174. The purpose of a state function is to consolidate the weights of the various inputs to the
neurode into a single value that can be passed to the transfer function for processing.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 269
175. The primary purpose of the learning paradigm is to serve as the vehicle by which the
summed information is passed on as output.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 271
176. An advantage of automated neural nets is the elimination of the need for direct input
from experts.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 273
177. The GA’s smallest unit is called a chromosome. The chromosome represents the
smallest unit of information in the problem domain and can be thought of as the basic
building block for a possible solution.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 276
178. The GA’s smallest unit is called a gene. The gene represents the smallest unit of
information in the problem domain and can be thought of as the basic building block
for a possible solution.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 276
Multiple Choice Questions
21. ______________ is a method of reasoning that allows for the partial description of a
rule. Combining this approach to reasoning with the realm of digital processors has
results in a class of computer applications that can “learn” from their mistakes and can
“understand” the vagaries commonly found in human thought.
a. Backward propagation
b. Forward propagation
c. Fuzzy logic
d. Neural computing
27. The ANN involves an interconnected system of nodes called _________that are
associated with one or more weighted connections that are equivalent to human neural
synapses, inside the memory of a digital computer.
a. transmitters
b. neurides
c. neurodes
d. synapses
29. The ANN layer that receives the data is referred to as the?
a. input layer.
b. output layer.
c. hidden layer.
d. neural layer.
30. The ANN layer that relays the final results of the net is referred to as the:
a. input layer.
b. output layer.
c. hidden layer.
d. neural layer.
32. The _____________ is not normally connected to the ANN and is assumed to have an
input value of 1.0 for the state function. Its purpose is to allow for the individual
adjustment of the firing threshold of the neurode to facilitate the final adjustment of the
ANN following the learning process.
a. input layer
b. bias input
c. state function
d. output connection
33. The __________________’s purpose is the consolidation of the weights of the various
inputs to the neurode into a single value that can be passed to the transfer function for
processing. The value obtained determines the degree of impact the combined inputs
will have on the transfer function and, thus, on the final output of the neurode.
a. input layer
b. bias input
c. state function
d. output connection
34. The function in an ANN which serves as the vehicle by which the summed information
is passed on as output is called the:
a. transfer function.
b. state function.
c. memory function.
d. neural function.
35. The actual procedure used by a neural network to find the appropriate weight settings is
referred to as its:
a. transfer function.
b. state function.
c. weight seeking function.
d. learning paradigm.
38. A computer program that employs a set of adaptive processes that mimic the concept of
“survival of the fittest” by regenerating recombinants of itself in response to a calculated
difference between the network’s guess and the desired solution state is known as a:
a. neural network.
b. artificial life system.
c. genetic algorithm.
d. None of the above.
39. In a genetic algorithm, the smallest unit of information in the problem domain is called
a:
a. chromosome.
b. gene.
c. neuron.
d. synapse.
42. Explain the similarities and the differences between fuzziness and
probability.
74. What is the primary advantage that Genetic Algorithms have over
Artificial Neural Networks?
Chapter 10
The Data Warehouse
True-False Questions
181. Only a small fraction of the data that is captured, processed and stored in the
enterprise is actually ever made available to executives and decision makers.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 295
182. The most common component of a data warehouse environment is the operational
data store.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 295
184. The essence of the data warehouse concept is a recognition that the characteristics
and usage patterns of operational systems used to automate business processes and
those of a DSS are fundamentally similar and symbiotically linked.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 295
185. One difference between data warehouses and operational data stores is the presence
of metadata.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 297
187. Metadata are detailed data that has been aggregated and condensed into a more useful
form.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 297
188. The very essence of the DW environment is that the data contained within the
boundaries of the warehouse are integrated. This integration manifests itself through
consistency in naming convention and measurement attributes, accuracy, and
common aggregation.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 299
189. The time horizon for data in the data warehouse is typically significantly longer than
operational data sores.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 301
190. One of the benefits of integrated data is the establishment of a common unit of
measure for all synonymous data elements from dissimilar databases.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 300
191. According to Inmon, because data warehouses are highly de-normalized, they are
highly redundant.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 303
192. One objective of the data warehouse environment is to minimize the impact on
operational systems.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 303
193. The end user in a data warehouse environment deals directly with the application
messaging layer.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 305
194. The process management layer in a data warehouse can be thought of as a scheduler.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 305
195. The processes needed to prepare the data to be loaded into a data warehouse are
performed in the data staging layer.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 305
196. A data warehouse topology requires a centralized data warehouse that is accessed by
one or more decision support tools.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 306
197. One of the most important factors in the development of a data warehouse is a
comprehensive architectural framework.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 313
198. Transformation mapping metadata records how data from operational data stores and
external sources are transformed on the way into the warehouse.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 310
Multiple Choice Questions
21. The most common component in the DW environment is the _____________. Its
primary day-to-day function is to store the data for a single, specific set of
operational applications.
a. data mart
b. data warehouse
c. operational data store
d. data staging tables
27. The concept of time variant data implies which of the following statements?
a. Data are simply assumed to be accurate as of some moment in time and not
necessarily right now.
b. Data are assumed to be accurate at the moment they were loaded into the data
warehouse.
c. Data are assumed to vary over time.
d. Both a and b
28. Which of the following activities would not normally be associated with a data
warehouse?
a. Loading
b. Updating
c. Accessing
d. None of the above.
29. The _______________________ represents the source data for the DW. This layer is
comprised, primarily, of operational transaction processing systems and external
secondary databases.
a. information access layer
b. operational and external layer
c. data access layer
d. process management layer
30. Which layer of the data warehouse architecture does the end user deal directly with?
a. Data access layer
b. Application messaging layer
c. Information access layer
d. None of the above.
33. Which layer within the data warehouse architecture focuses on scheduling tasks that
must be accomplished to build and maintain the data warehouse and data directory
information?
a. data access layer
b. process management layer
c. application messaging layer
d. none of the above
37. The final component of the DWA is the __________________. This layer includes
all of the processes necessary to select, edit, summarize, combine and load data
warehouse and information access data from operational and/or external databases.
a. data staging layer
b. operational and external layer
c. physical data warehouse layer
d. process management layer
38. The process that records how data from operational data stores and external sources
are transformed on the way into the warehouse is referred to as:
a. summarization algorithms.
b. transformation mapping.
c. back propagation.
d. extraction history.
39. The _____________________ applied to the detail data are of importance to any
decision maker analyzing or interpreting the meaning of the summaries. These
metadata can also save time by making it easier to decide which level of
summarization is most appropriate for a given analysis context.
a. summarization algorithms
b. transformation mapping
c. back propagation
d. extraction history
41. What are the seven deadly sins of data warehouse implementation?
76. List and explain the different layers in the data warehouse
architecture.
Chapter 11
Data Mining and Data Visualization
True-False Questions
199. Data mining is a set of activities used to find new, hidden, or unexpected patterns in
data.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 326
200. A synonym for data mining is information sifting and discovery (ISD).
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 326
202. One of the primary reasons for the rise in data mining popularity is the ever-
increasing volume of data that require processing.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 328
204. ROLAP organizes and analyzes data as an n-dimensional cube. The ROLAP cube can
be conceptually thought of as a common spreadsheet with two extensions: (1) support
for multiple dimensions and (2) support for multiple concurrent users.
205. One of the primary advantages of ROLAP versus MOLAP is it results in performance
improvements for data access.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 331
207. Sparcity can significantly increase the storage requirements of a MOLAP hypercube
by requiring that space be allocated for all cells rather than just the ones that contain
data values.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 331
209. ROLAP databases typically contain both summary and detail data.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 331
212. Data mining methods can be classified in two ways: by the function they perform or
by their class of application.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 333
213. The classification approach to data mining searches all details or transactions from
operational systems for patterns with a high probability of repetition.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 333
214. The association approach to data mining is intended to discover rules that define
whether an item or event belongs to a particular subset of data.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 333
215. The sequencing approach to data mining relates events in time, based on a series of
preceding events.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 334
216. The clustering approach to data mining is useful when there is a need to create
partitions in order to discover patterns in the data.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 335
217. Data mining does not use statistical techniques because the complex patterns in data
do not lend themselves to linear regression analysis.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 336
218. Two new categories of data mining are text mining and Web mining.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 338
Multiple Choice Questions
23. The set of activities used to find new, hidden, or unexpected patterns in data is referred to
as:
a. data warehousing.
b. data mining.
c. data transformation.
d. data aggregation.
24. Which of the following is a reason for the growth in popularity of data mining?
a. Increased volume of data
b. Increased awareness of the inadequacy of the human brain to process multifactorial
dependencies or correlations
c. Increased affordability of machine learning
d. All of the above.
25. The term _________ has been generally agreed to represent the broad category of
software technology that enables decision makers to conduct multidimensional analysis
of consolidated enterprise data.
a. OLAP
b. MOLAP
c. ROLAP
d. None of the above.
28. In a ________________, the data are stored as a multidimensional array where each cell
in the array represents the intersection of all of the dimensions. Using this approach, any
number of dimensions may be analyzed simultaneously and any number of
multidimensional views of the data can be created.
a. hyperion cube
b. hypercube
c. stochastic cube
d. correlation cube
29. Which term is used to refer to a basic database operation that links rows of two or more
tables by one or more columns in each table?
a. n-cube analysis
b. table link
c. table join
d. None of the above.
32. Which data mining technique utilizes linkage analysis to search operational transactions
for patterns with a high probability of repetition?
a. Association
b. Cluster
c. Sequence
d. Principal components analysis
33. There are some cases where it is difficult or impossible to define the parameters of a
class of data to be analyzed. In these cases, _____________ methods can be used to
create partitions so that all members of each set are similar according to some metric or
set of metrics thus creating a set of objects grouped together by virtue of their similarity
or proximity to each other.
a. association
b. linkage analysis
c. sequencing
d. clustering
34. ___________________ methods are used to relate events in time, such as the prediction
of interest rate fluctuations or stock performance, based on a series of preceding events.
Through this analysis, various hidden trends can be discovered that are often highly
predictive of future events.
a. Association
b. Linkage analysis
c. Sequencing
d. Clustering
37. The process by which numerical data is converted into meaningful images is referred to
as:
a. data mining.
b. data warehousing.
c. data visualization.
d. data aggregation.
39. An orderly hierarchy of items and item categories that divides each item into a basket
analysis is referred to as a:
a. cluster analysis.
b. taxonomy.
c. multi dimensional market basket analysis.
d. None of the above.
42. What are the current limitations and challenges to data mining?
Chapter 12
Designing and Building the Data Warehouse
True-False Questions
219. The first step in planning a data warehouse is to define the information requirements of the
organization.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 383
220. The enterprise model consists of a number of separate models integrated together to
provide a comprehensive view of the organization.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 384
221. The corporate process model describes the entities generated by the elementary processes
carried out by the enterprise.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 384
222. The corporate data model represents a highly structured description of the elementary
processes within the enterprise that identify the interrelationships among the different
processes.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 384
223. The long term benefit of an enterprise data warehouse is the increased integration of
business processes throughout the organization.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 384
224. A top-down data warehouse design focuses on making use of data available in the current
operational systems.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 384-385
225. A bottom-up approach to data warehouse brings more benefit to a data warehouse project
than a top-down approach.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 385
226. Horizontal integration is the means by which the application designer ensures that the
software application is congruent with the stated business requirements.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 385
227. Enterprise integration ensures that each application is fully integrated within its own
boundaries.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 385
228. Vertical integration ensures that consistent data definitions occur across the entire
organization.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 386
229. One of the most significant data warehouse critical success factors is strong management
support.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 386
230. Organizational culture can have an impact on their readiness to develop a data warehouse
because data warehouse development implies cross departmental cooperation and
information sharing.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 388
231. One common approach to data warehouse project prioritization is to rank initiatives by
impact on the information technology organization.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 390
232. One low cost approach to determining data warehouse feasibility is to develop a proof of
concept.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 391
233. When the initial scope of a project continues to expand to incorporate new features this is
referred to as feature expansion.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 392
234. The first step in developing a data warehouse is to determine the project scope.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 392
235. A project benefit that can be identified with certainty and expressed in dollars is said to be
an intangible benefit.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 396
236. The ability to introduce new products would be considered an intangible project benefit.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 396
237. The ability to be proactive in identifying legal issues, thereby foregoing potential financial
penalties that might impact a firm would be considered an intangible project benefit.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 397
238. Economic feasibility measures share one concept in common – the time value of money.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 399
Multiple Choice Questions
21. Which of the following data warehouse design approaches implies a strategic rather
than operational perspective?
a. Bottom-up approach
b. Top-down approach
c. Central approach
d. None of the above.
22. When the application designer ensures that the software application is in harmony with
the business requirements, this is referred to as:
a. horizontal integration.
b. vertical integration.
c. enterprise integration.
d. None of the above.
23. _________ seeks to ensure that each application under development is fully integrated
within its own boundaries and to eliminate any inconsistencies in the final software
product.
a. Horizontal integration
b. Vertical integration
c. Enterprise integration
d. None of the above.
24. __________ ensures that there is consistent definition of data and processes across the
organization.
a. Horizontal integration
b. Vertical integration
c. Enterprise integration
d. None of the above.
25. Which of the following is not a data warehouse project readiness assessment factor?
a. Strong sponsorship
b. A compelling business motivation
c. An analytic organizational culture
d. All of the above are factors.
28. Which term refers to the process of developing a relatively low cost prototype to
demonstrate that a data warehouse will achieve the perceived benefits?
a. Proof of prototype
b. Proof of concept
c. Proof of benefit
d. None of the above.
29. __________ occurs when the initial scope of a project continues to expand as new
features are incorporated into the project.
a. Feature creep
b. Hope creep
c. Scope creep
d. None of the above.
30. Which of the following refers to a perspective from which an argument to pursue an
investment can be made?
a. Faith
b. Fear
c. Facts
d. All of the above.
32. A(n) ________ benefit can be identified with certainty and is easily expressed in
dollars.
a. intangible
b. tangible
c. enterprise
d. None of the above.
33. A(n) _________ benefit can be directly associated with a project but is not easily
expressed in dollars.
a. intangible
b. tangible
c. enterprise
d. None of the above.
38. ____________ determines the point where the benefits of a project equal its costs.
a. Net present value
b. Breakeven analysis
c. Internal rate of return
d. All of the above.
82. What are the benefits realized through a sound data warehouse architecture?
Chapter 13
Decisions in the Organization
True-False Questions
240. The concept of synergy states that the whole is equal to the sum of the parts.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 425
241. A system contains three components: interrelated elements, internal inputs, and
subsystems.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 425
243. Boundaries imply that systems can be distinguished via their relationship to other
systems.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 425
244. Elements that are not contained within the boundary of a system are part of the
system environment.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 425
249. Function composition is the process of breaking down systems into more discreet
subsystems.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 428
250. A DSS is considered to be a closed system because all of the data stores used are self-
contained.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 430
251. One of the advantages of a DSS is that the end-user is always contained with the
boundaries of the system, resulting in greater system control.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 430
252. A service level agreement provides a detailed description of each service provision
along with reporting requirements for each party to the agreement.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 434
254. The standard for information to be considered timely is that it must be available to
the user within 48 hours.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 437
255. Information consistency refers to how quickly and easily its intended user can figure
out what to do with it.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 438
256. Information system architecture is a detailed plan that addresses the make, model and
characteristics of each physical unit in a system.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 440
257. One of the unique features of a DSS is that the data is highly specialized and rarely
used by anyone other than the person who created it.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 440
34. __________ refers to the maximum accuracy with which a piece of information can be
represented.
a. Correctness
b. Precision
c. Consistency
d. None of the above.
35. ___________ is the degree to which similar pieces of information are stored and
presented in a similar and predictable fashion.
a. Consistency
b. Precision
c. Accuracy
d. Relevance
36. Which of the following is not an issue to be considered in the definition of DSS
architecture?
a. Interoperability
b. Scalability
c. Compatibility
d. All of the above are issues to consider.
37. Which of the following refers to the degree to which information can be delivered to
the exact locus of a decision?
a. Interoperability
b. Compatibility
c. Scalability
d. None of the above.
39. The issue of ________ focuses on the degree to which a DSS under design will interact
effectively with other organizational systems.
a. interoperability
b. compatibility
c. scalability
d. None of the above.
42. Briefly describe three issues that affect DSS information system architecture.
Chapter 14
Designing and Building Decision Support Systems
True-False Questions
259. Because there is no one best DSS, it stands to reason that there is no one best way to
design and build one either.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 450
260. Because of the unique requirements of a DSS, the only way to construct one is with a
DSS generator.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 450
261. A DSS generator is an application system that eliminates the need for programming
of thousands of individual instructions or codes in the design and construction of a
DSS.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 451
262. A common perspective with regard to system design and development is found in the
system development life cycle (SDLC) approach. The SDLC portrays the process as
a series of iterative and recursive phases, each with its own set of required inputs,
activities, and deliverables.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 452
263. The primary advantage of an SLDC approach to DSS design is that it is the most
adaptive methodology to handle the sometimes rapidly changing system
specifications.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 453
264. An alternative to the SDLC approach is ROMC Analysis. This approach focuses the
analysis effort on developing understandings of read operations (R), overflows (O),
memory maps (M), and continuous data flow (C).
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 453
265. Functional category analysis results in the design of a DSS from the categorization of
end-user interviews.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 454
266. Three primary categories of system requirements for the DSS can be established: (1)
functional requirements, (2) interface requirements, and (3) coordination
requirements.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 457
267. The functional requirements for the DSS focus on the DSS’s capacity for storage,
recall, and production of knowledge useful to the problem context.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 457
268. The coordination requirements focus on the communication capabilities of the DSS.
During this phase, the designer must determine the various channels and methods of
communication that will be made available to the DSS user and the conditions under
which they will be made available.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 457
270. The goal of the system implementation phase is to test, evaluate, and deploy a fully
functional and documented DSS. During this phase, a major activity is the final
determination and evaluation of the degree to which the DSS meets the users’ needs.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 458
271. The DSS developer must possess the knowledge to develop the computer-based
application but normally does not need to be knowledgeable about the details
surrounding the problem under study.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 459
272. Two basic types of prototyping have proved effective in the development of DSSs:
iterative prototypes and reusable prototypes.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 460
273. Prototyping can be beneficial in the development of a DSS because the immediate
nature of user response and feedback regarding system functionality can result in
greater senior management support.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 461
274. End users are those individuals who fall outside the confines of the formally defined
IS department or function within an organization.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 463
276. An area of risk with end-user developed DSS applications is a potential lack of
security measures built into the system.
277. The concept of the information center (IC) arose to address the need for end-user
support in the design and development of computer-based applications.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 465
278. DSS development tools are classified as either primary development tools or DSS
generators.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 466
Multiple Choice Questions
21. An application system that eliminates the need for programming of thousands of individual
instructions or code in the design and construction of a DSS is called a(n):
a. DSS development system.
b. DSS generator.
c. DSS analyzer.
d. None of the above.
22. A common perspective with regard to system design and development is found in the
_____________ approach which portrays the process as a series of iterative and recursive
phases, each with its own set of required inputs, activities, and deliverables.
a. DSS programming language
b. ROMC
c. SDLC
d. None of the above.
23. Which of the following is not true of the SDLC approach in DSS development?
a. It brings a necessary structure and discipline to the DSS development process.
b. It is flexible in its development approach.
c. It is common where formal relationships exist between the developer and end user.
d. All of the above are true.
24. An alternative to the SDLC approach which focuses the analysis effort on developing
understandings of representations, operations, memory aids, and controls is called:
a. SDLC II.
b. ROMC.
c. RAID.
d. CSF.
25. A methodology for the design of a DSS that focuses on the identification of specific
functions necessary for the development of a particular DSS from a broad list of available
functions including selection, aggregation, estimation, simulation, equalization, and
optimization is called:
a. functional category analysis.
b. ROMC.
c. SDLC.
d. SDLC II.
27. The set of specifications for the DSS which focuses on the DSS’s capacity for storage,
recall, and production of knowledge useful to the problem context is known as the:
a. functional requirements.
b. interface requirements.
c. technical requirements.
d. coordination requirements.
28. The requirements which focus on the communication capabilities of the DSS are called
the:
a. functional requirements.
b. interface requirements.
c. technical requirements.
d. coordination requirements.
29. The requirements for a DSS that include the timing of events associated with the decision-
making process, the facilitation of the access to relevant information, and the integration of
various modeling tools contained with the DSS are called the:
a. functional requirements.
b. interface requirements.
c. technical requirements.
d. coordination requirements.
30. Which design phase uses iterative prototyping to make refinements to the system based
upon feedback received from testing and user involvement?
a. System design
b. System construction
c. Implementation
d. None of the above.
32. The determination of specific physical components, structure, and development platforms
is made during the __________stage of the DSS development process.
a. system design
b. system requirements
c. system construction
d. implementation
33. The goal of the _________________ phase is to test, evaluate, and deploy a fully
functional and documented DSS. During this phase, a major activity is the final
determination and evaluation of the degree to which the DSS meets the users’ needs.
a. system design
b. system construction
c. system implementation
d. incremental adaptation
34. The final stage in the DSS development process is ________. It involves the continual
revisiting of the activities from earlier stages in an effort to the capabilities of the DSS
based upon the knowledge gained as a result of its use.
a. system requirements revision
b. system installation
c. system implementation
d. incremental adaptation
39. The ___________________ are the lowest level of DSS development technology. In this
category, we find the programming languages, code and text editors, graphics development
applications, and database query mechanisms employed during the development of either a
DSS generator or a specific DSS application.
a. primary development tools
b. DSS generators
c. specific DSS applications
d. None of the above.
40. The _____________ are packages of hardware/software which provide a set of capabilities
to build a specific DSS quickly and easily.
a. primary development tools
b. DSS generators
c. specific DSS applications
d. None of the above.
41. List the processes in the SDLC approach to DSS application development.
87. What are the strengths and weaknesses of the traditional SDLC
approach?
88. List and briefly describe the two types of prototypes. Compare their
advantages and limitations.
89. List the factors that are related to the quality of the user interface.
Chapter 15
Implementing and Integrating Decision Support Systems
True-False Questions
279. Implementation is probably the most important and critical step in the entire DSS
design process because without a successful implementation, the greatest DSS ever
created will go unused or even unnoticed.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 478
282. The essence of the Kolb-Frohman model is the assumption that the probability of
successful implementation will result from a specific pattern of actions by the users
and managers.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 479
283. Alter suggested that the initial impetus behind the development of a DSS can be
categorized via: (1) user stimulus, (2) managerial stimulus and (3) environmental
stimulus.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 481
284. The Service with a Smile implementation pattern is the most common approach for a
DSS.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 482
285. The logic behind user satisfaction as a measure of success is that the users will view a
DSS as favorable if it is perceived to be effective in supporting the decision-making
process. The more effective the system appears to be, the more satisfied the users will
be with the system.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 485
286. The number of times a DSS was accessed is the most effective metric of its success.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 485
288. Perceived usefulness focuses on the attitudes of the user with regard to the degree to
which the system is perceived to bring utility or value to the activity within which it
is used.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 485
289. Perceived ease-of-use focuses on the degree to which the users of the system perceive
the task to be easy to do.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 485
290. One method of assessing the success of a DSS is to focus on the technical
functionality of the system.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 486
291. Utilizing the ratio of direct cost to direct benefit is an example of using
organizational success measures to assess a DSS.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 486
292. Integrating the DSS into the organization simply means that the new application is
merged into the existing computing infrastructure such that the appearance of a
seamless architecture appears to the user.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 494
293. In functional integration, the various decision support functions with the DSS are
integrated and linked to those of the existing infrastructure. This linking includes
providing common menu access, inter- and intra-application transfer of data and
tools, and a common application interface at the same desktop client or workstation.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 494
294. Physical integration involves the architectural bundling of the hardware, software,
and data communication characteristics associated with the new DSS into the existing
set of physical systems.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 494
295. Physical integration can begin before a DSS is designed.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 494
296. One of the least common problems faced during the implementation and integration
of virtually any computer-based information system, including DSS, is the resistance
by certain individuals or groups to the changes associated with the new system.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 495
297. Resistance to change can result from a number of different factors, including fear of
the unknown.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 495
298. Managers represent the single resistance group to the implementation of a DSS,
because they fear a loss of importance.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 497
Multiple Choice Questions
21. _________________ is probably the most important and critical step in the entire
DSS design process because without its success, the greatest DSS ever created
will go unused or even unnoticed.
a. Design
b. Implementation
c. Requirements Analysis
d. Physical Design
22. According to this theory, the process of change occurs in three basic steps:
unfreezing, moving, and refreezing.
a. Kolb-Frohman
b. Structuration
c. Contingency
d. Lewin-Schein
23. Which of the following is not a step in the Kolb-Frohman theory of change?
a. Scouting
b. Entry
c. Diagnosis
d. Refreezing
24. According to Alter, which of the following is not a DSS development category
impetus?
a. Entrepreneurial stimulus
b. User stimulus
c. Managerial stimulus
d. Environmental stimulus
25. One common measure of success suggests that users will view a DSS as
favorable if it is seen as effective in supporting the decision-making process. This
measure is known as:
a. perceived usefulness.
b. perceived ease of use.
c. user satisfaction.
d. system use.
27. The ________________ construct focuses on the degree to which the users of the
system perceive the tool to be easy to use.
a. perceived usefulness
b. perceived ease-of-use
c. user satisfaction
d. system use
28. Which DSS implementation pattern is associated with high levels of user
involvement and initiation?
a. Join hands and circle around
b. Service with a smile
c. R&D
d. Used car salesperson
30. Which DSS implementation pattern is associated with users who are looking to
buy a product?
a. Join hands and circle around
b. Service with a smile
c. R&D
d. Used car salesperson
32. In this system measurement category, the quality of the computer system
becomes the focus. Issues such as response time, system availability, usage time,
reliability, and quality of system support, among others are identified and
measured. Measures in this category can be obtained using a variety of methods
including direct observation, event logging, and attitude or perceptual construct
surveys.
a. System performance
b. Task performance
c. Business opportunities
d. Evolutionary aspects
33. This category of assessment takes a micro focus on performance and addresses
issues related to the functionality of the DSS within the specific problem context
for which it was developed. Decision quality can be assessed in terms of time
spent in the decision process, number of alternatives evaluated, and span of
information searched. Additionally, qualitative measures dealing with trust or
confidence, satisfaction, and understanding, can also be included in this measure.
a. System performance
b. Task performance
c. Business opportunities
d. Evolutionary aspects
34. This category measures the factors that contribute to the organizational aspects of
the DSS. This category is primarily quantitative in nature and includes measures
focusing on increases in revenue, cost reductions, increases in training
effectiveness, increases in competitive advantages, and changes in productivity,
among many others.
a. System performance
b. Task performance
c. Business opportunities
d. Evolutionary aspects
36. Which of the following takes a process-centric perspective with regard to the
design of an information system and its associated applications?
a. DSS management
b. Issue-based management
c. Process based management
d. None of the above.
37. The process by which the new DSS application is merged into the existing
computing infrastructure such that the appearance of a seamless architecture
appears to the user is called:
a. design.
b. maintenance.
c. implementation.
d. integration.
38. In __________ integration, the various decision support functions with the DSS
are integrated and linked to those of the existing infrastructure. This linking
includes providing common menu access, inter- and intra-application transfer of
data and tools, and a common application interface at the same desktop client or
workstation.
a. physical
b. functional
c. technical
d. None of the above.
40. Which of the following is a factor that can lead to resistance to change within an
organization?
a. Fear of the unknown
b. Differing perceptions
c. Conservationism
d. All of the above.
1.
42. What are the seven steps of the process of change in the Kolb-
Frohman Model?
90. List and briefly describe the six generic DSS implementation
patterns.
Chapter 16
299. Creativity involves the translation of our unique gifts, talents, and vision into some
form of external reality that is both new and useful.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 504
300. Creativity can involve the combining of existing objects intended for one purpose
into some other completely different purpose.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 504
303. Creativity in problem solving and planning can be defined as the ability of a subject
in a choice situation to modify self-imposed constraints so as to enable him to select
courses of action that he would otherwise produce on his own.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 506
306. The process orientation view sees creativity as a property of a thought process that
can be acquired and improved through instruction and practice.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 508
307. Logical thinking is perhaps the most common, most widely used, and most often
recommended approach to solving a problem. This method of thinking is rooted in
the model-building and quantitative methods of management science and is an
integral part of the design and development of a computer-based DSS.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 509
308. Lateral thinking is based upon the premise that the human mind naturally processes
and stores information in accordance with a specific pattern of thought and action.
Because of this logical categorization process, the mind becomes hindered in any
attempt to change these recognized patterns of thought. Lateral thinking disrupts
these patterns through the introduction of discontinuity.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 509
309. Three major activities promote lateral thinking processes: (1) creativity, (2) analysis
and (3) initiative.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 509
311. The most common method of introducing change from outside the problem context is
to use analogies.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 510
312. Opposite thinking takes the position that certain elements within a problem context
are more critical to any solution outcome.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 511
313. Critical thinking is a method of problem solving where the decision-maker simply
takes the perspective of someone other than himself or herself. This is a form of
“standing in another’s shoes.” Using this method, a decision maker can often gain
insight into why a particular problem exists in the first place.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 511
314. One of the most common barriers to creativity is a result of problem solvers making
assumptions regarding potential outcomes that are untrue.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 513
317. Osborn’s Idea Checklist requires that users write down attributes of a problem, list as
many alternatives under each attribute as possible, and then consider all possible
combinations.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 518
24. The _______________ perspective argues that creativity is nothing more than a natural
response to stimuli within our individual environments and that certain combinations of
stimuli can lead to more creative behavior than other combinations.
a. psychoanalytic
b. behavioral
c. process orientation
d. None of the above.
27. This method of thinking is rooted in the model-building and quantitative methods of
management science and is an integral part of the design and development of a computer-
based DSS.
a. Logical
b. Lateral
c. Critical
d. Intuition
28. This method of thinking is based upon the premise that the human mind naturally
processes and stores information in accordance with a specific pattern of thought and
action.
a. Logical
b. Lateral
c. Critical
d. Intuition
29. This method of thinking takes the position that there exists certain elements within a
problem context that are most crucial to the significance of any solution outcome.
a. Logical
b. Lateral
c. Critical
d. Intuition
34. __________ is one of the most common barriers to creativity and is identified by
problem solvers who make assumptions regarding potential outcomes that are fabricated
or untrue.
a. Self-constraining beliefs
b. Fear of criticism
c. Lack of confidence
d. Stress
37. Which category of problem solving techniques contains two goals: (1) divergent thinking
and (2) the generation of ideas?
a. Serendipity
b. Free association
c. Brainstorming
d. None of the above.
39. The _________ technique requires the user to write down attributes of a problem, list as
many alternative options under each attribute as possible, and then consider all possible
combinations and permutations of the alternatives.
a. Osborn’s idea checklist
b. morphological forced connections
c. analytic hierarchy process
d. None of the above.
40. Which of the following is not an element of the general form of the model for the
Analytic Hierarchy Process?
a. Criteria
b. Alternatives
c. Decision
d. All of the above are elements.
94. List and briefly describe the three major activities in promoting lateral thinking
processes.
Chapter 17
Intelligent Software Agents, BOTS, Delegation, and Agency
True-False Questions
325. Intelligent software agents replace the need for any human intervention.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 531
326. The concept of delegacy centers on consistency.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 531
327. Intelligent software agents on the Internet and intranets are moving towards
personalization and diversification.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 533
331. Agency architecture defines the mathematical formulas for representing and
reasoning about the properties of agents.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 537
334. Because of the static nature of intelligent agents, many are needed to develop an
effective e-commerce site.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 541
335. Organizational agents are far more prevalent across the Internet than personal agents.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 544
337. A helper agent is designed to assist a user in an autonomous manner without human
intervention.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 547
21. When you agree to take on the responsibility for completing a task from another,
you act as a(n) _____________.
a. delegate
b. independent agent
c. autonomous agent
d. None of the above.
22. Software that “knows” a users’ interests and can act autonomously on their behalf
is referred to as:
a. an intelligent agent.
b. a script file.
c. artificial intelligence.
d. All of the above.
28. __________ addresses the problem of designing hardware and software systems
that will satisfy the properties specified by the agent theorists.
a. Agent theory
b. Agent architecture
c. Agent language
d. None of the above.
29. Which types of agents represents two orthogonal concepts: the ability for
autonomous execution and the ability to perform domain-oriented reasoning?
a. AIMA
b. MuBOT
c. Hayes-Roth
d. None of the above.
30. Which types of agents collaborate, are autonomous, trustworthy and degrade
gracefully in the face of a communications mismatch?
a. SodaBot
b. IBM
c. KidSim
d. None of the above.
37. Which type of agent searches for the emergence of specific information?
a. Learning agent
b. Watcher agent
c. Passive agent
d. None of the above.
38. Which type of agent is designed to facilitate and assist with online shopping
activities?
a. Helper agent
b. Shopping agent
c. Watcher agent
d. Learning agent
39. Which of the following is not an attribute role of agents within the Gaia
methodology?
a. Permissions
b. Protocols
c. Use cases
d. Activities
40. Which of the following is used by UML to model the world as relations between
entities using static class diagram format?
a. Protocol diagram
b. Architecture diagram
c. Ontology diagram
d. None of the above.
96. List and describe the common characteristics of Intelligent Software Agents.
Chapter 18
Decision Support in the Twenty-First Century
True-False Questions
3. One of the significant advantages of DSSs is that they are completely secure and can
therefore be accessed across any network.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 577
4. One area of future DSS growth is advanced data management capabilities, including
support for hypertext and multimedia.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 577
5. Virtual reality can potentially alter the manner in which users are trained to use
information systems.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 578
6. Two major issues that will impact the future of expert systems are knowledge
management and virtual databases.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 578
7. A high performance storage system (HPSS) is software that is useful for the
management of large rule sets.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 579
8. The ultimate design goal for expert system knowledge acquisition is to enable the
user to encode their own knowledge.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 580
10. Collaborative filtering applies human thought, in the form of a database of user
preferences.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 583
Multiple Choice Questions
12. _____________ is the term that describes the phenomena of data doubling every
year, while at the same time a typical knowledge analyst can only absorb 5% of
the data.
a. Online analytical processing
b. Information overload
c. Virtual information analysis
d. None of the above.
14. Which of the following is not an issue that is crucial to the future of expert
systems?
a. Knowledge management
b. Network simulation
c. AI requirements for intelligent databases
d. None of the above.
18. Which of the following utilizes a database of user preferences in order to predict
user outcomes?
a. Personalization agents
b. Collaborative filtering
c. Active filtering
d. None of the above.
19. Which of the following is not an issue affecting intelligent software agents?
a. Vigilance
b. Privacy
c. Legal issues
d. All of the above are issues affecting ISAs.