Try Out PPDS Ortho 01 Maret 2021

Report Summary
Name : Angga.Rusdianto
Your Score : 40 out of 100 (40%)
Correct Answers : 10 Question
Incorrect Answers : 15 Question
Unanswered : 0 Question
Passing Grade (%) : 80%
Time Taken : 27 mins 46 secs
Your Result : Fail
Email : Angga.Rusdianto@hotmail.com

Your Answers

Incorrect

Q1) A 12-year-old boy presents with a 2 month history of right knee pain after a fall. He
has lost 3 kg in weight but is otherwise well. He is pale, apyrexial and his right
knee is slightly swollen and warm on examination. Plain radiographs reveal areas
of dense sclerosis admixed with areas of radiolucency in the distal femoral
metaphysis. Aggressive periosteal new bone formation is also noted. Which of the
following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Parosteal osteosarcoma
B. Periosteal osteosarcoma (Your Answer)(Incorrect)
C. High-grade intramedullary osteosarcoma (Correct)
D. Telangiectatic osteosarcoma
E. Osteomyelitis

Incorrect

Q2) A 28-year-old female presents to your clinic with progressively increasing pain in
 her left wrist. She has also recently been having repeated episodes of abdominal
discomfort, nausea and vomiting. A plain radiograph of the wrist reveals an
eccentrically placed lytic lesion in the metaphysis and epiphysis with thinning of
the cortex. You suspect a giant cell tumour of bone. What is the most appropriate
next step in the management of this patient?
A. Perform a bone biopsy
B. Curettage alone
C. Curettage and phenolization
D. Curettage, high-speed burr, cement and bone graft (Your Answer)(Incorrect)
E. Check serum parathyroid hormone (PTH) and calcium (Correct)

Correct

Q3) A 55-year-old male is diagnosed with a dedifferentiated chondrosarcoma of the

femur which appears on MRI to have a significant extraosseous component.
Distant staging has not revealed any metastases. What surgical stage would be
assigned to this tumour according to the system of the Musculoskeletal Tumour
Society (MSTS)?
A. IA
B. IB
C. IIA
D. IIB (Your Answer)(Correct)
E. IIIB

Incorrect

Q4) Which one of the following is not true of articular cartilage composition in severe
osteoarthritis?
A. Increased water content
B. Decreased chondroitin 4-sulphate concentration (Correct)
C. Decreased collagen content
D. Decreased keratin sulphate:chondroitin sulphate ratio (Your Answer)(Incorrect)
E. Decreased modulus of elasticity

Incorrect

Q5) Vitamin D-resistant rickets is inherited as which of the following traits?

A. Autosomal dominant (Your Answer)(Incorrect)
 B. Autosomal recessive
C. X-linked dominant (Correct)
D. X-linked recessive
E. Non-Mendelian

Incorrect

Q6) The diagnostic criteria for ankylosing spondylitis include all of the following
except?
A. HLA B27 positivity (Correct)
B. Limitation of motion of the lumbar spine
C. History of pain in the lumbar spine
D. Limited chest expansion to 2.5 cm or less (Your Answer)(Incorrect)
E. Sacroiliac joint involvement

Correct

Q7) Which of the following tumours is least likely to involve the posterior elements of
the spine?
A. Osteoid osteoma
B. Langerhans? cell histiocytosis (Your Answer)(Correct)
C. Aneurysmal bone cyst
D. Osteoblastoma
E. Osteochondroma

Incorrect

Q8) What is the World Health Organization (WHO) definition of osteoporosis?

A. Bone mineral density less than 1 standard deviation below the mean of a young, healthy adult
B. Bone mineral density at least 2.5 standard deviations below the mean of a young, healthy adult
C. T score less than ?2.5 (Your Answer)(Incorrect)
D. T score more than ?2.5
E. B and C (Correct)

Incorrect
Q9) Which one of the following benign tumours can metastasize to the lung?
A. Osteoid osteoma
B. Non-ossifying fibroma
C. Haemangioma
D. Eosinophilic granuloma (Your Answer)(Incorrect)
E. Chondroblastoma (Correct)

Incorrect

Q10) Which of the following is true regarding Ollier's disease?

A. Autosomal dominant
B. Sarcomatous degeneration occurs in 30% of patients (Correct)
C. Hand involvement is an uncommon feature
D. Incidence of conversion to chondrosarcoma is similar to Mafucci?s syndrome (Your
Answer)(Incorrect)
E. Onset is usually in adulthood

Correct

Q11) Which of the following is the most sensitive clinical sign for detection of
developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) in a baby aged 6 months?
A. Galeazzi test
B. Asymmetric skin folds in the thighs
C. Limited hip abduction in flexion (Your Answer)(Correct)
D. Ortolani?s test
E. Barlow?s test

Correct

Q12) When investigating for the presence of femoroacetabular impingement (FAI),

which of the following radiographic views is most likely to identify a cam lesion?
A. Cross table lateral
B. False profile
C. Frog lateral
D. Billings lateral
E. Dunn lateral (Your Answer)(Correct)
Correct

Q13) Which of the following is the best predictor of avascular necrosis (AVN) following
hip fracture in children?
A. Fracture type and patient age (Your Answer)(Correct)
B. Open anatomical reduction and rigid internal fixation
C. Surgery within 36 hours and capsular decompression
D. Initial displacement and associated injuries
E. Hospital type and grade of surgeon

Incorrect

Q14) A supracondylar fracture of the distal humerus with posterolateral displacement

should be reduced by performing reduction manoeuvres in the following order?
A. Valgus ? Flexion ? Pronation
B. Varus ? Extension ? Supination (Correct)
C. Valgus ? Extension ? Pronation
D. Traction ? Pronation ? Flexion (Your Answer)(Incorrect)
E. Varus ? Extension ? Pronation

Incorrect

Q15) Which of the following is not a typical deformity/gait disturbance seen in cerebral
palsy?
A. Toe walking
B. Wide-based gait (Your Answer)(Incorrect)
C. Hip adduction
D. Wrist flexion
E. Forearm supination (Correct)

Incorrect

Q16) Which of the following is not a characteristic abnormality in fibular hemimelia?

A. Genu valgum
B. Coxa vara
C. Posteromedial tibial bowing (Correct)
 D. Flattened tibial spine
E. Hypoplastic lateral femoral condyle (Your Answer)(Incorrect)

Correct

Q17) After the age of 4, the proximal femoral epiphysis receives its predominant blood
supply via an increased contribution from which of the following?
A. Ligamentum teres
B. Metaphyseal vessels
C. Lateral circumflex vessels
D. Medial circumflex vessels (Your Answer)(Correct)
E. Anterosuperior branches

Incorrect

Q18) Which is the least important risk factor associated with developmental dysplasia of
the hip?
A. Female sex (Your Answer)(Incorrect)
B. Breech position
C. Positive family history
D. Gestational diabetes (Correct)
E. First born child

Incorrect

Q19) In Risser staging, an iliac apophysis showing 75% ossification represents which of
the following?
A. Risser 1
B. Risser 2
C. Risser 3 (Correct)
D. Risser 4 (Your Answer)(Incorrect)
E. Risser 5

Correct

Q20) Which of the following statements is incorrect: Ultrasound examination is an

 imperfect screening tool in the diagnosis of developmental dysplasia of the hip
(DDH) because?
A. DDH has a known incidence
B. There is an accepted and effective treatment (Your Answer)(Correct)
C. Examination is acceptable to the carers
D. The effect of early treatment is unknown
E. Non-invasive treatment causes avascular necrosis (AVN)

Incorrect

Q21) Which is the most common site of pelvic apophyseal avulsion fractures?
A. Lesser trochanter
B. Anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) (Your Answer)(Incorrect)
C. Anterior inferior iliac spine (AIIS)
D. Pubic tubercle
E. Ischial tuberosity (Correct)

Incorrect

Q22) On a pelvic radiograph, which line passes through the inferior teardrop and joins
the superolateral and inferomedial aspects of the bony socket?
A. Hilgenreiner?s
B. Perkin?s
C. Shenton?s (Your Answer)(Incorrect)
D. Wiberg?s
E. Sharp?s (Correct)

Correct

Q23) Regarding obstetric brachial plexus injuries, which of the following is not typically
associated with Erb's palsy?
A. Anterior shoulder dislocation (Your Answer)(Correct)
B. Shoulder adduction
C. Elbow extension
D. Increased likelihood of skin infections
E. Forearm pronation
 Correct

Q24) A previously healthy 41-year-old man suffers a minimally displaced distal radius
fracture and is treated in a cast for 4 weeks. He presents 14 weeks later with
dorsal wrist pain. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Rupture of the extensor pollicis longus (EPL) tendon (Your Answer)(Correct)
B. Rupture of the extensor indicis proprius (EIP) tendon
C. Missed scaphoid fracture
D. De Quervain?s tenosynovitis
E. Arthritis of the first carpometacarpal joint

Correct

Q25) Which of the following inflammatory mediators has been most closely associated
with the magnitude of the inflammatory response to blunt trauma and with the
development of multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)?
A. Interleukin-1 (IL-1)
B. Beta human chorionic gonadotrophin (?-HCG)
C. Tumour necrosis factor beta (TGF-?)
D. Tumour necrosis factor alpha (TNF-a)
E. Interleukin-6 (IL-6) (Your Answer)(Correct)

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