Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy., India.: 2017 - PAPER-I

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy., India.

AP, TELANGANA, KARNATAKA, TAMILNADU, MAHARASHTRA, DELHI, RANCHI


A right Choice for the Real Aspirant
ICON Central Office , Madhapur – Hyderabad
Sec: Sr.Super60 UTA-18 Date: 26-09-20
Time: 09.30Am to 12.30Pm Max.Marks:183

2017_PAPER–I
26-09-2020_Sr.Super60_(In Com)_Jee-Adv(2017-P1)
UTA-18_Syllabus

MATHS : Binomial Theorem (complete), Probability: Classical definition of


Probability, Types of events, Addition theorem and problems based on it, Problems
Based on p &c, miscellaneous problems, Conditional probability, Independent events,
Multiplication theorem

PHYSICS : Complete Modern Physics

CHEMISTRY : Aldehydes and Ketones, Carboxylic Acids & Derivatives

Name of the Student: ___________________ H.T. NO:


Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 26-09-2020_Sr.Super60_(In Com)_Jee-Adv(2017-P1)_UTA-18_Q’P
JEE-ADVANCE-2017-P1-Model
Time: 03:00 Hr’s IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS Max Marks: 183
PHYSICS:
+Ve - Ve No.of Total
Section Question Type
Marks Marks Qs marks
Questions With Multiple Correct Choice
Sec – I (Q.N : 1 – 7) +4 -2 7 28
(partial marking scheme) (+1,0)
Sec – II (Q.N : 8 – 12) Questions With Integer Answer Type +3 0 5 15

Sec – III (Q.N : 13 – 18) Questions With Single Answer Type +3 -1 6 18


Total 18 61
CHEMISTRY:
+Ve - Ve No.of Total
Section Question Type
Marks Marks Qs marks
Questions With Multiple Correct Choice
Sec – I (Q.N : 19 – 25) +4 -2 7 28
(partial marking scheme) (+1,0)
Sec – II (Q.N : 26 – 30) Questions With Integer Answer Type +3 0 5 15
Sec – III (Q.N : 31 – 36) Questions With Single Answer Type +3 -1 6 18
Total 18 61
MATHEMATICS:
+Ve - Ve No.of Total
Section Question Type
Marks Marks Qs marks
Questions With Multiple Correct Choice
Sec – I (Q.N : 37 – 43) +4 -2 7 28
(partial marking scheme) (+1,0)

Sec – II (Q.N : 44 – 48) Questions With Integer Answer Type +3 0 5 15

Sec – III (Q.N : 49 – 54) Questions With Single Answer Type +3 -1 6 28


Total 18 61

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 26-09-2020_Sr.Super60_(In Com)_Jee-Adv(2017-P1)_UTA-18_Q’P
PHYSICS Max. Marks: 61
SECTION – I
(MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer,
out of which ONE OR MORE than ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for all correct options & +1 partial marks, 0 if not attempted and -2 in all wrong cases.
dN
1. A radioactive nuclide decays with a decay constant  . Let A  log , where
dt
dN
is the number of radioactive decay acts taking place per second. Suppose
dt
the experiment starts at t = 0 and the curve between A and t is shown in the
adjacent figure. Now, choose the correct statement(s) from the following.

A0
A) Decay constant of the radioactive sample is
2t 0

t 0 A0
B) Number of radioactive nuclei at the start of the experiment was e
A0

t 0 A0
C) Number of radioactive nuclei after half-life is e
A0

D) Half-life of the radioactive sample is t0

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2. The stopping potential (V) applied between a photocathode and the respective
anode is such that the faster photoelectron can fly only one-fourth of the
distance between the cathode and the anode. If the distance between
photocathode and anode is reduced to (1/4)th of the original value while
maintaining the stopping potential constant, then
A) The fastest electron will reach the anode
B) The fastest electron will reach upto one-fourth of the new distance between
the cathode and the anode
C) Kinetic energy of the fastest photoelectron emitted from photocathode will
not change due to change in plate separation (keeping V constant)
D) Kinetic energy of the fastest photoelectron will increase due to decrease in
plate separation (keeping V constant)
3. A particle P collides inelastically with a singly ionized helium atom which is at
rest, initially helium atom  He   is in ground state. After collision particle ‘P’ is

found to be scattered at an angle 90 with respect to it’s initial direction of


motion, and before emitting any radiation He  and particle P have same kinetic
energy. He  is observed to emit total 6 wavelengths representing all possible
successive transitions in between excited level to ground level.
A) The particle P may be a sufficiently energetic electron
B) The particle P may be a sufficiently energetic neutron
C) Out of six wavelengths only one belongs to visible region spectrum
D) No one emitted radiations belong to visible region spectrum

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4. Fig. shows the results of an experiment involving photoelectric effect. The
graphs A, B, C, D related the light beam having different wavelengths.
i
(Current)
A
B
C
D

Accelerating
O v
Retarding
A) Beam B has highest frequency
B) Beam C has longest wavelength
C) Beam A has the highest rate of photoelectric emission
D) Photoelectrons ejected by beam B may have the highest magnitude of
momentum
5. Moonlight has an intensity of 0.84  103 W/m 2 . The average wavelength of
o
moonlight is 5000 A .
A) The force exerted by moonlight on a perfectly absorbing surface of area 100
m2 is 0.28  109 N
B) The force exerted by moonlight on a perfectly absorbing surface of area 100
m2 is 0.84  102 N

C) The number of photons/m3 in the beam is 7  106


D) The number of photons/m3 in the beam is 7  103
6. A nucleus X of mass M, initially at rest, undergoes alpha decay according the
equation
The   particle emitted in the above process is found to move in a circular
track of radius r in a uniform magnetic field B. Then (mass and charge of
  particle are m and q respectively)

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A) The ratio of kinetic energies of the   particle and the daughter nucleus Y
Mm
approximately equals
m
B) The ratio of kinetic energies of the   particle and the daughter nucleus Y
m
approximately equals
M
2 2 2
M rqB
C) The energy released in the process approximately equals
M  m 2m
2 2 2
M mr q B 
D) The energy released in the process approximately equals
M  2m 
7. A radioactive sample with half life = T emits particle. Its total activity is Ai at
some time and Af at a later time. The number of   particles emitted by the
sample between these two points of time is:
T
A) A i  A f B)  Ai  A f 
ln 2
ln 2 T 1 1
C)  Ai  A f  D)   
T ln 2  A i A f 

SECTION-II
(INTEGER ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 5 questions. The answer is a single digit integer ranging from 0 to 9 (both inclusive).
Marking scheme +3 for correct answer , 0 if not attempted and 0 in all other cases.
8. One possible method for revealing the presence of concealed nuclear weapons
is to detect the neutrons emitted in the spontaneous fission of 240 Pu in the
warhead. In an actual trial, a neutron detector of radius 1.0 m carried on a
helicopter measured a neutron flux of 50 s-1 at a distance of 100 m from a
240
missile warhead. Estimate the mass of Pu (in kg approximately) in the
warhead. The mean life for spontaneous fission in 240 Pu is 6  1018 sec, and 2.5
neutrons on the average are emitted in each fission (Avogadro’s number
= 6  1023 )

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9. A radioactive sample contains two radio nucleoids A and B having decay
constant  hr 1 and 2 hr 1 . Initially 25% of total decay comes from A. How long
(in hr) will it take before 75% of total decay comes from A. (take   ln 3 )
10. A photon with an energy of 4.9 eV ejects photoelectrons from tungsten. When
the ejected electron enters a constant magnetic field of strength B = 2.5 mT at
an angle of 600 with the field direction, the maximum pitch of the helix
described by the electron is found to be 2.7 mm. If the work function of the
metal in the electron volts is 1.5  n . Then find n? (Given that specific charge of
electron is 1.76  1011 C/kg)
11. Ratio of magnetic dipole moment and magnetic field induction at the centre of
a Bohr’s hypothetical hydrogen atom in the nth orbit of the electron in terms of
x o hn 6e
universal constant is . Then find x.
4  2 m 3 e 7 0

12. Nucleus 3 A7 has binding energy per nucleon of 10 MeV. It absorbs a proton
99
and its mass increases by times the mass of proton. The new binding
100

energy of the nucleus so formed is 79 + x/10 MeV. [Take energy equivalent of


proton=930 MeV]. Find x.

SECTION – III
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer,
out of which ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +3 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and -1 in all other cases.
Answer Q.13, Q.14 and Q.15 by appropriately matching the information given
in the three columns of the following table.
This table is based on photoelectric field effect. Column-I contains the threshold
wavelength   th  for different surfaces. Column-2 contains the graph between

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stopping potential (V0) and frequency (v) of photon incident on different
surfaces. Column-3 contains the work function    for different surfaces.

Column-I Column-II Column-III


Vo

o
(I) 2486 A (P) 8  10 19 J
v
3
(i)
Vo

o
(II) 4144 A (Q) 4.8  10 19 J
v
5
(ii)
Vo

o
(III) 6215.5 A (R) 3.2  10 19 J
v
4
(iii)
Vo

o
(IV) 3108 A (S) 6.4  10 19 J
v
2
(iv)

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13. What is the correct combination for the surface for which when a radiation of
o
1243 A falls the kinetic energy of electron emitted is equal to its work function?
A) I-ii-P B) I-ii-Q C) II-i-P D) II-i-Q
14. What is the correct combination for the surface for which when a radiation of
o
3000 A falls the kinetic energy of electron emitted is minimum?
A) III-iv-R B) II-i-Q C) III-iv-S D) IV-iii-S
15. What is the correct combination for the surface for which the work function as
minimum value?
A) IV-iii-R B) III-iv-R C) II-i-Q D) I-ii-P

Answer Q.16, Q.17 and Q.18 by appropriately matching the information given
in the three columns of the following table.
A beam of particles X is incident on a sample of H atom at rest in ground state.
Each particle in the beam has energy E.
Column-I gives the identity of X.
Column-II gives the value of E in (eV).
Column-III lists the various possible outcomes of the event.

Column-I Column-II Column-III


1) Electron A) 12 eV P) No radiation is observed
2) Neutron B) 22 eV Q) U.V. radiation is observed
3) Deuterium nucleus C) 25 eV R) Visible radiation is observed
4)   particle D) 55 eV S) Infrared radiation is observed

16. Which of the following is INCORERCT?


A) 1-A-Q B) 1-B-Q C) 2-B-S D) 2-C-R
17. Which of the following is CORRECT?
A) 1-A-Q B) 3-C-Q C) 3-D-S D) 3-C-P
18. Which of the following is CORRECT?
A) 4-D-P B) 4-D-Q C) 4-C-R D) 4-C-S

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CHEMISTRY Max.Marks:61
SECTION – I
(MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer,
out of which ONE OR MORE than ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for all correct options & +1 partial marks, 0 if not attempted and -2 in all wrong cases.
19. Which of the following compounds will undergo Cannizzaro reaction?
CHO
CHO
A) B)
O O

C) D) H H

20. In the given reaction, compounds A&C are related as:


Hydroboration
 i CH3MgBr H2SO4 ,  oxidation
CH 3CHO 
iiH2O  A    B    C

A) Structural isomers B) Positional isomers


C) Constitutional isomers D) Homologues
21. Which of the following reagent cannot be used for the following conversion?
o|| o||
CH3  CH  CH  CH 2  C  CH3  CH3  CH  CH  CH 2  C  OH
A) Tollen’s reagent
B) I2 and NaOH solution followed by acidification
C) Fehling’s Solution
D) CrO3
o||
22. Treatment of compound Ph  O  C  Ph with NaOH solution yields
A) Phenol B) Sodium phenoxide
C) Sodium Benzoate D) Benzoic Acid

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23. Which of the following reactions can be used to increase number of carbon in
the chain?
A) Reaction with Grignard reagent B) Cannizzaro reaction
C) Aldol condensation D) Arndt–Eistert reaction
24. An enantiomerically pure acid is treated with a racemic mixture of an alcohol
having only one chiral carbon. The ester formed will be:
A) Optically active mixture B) Racemic Mixture
C) Optically active compound D) Meso compound
25.
O
(1) NaOH/Br2
H3 C C
(2) O
NH2 C
Cl

Which of the following statements are correct about the given reaction?
A) Electrophilic aromatic substitution takes place
B) Product will have an imide group
C) First step is haloform reaction
D) Functional present in product is same as that of reactant.

SECTION-II
(INTEGER ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 5 questions. The answer is a single digit integer ranging from 0 to 9 (both inclusive).
Marking scheme +3 for correct answer , 0 if not attempted and 0 in all other cases.
26. In how many of the following compounds keto–enol tautomerism is observed?
O O O

(i) O (ii)

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O

(iii) PhCHO (iv) Ph

(v) NH (vi) O
O
O

(vii) (viii)
O

(ix) H H

27. Acetaldehyde will test positive in how many of the following tests:
i) Lucas Test ii) Victor mayor test
iii) Iodoform test iv) Sodium bisulfite test
v) Litmus test vi) Sodium metal test
vii) Tollen’s test viii) Fehling’s Solution Test
ix) 2,4–DNP Test
Alc.KOH NaNH /  Hg 2
28. CH 3  CH 2  CH 2  CHCl2  P  2
followed by acidification Q 
dil.H 2SO 4  R Major

If total enol form of product R are x and total optically active enol forms of
product R are y. Then the value of (x + y) is:

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29. How many of the following compounds are more acidic than formic acid?
CF3COOH, CCl3COOH, CHCl2COOH, NO2CH2COOH, NC–CH2COOH,
ClCH2CH2COOH, FCH2COOH, ClCH2COOH, BrCH2COOH, C6H5COOH,
C6H5CH2COOH, CH3COOH, CH3CH2COOH
30. Total number of mono–carboxylic acids which can give 2–methylpentane on
soda lime decarboxylation is:

SECTION – III
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer,
out of which ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +3 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and -1 in all other cases.
Answer Q.31, Q.32 and Q.33 by appropriately matching the information given
in the three columns of the following table.

Column–I Column–II Column–III


(Reactant) (Reagent) (Group present in product)
O
i) NaOH P) Alcohol
I) H H
O
ii) PhCO3H Q) Aldehyde
II)
O
iii) Al(OEt)3 R) Carboxylic acid or its salt.
III) Ph H
O

iv) NaCN S) Ester


IV) Ph Ph

31. Select the CORRECT combination:


A) I–i–Q B) II–ii–S C) III–iii–P D) IV–iv–R
32. Select the INCORRECT combination:
A) III–i–P B) I–i–R C) II–i–Q D) I–iii–S

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33. Which of the following combinations is correct in which reaction is proceeding
via hydride transfer?
A) III–iv–P B) IV–ii–S C) II–i–P D) I–iii–S
Answer Q.34, Q.35 and Q.36 by appropriately matching the information given
in the three columns of the following table.

Column–I Column–II Column–III


(Reactant) (Reagent) (Mechanism)
(I) Toluene (i) Cl2 / hv (P) Nucleophilic substitution
(II) Benzaldehyde (ii) NaOH (Q) Acid Base reaction
(III) Acetophenone (iii) I2 (R) Free radical substitution
(IV) Formaldehyde (iv) CH3MgBr (S) Nucleophilic addition

34. Which of the following is incorrectly paired with the mechanisms involved
during the reaction?
A) I–i–R B) II–iv–S C) III–ii–P D) IV–ii–S
35. Which of the given mechanisms is not involved during the given reaction
sequence?

i in excess  


I 
aq.ii  Acidification
  
A) P B) Q C) R D) S
36. Which of the following reactions will not result in alcohol as one of the product?

I  
i ii  
ii
A) B) II 
excess

 
C) III 
iii
D)
iv 
IV  Acidification

ii 

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MATHS Max.Marks:61
SECTION – I
(MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer,
out of which ONE OR MORE than ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for all correct options & +1 partial marks, 0 if not attempted and -2 in all wrong cases.
37. Which of the following statements is/ are true?
A) The probability that birthday of twelve people will fall in 12 Calendar months
= 12!/1212
B) The probability that birthday of six people will fall in exactly two calendar
(26  2)
months is 12c2
126
C) The probability that birthday of six people will fall in exactly two Calendar
(27  2)
months is12c3
127
365Pn
D) The probability that birthdays of n (n  365) people are different
(365)n
38. A bag initially contains one red ball and two blue balls. An experiment consists
of selecting a ball at random, noting its colour and replacing it together with an
additional ball of the same colour. If three such trials are made then which of
the following is/are TRUE?
A) Probability that at least one blue ball is drawn is 0.9
B) Probability that exactly one blue ball is drawn is 0.2
C) Probability that all the drawn balls are red given that all the drawn balls are of
the same colour is 0.2
D) Probability that at least one red ball is drawn is 0.6

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39. Cards are drawn one by one in a pack of well shuffled cards without
replacement until all the cards are drawn then which of the following is/are
TRUE?
A) Chance of getting a spade at the 13th trail is 1/13.
B) Chance of getting a spade at the 13th trail is ¼.
C) Chance of getting last card as a spade is ¼.
D) Chance of getting king at the 5th trail and queen at the 10th trail is 4/663.
40. A cubical die is thrown 9 times and the numbers obtained are written as a 9–
digit number. The probability that the number.

A) Begins with 246 is 1/63 B) ends with 135 is 1/63

C) begins with 246 and ends with 135 is 1/66

D) begins with 246 or ends with 135 is 431/66


15
15  15  2
41. If n   Cr r   , then which of the following is/are may be a factor of n is
r 0  2
A) 45 B) 30 C) 16 D) 24
42. If A and B are independent events such that

   
P A  B  2 /15 and P A  B  1/ 6 then P(B) can be

A) 1/5 B) 4/5 C) 1/6 D) 5/6


n
43. 
If 7  2 11   I  f , where n, I  N  n  2017 ,0  f  1 , then which of the

following is/are correct ?


A) I is even integer B) I is an odd integer
C)  I  f  f  5n D) I  f 1  f   5n

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SECTION-II
(INTEGER ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 5 questions. The answer is a single digit integer ranging from 0 to 9 (both inclusive).
Marking scheme +3 for correct answer , 0 if not attempted and 0 in all other cases.
44. The contents of three Urns w.r.t the Red, white and Green balls is as shown in
the table given below:
Urn R W G
I 2 3 1
II 3 2 1
III 3 1 2
A coin when tossed is twice as likely to come heads as compared to tails. Such
a coin is tossed two times, If one head, one tail present then 3 balls are drawn
simultaneously from the Urn–I, If head appears on both the occasions then 3
balls are drawn in a similar manner from Urn–II and if no head appears in both
the tosses then 3 balls from the Urn–III are drawn in the same manner. The
probability that all the 3 drawn balls are each of different colours is P/10, then
P=?
45. If the papers of 4 students can be checked by any one of the 7 teachers. If the
probability that all the 4 papers are checked by exactly 2 teachers is A, then the
value of 49 A must be?
46. If a1 , a2 , a3 are the last three digits of 17256 respectively then the value of
a2  a1  a3 is equal to
47. There are two dice A and B both having six faces. Die A has three faces marked
with 1, two faces with 2, and one faces marked with 3. Die B has one face
marked with 1, two faces marked with 2 and three faces marked with 3. Both
dice are thrown randomly once. If E be the event of getting sum of the numbers
appearing on top faces equal to x, P(E) is maximum if x is _____
1
n 1 n
48. Let a  5 673  1, f  n   nC0 a n 1  nC1a n 2  nC2 a n3  .........   1 Cn 1 , n  3 ,
If the value of f  2019  f  2020  a b , where a, b are prime positive integers,
then the value of a  b is equal to

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SECTION – III
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer,
out of which ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +3 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and -1 in all other cases.
Answer the 49, 50 and 51 by appropriately matching the information given in
the three columns of the following table
An urn contains 10 balls. 2 bals numbered ‘1’, 3 balls numbered ‘2’, 2 balls
numbered ‘3’ and 3 balls numbered ‘4’. Two balls are drawn one by one without
replacement from urn. Let Ai denoted the event that first drawn ball has number
‘i’ on it and Bj denotes the event that second drawn ball contains number ‘j’.
Column–I contains events Ai, column–II contains events Bj and column–III
A 
contains conditional probability P  i  .
 Bj 
 
Column–I Column–II Column–III
1
(I) A1 (i) B1 (P)
9
2
(II) A2 (ii) B2 (Q)
9
3
(III) A3 (iii) B3 (R)
9
4
(IV) A4 (iv) B4 (S)
9

49. Which of the following options is the only INCORRECT combination?


A) I–i–P B) I–ii–Q C) I–iii–Q D) I–iv–R
50. Which of the following options is the only CORRECT combination?
A) IV–i–R B) IV–ii–P C) III–i–P D) III–ii–S
51. Which of the following options is the only INCORRECT combination?
A) II–i–R B) II–ii–Q C) II–iii–R D) II–iv–P

Sec: Sr.Super60 Space for rough work Page 18


Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 26-09-2020_Sr.Super60_(In Com)_Jee-Adv(2017-P1)_UTA-18_Q’P
Answer the 52, 53 and 54 by appropriately matching the information given in
the three columns of the following table
Let box Bi contains (2i+1) balls numbered from 1 to (2i+1) for i = 1,2,3. One ball
is drawn from each box. Let xi be the number on the ball drawn from the box Bi
for i = 1, 2, 3. Column–I contains event E, column–II, column–III contains the
conditional probabilities P(E/A), P(E/B) respectively where A is the event that x1
is even and B is the event that x1 is odd.

Column–I Column–II Column–III


(Event E) P(E/A) P(E/B)
2 2
(a) x1  x 2  x 3 (P) (1)
35 35
2 3
(b) x1  x 3  x 2 (Q) (2)
7 10
18 17
(c)  x1  x 2  x 3  is even (R)
35
(3)
35
29 57
(d) x 1  x 2  x 3  5 (S) (4)
35 70

52. Which of the following is a correct combination?


A) a–Q–2 B) a–Q–1 C) b–Q–4 D) b–Q–3
53. Which of the following is a correct combination?
A) c–P–2 B) d–P–2 C) d–R–3 D) c–R–3
54. Which of the following is a correct combination?
A) b–S–4 B) a–Q–1 C) c–P–3 D) d–Q–2

Sec: Sr.Super60 Space for rough work Page 19

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