UNIVERSITY OF TORONTO

Faculty of Arts and Science

APRIL/MAY EXAMINATIONS 2006

ECO 100Y1 Y

Duration: 3 hours

Examination Aids allowed: Non-programmable calculators only

INSTRUCTIONS: Students are required to do Part I and ONE of Parts II, III, IV, V, or
VI. Part I is the multiple choice section and is worth 50%. Record all
your answers for Part I on the SCANTRON sheet provided and in the
examination booklets (Note: in case of any disagreement, the answer
to be marked is the one on the SCANTRON sheet). For the Scantron
sheets please use a black pencil or a black or blue ball-point pen.
There is no penalty for guessing in the multiple choice so be sure to
provide an answer for every question. Answers for the other Part will
be written in examination booklets. The blank pages may be used for
rough work (which will not be marked).

PART I To be answered by all students.

PART II To be answered by students from Professor Indart’s section (L0101)

PART III To be answered by students from Professor Pesando’s section (L0201)

PART IV To be answered by students from Professor Hare’s section (L0301)

PART V To be answered by students from Professor Carr’s section (L0401)

PART VI To be answered by students from Professor Wolfson’s section (L5101)

 PART I [50%]
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
(To be answered by all students)

INSTRUCTIONS:
• Multiple choice questions are to be answered using a black pencil or a black or blue
ball-point pen on the separate SCANTRON sheet being supplied.
• Be sure to fill in your name and student number on the SCANTRON sheet!
Write the name of your instructor on the SCANTRON sheet (in the area where it
says “DO NOT WRITE IN THIS SPACE”).
• Each question is worth 1 mark. No deductions will be made for incorrect answers.
• Write your answers to the multiple choice questions ALSO on the first page of
the first examination booklet used for short answer questions. You may use this
question booklet for rough work, and then transfer your answers to each multiple
choice question onto the separate SCANTRON sheet. Your answers must be on
the SCANTRON sheet. In case of a disagreement, the answer to be marked is the
one on the SCANTRON sheet.

1. Suppose that 1 unit of labour can produce either 10 units of wool or 4 pineapples. What is the
opportunity cost of producing 1 pineapple?
a) 10 units of wool
b) 4 units of wool
c) 0.4 units of wool
d) 2 units of wool
e) none of the above

2. If per capita income decreases by 5 percent and household expenditures on fur coats decrease
by 10 percent, one can conclude that the price elasticity of demand for fur coats is
a) elastic
b) inelastic
c) unity
d) positive
e) not determinable from the information given

3. A fall in the price of a good from $11 to $9 results in an increase in quantity demanded from
19,000 to 21,000 units. Without considering the sign, the price elasticity of demand in this
part of the demand curve is
a) 0.2
b) 0.5
c) 2.0
d) 5.0
e) none of the above
4. If wheat farmers were faced with a demand curve of unit (or unitary) elasticity, then
a) the total receipts of farmers would not change due to shifts in demand
b) a shift in supply would have little effect on wheat prices
c) a poor harvest would cause a drop in total receipts for wheat farmers
d) a good harvest would cause an increase in the quantity demanded of wheat
e) none of the above

5. The price of apples at a local market rises from $2.95 to $3.05 per kilo, and as a result the
quantity of apples that households purchase decreases from 5100 to 4900 kilos/week while
the quantity of oranges that households purchase increases from 3950 to 4050 kilos/week.
The cross-price elasticity is
a) -1.33
b) -0.75
c) 0.75
d) 1.33
e) insufficient information to know

6. The average product for six workers is 15. If the marginal product for the seventh worker is
18,
a) marginal product is rising
b) marginal product is falling
c) average product is rising
d) average product is falling
e) marginal product is rising and average product is falling

7. Oranges are produced with a fixed factor land and a variable factor labour. Which one of the
following statements is correct?
a) when the average product of labour is increasing, the marginal product of labour must
also be increasing
b) diminishing marginal productivity [returns] starts at the labour input where total
physical product starts to decrease
c) diminishing marginal productivity [returns] starts at the labour input where a straight
line ray is tangent to the total physical product curve
d) diminishing marginal productivity [returns] starts at the labour input where marginal
product of labour equals average product of labour
e) none of the above are correct

8. Suppose fixed costs are $100 and average variable costs are constant regardless of output.
Which of the following is then true?
a) marginal cost will equal average total cost
b) average total cost will decrease when output is increased
c) marginal cost will be less than average variable cost
d) average total cost will be constant
e) none of the above
9. Which one of the following statements is false?
a) average total cost is total cost per unit of output
b) average fixed cost plus average variable cost equals average total cost
c) marginal cost is the increase in total cost resulting from a unit increase in output
d) total cost equals fixed cost plus average total cost
e) marginal cost depends on the amount of labour hired

10. When cost curves are drawn for a perfectly competitive firm, all of the following are
generally assumed except that the
a) firm is too small to influence factor prices
b) marginal product of the variable factor eventually declines
c) average variable cost initially declines, then rises at higher output levels
d) average fixed costs are constant
e) total fixed costs are constant

11. When one additional unit of labour is hired, total product increases from 100 to 110 units of
output per unit of time. Marginal product must therefore be
a) increasing
b) positive
c) decreasing
d) constant
e) zero

12. If the industry demand curve is downward-sloping and the market is perfectly competitive,
an increase in the price of an input used to produce the good will:
a) not affect consumer surplus
b) increase consumer surplus
c) reduce the price of the good
d) increase the quantity bought and sold of the good
e) none of the above

13. If the increase in the price of good A causes the demand curve for B to shift to the left, then
a) A and B are substitutes
b) A and B are complements
c) the price of A must be higher than the price of B
d) B must be a normal good
e) Consumer preferences for B must have fallen

14. Suppose that the tuna fish industry has an upward sloping supply curve. The government
now introduces an income tax cut such that disposable incomes increase. As a result, the
price of tuna fish falls. We can therefore conclude that tuna fish:
a) is a normal good
b) the demand curve for tuna fish is elastic
c) the demand curve for tuna fish is inelastic
d) is a substitute good
e) is an inferior good
15. When marginal product is increasing with increasing use of a variable input
a) average product is rising and is greater than marginal product
b) average product is falling and is greater than marginal product
c) average product is falling and is smaller than marginal product
d) average product is falling
e) average product is rising

16. Let the supply curve for oranges be upward sloping. Suppose that bad weather conditions
adversely affect this year’s crop of oranges. However, it is discovered that orange producers have
a higher level of total revenue. Given this information, which of the following statements is true?
a) the supply curve for oranges is elastic
b) the supply curve for oranges is inelastic
c) the demand curve for oranges has unitary elasticity
d) the demand curve for oranges is inelastic
e) the demand curve for oranges is elastic

17. Recently, it has been revealed that there have been severe reductions in the fish stocks in the
Atlantic fishing industry. As a result,
a) we would expect to see increases in the demand for meat (e.g., beef), since this is a
complement to fish
b) we would expect to see reductions in the price of fish, leading to reductions in the
demand for meat, since meat and fish are substitutes
c) we would expect reductions in the price of fish, leading to increases in the demand for
meat, since meat and fish are substitutes
d) we would expect to see increases in the demand for meat, since meat is a substitute
for fish
e) we would expect to see increases in the price of fish, leading to reductions in the
demand for meat, since meat and fish are complements

18. For a perfectly competitive firm, the marginal revenue curve

a) is the same as the firm’s demand curve and the average revenue curve lies below the
firm’s demand curve
b) lies above the firm’s demand curve and the average revenue curve lies below the
firm’s demand curve
c) and the average revenue curve are both the same as the firm’s demand curve
d) lies above the firm’s demand curve and the average revenue curve is the same as the
firm’s demand curve
e) lies below the average revenue curve and the average revenue curve is the firm’s
demand curve

19. Assume that a perfectly competitive industry has a perfectly inelastic supply curve. The
government introduces a specific commodity tax of $2.50 per unit of output. As a result,
which one of the following statements would be correct?
a) the consumer price would increase by $2.50
b) the consumer price would fall by $2.50
c) the burden of the tax would fall completely on consumers
d) the price received by the producer would decrease by $2.50
e) none of the above
20. Which one of the following would cause the demand curve in an industry to increase?
a) the price of a substitute product decreased
b) disposable income increased and the good was an inferior good
c) the price of a complementary product increased
d) disposable income decreased and the good was a normal good
e) none of the above

21. Assume that apples and oranges are substitute goods. Given the initial supply and demand
curves for apples, a reduction in the price of oranges will tend to
a) increase the price of apples
b) increase the demand for apples
c) increase the demand for oranges
d) decrease the demand for oranges
e) decrease the price of apples

22. A perfectly competitive firm is currently producing an output level where price is $10.00;
average variable cost is $6.00; average fixed cost is $4.00 and marginal cost is $8.00. In the
short-run, in order to maximize profits this firm should?
a) not change output
b) decrease its output
c) increase its output
d) shut down
e) increase its market price

23. If a competitive industry is facing a decrease in demand for its product, the theory of perfect
competition predicts that in the long-run
a) newer, more efficient firms will enter the industry and earn normal profits
b) existing firms will modernize plant and equipment in order to increase efficiency
c) existing firms will expand output as a means of recovering losses
d) the industry will raise its price to earn higher revenue
e) capacity in the industry will gradually shrink

24. Predictions regarding a perfectly competitive firm’s long-run profit-maximizing position

include all of the following except:
a) price equals marginal cost
b) price equals marginal revenue
c) price equals minimum short-run and long-run average total cost
d) economic profits are greater than zero
e) economic profits are zero

25. Comparing the short-run and long-run profit-maximizing positions of a perfectly competitive
firm, which statement is true?
a) price will equal marginal cost in the short-run, but not necessarily in the long-run
b) economic profits may exist in the short-run and in the long-run
c) in order to profit-maximize, the firm must always produce at the minimum of average
total cost in the short-run and in the long-run
d) the price must equal average total cost in the long-run, but not necessarily in the
short-run
e) none of the above
26. Consider a perfectly competitive firm in the following position: output = 4,000 units, market
price = $2, fixed costs = $10,000, and variable costs = $1,000. To maximize profits in the
short-run, the firm should
a) reduce output
b) expand output
c) shut down
d) increase the market price
e) not enough information to determine

27. In the short-run, a decrease in a perfectly competitive firm’s fixed costs should lead to
a) a decrease in output
b) a decrease in the number of sellers
c) an increase in price
d) lower variable costs
e) none of the above

28. A perfectly competitive industry is in short-run equilibrium with “n” identical firms and each
firm is earning zero economic profits (i.e., earning normal profits). Assume that firms’ ATC,
AVC, and MC curves have the traditional U-shape. Under these circumstances, which one of
the following statements is correct in the short-run?
a) with a decrease in fixed costs, each firm would suffer losses and firms would exit the
industry
b) with an increase in variable costs, each firm would make economic losses
c) with a decrease in industry demand, each firm would make economic losses and
would produce a higher output
d) with a decrease in variable costs, each firm would make economic profits and would
produce a lower output
e) with an increase in industry demand, each firm would make economic profits and
would produce a smaller output

29. A perfectly competitive industry is in short-run equilibrium. Which one of the following
statements is correct in the short-run?
a) if fixed costs were to increase, then the industry price would increase and industry
output decrease
b) if fixed costs were to increase, then the industry price would decrease and industry
output would increase
c) if fixed costs were to decrease, then industry price would increase and industry output
would fall
d) if fixed costs were to decrease, then industry price would decrease and industry
output would increase
e) none of the above
30. Suppose a typical competitive firm has the following data in the short-run equilibrium: price
= $10; output = 100 units; ATC = $12; AVC = $7. Which of the following statements is
correct?
a) in the long-run the industry will expand because of economic profits
b) in the long-run the industry will contract because firms are suffering losses
c) the size of the industry will remain the same in the long-run
d) price will fall in the long-run
e) there is not enough information to formulate an answer about the long-run

31. In the long-run production period, which one of the following statements is correct according
to conditions of long-run equilibrium?
a) both the firm in pure (perfect) competition and a pure (unregulated) monopolist could
each make economic profits
b) both the firm in pure (perfect) competition and a pure (unregulated) monopolist
would profit maximize where price equalled marginal cost
c) the firm in pure (perfect) competition would profit maximize where price equalled
marginal cost and the pure (unregulated) monopolist would profit maximize where
price exceeded marginal cost
d) the firm in pure (perfect) competition would profit maximize where price equalled
marginal cost and the pure (unregulated) monopolist would profit maximize where
price was less than marginal cost
e) none of the above

32. Suppose all of the firms in a perfectly competitive industry form a cartel and agree to restrict
output, thereby raising the price of the product. Individual firm A will gain the most from the
existence of the cartel if
a) all firms, including A, cooperate and restrict output
b) firm A restricts output, while the other firms do not
c) all firms, except A, cooperate and restrict output
d) no firms restrict output
e) all firms revert back to their competitive outputs

33. A profit-maximizing monopolist will not produce the output level at which marginal cost
equals price because
a) profit would be zero in that case
b) fixed cost would be maximized
c) entry into the industry keeps the price lower than that level
d) the monopolist always charges the highest price the market will bear
e) none of the above

34. A pure (unregulated) monopolist is in short-run equilibrium with economic profits. Which
one of the following statements is correct?
a) an increase in rent (a fixed cost) will cause an increase in the monopoly price and a
decrease in the monopolist’s output
b) an increase in rent (a fixed cost) will cause an increase in the monopoly price and an
increase in the monopolist’s output
c) the monopolist’s price will equal its marginal cost at the equilibrium output
d) the monopolist’s marginal revenue will equal its average revenue at the equilibrium
output
e) none of the above
35. When the monopolist charges a price where the price elasticity of demand equals 1, his
a) total receipts are rising, although marginal revenue is falling
b) total receipts are falling
c) total profits are at a maximum
d) total receipts are at a maximum
e) none of the above

36. If the monopolist operated in the inelastic range of his demand curve,
a) he would be operating where his AR is negative
b) his marginal revenue would be greater than marginal cost
c) his marginal revenue would be negative
d) his marginal revenue would be negative although his total receipts would be at a
maximum
e) he could raise his total receipts by lowering his price

37. If the government imposes a lump-sum tax [e.g., a tax of $10,000 per year] on a monopolist,
it will reduce profits because the tax
a) shifts the demand curve to the left and at the same time increases all costs
b) shifts the demand curve to the right and at the same time increases all costs
c) increases the price consumers pay but also reduces the price the monopolist receives
d) increases the average total cost but not the marginal cost, leaving price and output
unchanged
e) increases both the average total cost and the marginal cost, leaving price and output
unchanged

38. Which of the following is included in the calculations of current GDP?

a) the purchase of a second hand automobile
b) pizza purchased by college students for dinner
c) volunteer work undertaken by Mary Smith
d) the purchase of a 1939 painting
e) welfare payments

39. Nominal GDP fell from 100 to 95 during the year. At the same time, inflation was 10
percent. Therefore real GDP
a) fell by 10 percent
b) was unaffected
c) rose by 10 percent
d) fell by 15 percent
e) none of the above

40. Assume a simple model without government and without an external sector. If an increase in
exogenous investment of 40 leads to an increase in consumption of 160, then the marginal
propensity to save is
a) 0.10
b) 0.20
c) 0.25
d) 0.40
e) 0.75
41. If a household’s disposable income increases from $10,000 to $15,000 and its consumption
expenditures increase from $8,000 to $11,000, then
a) the household is dissaving
b) the slope of the consumption function is 0.6
c) the marginal propensity to consume is 0.4
d) the average propensity to consume over this range of income is negative
e) the average propensity to consume over this range exceeds 1

42. The sale of government bonds by the Bank of Canada will cause
a) a decrease in the rate of interest
b) a decrease in the (cash) reserves of banks
c) an increase in the supply of money
d) an increase in bank loans to the public
e) none of the above

43. Suppose that a hypothetical economy has achieved price stability but unemployment is too
high. Assume that the consumption function is: C = 45,000 + 0.80Y and that investment and
government spending are autonomous expenditures only. Initially, there is no international
trade, taxes or transfer payments. The government introduces an autonomous tax of $500
million and then uses these funds to increase autonomous government expenditure on
domestically produced goods. As a result of both of these transactions, taken together, the
final impact on Y would be:
a) no change in Y
b) an increase of $2,500 million in Y
c) a decrease of $2,500 million in Y
d) an increase of $500 million in Y
e) a decrease of $500 million in Y

44. If there is an appreciation of the Canadian dollar in the foreign exchange market, then
Canadian goods
a) are more expensive to Canadian
b) are more expensive to foreign buyers
c) are less expensive to Canadian
d) are less expensive to foreign buyers
e) none of the above

45. If desired expenditures exceed actual expenditures,

a) inventories will build up, causing national income to rise
b) national income will fall, because desired expenditures are less than actual
expenditures
c) shortages of goods and reductions in inventories will cause producers to increase
output and national income to rise
d) national income may increase or decrease, depending on the relative sizes of the
average propensity to consume and the average propensity to save
e) none of the above
46. Consider a hypothetical economy where, at the start of 2005, aggregate output was $100
billion and the population was 10 million. During 2005, aggregate output increased by 5%,
the population increased by 2%, and the average price level remained constant. Given this
information, which of the following statements is correct?
a) aggregate output per capita was $1,000 at the start of 2005
b) aggregate output was $100.5 billion at the end of 2005
c) aggregate output per capita was $10,500 at the end of 2005
d) the annual growth rate of output per capita was approximately 3% during 2005
e) none of the above is correct

47. Consider a very simple model of the economy where consumption and investment are the only
two components of desired aggregate expenditure. The expressions for the consumption and
investment functions are given by C = 100 + 0.8Y and I = 200, respectively. In this economy,
the simple spending multiplier is and the equilibrium level of income is .
a) 2.0; 1500
b) 2.5; 1000
c) 5.0; 750
d) 5.0; 1000
e) 5.0; 1500

48. Assume that there is a 5% cash reserve ratio for commercial banks against their deposits and
further, that commercial banks do not keep excess cash reserves. Suppose that Timothy puts
$1,000 in Canadian currency in his bank account. As a result, which one of the following
statements is correct?
a) cash reserves would increase by $1,000 and the M1 money supply would increase by
$1,000
b) cash reserves would increase by $1,000 and the M1 money supply would increase by
$20,000
c) cash reserves would decrease by $1,000 and the M1 money supply would decrease by
$1,000
d) cash reserves would decrease by $1,000 and the M1 money supply would decrease by
$20,000
e) none of the above

49. International trade according to comparative advantage allows each country to consume
a) more of the goods it exports but less of the goods it imports than without trade
b) more of the goods it imports but less of the goods it exports than without trade
c) less of the both goods it exports and goods it imports than without trade
d) more of the both goods it exports and goods it imports than without trade
e) either A or B above, depending on the terms of trade

50. India and Nigeria are considering international trade. In India, 200 units of labour can
produce either 200 units of rice or 50 bicycles. In Nigeria, 200 units of labour can produce
either 25 units of rice or 25 bicycles. On the basis of this information, which one of the
following statements is correct?
a) Nigeria has an absolute advantage in rice
b) Nigeria has an absolute advantage in bicycles
c) Nigeria should specialize in rice
d) India should specialize in rice
e) India should specialize in bicycles