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INTRODUCTION

1. The suitable system of sanitation for area of distributed rainfall throughout the year
with less intensity is
a) separate system b) combined system
c) partially separate system d) partially combined system

2. The specific gravity of sewage is


a) much greater than 1 b) slightly less than 1
c) equal to 1 d) slightly greater than 1

3. A sewer that receives the discharge of a number of house sewers is called


a) house sewer b) lateral sewer
c) intercepting sewer d) submain sewer

4. A pipe conveying sewage from plumbing system of a single building to common


sewer or point of immediate disposal is called
a) house sewer b) lateral sewer
c) main sewer d) submain sewer

5. For a country like India, where rainfall is mainly confined to one season, the suitable
sewerage system will be
a) separate system b) combined system
c) partially combined system d) partially separate system

6. The pipe which is used to carry the discharge from sanitary fittings like bathrooms,
kitchens etc. is called
a) waste pipe b) soil pipe
c) vent pipe d) antisiphonage pipe

7. Most of the bacteria in sewage are


a) parasitic b) saprophytic
c) pathogenic d) anaerobic

8. The liquid wastes originating from residential and industrial buildings, are
collectively
a) domestic sewage b) combined sewage
c) sanitary sewage d)None

9. The sewer which transports the sewage to the point of treatment, is called:
a) house sewer b) main sewer
c) outfall sewer d) None of these
GATE/IES/CIVIL OBJECTIVE QUESTION BANK ENVIRONMENTAL
ENGINEERING

10. A combined sewerage system, collectively carries


a) domestic sewage and industrial sewage
b) storm sewage and domestic sewage
c) storm sewage and industrial sewage
d) storm sewage and sanitary sewage

11. For the combined sewerage system, egg- shaped sewers are preferred because
a) their construction is economical.
b) they are structurally more stable.
c) their maintenance is easier.
d) they offer good flow velocity during the dry-weather-flow condition. [ES 94]

12. A sewer pipe carrying sewage from a bulldog of its immediate disposal, is
a) intercepting sewer b) main sewer
c) house sewer d)None

13. A sewer which receives the discharge from a number of independent houses, is called:
a) house sewer b)intercepting sewer
c) lateral sewer d)none

14. Sewerage system is usually designed for


a) 10 years b) 25 years
c) 50 years d) 75 years

15. Which of the following sewers is preferred for combined system of sewage ?
a) circular sewer b) egg shaped sewer
c) rectangular sewer d) none of the above

16. A pipe which is installed in the house drainage to preserve the water seal of trap is
called
a) vent pipe b) antisiphonage pipe
c) waste pipe d) soil pipe

17. In the two-pipe system of house plumbing the pipes required are
a) one soil pipe, one waste pipe and one vent pipe
b) one soil pipe, two waste pipes and one vent pipe
c) one soil pipe, one waste pipe and two vent pipes
d) two soil pipes, one waste pipe and one vent pipe

18. The suitable system of sanitation for an area having uniformly distributed mild rains
throughout the year, like that in England, is:
a) separate system b) combined system
c) partially separate system d) partially combined system

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GATE/IES/CIVIL OBJECTIVE QUESTION BANK ENVIRONMENTAL
ENGINEERING

19. The water carriage system of collection of waste products is preferred to dry
conservancy system, because:
a) it is cheaper in initial cost
b) it does not require treatment before disposal
c) it is more hygienic in nature
d) it is easier to maintain

20. The waste water coming from kitchens and bath rooms is popularly known as:
a) domestic sewage discharge b) sullage discharge
c) drainage discharge d) None of these

21. For the design of sewers in India, the percentage of sewage discharge, is assumed as:
a) 25-30% of water supplied from water works
b) 75-80% of water supplied from water works
c) 100% of water supplied from water works
d) None of these

KEY :

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
b D b a a b d c c
10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19
d d C c b b b c b c
20 21
b b

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GATE/IES/CIVIL OBJECTIVE QUESTION BANK ENVIRONMENTAL
ENGINEERING

Design of sewers

01. The most suitable section of a sewer in a separate sewerage system is:
a) rectangular b) circular c) new egg shape d) parabolic

02. Two sewer sections laid at same grade, will be hydraulically equivalent, if
a) their discharge capacity when running full are equal
b) their flow velocity when running full are equal
c) their flow areas when running full are equal
d) all the above factors are equal

03. The slope of sewer shall be


a)given in the direction of natural slope of ground
b)given in the direction opposite to natural slope of ground
c)zero
d)steeper than 1 in 20

04. cleansing velocity in sewers,


a) the silting occurs at the bottom
b) the scouring occurs at the bottom
c) the silting and scouring both occur at the bottom
d) neither silting nor scouring occur at the bottom

05. The design discharge for the separate sewer system shall be taken as
a)equal to dry weather flow (DF) b)2 x DWF
c)3 x DWF d)6 x DWF

06. The design discharge for the combined sewer system shall be taken as
a)equal to rainfall b)rainfall + DWF
c)rainfall + 2 DWF d)rainfall + 6 DWF

07. The minimum and maximum diameters of sewers shall preferably be


a) 15 cm and 100 cm b) 15 cm and 300 cm
c) 30 cm and 450 cm d) 60 cm and 300cm

08. The main disadvantage of cement concrete sewers is


a) less strength
b) difficulty in construction
c) difficulty in transportations to heavy weight
d) less life

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GATE/IES/CIVIL OBJECTIVE QUESTION BANK ENVIRONMENTAL
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09. Most suitable section of sewer in separate sewage system is


a) rectangular section
b) circular section
c) standard form of egg shaped sewer
d) modified egg shaped section

10. An egg shaped section of sewer


a) is economical than circular section
b) provides self cleansing vey at low discharges
c) is more stable than circular section
d) is easy to construct

11. The velocity of flow does not depend on


a) grade of sewer
b) length of sewer
c) hydraulic mean depth of sewer
d) roughness of sewer

12. The hydraulic mean depth (HMD) for an egg-shaped sewer flowing two-third full is
a) equal to HMD when flowing full
b) less than HMD when flowing full
c) greater than HMD when flowing full
d) none of the above

13. The effect of increasing diameter of sewer on the self cleansing velocity is
a) to decrease it b) to increase it
c) fluctuating d) nil

14. The most commonly used sewer under culverts is


a) circular brick sewer b) circular cast iron sewer
c) semi-elliptical sewer d) horse-shoe type sewer

15. The type of sewer which is suitable for both combined and separate system is
a) circular sewer b) egg shaped sewer
c) horse-shoe type sewer d) semi-elliptical sewer

16. Sewage treatment units are designed for


a) 5-10 years b) 15-20 years
c) 30-40 years d) 40-50 years

17. The means of access for inspection and cleaning of sewer line is known as
a) inlet b) manhole
c) drop manhole d) catch basin

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GATE/IES/CIVIL OBJECTIVE QUESTION BANK ENVIRONMENTAL
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18. Sewerage system is designed for


a) maximum flow only b) minimum flow only
c) average flow only d) maximum and minimum flow

19. Sewage treatment units are designed for


a) maximum flow only b) minimum flow only
c) average flow only d) maximum and minimum flow

20. Laying of sewers is usually done with the help of


a) a theodolite b) a compass
c) sight rails and boning rods d) a plane table

21. Corrosion in concrete sewers is caused by


a) septic conditions b) dissolved oxygen
c) chlorine d) nitrogen

22. To divert excessive flow from combined sewers, the most commonly used weir is a
a) cipoletti weir b) broadcrested weir
c) leaping weir d) submerged weir

23. If the diameter of the main pipe is less than economic diameter then
1. head loss will be high
2. cost of pipe will be less
3. cost of pumping will be less Of these statements
a) Only 1 is correct b) 1 and 2 are correct
c) 1 and 3 are correct d) 1,2 and 3 are correct

24. Incrustation of the tubewell pipe result in


a) discharge of highly corrosive acidic water
b) discharge of highly alkaline water
c) reduced discharge from tubewell
d) excessive discharge of sand with water

25. The maximum velocity occurs in an egg shaped sewer when the ratio of depth of flow
to vertical diameter is
a) 0.33 b) 0.50 c) 0.81 d) 0.95

26. Shrouding is provided in


a) slotted pipe tubewell b) cavity type tubewell
c) strainer type tubewell d) none of above

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GATE/IES/CIVIL OBJECTIVE QUESTION BANK ENVIRONMENTAL
ENGINEERING

27. When the coefficient of rugosity is increased from 0.01 to 0.02, the gradient of a pipe
of a given diameter to carry the same flow at the same velocity will be
a) increased by 4 times b) increased by 2 times
c) decreased by V2 times d) decreased by 4 times [ES 93]

28. To divert excessive flow from combined sewers, the most commonly used weir is a
a) cipoletti weir b) broadcrested weir
c) leaping weir d) submerged weir

29. The effect of increasing the diameter of a sewer on the self cleansing velocity, is
a) to increase it b) to decrease it c) not to cause any effect d) none

30. The most suitable section of a sewer in a combined sewerage system is :


a) rectangular b) circular c)new egg shape d) parabolic

31. A sewer has to carry large discharge, shape of the sewer which has good stability for
the above purpose is
a) circular b) rectangular c) horse shoe shape d) egg shape

32. Corrosion of concrete sewers occurs due to


a) high velocity of flow in sewers
b) aerobic decomposition of sewage solids
c) anaerobic decomposition of sewage solids value of the sewage
d) high pH value of the sewage

33. A combined sewer is one which transports (CE-GATE 91)


a) domestic sewage, industrial wastes mad storm water
b) domestic sewage and industrial wastes
c) domestic sewage and seepage flow
d) domestic sewage and storm water

34. Which one of the following statements is true?


a) The velocity of flow in large sewers flowing full is more than that in smaller sewers
for the same slope
b) The velocity of flow in sewer is maximum when it flows full
c) The velocity of flow in a sewer is maximum when it flows full that flowing in full
condition
d) The velocity of flow in an elliptical sewer flowing full is more than the velocity of
flow in a sewer of circular section of the same area of section and same slope,
flowing full.

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GATE/IES/CIVIL OBJECTIVE QUESTION BANK ENVIRONMENTAL
ENGINEERING

35. Self-cleansing velocity is


a) The minimum velocity of flow required to maintain a certain amount of solids in
the flow
b) the maximum velocity of flow required to maintain a certain amount of solids in a
sewer
c) such flow velocity as would be sufficient to flush out any deposited solids in a
sewer
d) such flow velocity as would be sufficient to ensure that sewage does not remain in
the sewer

36. The entry of foul smelling gases into the house coming from the sewers can be
prevented by
a) providing water seals for all the fixtures
b) providing water seals for all the fixtures and a vent pipe in the plumbing system
c) providing sufficient vent pipes in the plumbing system
d) exhaust fans [ES 96]

37. The following steps are involved in making a spigot and socket joint of cast iron pipes
used in water supply systems :
1. Tarred gasket or hemp yam is wrapped around the spigot.
2. The spigot end is centered into the socket end of the preceding pipe.
3. A jointing ring is placed around the barrel and against the face of the socket.
4. The gasket or hemp yam is caulked slightly.
5. Molten pig lead is poured and then caulked.

The correct sequence of these steps is


a) 2, 1,4,3,5 b) 2,1,3, 4,5 c) 1,2,4, 5,3 d) 1,2,3, 5,4 [ES 97]

39. Which of the following statements about


Design Period are true?
1. It is concerned with economy of investments.
2. It takes into account aspects like life and durability and ease or difficulty of
capacity increase of installations.
3. It considers the frequency of occurrence of extremes of river flow.
4. It is concerned with estimating future requirements.
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below.
Codes:
a)1,2, 3 and 4 b)2 and 3 c)1,2 and 4 d)1,3 and 4 [ES 97]

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GATE/IES/CIVIL OBJECTIVE QUESTION BANK ENVIRONMENTAL
ENGINEERING

40. The following steps are involved in laying sewer in a trench :


1. Transferring the centre line sewer to the bottom of the trench
2. Setting sight rails over the trench
3. Driving pegs to the level of the invert line of the sewer.
4. Placing the sewer in the trend
The correct sequence of these step:
a) 1,2,3,4 b) 2,3,4, 1 c) 4,2,3,1 d) 2,3,1,4

41. The maximum flow occurs in an egg shaped sewer when the ratio of depth of flow to
vertical diameter is
a) 0.33 b) 0.50 c) 0.95 d) 1.00 [ES 98]

42. Consider the following statements :


Ventilation of sewer lines is necessary to
1. avoid building up of sewer gases.
2. ensure atmospheric pressure in the waste water surface.
3. ensure the safety of sewer maintenance people.
4. provide oxidation facility to sewage. Which of these statements are correct ?
a) 1,2 and 4 b) 1,3 and 4 c) 2, 3 and 4 d) 1,2 and 3 [ES 99]

43. The trap used for a water closet is called


a) gully trap b) p-trap
c) intercepting trap d) anti-siphon trap [ES 99]

44. A circular sewer of diameter 1 m carries storm water to a depth of 0.75 m. The
hydraulic radius is approximately
a) 0.3 m b) 0.4 m c) 0.5 m d) 0.6 m [ES 99]

45. Traps are used in household drainage systems to


a) prevent entry of foul gases in the house
b) restrict the flow of water
c) provide a partial vacuum
d) trap the solid wastes [ES 94]

46. In transition of sewers from smaller diameter sewers to larger diameter sewers, the
continuity of sewers is maintained at the
a) bottom of the concrete bed of sewers
b) inverts of the sewers
c) crowns of the sewers
d) hydraulic gradients of the sewers [ES 95]

47. The slope of a 1.0 m diameter concrete sewer laid at a slope of 1 in 1000, develops a
velocity of 1 m/s, when flowing full. When it is flowing half-full, the velocity of flow
through the sewer will be
a) 0.5 m/s b) 1.0 m/s c) √2 m/s d) 2.0 m/s [ES95]

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GATE/IES/CIVIL OBJECTIVE QUESTION BANK ENVIRONMENTAL
ENGINEERING

48. An egg-shaped sewer, when compared to a circular sewer, is


a) economical b) more stable
c) easier to construct d) provides better self cleansing velocity at low discharges.

49. The flow velocity in a sewer does not depends on


a) its grade b) its length
c) not to cause any effect d) none of the above

50. The self cleaning velocity. recommended for Indian conditions, in order to prevent
settling down of sewage at bottom or on the sides of a large sewer is
(a) 0.25 m/s (b) 0.50 m/s (c)0.75 m/s (d) 1.5 m/s

51. The internal diameter of the sewer should not be less than
(a) 15 cm (b) 25 cm (c) 50 cm (d) 75cm

52. A 20 cm dia, sewer is laid at a slope of 0.004 and is designed to carry a discharge at a
depth of 10 cm with Mannings n = 0.014, the design discharge is (CE-GATE-91)
(a) 9.6 liter/sec (b) 19.2 liter/sec
(c) 0.009 liter/sec (d) None

53. The flow in a sewer is


(a)pressure flow (b)open channel flow
(c)laminar flow (d)super-critical flow

54. The self cleansing velocity for all sewers in India is usually
a) less than 1.0 m/sec b) 1.0 m/sec to 1.2 m/sec
c)101.5 m/sec to 2.0 m/sec d)103.0 m/sec to 3.5 m/sec

55. Match List 1 with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists:
List I List II
(Pipe material) (Property of material)
A. Concrete sewer 1. Cannot withstand high external load
B. Stoneware sewer 2. Corrosion resistance in most natural soils
C. Cast iron sewer 3. Resistant to corrosion from most acids
D Steel sewer 4. Unsuitable where soil contains excessive sulphates
Codes:
ABCD
a) 1 2 3 4
b) 4 3 2 1
c) 4 1 2 3
d) 2 1 3 4 [ES 93]

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GATE/IES/CIVIL OBJECTIVE QUESTION BANK ENVIRONMENTAL
ENGINEERING

56. Match List I with List II and select the


correct answer using the codes given
below the lists:
A.
List I List II
A. Waste pipe 1.Carries waste water
B. Soil pipe 2. Carries liquid wastes that do not include human excreta
C. Vent pipe 3. Preserves the water seal of traps through access to
atmospheric air
D. Antisiphonage pipe 4. Carries liquid wastes including human excreta
5. Provides flow of air to or from a drainage system in order to
prevent vacuum pressures and excessive pressure and
provides escape for foul gases

Codes:
A B C D
a) 2 4 5 3
b) 3 5 1 2
c) 4 5 1 2
d) 1 4 5 3

57. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists :
List I List II
A. Soil pipe 1.Ventilating pipe
B. Intercepting trap 2.Wash basin
C. p-trap 3.Water closet waste
D. Cowl 4.House drainage

A B C D
a) 3 4 1 2
b) 3 4 2 1
c) 4 3 2 1
d) 4 3 1 2

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GATE/IES/CIVIL OBJECTIVE QUESTION BANK ENVIRONMENTAL
ENGINEERING

58. An  existing 300mm diameter circular sewer is Laid at a slope of  1 : 28 and  carries 


a peak  discharge of 1728m3/d.use the partial flow diagram shown the fig. and assume
mannings coefficient n=0.015(2004)

At the peak discharge, the depth of flow and the velocity  are, respectively,

(a.) 45 mm and 0.28 m/s (b.) 120 mm and 0.50 m/s
(c.) 150 mm and 0.57 m/s (d.) 300 mm and 0.71 m/s

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GATE/IES/CIVIL OBJECTIVE QUESTION BANK ENVIRONMENTAL
ENGINEERING

KEY

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
b a a d d d b c b
10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19
b b c b a b b b d c
20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29
c a c b c c a a c a
30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39
c c c a a c b b b c
40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49
d c d b a a c b d b
50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58
c a a b b b a b a

Solutions:
59.
for full
Q = A.V

= = 0.05 m3/sec=4320 m3/day

q/Q = 0.4
d/D = 0.5
=>d= 150mm
v/V = 0.8
V = 0.8 x (Q/A) = 0.57 m/sec.

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13
GATE/IES/CIVIL OBJECTIVE QUESTION BANK ENVIRONMENTAL
ENGINEERING

ESTIMATION OF SEWAGE

1. With the increase in its duration, the intensity of rainfall will:


a) decrease b) increase
c) Not change d)may increase or decrease

2. The drainage discharge of a town of 16 hectares area, consisting of 40% hard paved
(k=0.80), 30% unpaved (k=0.20), and remaining as wooded (k=0.10), with a maximum
rain intensity of 5 cm/hr, would be computed by Rational formula, as equal to:
a) 0.91 cumecs b) 0.091 cumecs c) 9.1 cumecs d) None

3. Point out the wrong statement, in the following assumptions, generally made in the
design of moderate sized sewers:
(a) average daily flow = annual average daily flow
(b) minimum daily flow = 2/3 average daily flow
(c) minimum hourly flow = 1/3 average daily flow
(d) none of these

4. A sewer which receives sewage from the collection system and conducts it to a point
a final disposal is called a
(a) common sewer (b) trunk sewer (c) branch sewer (d) outfall sewer

5. A separate system will be favorable when


(a) the sewers are to be laid in rocks
(b) the finances are limited.
(c) the topography is flat necessitating deep excavation for combined sewers
(d) all of the above

6. The sanitation system in which a small portion of storm water is allowed to enter in
the sanitary sewage sewers and the remaining storm water flows in separate set of
sewers, is known as
(a) separate system (b) combined system
(c) partially separate system (d) partially combined system

7. The ratio of minimum hourly flow to the average flow of sewage is


a) 1/3 b) 1/2 c)2/3 d)3

8. The peak design flows, expressed as number of times their average values, will be
(a) greater for smaller lateral sewers, as compared to these for larger trunk sewers
(b) greater for larger trunk sewers, as corns;
(c) equal for all sizes and types of sewers
(d) None of these

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GATE/IES/CIVIL OBJECTIVE QUESTION BANK ENVIRONMENTAL
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9. A space of 1/4 to 1/3 is left vacant in the design of sewer pipes at maximum
discharge, due to:
(a) possible low estimates of maximum and average flows
(b) large scale possible infiltration of storm water
(c) unexpected increase in population
(d) all the above factors

10. The min. and the max. diameter of sewers, generally adopted in the designs, may be:
a) 15 and 100 cm b)15 and 300cm
c) 25 and 450 cm d) 60 and 300 cm

11. The value of the coefficient of runoff for perfectly impervious areas, tend to:
a) more than one b) less than one
c) equal to one d) None of these

12. A minimum velocity should be maintained in sewer to


(a) enable the sewage to reach the treatment unit quickly
(b) reduce the size of sewer
(c) keep the suspended matter in suspension
(d) prevent clogging due to floating matter and fats

KEY:

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
a a d d d c a a d
10 11 12
b c c

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GATE/IES/CIVIL OBJECTIVE QUESTION BANK ENVIRONMENTAL
ENGINEERING

QUALITY CHARACTERISTICS OF SEWAGE

1. Standard BOD is measured at


a) 20°C - 1 day b) 25°C - 3day
c) 20°C - 5 day d) 30°C - 5day

2. The correct relation between theoretical oxygen demand (TOD), Biochemical oxygen
demand (BOD) and Chemical oxygen demand (COD) is given by
a) TOD>BOD>COD b) TOD>COD>BOD
c) BOD>COD>TOD d) COD>BOD>TOD

3. Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) of sewage is the


a) oxygen required to oxidise biologically active
b) oxygen required to oxidise biologically inactive
c) (a) and (b) both
d) None

4. Minimum D.O. prescribed for a river stream, to avoid fish kills


a) 2 ppm b) 4 ppm c) 8ppm d)10ppm

5. Select the correct statement.


a) 5 day BOD is the ultimate BOD
b) 5 day BOD is greater than 4 day keeping other conditions same.
c) 5 day BOD is less than 4 day keeping other conditions same.
d) BOD does not depend on time.

6. If Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) of a town is 20000 kg/day and BOD per capita
per day is 0.05 kg, then population equivalent of town is
a) 1000 b) 4000 c) 100000 d) 400000

7. The pathogens can be killed by


a) nitrification b) chlorination
c) oxidation d) none of the above

8. The characteristics of fresh and septic sewage respectively are


a) acidic and alkaline b) alkaline and acidic
c) both acidic d) both alkaline

9. The minimum dissolved oxygen which should always be present in water in order to
save the aquatic life is
a) 1 ppm b) 4 ppm c) 10 ppm d) 40 ppm

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GATE/IES/CIVIL OBJECTIVE QUESTION BANK ENVIRONMENTAL
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10. The relative stability of a sewage sample, whose dissolved oxygen is same as the total
oxygen required to satisfy BOD, is
a) 1 b) 100 c) infinite d) zero

11. Dissolved oxygen in streams is


a) maximum at noon b) minimum at noon
c) maximum at midnight d) same throughout the day

12. If in a test conducted for determining relative stability, the period of incubation at
20°C is t days, the relative stability in % is given by
a) 100[1 -(0.794)t] b) 100[1 -(0.630)t]
c) 100[1 -(0.694)t] d) 100[1 - (0.730)t]

13. Well oxidised sewage will contain nitrogen, largely in the form of
a) nitrites b) nitrates c) free ammonia d) all of these

14. Methaemoglobinemia disease is caused in children, by :


a) conversion of nitrates to nitrites
b) conversion of nitrites to nitrates
c) reaction between hemoglobin and carbon dioxide
d) both (a) and (c)

15. Facultative bacteria are able to work in


a) presence of oxygen only
b) absence of oxygen only
c) presence as well as in absence of oxygen
d) presence of water

16. Partially oxidised stale sewage will contain nitrogen mainly in the form of:
a) nitrites b) nitrates c) free ammonia d) (a) and (c) both

17. Biodegradable organics enter waste water from


a) industrial wastes
b) both industrial as well as domestic wastes
c) domestic wastes
d) infiltration in sewers from the surrounding soils

18. The rate of BOD exerted at any time


a) directly proportional to BOD satisfied
b) directly proportional to BOD remaining
c) inversely proportional to satisfied
d) inversely proportional to BC maining

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GATE/IES/CIVIL OBJECTIVE QUESTION BANK ENVIRONMENTAL
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19. The ratio of 5 day BOD to ultimate BOD is about


a) 1/3 b) 2/3 c) 3/4 d) 1.0 [GATE 99]

20. In a BOD test, 1.0 ml of raw sewage was diluted to 100 ml and the dissolved oxygen
concentration of diluted sample at the beginning was 6 ppm and it was 4 ppm at the
end of 5 day incubation at 20°C. The BOD of raw sewage will be
a) 100 ppm b) 200 ppm c) 300 ppm d) 400 ppm

21. Biochemical Oxygen Demand(BOD) of sewage


a) oxygen required to oxidise biologically active organic matter
b) oxygen required to oxidise biologically inactive organic matter
c) both (a) and (b)
d) None

22. BOD5 represents 5-day biochemical oxygen demand at a temperature of:


a) 0° C b) 20° C c)300C d) none of above

23. Between BOD and COD, the greater of the two, is


a) BOD b) COD
c) both are equal d) Depends on the sewage characteristics.

24. The solubility of oxygen in sewage, when compared to its solubility in distilled water,
is :
a) 80% b) 90% c) 99% d) 99.9%

25. Pathogenic bacteria, enter waste water primarily from


a) industrial wastes
b) domestic wastes
c) both industrial as well as domestic wastes
d) infiltration in sewers from the surrounding soils

26. The average BOD5 of domestic sewage is :


a) 80 kg/day/person b)8 kg/day/person
c) 0.8 kg/day/person d)0.08 kg/day/person

27. Well oxidised sewage will contain Sulphur, largely in the form of:
a) sulphites b) sulphates c) hydrogen sulphide d) all of these

28. Temperature variations affect the :


a) biological activity of bacteria in sewage
b) viscosity of sewage
c) solubility of gases in sewage
d) all of the these

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GATE/IES/CIVIL OBJECTIVE QUESTION BANK ENVIRONMENTAL
ENGINEERING

29. Imhoff cone is used to measure, in sewage :


a) total solids b) total organic solids
c) total inorganic solids d) settleable solids

30. Standard 5 day BOD at 20° C. when compared to ultimate BOD, is about
a) 58% b) 68% c)98% d) none

31. The graph between the amount of organic matter left in sewage and time elapsed in
days, is:
a) linear b)parallel to time axis c)exponential d)none

32. BOD of waste water is a measure of


a) total concentration of bio chemicals
b) total concentration of organic matter
c) concentration of biodegradable organic matter
d) concentration of chemically oxidisable matter

33. High COD to BOD ratio of an organic pollutant represents


a) high Biodegradability of the pollutant
b) low Biodegradability of the pollutant
c) presence of free oxygen for aerobic decomposition
d) presence of toxic material in the pollutant

34. The appropriate percentage of water in sewage is :


a) 90 b) 99 c)99.9 d) 99.99

35. The correct relationship between Theoretical Oxygen Demand(TOD), Biochemical


Oxygen . Demand (BOD) and Chemical Oxygen Demand(COD) is given by
a) T0D> BOD >C0D b)T0D>C0D>B0D
c) C0D>B0D>T0D d)BOD>COD>TOD

36. The main constituents of gas generated during anaerobic digestion of sewage sludge
are
a) CO2 and CH4 b) CH4 and ethane c)CO2 and CO d) CO2, N2

37. The percentage ratio of the oxygen available in sewage to the oxygen required to
satisfy one stage of bio-chemical oxygen demand (BOD) is termed as
(a) chemical oxygen demand (b) oxygen consumed
(c) relative stability (d) bio-oxygen demand

38. Putrefaction is the process of


(a) Aerobic decomposition (b) Facultative decomposition
(c) Anaerobic decomposition (d) Intermittent decomposition

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GATE/IES/CIVIL OBJECTIVE QUESTION BANK ENVIRONMENTAL
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39. The solids present in sewage in a finely divided from , in suspension in solution, are
known as
(a) Settled solids (b) Dissolved solids
(c) Colloidal solids (d) Suspended solids

40. Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) of a sample is always greater than BOD since it
represents
a) Biodegradable and organic matter only
b) non- Biodegradable organic matter
c) Biodegradable and non-degradable organic matter
d) inorganic matter

41. A single rapid test to determine the pollution states of river water is
a) BOD b) COD c) Total organic solids d)D.O

42. A rapid test to indicate the intensity of pollution in river water is


a) BOD b) DO c) MPN d) total dissolved solids

43. As a result of stabilisation of sewage effluent the most a appropriate end product
produced is:
a) chlorides b) plant nitrates c) hardness d) alkalinity

44. BOD is preferred to COD as an index of sewage concentration because


a) BOD represents both carbonaceous and nitrogenous organic matter while COD
may indicate carbonaceous matter only
b) BOD test is easier to perform and gives more reliable results
c) BOD relates specifically to putrescible organic matter which is the most
objectionable sewage constituent
d) COD relates to the impurities which can only be removed by chemical treatment
which is expensive [ES 93]

45. The relative stability of a sewage sample, whose D.O equals to the total oxygen
required to satisfy its BOD is
a) zero b)1% c)100% d)infinity

46. Standard 5-day BOD of a waste water sample X% of the ultimate BOD, where X is
a) 48 b)58 c)68 d)78

47. Presence of excess nitrates in river water indicates


a) recent pollution of water with sewage
b) past pollution of water with sewage
c) immediate pollution of water with sewage
d) no pollution of water with sewage

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GATE/IES/CIVIL OBJECTIVE QUESTION BANK ENVIRONMENTAL
ENGINEERING

49. The graphical representation of BOD (Y) exerted against time in days (t) is given by:
a)

b)

c) any of the above

d) none

50.

The second stage BOD as shown in Fig is due to


a) experimental error
b) increased activity of bacteria
c) nitrification demand
d) interference by certain chemical reactions

51. Under Indian conditions, the average per capita contribution of BOD is
a) 10 to 20 gm/d b) 20 to 35 gm/d
c) 35 to 50 gm/d d) 50 to 70 gm/d
Consider the data presented in the following table:
Temperature in °C BOD reaction rate constant (K)
20 0.01
30 0.02
10 0.005

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GATE/IES/CIVIL OBJECTIVE QUESTION BANK ENVIRONMENTAL
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52. In the data presented above, the value of K


a) should have remained constant.
b) should have decreased with increase in temperature.
c) should have remained the same at 20°C and 30°C.
d) has followed the correct trend. [ES 94]

53. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?


a) B.O.D .... Strength of sewage
b) Methane ... Product of anaerobic decomposition
c) C.O.D. ... Biodegradability of wastewater
d) Nitrate ... Methemoglobinemia

54. The following data pertain to a sewage sample:


Initial D.O. = 10 mg/1 Final D.O. = 2 mg/1 Dilution to 1%
The BOD of the given sewage sample is
a) 8 mg/1
b) 10 mg/1
c) 100 mg/1
d) 800 mg/1 [ES 97]

55. To  determine the BOD5 of  a waste water sample, 5, 10 and 50ml aliquots of the 


waste water were
Table:
S.No Waste-water(ml) Initial DO.mg/l DO after 5 daysmg/l
1. 5 9.2 6.9
2. 10 9.1 4.4
3. 50 8.4 0

Based on the data, average bod5 of the sample is


(a.) 139.5 mg/l (b.) 126.5 mg/l (c.) 109.8 mg/l (d.) 72.2 mg/l

56. The 5day BOD of a waste water sample is obtained as 190mg/l (with  k = 0.01 h). 


The ultimate oxygen demand (mg/l) of the sample will be(2008)
(a.) 3800 (b.) 475 (c.) 271 (d.) 190

57. A portion of waste water sample was subjected to standard BOD test (5 days, 20°C), 
yielding a valueof 180mg/l. The reaction rate constant (to the base ‘e’) at 20°C 
was taken as 0.18 per day.  The reaction rate constant at other temperature 
T20
maybe estimated by kT = k20 (1.047) . Thetemperature at which the other 
portion of the sample should  be tested, to exert the same BOD in 2.5days, is
(a.) 4.9°C (b.) 24.9°C (c.) 31.7°C (d.) 35.0°C

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GATE/IES/CIVIL OBJECTIVE QUESTION BANK ENVIRONMENTAL
ENGINEERING

58. 15.If the BOD3of a wastewater sample is 75mg/L and reaction rate constant k
(base e) is 0.345 per day, the amount of BOD remaining in the given sample
after 10days is (2010)
A)3.21 mg/L (B) 3.45 mg/L (C) 3.69 mg/L (D) 3.92 mg/L
KEY:
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
C b c b c d b b b
10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19
a A a b a c d b b b
20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29
b A b b b c d b d d
30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39
b D c b c b a c c c
40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49
c D b b c c c b -- a
50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58
c D d c d a a d c

SLOUTIONS:
55.
(DOi – DOf) x ΔF
for 1st sample (DOi – DOf) x ΔF=138
for 2nd sample (DOi – DOf) x ΔF =141
avg = (138+141)/2 = 139.5

56.
k = 0.01/h =0.24/day
190=L(1-10-0.24 x 5)

57.
L=303.3
(BOD)5=180
(BOD)2.5 = L(1-e-k x 2.5)
=>k= 0.36
kt = k20(1.047)T-20 => t =350
58. Lt=Le-kT
\

TREATMENT OF SEWAGE
1. If the sewage contains grease and fatty oils, these are removed in
a) grit chambers b) detritus tanks

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GATE/IES/CIVIL OBJECTIVE QUESTION BANK ENVIRONMENTAL
ENGINEERING

c) skimming tanks d) sedimentation tanks

2. Which of the following unit works in anaerobic conditions?


a) sludge digestion tank b) sedimentation tank
c) activated sludge treatment d) trickling filters

3. The treatment in a grit chamber is


a) primary treatment b) preliminary treatment
c) secondary treatment d) tertiary treatment

4. In the design of grit chambers in sewage treatment


a) baffles are essential
b) temperature control is an important factor
c) the maximum flow velocity should be of the order of 0.3 m/sec
d) the detention period should at least be 10 minutes

5. The working conditions in Imhoff tank are


a) aerobic only
b) anaerobic only
c) aerobic in lower compartment and anaerobic in upper compartment
d) anaerobic in lower compartment and aerobic in upper compartment

6. Septic tank is a
i)settling tank
ii) digestion tank
iii) aeration tank
The correct answer is
a) only (i) b) (i) and (ii)
c) (i) and (iii) d) only (iii)

7. The biochemical treatment of sewage effluents is essentially a process of


a) oxidation b) dehydration
c) reduction d) alkalinization

8. Various unit operations exist in a sewage treatment plant. These would include
1. screening
2. grit removal
3. secondary sedimentation
4. aeration
5. primary sedimentation
The correct sequence of these operations is
a) 1,2,3,4,5 b) l,2,5,4,3
c) 2,1,4,5,3 d) 2,1,4,3,5 [ES 94]

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GATE/IES/CIVIL OBJECTIVE QUESTION BANK ENVIRONMENTAL
ENGINEERING

9. One litre of sewage, when allowed to settle for 30 minutes gives a sludge volume of
27 cm3. If the dry weight of this sludge is 3.0 grams, then its sludge volume index will
be
a) 9 b) 24 c) 30 d) 81 [ES 95]

10. The following are the sewage treatment processes :


1. primary sedimentation
2. screening
3. grit removal
4. secondary sedimentation
When only preliminary treatment is to be given for sewage, select the required
treatment processes including their correct sequence from the codes given below.
Codes :
a) 2,3 b) 2,3,1 c) 1,2, 3,4 d) 3, 1,2,4

11. The detention period in a septic tank is of the order of


a) 2 - 6 hours b) 2 - 4 boars c) 12 — 36 hours d) 4 - 8 hours

12. The process of waste water treatment in imhoff tank is classified


a)aerobic suspended culture b)aerobic attached culture
c)anaerobic digestion d) none

13. The grit chambers of a sewage treatment plant, normally need cleaning
a) every hour b) every day c) every fortnight d) every year

14. The detention period adopted for grit chamber is of the order of
a) 1 minute b) 5 c) 2 - 4 min d) 12 min

15. Which of the following statements is/are true in relation to the term ‘detention period’
in a settling tank ?
1. It may be determined by introducing a .dye in the inlet and timing its appearance at
the outlet.
2. Greater the detention period, greater the efficiency of removal of settleable matter.
3. It is the time taken for any unit of water to pass through the settling basin.
4. It is usually more than the flow through period.
Select the correct answer
Codes:
Using the codes given below.
a) 1,2, 3 and 4 b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1 and 3 d) 4 alone [ES 97]

16. The BOD5 of the effluents obtained from septic tanks, is of the order of
a) 10 -20mg/l b)50 -100mg/l
c) 100 -200 mg/l d) more than 200 mg/l

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GATE/IES/CIVIL OBJECTIVE QUESTION BANK ENVIRONMENTAL
ENGINEERING

17. A grit chamber of dimensions l2m x 1.5 m x 0.8m liquid depth has a flow 720 m 3 /hr.
Its surface loading and detention time are, respectively,
a) 40000 m3/hr/m2 and 1.2 minutes
b) 40000 lph/m2 and 40 minutes
c) 40 m3/hr/m2 and 12 minutes
d) 40000 lph/m2 and 1.2 minute

18. Which of the following waste disposal tasks are achieved by a septic tank with its
dispersion trench ?
1. aerobic sludge digestion
2. settling and anaerobic sludge digestion.
3. anaerobic sewage stabilisation.
4. bio-oxidation of effluent.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Codes:
a) 1 and 3 b) 3 and 4 c) 2 and 4 d) land 4 [ES 97]

19. The rate of sludge accumulation in a septic tank is generally of the order of
a) 10 litres/person/year b) 20 litres/person/day
c) 30 litres/person/year d) 100 litres/person/year

20. The flow sheet of the liquid stream sewage treatment scheme consists of
1. trickling filter
2. primary settling tank
3. grit chamber
4. screen chamber
5. secondary settling tank
The correct sequence of these units in the sewage treatment scheme of a liquid stream
is
a) 3,4,1,2,5 b) 3,4,2,1,5 c) 4,3,2,1,5 d) 4,3,1,2,5

21. The purpose of a proportional weir at the effluent end of a channel type grit removal
unit is to
a) provide easy passage of solid particles
b) measure the rate of flow in the channel
c) keep the depth of flow in the channel above a certain value
d) maintain constant mean velocity in the channel. [ES 99]

22. The sewage treatment units, which work on anaerobic decomposition of organic
matter, are
a) oxidation ponds b) septic tanks
c) activated sludge plants d) both (b) and (c)

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GATE/IES/CIVIL OBJECTIVE QUESTION BANK ENVIRONMENTAL
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23. The controlling design parameter in the design of all settling tanks is:
a) detention time
b) overflow rate
c) percent removal of suspended solids
d) depth

24. Phosphorus can be removed from waste water by


a) rapid sand Alteration b) chlorine addition
c) carbon adsorption d) ferric chloride addition

25. Assertion A : Horizontal velocity of flow through grit chambers is maintained


between 24 to 30 cm/sec.
Reason R : Removal of organic and inorganic particles larger than 0.1 mm direction is
very essential.

KEY :

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
c a b c d b a b a
10 11 12 13 15 15 16 17 18 19
a c c c a b c d c c
20 21 22 23 24
c d b b d

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GATE/IES/CIVIL OBJECTIVE QUESTION BANK ENVIRONMENTAL
ENGINEERING

SLUDGE DIGESTION
1. For the same solid content if the quantity of sludge with moisture content of 98% is
X, then the quantity, of sludge with moisture content of 96% will be
a) X/4 b)X/2 c) X d)2X

2. The gas coming out from sludge digestion tank is


a) methane only
b) carbon dioxide only
c) 70% of methane and 30% of carbon dioxide
d) 30% of methane and 70% of carbon dioxide

3. To remove floating matter like papers, rags etc, the unit used is
a) screens b) grit chamber c) imhoff tank d) septic tank

4. The settleable faecal and other organic solids are removed in


a) activated sludge process b) Trickling filter
c) primary sedimentation tank d) secondary sedimentation

5. If the percentage decrease in the volume of sludge is 50, the moisture content is about
(a) 90-100 (b) 80-90 (c) 70-80 (d) 60-70

6. The gas from sludge digestion tank is mainly composed of


a) nitrogen b) carbon dioxide
c) hydrogen sulphide d) methane

7. The average normal efficiency of BOD removal in imhoff tank is


a) 95 % b) 75 % - c)60 % d) 30 %

8. The following reactions take place during anaerobic digestion of organics:


1. methane production
2. alkaline fermentation
3. acid fermentation
4. acid regression.
The correct sequence of these reactions is
a) 3,4,2, 1 b) 4,3,2, 1 c) 3,4, 1,2 d) 4,3, 1,2 [ES 94]

9. Which of the following are claimed as advantageous in respect of aerobic sludge


digestion as compared to anaerobic sludge digestion ?
1. lower BOD concentration in supernatant liquor
2. production of a sludge with excellent denaturing propensity
3. greater production of methane
4. lesser operation cost
5. lesser capital cost

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GATE/IES/CIVIL OBJECTIVE QUESTION BANK ENVIRONMENTAL
ENGINEERING

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.


Codes:
a) 1,2 and 4 b) 2, 3,4 and 5
c) 3,4 and 5 d) 1,2 and 5

10. The first stage of natural process of sludge digestion is


a)hydrolysis b)acid fermentation
c)alkaline fermentation d)methane fermentation

11. The secondary treatment of sewage is carried out by the use of


(a) screens (b) grit chambers
(c) trickling fitters (d) chlorinators

12. In primary settling tank, suspended solids are reduced from


(a) 10 to 20 % (b) 20 to 40% (c) 40 to 70% (d) 70 to 90%

13. The partial treatment and sedimentation unit suitable for isolated building is
a) imhoff tank b) septic tank c) detritus tank d) sedimentation

14. The following three stages are known to occur in the biological action involved in the
process of sludge digestion :
1. Acid fermentation.
2. Alkaline fermentation.
3. Acid regression.
The correct sequence of these stages is
a) 1,2,3 b) 2,3,1 c) 3,1,2 d) 1,3,2 [ES 98]

15. The effluent of a septic tank is


a) fit for discharge into any open drain
b) highly foul, containing large amount of suspended solids, needing sedimentation
c) as good as that from a complete treatment plant
d) none of the above

16. Anaerobic bacteria play the main role in


a) trickling filter b) activated sludge process
c) septic tank d) sedimentation tank

17. A septic tank is


a) a settling tank b) a digestion tank
c) both (a) and (b) d) none

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GATE/IES/CIVIL OBJECTIVE QUESTION BANK ENVIRONMENTAL
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18. In preliminary treatment of sewage, the operation which takes place, is


(a) removal of fine suspended particles
(b) removal of fine dissolved organic material
(c) removal of lighter floating material
(d) removal of harmful bacteria's and other organisms

19. Fresh sludge has moisture content of 99% and, after thickening, its moisture content is
reduced to 96%. The reduction in volume of sludge is
a) 3% b) 5% c) 75% d) 97.5% [ES 98]

20. Sludge digestion is done by the following bacteria


a) aerobic b) anaerobic c) facultative d) pathogenic

21. The main useful gaseous component in the digestion process is


a) ethane b) methane c) butane d) propane

22. Floating substances like oil, fat and grease are separated and removed by
a) bar screens b) primary sedimentation
c) skimming tank d) trickling filter

23. Generally the detention period for grit chambers is kept as


a) 1 minute b) 5 minutes c) 2-4 hours d) 12 hours

24. The two chambered tank in which the upper one is used for sedimentation and the
lower for digestion is
a) imhoff tank b) septic tank
c) detritus tank d) sedimentation tank

25. The two main gases liberated from an anaerobic sludge digestion tank would include
a) ammonia and carbon dioxide
b) carbon dioxide and methane
c) methane and hydrogen sulphide
d) ammonia and methane

26. Grit chambers are designed to remove


a) fine sand particles
b) organic particles
c) particles equivalent to fine sand.0.2mm diameter and specific gravity of 2.7 with a
minimum of organic material
d) particles with 0.2 cm diameter and specific gravity 3-5 with maximum of organic
matter

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GATE/IES/CIVIL OBJECTIVE QUESTION BANK ENVIRONMENTAL
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KEY :

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
b c a c b d d a
9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
d b c c b d d c c c
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
c b b c a a b c

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GATE/IES/CIVIL OBJECTIVE QUESTION BANK ENVIRONMENTAL
ENGINEERING

TRICKLING FILTERS

1. Problem of odour, ponding and fly nuisance


(a) UASB system (b) Stabilization ponds
c) T0ricking filters (d) stabilization ponds

2. When there is no recirculation of sewage then recirculation factor is


a) 0 b) 1
c) infinity d) none of the above

3. Which one of the following statements is true of trickling filter sludge?


a) It has a comparatively low sludge volume index.
b) It is more difficult to dewater than activated sludge.
c) It has a comparatively low concentration of sludge solids.
d) It is bulky. [ES 93]

4. The function of trickling filter unit is


a) Solid liquid separation b) Removal of settle able solids
c) Sloughing of biomass d) Symbiotic reaction

5. Which of the following term appears in trickling filter treatment process?


a) Sludge volume index b) Thickening of sludge
c) Scum removal d) recycling of effluent

6. Which of the following impurities are removed in trickling filter process?


a) Large floating matter b) Suspended inorganic
c) Suspended organic matter d) Dissolved organic matter

7. A reactor in which the surface area for growth of biofilm is provided by randomly
packed solid medium is called
a) Activated sludge reactor b) trickling filter
c) Stabilization pond d) mixed reactor

8. The sludge form secondary settling tanks in a trickling filter is called


a) leach ate b) compost c) humus d) ashes

9. Trickling filter plants are preferred for sewage treatment for


a) Towns and smaller cities b) medium sized cities
c) Large sized cities d) (a) and (b) both

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GATE/IES/CIVIL OBJECTIVE QUESTION BANK ENVIRONMENTAL
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10. The type of bacteria responsible for biological oxidation of dissolved solids in trickling
filter are
a) Pathogenic bacteria b) Facultative bacteria
c) Anaerobic bacteria d) Aerobic bacteria

11. In a high rate trickling filter, the problem of pending can be solved by
a) flooding and raking b) chlorination and supply of air
c) raking and chlorination d) flooding and supply of air

12. The average normal efficiency of BOD removal in trickling filter process is
a) 95% b) 90 % c) 60% d) 30%

13. Trickling filter treatment process is classified as


a) Aerobic suspended culture b) Aerobic attached culture
c) Anaerobic digestion d) none

14. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
Lists:
List I List II
A. Sludge disposal 1. Seeding
B. Sludge digestion 2. Bio filters
C. Aerobic action 3.Lagging
D. Recirculation 4.Contact bed
Codes:
A B C D
a) 3 1 4 2
b) 3 1 2 4
c) 1 3 2 4
d) 1 3 4 2

PROBLEMS
15. The BOD of a sewage entering T-F is 200mg/l If the effluent of the sewage of TF is
40 mg /1, then the efficiency of the TF is
a) 40% b) 85% c) 80% d) zero

16. A TF is designed with an unit organic loading of 0.175 kg / m 3 / day. If the influent
BOD of the sewage is 150 mg/l, then the effluent BOD is
a) 43.35 mg/l b) 23.3 mg/l c) 126.7 mg/l d) None of the above
KEY :
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
c b a c D d b c d
10 11 12 13 14 15 16
b c b b a C b

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GATE/IES/CIVIL OBJECTIVE QUESTION BANK ENVIRONMENTAL
ENGINEERING

ACTIVATED SLUDGE PROCESS

01. Activated sludge is the


(a) aerated sludge in the aeration unit
(b) sludge settled in the humus tank
(c) sludge in the secondary tank after aeration and rich in microbial mass
(d) sludge in the secondary tank after aeration and rich in nutrients.

02. The activated sludge


a)contains fertilized constituents
b)indicates the degree of aeration
c)indicates high water content
d)All the above

03. The aeration process adopted in an activated sludge plant, which ensures optimal
utilization of air, is known as :
(a) conventional process (b) step aeration
(c) activated aeration (d) tapered aeration

07. Recirculation in ‘Activated Sludge Process’ is done to :


(a) dilute the incoming sewage
(b)dampen the effect of flow variation
(c) operate the plant continuously
(d) supply seed materials to the aeration tank.

04. Lower F/M value in a conventional activated treatment plant will mean
(a) lower BOD removal
(b) higher BOD removal
(c) no effect on BOD removal
(d)none

05. Sludge volume index is defined as the ratio of


a) percentage of sludge by volume to percentage of suspended solids by weight
b) percentage of sludge by volume to percentage of total solids by weight
c) percentage of suspended solids by weight to percentage of sludge by volume
d) percentage of total solids by weight t percentage of sludge by volume

06. For normal sludge, the value of sludge. index for Indian conditions is
a) 0 to 50 b) 50 to 150
c) 150 to 350 d) 350 to 500

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GATE/IES/CIVIL OBJECTIVE QUESTION BANK ENVIRONMENTAL
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07. In a conventional activated sludge plant, the oxygen demand is highest near the :
(a) inlet end of the aeration tank
(b) outlet end of the aeration tank
(c) inlet end of the clarifier
(d) outlet end of the clarifier.

08. For conventional activated sludge process, the mixed liquor suspended solid should
range between
(a) 10 to 100 mg/l (b) 150 to 300 mg/l
(c) 1500 to 3000 mg/l (d) 5000 to 10000 mg/l

09. What is the % of activated sludge mixed with the sewage in primary settling tanks
(a) 10 to 20 (b) 40 to 50 (c) 20 to 40 (d) 50 to 70

10. The F/M ratio is controlled in the activated sludge process by adjusting the
a) flow rate b) volume of aeration tank
c) amount of sludge wasting d) BOD

11. Activated sludge treatment plants are normally prefered for


(a) towns and smaller cities (b)medium sized citied
(c) large sized citied town (d) all of them

12. Consider activated sludge:


i)it is obtained by settling of sewage in presence of plenty of oxygen
ii)The aeration period is 3 to 6 hours
iii)The bulking of sludge of sludge is remedied by chlorination
a)i only b)i and ii c)i, ii and iii d)ii and iii

13. Which one of the following is least important in the activated sludge process?
a) proper proportion of the return sludge from the secondary settling tank
b) adequate aeration in the biological reactor, so as to maintain certain minimum
dissolved oxygen
c) proper food to micro - organisms (F/ M) ratio
d) the sludge volume index of the return sludge to be less than 200 [ES 98]

14. Mean cell residence time for activated sludge process is


(a) 4-8 h b)20-30 h c)30-40 d)4-15h

15. For normal sludge, the value of Sludge index for Indian conditions is
(a) 0 to 50 (b) 50 to 150 (c) 150 to 350 (d) 350 to 500

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16. In activated sludge process, the activated sludge is added to


(a)influent of primary sedimentation tank
(b)influent of secondary sedimentation tank
(C) effluent of primary sedimentation tank
(d) effluent of secondary sedimentation tank

Problems:
An average Operation data for conventional activate sludge treatment plant is as
follows :
(i) waste water flow = 35,000 m3 / d
(ii) Vol. of aeration tank = 10,900 m3
(iii)influent BOD = 250 mg/l
(iv) effluent BOD = 20 mg/l
(v) mixed liquor suspended solids (MLSS) = 2,500 mg/l
(vi)effluent suspended solids = 30 mg/l
(vii)waste sludge suspended solids = 9,700 mg//
(viii) quantity of waste sludge = 220 m3
Based on this information,

17. Aeration period is (hrs)


a)4.5 b) 6.4 c) 7.47 d) 8.43

18. Food to microorganism ratio F / M (kg/d BOD/kg MLSS) is


a) 0.18 b) 0.32 c) 0.48 d)0.52

19. Percentage efficiency of BOD removal is


a) 80 % b) 88 % C ) 92 % d) 96 %

20. Sludge age in days is


a) 8.58 b) 10.42 c) 12.86 d) None of the above

21. If the SVI is 88 ml/gm for an activated sludge, then the concentration of the returned
sludge is
a) 8800 mg/l b) 9704 mg /I c) 11364 mg/l d) zero

22. The MLSS concentration in an aeration is 2000 mg/l and the sludge vol. after 30 min
of settling in a 1,000 ml graduated cylinder is 176 ml, then SVI is
a) 88 ml/gm b) 176 ml/gm c) 200 ml/gm d)zero

23. Assuming that the supernatant is clear of suspended solids one liter of activated
sludge containing 1000 mg/l MLSS occupies a volume of 200 ml after settling for 30
minutes in a measuring cylinder, the value of SVI will be
(a) 50 (b) 100 (c) 200 (d)400

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24. For normal sludge, the value of sludge index for Indian conditions is
a)0 to 50 b)50 to 150 c)150 to 350 d)350 to 500

25. An activated sludge aeration tank(lengt:30m,width 14m,effective liquid 4.3m has the
following parameters
Flow = 0.0796m3/s
BOD after primary settling 130 mg/l
Mixed liquor suspended solids 2100 mg/l
Mixed liquor volatile suspended solids 1500 mg/l
30 min settled sludge volume 230 ml / l
return sludge concentration 9100 mg/l
determine the aeration period, F/M ration SVI index and return sludge rate.

26. An aeration basin with a volume of 400 m 3 contains mixed liquor with suspended
solid concentration of 1000 mg/l. The amount of mixed liquor suspended solids in the
tank is
(a) 500 kg (b) 250 kg (c) 6600 kg (d) 400 kg

27. An aeration basin with a volume of 400 m 3 contains mixed liquor with suspended
solid concentration of 1000 mg/1. The amount of mixed liquor suspended solids in the
tank is
a) 500 kg b) 250 kg
c) 600 kg d) 400 kg [ES 94]

28. A town produces sewage of 50 x 10 6 l/d with BOD of 180 mg/l. Taking permissible
volumetric organic loading as 550 gm of BOD per 1 cum of volume, the volume of
aeration tank required is
a) 16363 m3 b) 14360 m3 c)2800m3 d) 8423 m3
29. The MLSS concentration in an aeration is 2000 mg/l and the sludge vol. after 30 min
of settling in a 1,000 ml graduated cylinder is 176 ml, then SVI is
a) 88 ml/gm b) 176 ml/gm c) 200 ml/gm d) zero

30. Assuming that the supernatant is clear of suspended solids one liter of activated
sludge containing 1000 mg/l MLSS occupies a volume of 200 ml after settling for 30
minutes in a measuring cylinder, the value of SVI will be
(a) 50 (b) 100 (c) 200 (d)400

31. A town produces sewage of 50 x 10 6 l/d with BOD of 180 mg/l. Taking permissible
organic loading as 50 gm of BOD per 100 gm of suspended solids and MLSS as 1800
mg/l the volume of aeration tank required is
a) 16363 m3 b) 14360 m3 c) 2800 m3 d) 10000 m3

32. An aeration basin with a volume of 400 m 3 contains mixed liquor with suspended

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solid concentration of 1000 mg/l. The amount of mixed liquor suspended solids in the
tank is
(a) 500 kg (b) 250 kg (c) 6600 kg (d) 400 kg
A completely mixed activated sludge process is used to teat a wastewater flow of 1 
million liters per day (lM LD) having  a BOD5 of 200mg/l. The biomass concentr
ation in the aeration tank is 2000mg/l and theconcentration of the net biomass lea
ving the system is 50mg/l. The aeration tank has a volume of 200m .(2007)

33. What is the hydraulic retention time of the waste water in aeration tank?
(a.) 0.2h (b.) 4.8h
(c.) 10h (d.) 24h

34. What is the average time for which the biomass stays in the system?
(a.) 5 h (b.) 8 h
(c.) 2 days (d.) 8 days

35.
List I (Treatment units) List II (Detention time)
a) Grit chamber 1. Six hours
b) Primary sedimentation 2.Two minutes
c) Activated sludge 3. Two hours
d) Sludge digestion 4. Twenty days

Codes :
A B C D
A) 3 1 4 2
B) 2 3 1 4
C) 2 1 3 4
D) 1 2 3 4

36. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists:
List I List II
(Terms/Description) (Treatment operation/process)
A. Sludge volume index 1. Settling in primary sedimentation tank
B. Thickening of sludge 2. Settling in secondary sedimentation tank
C. Scum removal 3. Filtration in trickling filter
D. Recycling of effluent 4. Activated sludge process

Codes:
A B C D

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a) 2 4 1 3
b) 4 2 3 1
c) 2 4 3 1
d) 4 2 1 3

KEY:

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
c d d b a c a c c
10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19
C c c d d b c c b c
20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29
A c a c b d d a a
30 31 32 33 34 35 36
C d d b d b d

SOLUTIONS:
17.

18.

19.

η=

θc =

20. 106/88 = xr =11364

21. = 200

22. SVI =

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25.
V = 30 x 14 x 4.3 = 1806 x 103 lit
Q = 0.0796 m3/s = 6.8 x 106 lit/day

i) HRT =

ii) = 0.33

iii) SVI =

SVI = 106 / XR =>XR = 9132 mg/l

26. Total mass = 400 x 103 x 1000 = 400 kG

28.
V= Qyi/v = 16363
30.

 V =104

33.
Q= 1 MLD = 1/24 MLH
HRT = V/Q = 4.8 hrs

34.

θc =

neglect

so θc = = 8 days.

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OXIDATION PONDS

1. The maximum efficiency of BOD removal is achieved in


a) oxidation pond b) oxidation ditch
c) aerated lagoons d) trickling filters

2. In facultative stabilization pond, the sewage is treated by


a) aerobic bacteria only
b) algae only
c) dual action of aerobic bacteria and anaerobic bacteria
d) sedimentation

3. The detention period for oxidation ponds is usually kept as


a) 4-8 hours b) 24 hours
c) 10 to 15 days d) 3 months

4. The main disadvantage of oxidation pond is that


a) large area is required for construction
b) maintenance and operation cost are high
c) BOD removal is very low
d) none of the above

5. The waste stabilization ponds can be


a) aerobic b)anaerobic
c)facultative d)any of the above

6. In the oxidation ditch, the excess sludge is taken to


a) anaerobic digester b) aerobic digester
c) drying beds d) incinerator

7. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?


a) Activated sludge ... .aeration

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b) Trickling filters ... attached system


c) Oxidation ditch ......algae
d) Channel grit chamber . proportional weir

8. For a colony of 10,000 persons having sewage flow rate of 200 litres /capita/day.
BOD of applied sewage of 300 mg/litre and organic loading of 30C kg/day/hectare,
the area of an oxidation pond required for treating the sewage of the colony is
a) 0.2 hectares b) 1 hectare
c) 2 hectares d) 6 hectares [ES 99]

9. Consider the following statements about waste stabilization ponds:


1. The pond has a symbiotic behiaviour of waste stabilization through algae on one
hand and bacteria on the other.
2.The oxygen in ponds is provided by algae through photosynthesis.
3.The detention period for waste stabilization pond is of the order of two to three days.
4.The bacteria, which develop in the pond, are aerobic bacteria.
a) 1,2,3 b) 1,3,4 c) 2,4 d) 1,2

10. Assertion A : In wastewater treatment, waste stabilization ponds are more successful in
sunny tropical regions.
Reason R : The bacterial action or purification is achieved through photosynthetic
bacteria. [ES 95]

KEY :

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
b c c a d c c c d

DISPOSING OF SEWAGE EFFLUENTS

1. The water carriage system of collection of waste product


a) is cheaper in initial cost than dry conservancy system
b) requires treatment before disposal
c) creates hygenic problem
d) all of the above

2. Which of the following retards the self purification of stream ?


a) higher temperature b) sunlight
c) satisfying oxygen demand d) none of the above

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3. Under natural conditions of flow, an unpolluted river would contain


a) more dissolved oxygen in summer than in winter.
b) less dissolved oxygen in summer than in winter.
c) more or less the same amount of dissolved oxygen in winter and summer.
d) the least amount of dissolved oxygen during the floods.

4. An industrial wastewater enters a stream having a BOD concentration of 10 mg/1 and


a flow of 20 m3/s. If the flow of wastewater is 1.5 m3/s and its BOD concentration is
250 mg/1, then the BOD concentration in the stream at a point downstream of the
point of confluence of wastewater with the stream will be
a) 2.67 mg/1 b) 12.09 mg/1
c) 13.00 mg/1 d) 26.74 mg/1 [ES 95]

5. A polluted stream undergoes self purification in four distinct zones:


1. Zone of clear water.
2. Zone of active decomposition
3. Zone of degradation
4. Zone of recovery
The correct sequence of these zones is
a) 3,4,2,1 b) 2,3,4,1
c) 2,4,3,1 d) 3,2,4,1

6. Self-cleansing velocity is
a) The minimum velocity of flow required to maintain a certain amount of solids in
the flow
b) The maximum velocity of flow required to maintain a certain amount of solids in
the flow
c) Such flow velocity as would be sufficient to flush out any deposited solids in the
sewer
d) Such flow velocity as would be sufficient to ensure that sewage does not remain in
the sewer

7. Self-purification of running streams may be due to


a) sedimentation, oxidation and coagulation
b) dilution, sedimentation and oxidation
c) dilution, sedimentation and coagulation
d) dilution, oxidation and coagulation

KEY :

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
b d b d d c b

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