f3 - Wes (Oic & MGT) 063009

F3 – WES (OIC/MGT) 063009
1. Minimum pressure required with two fire pumps simultaneously delivering through nozzles through any adjacent hydrants for a cargo ship
at 6000 GT and upwards should be:
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
D. None of the above
2. What is the minimum number of "International shore connections" that should be provided on vessels of 500 GRT and above?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 0 - only have to be provided on vessels over 1000 GRT
3. You are wearing a breathing apparatus inside a tank. How many tugs on the lifeline should that you are all right?
A. 3
B. 1
C. 4
D. 2
4. For each person it is certified to carry, a lifeboat on an oceangoing passenger vessel must be provided with all of the following EXCEPT
__________.
A. 3 liters of water
B. 1 unit of provisions
C. 1 seasickness kit
D. 1 life preserver
5. Conform SART requirements the signal must be visible on the ship’s radar from a distance of:
A. 30 miles
B. 5 miles
C. 1 mile
D. Don't know
6. After abandoning ship, how much water per day each person permitted after first 24 hours?
a. 1 can c. 1 gallon
b. 1 quart d. 1 pint
7. How much water per person is provided in a liferaft not equipped with a desalting apparatus?
A. 1.5 litre
B. 5 litre
C. 2 litre
D. 3 litre
8. The self contained air support system on a totally enclosed lifeboat is designed to provide safe and breathable air with the engine running
for a minimum of how many minutes?
A. 10 minutes
B. 5 minutes
C. 20 minutes
D. 30 minutes
9. How many thermal protective aids are carried in each liferaft?
A. 10% of the number of persons the liferaft is designed to carry, or two, whichever is the greatest
B. 4
C. 3
D. Nil
10. A carbon dioxide fire extinguisher is required to be recharged if the weight loss exceeds
A. 5% of weight of charge
B. 10% of weight of charge
C. 1% of weight of charge
D. 7% of weight of charge
11. Hydrocarbon gas encountered in oil tankers cannot burn in an atmosphere containing less than approximately what percentage of oxygen
(by volume)?
A. 11%
B. 13%
C. 15%
D. 17%
12. When applying chest compressions on an adult victim during CPR, the sternum should be depressed about:
A. 1/2 inch or less
B. 1/2 to 1 inch
C. 1 to 1-1/2 inches
D. 1-1/2 to 2 inches
13. When administering mouth to mouth resuscitation to an audit, you should breathe at the rate of how many breaths per minute?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 20
14. After checked for open airway, given the first two inflations and checked the pulse to make sure that the heart is beating, what is the rate of
inflations given until natural breathing is restored?
A. 12 - 16 times per minute
B. 10 - 12 times per minute
C. 25 - 27 times per minute
D. Doesn't matter how many times
15. The regulations require that inspected vessels on an international voyage, Other than small passenger vessels, must carry which of the
following distress signals on or near the navigating bridge?
A. 12 hand red flares
B. 12 rocket parachute flares
C. 12 hand combination flares and orange smoke signals
D. hand red flares, and 6 hand orange smoke signals
16. When administering artificial respiration to an adult, the breathing cycle should be repeated about:
A. 12 to 15 times per minute
B. 18 to 20 times per minute
C. 20 to 25 times per minute
D. as fast as possible
17. What is the minimum number of lifebuoys carried by a cargo vessel of more than 200 metres in length?
1
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
A. 14
B. 12
C. 18
D. 20
18. You are alone and administering CPR to an adult victim. How many chest compressions and how much inflation should you administer in
each sequence?
A. 5 compressions then 1 inflation
B. 15 compressions then 2 inflations
C. 20 compressions then 3 inflations
D. 30 compressions then 4 inflations
19. Inflatable life rafts shall be serviced at a U.S.C.G. servicing facility every 12 months or not later than the next vessel inspection for
certification. However, the total elapsed time between servicing cannot exceed.
A. 12 months
B. 14 months
C. 15 months
D. 16 months
20. There are three levels of burning, namely:*Superficial *Intermediate*Deep burns (also called full-thickness burns) A large burn will almost
certainly contain areas of all three grades. How many per cent of the body may be burned before the danger of life
A. 15 percent.
B. 9 percent.
C. 35 percent.
D. 4 percent.
21. What is the maximum oxygen content below which flaming combustion will no longer steam
A. 10%
B. 21%
C. 1%
D. 15%
22. According to the rules of GMDSS, on behalf of a safe navigation, continuous listening service must be maintained on mariphone channel:
A. 70
B. 16
C. 13
D. Don't know
23. How many buoyant smoke signals are carried in each liferaft?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. Nil
24. In a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system where pressure from pilot cylinders is used to release the CO2 from the main bank of cylinders,
the number of required pilot cylinders shall be at least __________.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
25. What is the minimum number of fireman's outfits that should be carried on a cargo ship?
A. 2
B. 1
C. 3
D. 4
26. If you were put in charge of a fire team what is the minimum number of men wearing BA sets that you would allow to enter a smoke filled
compartment?
A. 2 men
B. 3 men
C. 4 men
D. 1 man
27. Normally, the percentage of oxygen in air is __________.
A. 16%
B. 18%
C. 21%
D. 25%
28. What is the approximate content of oxygen in air?
A. 21%
B. 51%
C. 11%
D. 99%
29. Motor-propelled lifeboats are required to have sufficient fuel to operate continuously at 6 knots for how many hours?
A. 6
B. 12
C. 18
D. 24
30. At a speed of 6 knots, the fuel aboard a survival craft should last __________.
a. 24 hours c. 36 hours
b. 48 hours d. 12 hours
31. The Regulations require that, If more than 25% of crew have not participated in abandon ship and fire drill onboard in previous month,
shall carry out such drills upon departure part with in ______________.
24 hours
12 hours
2 days
1 week
32. On a passenger ship on an international voyage, muster and emergency drill must be carried out within
A. 24 hrs. after leaving port
B. 24 hrs. before leaving port
2
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
C. 24 hrs. after pilot has disembarked
D. 24 hrs. after their embarkation
33. Each of the required fire pumps (other than any emergency pumps required in paragraph 3.3.2 for cargo ships) shall have a capacity not
less than 80% of the total required capacity divided by the minimum number of required fire pumps but in any case not less than:
A. 20 m3/hr
B. 25 m3/hr
C. 30 m3/hr
D. 40 m3/hr
34. On a cargo vessel, fire and boat drills must be held within 24 hours of leaving port if the percentage of the crew replaced is more than
_________.
a. 10% c. 25%
b. 50% d. 40%
35. The davit-launched lifecraft required to be carried onboard cargo ships is arranged that to boarded by its full complement of persons in not
more than _____ minutes.
A. 10
B. 12
C. 3
D. 5
36. What is the minimum distance between the helmet and the head of the wearer supposed to be?
A. 3 cm
B. 1 cm
C. 7,5 cm
D. No minimum distance
37. How much water per person is provided in a lifeboat not equipped with a desalting apparatus?
A. 3 litre
B. 5 litre
C. 2 litre
D. 1.5 litre
38. The required amount of water for each person in a lifeboat on an ocean going vessel, on an international voyage, is:
A. 1 litre
B. 2 litres
C. 3 litres
D. 4 litres
39. What sound signal shall be used on ship's whistle when man-over-board?
A. 3 long blasts repeatedly
5 short blasts repeatedly
B. 5 short blasts repeatedly
C. 4 long blasts repeatedly
40. A drill must be conducted in the use of the line throwing appliance at least once in every:
A. 2 months
B. 3 months
C. 4 months
D. 5 months
41. The required amount of water for each person in a lifeboat on an ocean-going vessel is
A. 1 pint
B. 2 quarts
C. 3 quarts
D. 1 gallon
42. The service use of approved hand held rocket-propelled parachute red flare distress signals shall be limited to a period of:
A. 6 months
B. 1 year
C. 2 years
D. 3 years
43. A SART must be visible on the ship’s radar from a distance of at least:
50 miles
30 miles
5 miles
Don't know
44. What is the minimum period of time that the air supply for a self-contained breathing apparatus is required to last?
A. 10 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C. 30 minutes
D. 45 minutes
45. Falls used in launching shall be turned end for end at an interval of not more than X months and to be renewed not later than every Y years,
where the intervals are:
A. 30 months / 5 years
B. 12 months / 4 years
C. 20 months / 3 years
D. 6 months / 2 years
46. How many percent of the gross volume of the largest cargo space protected in a ship should be provided with a minimum volume of C02
free gas?
A. 25%
B. 30%
C. 35%
D. 40%
47. Due to exposure to heat fatigue, heat stroke and dehydration, what is the maximum recommended effective temperature (ET) for full work
load in enclosed spaces?
A. 30.5°C ET?
B. 27.5°C ET?
C. 35.0°C ET?
D. 29.0°C ET?
3
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
48. When water is used to fight a fire on board a ship, the effect of the weight of the water must be taken into account. How much sea water
will increase the weight displacement by one ton?
A. 64 cubic feet
B. 35 cubic feet
C. 100 gallons
D. 500 liters
49. Emergency source of electrical power in passenger ships shall be capable of supplying emergency lights for a period of:
A. 24 hours
B. 30 hours
C. 36 hours
D. 48 hours
50. How many rocket parachute flares are carried in each lifeboat?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 12
D. Nil
51. What is the minimum number of fireman's outfits that must be provided on a tanker?
A. 4
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
52. You are wearing a breathing apparatus inside a tank. How many tugs on the lifeline should you give to indicate that you need help?
A. 2
B. 1
C. 4
D. 3
53. How many pyrotechnic signals to be in each lifeboat?
A. 4 Rocket parachute flares / 6 hand flares / 2 buoyant smoke signals
B. 10 Rocket parachute flares / 12 hand flares / 5 buoyant smoke signals
C. 8 Rocket parachute flares / 2 hand flares / 6 buoyant smoke signals
D. 6 Rocket parachute flares / 6 hand Flares / 6 buoyant smoke signals
54. What is the maximum allowed suction head for fire pumps? (SOLAS II-2/4.3.3.2.5)
A. 4.5 meters
B. 1.5 metros
C. 3 metros
D. 9 metros
55. By regulation, orange smoke distress signals will expire not more than how many months from the date of manufacture?
A. 24 months
B. 36 months
C. 42 months
D. 54 months
56. When the alarm bell on a breathing apparatus sounds, how much air supply remains?
A. 4-5 minutes supply of air
B. 1 minute supply of air
C. 2-3 minutes supply of air
D. less than 1 minute supply of air
57. You are part of a team of two First Aiders in a resuscitation situation. What is the rhythm of resuscitation with two First Aiders?
A. 5 compressions after every 1 inflation
B. 10 compressions within every 3 inflations.
C. inflations before every 5 compressions
D. 3 compressions after every 1 inflation
58. A person wearing lifejacket or immersion suit, shall be able to turn from a face-down to a face-up position in not more than:
A. 5 seconds
B. 8 seconds
C. 10 seconds
D. 15 seconds
59. How often should lifeboat falls be renewed in accordance with SOLAS regulations?
A. 5 years
B. 4 years
C. 30 months
D. 3 years
60. Expiration of packed disposable syringe is
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 5 years or an expiry date marked on the packaged, whichever occur first
D. 3 years
61. Inert gas should be supplied with an oxygen content of less than:
A. 5%
B. 11%
C. 2%
D. 21%
62. A rescue helicopter's hoist area should have a radius of at least __________.
A. feet of clear deck
B. 10 feet of clear deck
C. 25 feet of clear deck
D. 50 feet of clear deck
63. The required lights to be fitted in life jackets, if is a flashing rate of not less than:
A. 60/minute
B. 50/minute
C. 120/minute
D. 30/minute
4
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
64. How many hand held distress flares are carried in each lifeboat?
A. 6
B. 4
C. 12
D. 2
65. For how long and at what speed is a fully loaded lifeboat designed to operate in calm weather?
A. 6 knots for 24 hours
B. 4 knots for 48 hours
C. 10 knots for 24 hours
D. 3 knots for 24 hours
66. A fully loaded motor-propelled lifeboat must be capable of attaining a speed of at least:
A. 3 knots in smooth water
B. 6 knots in smooth water
C. 3 knots in rough water
D. 6 knots in rough water
67. When two people are administering CPR to a victim, how many times per minute should the chest be compressed?
A. 30
B. 45
C. 80
D. 60
68. The normal adult pulse rate is variable but generally falls in the range of:
A. 40-70 per minute
B. 20-60 per minute
C. 60-80 per minute
D. 80-180 per minute
69. Fire protected lifeboats when waterborne should be capable of protecting its full complement when subjected to a continuous oil fire that
envelops the boat for a period of not less than how many minutes?
A. 8 minutes
B. 20 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 10 minutes
70. Provided every effort is made to preserve body moisture content by avoiding perspiration, how long is it normally possible to survive
without water?
A. up to 3 days
B. 8 to 14 days
C. 15 to 20 days
D. 25 to 30 days
71. Ships equipped with GMDSS are required to have a communication capable of performing:
A. 12 GMDSS communication functions
B. 10 GDDSS communication functions
C. 9 GMDSS communication functions
D. 15 GMDSS communication functions
72. The maximum height that a pilot should be required to climb on a pilot ladder before reaching the deck or stepping onto an accommodation
ladder platform is:
A. 9 mtrs
B. 6 mtrs
C. 12 mtrs
D. 15 mtrs
73. Foam is effective in combating which class (es) of fire?
A. A
B. B
C. A and B
D. B and C
74. The MERSAR is:
A. a book of directions for search and rescue at sea
B. a fully automated system for mutual assistance and rescue of persons at sea
C. a survey of vessels favorably located for possible rescue during SAR operations
D. Don't know
75. Which one of the listed requirements regarding equipment for inflatable liferafts do not correspond to present regulations? The inflatable
liferaft shall be fitted with:
A. a buoyant lifeline bucketed around the outside of the liferaft
B. a manually controlled lamp inside the raft
C. one repair outfit for repairing punctures in buoyancy compartments
D. one topping-up pump or bellows
76. Before welding can be done in a tank that has carried petroleum products, a certificate must be obtained from ________.
A. the American Bureau of Shipping
B. a certified marine chemist
C. the shipyard fire department
D. the Coast Guard
77. When evacuating a seaman by helicopter lift, which course should the ship take?
A. Downwind so that the apparent wind is close to nil.
B. A course that will keep a free flow of air, clear of smoke, over the hoist area.
C. A course that will have the hoist area in the lee of the superstructure.
D. With the wind dead ahead because the helicopter is more maneuverable when going into the wind.
78. Which one of the given requirements regarding manning and supervision of survival craft corresponds to the SOLAS regulation?
A. A deck officer or certificated person shall be placed in charge of each survival craft to be used
B. Every motorized survival craft shall have a certificated engineer assigned
C. There shall be at least 5 trained persons on board, mustering and assisting untrained persons
D. Every lifeboat required to carry radio telegraph installation shall have a deck officer capable of operating the equipment assigned
79. Which statement about damage control is true?
A. a hole in the hull at the waterline is more dangerous than a hole below the inner bottom
5
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
B. the amount of water entering a ship through a hole varies inversely to the area of the hole.
C. water flowing into a lower compartment on a ship is more dangerous than water on deck or flowing into an upper compartment
D. water flowing over the forecastle bulwark is more dangerous than a hole in the hull at the waterline
80. In the event of the loss of the rudder, ______________.
A. use the emergency steering wheel (trick wheel)
B. a jury rudder may be achieved by providing a drag on each side
C. abandon ship
D. execute a Williamson turn
81. An "ABC" dry chemical fire extinguisher would be least effective against a fire in
A. A mattress
B. A trash can
C. High voltage electrical gear
D. Spilled liquids such as oil paint
82. Which of the following requirements regarding the number of lifejackets provided do NOT correspond to present regulations? (SOLAS
III/7.2)
A. A number of lifejackets equal to at least 10% of the total number of passengers and crew to be placed in the vicinity
of the muster stations
B. A sufficient number of lifejackets shall be carried for persons on watch
C. A number of lifejackets suitable for children equal to at least 10% of the number of passengers onboard or a greater number
as may be required to provide a lifejacket for each child
D. A sufficient number of lifejackets for use at remotely located survival craft station
83. Which of the following tanks presents the greatest potential for an explosion?
A. a full tank of diesel oil
B. a partially filled tank of hydraulic oil
C. a partially filled tank of diesel oil
D. a full tank of hydraulic oil
84. Which lifeboat equipment would be most suitable for night signaling to a ship on the horizon?
A. a red parachute flare
B. a flashlight
C. a lantern
D. a red handheld flare
85. Which one of the listed requirements regarding lifeboat fittings do not correspond to present regulations? All lifeboats shall be fitted with:
A. a remotely operated steering arrangement
B. a buoyant lifeline bucketed around the outside of the lifeboat
C. effective means for bailing or have self-bailing arrangement
D. release device to enable forward painter to be released under tension
86. Fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing systems, for machinery space that are normally manned, are actuated by one control to open the stop
valve in the line leading to the space, and __________.
A. the same control releasing the CO2
B. a separate control to release the CO2
C. two separate controls to release the CO2
D. three separate controls to release the CO2
87. When a patient has a high fever one of the safest and simplest ways to reduce his body temperature is by ________.
a. A tepid sponge bath c. An ice water shower
b. Placing an ice bag on the chest d. Placing an ice bag on the feet
88. Inflatable life rafts are provided with a ________________.
A. A every pistol
B. Canned milk
C. A portable radio
D. A towing connection
89. What is a "Rescue Unit" (RU)?
A. A unit composed of trained personnel suitable equipped for expeditious search and rescue operations
B. A unit ready for search and rescue operations at sea at any time of the day
C. A permanently manned rescue vessel
D. A unit specializing in search and rescue operations at sea
90. What is a "Rescue Sub-Centre" (RSC)?
A. A unit subordinate to a rescue co-ordinating centre
B. A center established to assist the main national rescue centre
C. A national search and rescue centre subordinate to an international search and rescue co-ordinating centre
D. A centre for underwater search and rescue operation
91. What is a hydrostatic release unit?
A. A unit which automatically releases the liferaft/lifeboat at a depth of approx 4 metres
B. A unit which automatically release all securing when abandon the vessel
C. An important part connected to the sea-anchor
D. A unit for inflating the liferaft
92. A lifejacket should be provided with:
A. A whistle and a light
B. A whistle
C. A light
D. On ships built after February 1992 all lifejackets should be fitted with a light
93. Preventer bars are fitted on life boat releasing gear to prevent__________________________.
A. accident unhooking when the falls become slack
B. operation of the release lever until the boat is waterborne
C. the falls from rehooking after they have been released
D. the falls from unhooking if the releasing gear is operated acid
94. Which spaces, in regard to fire protection, shall be separated from the rest of the ship by thermal and structural boundaries? (SOLAS II-
2/2.2.2)
A. Accommodation
B. Machinery spaces
C. Cargo compartments
D. Storage rooms for inflammable materials
6
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
95. Chemical burns are caused by the skin coming in contact with _______
A. acids or alkalies
B. diesel oil
C. acids but not alkalies
D. alkalies but not acids
96. You detect an odor of burning cotton fabric and then see smoke coming from the top of an open laundry room doorway. After activating
the fire alarm, you might do any of the following next, EXCEPT __________.
A. begin breaking out the nearest fire hose
B. secure ventilation to the room
C. close the door to the room
D. acquire the nearest self contained breathing apparatus
97. The purpose of a sea anchor is to:
A. keep a vessel from being beached
B. avoid using the regular anchor
C. save engine wear
D. act as a drag; to hold a vessel’s bow or stern into the sea; to prevent broaching
98. The stage at which the signs and symptoms of poisoning is apparent is________
A. active stage
B. latent stage
C. late stage
D. dormant stage
99. Which of the following is a treatment for traumatic shock?
A. administer CPR
B. administer fluids
C. open clothing to allow cooling of the body
D. keep the victim in a sitting position
100. A person chokes suddenly, cannot speak and starts to turn blue. What action should you do?
A. administer CPR
B. make the victim lie down with face elevated to get blood to the brain
C. administer the Heimlich maneuver
D. do nothing until the victim becomes unconscious, then administer CPR
101. It is an emergency life-saving procedure that consists of the use of certain equipment, cardiac monitoring, and defibrillation, maintenance
of an intravenous lifeline and the fusion of appropriate drugs.
A. first aid
B. basic life support
C. advanced life support
D. ABC steps
102. When should you first have any food or water after boarding a lifeboat or life raft?
a. After 24 hours
b. After 12 hours
c. Within 48 hours
d. Some food and water should be consumed immediately and then not until 48 hours later
103. In launching a lifeboat, when should the tricing pendants be released?

A. Before the boat is lowered from the stowage position
B. As soon as the boat-fall blocks clear the davit head
C. After the limit switch is activated
D. After all people have been embarked
104. After an explosion, repair of emergency machinery and services should be accomplished __________.
A. after control of fire, flooding, and structural repairs
B. immediately, before the emergency is under control
C. after control of fire, but before control of flooding
D. after stability is restored
105. The purpose of the trip line on a sea anchor is to:
A. aid in its recovery
B. direct the drift of the vessel
C. help in casting off
D. maintain maximum resistance to broaching
106. When electrical equipment is involved in a fire, the stream of dry chemicals should be:
A. aimed at the source of the flames
B. fogged above the equipment
C. shot off a flat surface onto the flames
D. used to shield against electrical shock
107. What does the abbreviation ABC mean in first aid?
A. Air, Breathing, Circulation
B. Air, Burning, Critic
C. Abandon, Balance, Circulation
D. Air, Breath, Concentration
108. The ABC-rules are an important part of the First Aiders know how. What does the First Aid ABC-rules stands for?
A. Airway Breathing Circulation
B. Anything But Continuation
C. A Better Control
D. Adults Behind Children
109. Where there are multiple accident victims, which injuries should be the first to receive emergency treatment?
A. Eye injuries
B. Major multiple fractures
C. Airway and breathing difficulties
D. Back injuries with spinal-cord damage
110. Where can you find what your duties are during a life boat drill?
A. Alarm instruction
B. Stated at the embarkation station
7
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
C. From the drill leader
D. Safety plan
111. You are Sen. Off. Deck onboard a merchant vessel. During the night you have been in collision with a sail boat. There is no sign of life in
the water. What will you do?
A. Alarm the rescue centre and commence searching for any survivals
B. Leave the position as fast as possible
C. Just do nothing on your own; wait for assistance
D. Call the company, explain the situation and ask for orders
112. A lifeline must be connected to the life raft ______________.
A. at the stern
B. at the bow
C. all around
D. in the middle
113. What type of construction material should be avoided regarding fire protection purposes? (SOLAS II-2/2.2.3)
A. All combustible materials
B. All uncovered wooden materials
C. All plastic materials
D. All composite materials
114. The Muster List ("Station Bill") shows each person's lifeboat station, duties during abandonment, basic instructions, and __________.
A. all emergency signals
B. instructions for lowering the lifeboats
C. the time each weekly drill will be held
D. work schedule
115. Which one of the listed requirements regarding rigid liferafts do not correspond to present regulations? The liferaft shall have:
A. all entrance fitted with rigid boarding ramps for boarding the liferaft at sea
B. floor preventing the ingress of water
C. a manually controlled lamp, visible of at least 2 miles, fitted at the top of the canopy
D. a manually controlled lamp fitted inside the liferaft
116. Which one of the listed requirements regarding launching appliance for survival crafts and rescue boats do not correspond to present
regulations?
A. All launching appliance shall be capable of recovering survival crafts and rescue boats with their crew
B. Launching appliance shall be constructed for minimum amount of routine maintenance
C. Parts requiring regular maintenance by ships crew shall be readily accessible
D. The launching mechanism shall be arranged for actuating from a position within the survival craft or rescue boat in addition
to a position on the ship's deck
117. Which of the following requirements regarding life-buoys do NOT correspond to present regulations? (SOLAS III/7.1)
A. All life-buoys shall be placed in holders with quick-release arrangement
B. at least one life-buoy on each side of the ship shall be fitted with a buoyant lifeline
C. Not less than half the total number of lifebuoys shall be provided with self-igniting lights
D. At least one lifebuoy shall be placed within the vicinity of the stern
118. A treatments of heat exhaustion consist of:
A. moving to a shaded area and laying down
B. bathing with rubbing alcohol
C. placing the patient in a tub of cold water
D. all of the above
119. An emergency sea anchor may be constructed by using:
A. a boat bucket
B. an air tank filled with water
C. an oar and canvas weighted down
D. all of the above
120. The spread of fire is prevented by:
A. cooling surfaces adjacent to the fire
B. removing combustibles from the endangered area
C. shutting off the oxygen supply
D. all of the above
121. What is an advantage of water fog or water spray over a straight stream of water in fighting an oil fire?
A. It has a smothering effect on the fire
B. It requires less water to remove the same amount of heat
C. It gives more protection to fire fighting personnel
D. All of the above
122. Station bills should be posed ________?
a. Crews quarters c. Passageways adjacent to living areas
b. Dining areas d. All of the above
123. You have abandoned ship in tropical waters. Which procedure(s) should be used during a prolonged period in a raft?
a. Wet clothes during the day to decrease perspiration
b. Get plenty of rest
c. Keep the entrance curtains open
d. All of the above
124. If a distress signal is received, what would you do?
A. All of the alternatives together
B. Post extra look-out
C. Try to make contact with the vessel in distress
D. Contact SAR Authorities via nearest coastal Radio station
125. During a helicopter evacuation, the helicopter lowers his winch wire to the deck. Which of the following should NOT be done with the
winch wire?
A. All of the mentioned actions
B. Secure it to a strong point on deck
C. Touch the wire with bare hands
D. Secure it to the deck with a weak link
126. What kind of safety equipment must be worn during anchoring?
8
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
A. All of the mentioned equipment
B. Boiler suit, working gloves
C. Safety goggles
D. Safety helmet, safety shoes
127. A fire and boat drill on a tanker shall, by regulation, include ______.
a. all of these
b. starting the fire pumps
c. bringing all rescue and safety equipment from the emergency equipment lockers
d. demonstrations of rescue and safety equipment by designated persons
128. A hole in the hull above the waterline maybe temporarily patched up with:
a. all of these c. mattresses
b. pillows d. blankets
129. A person suffering from a heart attack may show symptoms of __________.
a. all of these c. shortness of breath
b. nausea d. pain in the left arm
130. An engine compartment gasoline fire requires which type of extinguisher?
A. CO2
B. all of these
C. foam
D. dry chemical
131. An LNG carrier has an approved type of gas detecting system to detect methane leaks in the ______.
a. all of these c. barrier spaces
b. cargo handling rooms d. boiler burner supply piping
132. Fire detecting systems on merchant vessels may be arranged to sense _____.
a. all of these c. rate of temperature rise
b. ionized particles d. smoke
133. Gasoline is a flammable liquid whose vapors are _______.
a. Toxic c. all of these
b. heavier than air d. highly explosive
134. If you see a person fall overboard, you should _______.
a. pass the word to the bridge c. throw them a life ring
b. hail "man overboard" d. all of these
135. Man-overboard situation is a critical "life and death" scenario. The most critical variable that to be considered is:
A. the fastest and correct turn of execution
B. the decision, fast and shortest time of execution
C. all of these
D. none of these
136. The air spaces in the floor of an inflatable raft will provide protection against _____.
a. cold water temperatures c. tears in the outside skin of bottom of the raft
b. warm water temperature d. all of these
137. The atmosphere of an empty fuel tank is tested and designated “gas free”. Which of the following statements is correct concerning this
tank?
a. all of these
b. the gas free status is good as long as the initial conditions remains unchanged
c. the tank should be frequently retested
d. the concentration of flammable gas in the compartment is less than 10% of the lower flammable limit
138. The Master should bear in mind that when beaching a ship to avoid immediate damage of foundering, the best type of beach is _________.
A. one that is free from rocks and has a gentle slope
B. All of these
C. one that has a firm surface
D. one that is free from strong current and scourning and is not sub
139. What safety information can be found in the fire control plan that is posted or available in booklet form on your ship?
a. all of these c. location of the remote means of stopping fans
b. location of fire doors d. particulars of the fire detecting system
140. Which of the following MAY command a lifeboat in ocean service?
a. licensed deck officer c. Certified lifeboatman
b. AB d. all of these
141. Which of these sources of ignition may cause fuel vapors to ignite?
a. all of these c. an open and running motor
b. static electricity d. loose wiring
142. Which statement is TRUE concerning an inflatable life raft?
A. Crew members can jump into the raft without damaging it
B. All of these
C. The raft may be boarded before it is fully inflated.
D. The floor may be inflated for insulation from cold water
143. An emergency sea anchor may be constructed by using:
a. All of these c. an air tank filled with water
b. a boat bucket d. an oar and canvass weighed down
144. Before using the fixed C02 system to fight an engine room fire, you must:
a. Secure the engine room ventilation
b. Secure the machinery in the engine room
c. Evacuate all engine room personnel
d. All of these
145. Sea anchors or drogues may be:
A. equipped with oil container and trip lines
B. similar to parachutes
C. cone-shaped, jury rigged or a series of easily stowed plastic floats
D. all of these
146. Which one of the listed requirements regarding life-saving appliance do not correspond to present regulations?
A. All prescribed life-saving appliance shall be made of non-combustible or fire retardant material
9
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
B. All prescribed life-saving appliance shall be fitted with retro-reflective material which will assist in detection
C. All prescribed life-saving appliance shall be of a highly visible colour on parts where this will assist detection
D. All prescribed life-saving appliance shall be resistant to deterioration where exposed to sunlight
147. Which ships shall be provided with international shore connection for supply of water as extinguishing media? (SOLAS II-2/19.1)
A. All ships of 500 tons gross and upwards
B. Passenger ships of 1000 tons gross and upwards
C. Passenger ships carrying more than 36 passengers
D. Tankers
148. What are the criteria that it must be automatic fire detection onboard a ship with heat/ smoke detectors and audio alarm?
A. All ships that is covered by the IMO safety conventions
B. All ships that are built after 1986
C. All ships that are built on or after 1986 in accordance with local rule and regulations
D. It is the owners option to have fire detection onboard
149. A vessel where the engine personnel are in charge of all technical installations on board are due for a voyage to a cold climate area. Are
any special precautions to be implemented with regard to fire line/pumps and use of same?
A. All the mentioned alternatives.
B. Drain all fire lines in areas that may be exposed to freezing temperature.
C. Implement special routines for starting fire pumps (e.g. local start/stop operation) to avoid the pumps are started due by a
mistake, resulting in filling up the system unnecessarily.
D. Instruct the personnel in routines to prepare the fire line system, e.g. closing all branches and the consequences of not draining
the system after use.
150. The engine room is equipped with regular fire hoses and nozzles. What is important to observe when using water as an extinguisant in the
engine room?
A. All the mentioned alternatives.
B. Water may short circuit electrical installation and may be a threat to the personnel operating the fire hose as well as to
electrical equipment itself.
C. Water has a clear limitation in fighting an oil fire.

D. To reduce the negative effect of water in an engine room, the spraying functions to be used. The spray function will also
give the personnel operating the fire hose good shelter against heat.
151. What are the characteristics of CO2?
A. All the mentioned alternatives
B. It displaces oxygen
C. It is heavier than oxygen
D. It is in itself not dangerous (not poisonous)
152. Which of the following events shall be conducted during the fire and boat drill?
a. all lifeboat equipment shall be examined
b. fire pumps shall be started and all exterior outlets opened
c. all watertight doors in use while the vessel is underway shall be operated
d. all of these
153. What shall be conducted during a fire and boat drill?
A. All of the above
B. Fire pumps shall be started and all exterior outlets open
C. All lifeboat equipment shall be examined
D. All watertight doors that are in use while the vessel is underwater
154. A victim is coughing and wheezing from a partial obstruction of the airway. An observed should _________.
A. immediately start CPR
B. allow the person to continue coughing and dislodge the obstruction
C. give back blows and something to drink
D. perform the Heimlich maneuver
155. The function of the bypass valve on the self-contained breathing apparatus is to
A. control the pressure of the oxygen as it enters the body
B. allow the wearer to manually give himself oxygen
C. release excess heat that could otherwise cause the bottle to explode
D. allow exhaled gases to pass outside the bottle
156. The international shore connection __________.
A. allows hook up of fire fighting water from shore facilities
B. satisfies pollution prevention requirements
C. allows emergency use of the fire main for deballasting
D. permits discharge of waste oil to shore facilities
157. The grab rail of a metal lifeboat is normally located __________.
A. along the turn of the bilge
B. along each side of the keel
C. near the top of the gunwale
D. at the bow and at the stern
158. If you wanted to ask a nearby vessel if he had a doctor on board, you would hoist the flag signal
A. AM
B. AL
C. AN 1
D. MA
159. The proper stimulant for an unconscious person is a/an ___________.
a. precardial thump c. vigorous shaking
b. ammonia stimulant d. sequence of back blows
160. If you are going aloft in a bosun's chair what kind of hook would you use to hook the chair to the rope?
A. An approved hook with a locking device
B. A stainless steel butcher's hook that is designed to take the load
C. I would refuse going aloft
D. Any old hook would do
161. What is a "Search and Rescue Region" (SRR)?
10
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
A. An area of defined dimensions within which search and rescue services are provided
B. An area of defined dimension where an international organization is responsible for search and rescue operations
C. An area where a search and rescue operation is ongoing
D. An area of limited dimension in which rescue vessels are permanently stationed
162. Which type of portable lighting may be used to enter a compartment on a tank barge which is NOT gas-free?
A. A three-cell flashlight
B. An explosion-proof, self-contained, battery-fed lamp
C. A spark resistant and flame retardant lamp
163. Each hand portable fire extinguisher must be marked with __________.
A. the name of the vessel on which it is located
B. the date that it was installed
C. the names of the individuals qualified to use it
D. an identification number
164. You are proceeding to a distress site and expect large numbers of people in the water. Which of the following is true?
A. you should stop to windward of the survivors in the water and only use the ship's boat to recover the survivors
B. If the survivors are in inflatable rafts, you should approach from windward to create a lee from the survivor
C. an inflatable life raft secured alongside can be an effective boarding station for transfer of survivors from the boats
D. survivors in the water should never be permitted along side due to the possibility of injury from the vessel
165. Of the following medicaments, which is not antibiotic?
A. Antihistamine
B. Penicilin
C. Tetracyline
D. Streptomycin
166. When seasickness tablets are not effective, an alternate tereatment is:
A. paracetamol
B. eucalyptus oil
C. antihistamine
D. potassium permanganate tablets
167. The three elements of any combustion are heat, fuel and oxygen. What elements should be eliminated to avoid combustion?
A. Oxygen
B. Heat
C. Any of the three
D. Fuel
168. A seaman has a small, gaping laceration of the arm that is not bleeding excessively. What can be done as an alternative to suturing to close
the wound?
A. Wrap a tight bandage around the wound
B. Apply a compression bandage
C. Use temporary stitches of sail twine
D. Apply butterfly strips, then a sterile dressing
169. The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation by pinching the victim's nostrils and __________.
A. cupping a hand around the patient's mouth
B. keeping the head elevated
C. applying his mouth tightly over the victim's mouth
D. holding the jaw down firmly
170. Fire hose couplings __________.
A. are made of bronze, brass, or soft alloy metals
B. should be painted red in order to identify hose lengths
C. are specially hardened to prevent crushing
D. should be greased frequently
171. A patient in shock should NOT be placed in which position?
A. On their side if unconscious
B. Head down and feet up, no injuries to face or head
C. Flat on their back with head and feet at the same level
D. Arms above their head
172. When you are fighting a pyrotechnic test distress signal, it should be aimed ______.
a. into the wind
b. at about 60 degrees above the horizon
c. at the direction you want to attract
d. straight over head
173. How often should each lifeboat be lowered into the water and maneuvered with its operating crew aboard under SOLAS regulations?
A. At least every three months
B. Monthly
C. At least every six months
D. Once a year
174. What is the minimum number of fire control plans that should be permanently stored in a prominently marked weather tight enclosure
outside the deckhouse for the assistance of shore side fire fighting personnel?
A. At least one
B. Not required providing one set is available inside the accommodation
C. At least two
D. At least three
175. In a fixed CO2 extinguishing system where provision is made for the release of CO2 by operation of a remote control, provision shall also
be made for releasing the CO2 __________.
A. from inside the engine room
B. from the bridge
C. from the cargo control station
D. at the cylinder location
176. When launching a lifeboat, frapping lines should be rigged __________.
A. before the gripes are released
B. before the boat is moved from the davits
C. at the embarkation deck
11
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
D. after the boat is in the water
177. The fire control draft on board is called the safety plan and shall be posted onboard. In port, a copy of this plan shall in addition be
available from somewhere else. Where must this copy be available?
A. At the gangway
B. In the engine control room
C. On the terminal
D. Handed over to the surveyors
178. You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed __________.
A. to bank off a bulkhead onto the fire
B. at the seat of the fire, starting at the near edge
C. over the top of the fire
D. at the main body of the fire
179. The inside light as well as the lights on the outside of the canopy in an inflatable liferaft turned on _________.
A. at night because the light a photosensitive switch
B. with a switch near the boarding handle
C. by screwing the bulb in after the raft is inflated
D. automatically as the life raft inflates
180. The lights on the outside of the canopy on an inflatable liferaft operate __________.
A. by turning the globe clockwise
B. by a switch at each light
C. by a light sensor
D. automatically when the raft is inflated
181. When it is necessary to remove a victim from a life threatening situation, the person giving first aid must:
A. avoid subjecting the victim to any unnecessary disturbance
B. place the victim on a stretcher before attempting removal
C. pull the victim by the feet
D. carry the victim to a location where injures can be assessed
182. An oil fire would be classified as class _________.
A. C
B. D
C. B
D. A
183. It is an emergency life-saving procedure that consists of recognizing and correcting failure of the respiratory or cardiovascular systems
A. first aid
B. basic life support
C. advanced life support
D. heimlich maneuver
184. Emergency position-indicating radio beacons (EPIRB) to be carried in survival craft shall provide transmissions to enable aircrafts to locate
the survival craft. Which one of the listed requirements to radio beacons do not correspond to present regulation
A. be automatically activated when floating in water
B. be tested and, if necessary, have their source of energy replaced at intervals not exceeding 12 months
C. be of a highly visible colour
D. be portable, lightweight and compact
185. Which one of the listed requirements regarding the general emergency alarm system do not correspond to present regulations? The general
emergency alarm system shall:
A. be capable of operation from fire stations aboard the ship
B. be able of sounding the emergency alarm signal by the ships whistle or siren, and additionally on electrically operated bells or
claxons
C. be audible through all accommodation and crew working spaces
D. have electric alarm bells (or claxons) powered from the ship's main and emergency sources of electric power
186. Which one of the following requirements regarding lifebuoys corresponds to present SOLAS regulations?
A. Be constructed of inherently buoyant material
B. If being fitted with light or smoke signal, have a mass less than 4 kilos
C. Have a mass greater than 2.5 kilos
D. Have sufficient air
187. Which one of the listed requirements regarding lifeboat equipment do not correspond to present regulations? All lifeboat equipment shall:
A. be made of fire-retardant material
B. be secured in the lifeboat (except boat-hooks) by lashings, storage in lockers, compartments, brackets or similar
arrangement
C. be secured in a manner as not to interfere with abandonment procedures
D. be as small and of as little mass as possible
188. Which one of the listed requirements regarding hydrostatic release unit for float free arrangements for liferafts does not correspond to
present regulations? Hydrostatic release units shall:
A. be provided with a painter system with a breaking strength of not more than 2.2 kN
B. be permanently marked with type and serial number
C. be constructed of compatible material to prevent malfunction
D. be constructed as to prevent release by seas washing over the unit
189. A SART must, when the vessel sinks:
be taken by the crew to the rescue-boat and turned on manually
automatically released and then automatically activated
automatically be released from the vessel and be turned on by equipment onboard the SART-units
Don't know
190. The intentional grounding of a vessel as a result of heavy weather damage, collision or other accidents, where water is being taken in so
rapidly that the pumps are unable to cope up with it is called
A. stranding
B. grounding
C. beaching
D. all of these
191. When should you prepare the list of duties and regulations for emergencies?
A. 24 hrs. after leaving port
B. before leaving port
12
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
C. after pilot has disembarked
D. 48 hrs. before the next boat drill
192. The no.3 lifeboat would be found:
A. behind boat no.1 on portside
B. in the forward boat on the starboard side
C. behind boat no.1 on the starboard side
D. behind boat no.2 on portside
193. When instructing a crew member concerning the right way to lift a weight, you would instruct him to________.
A. arch his back to add strength to the mInternationalles
B. bend his back and stoop with arms straight
C. bend his back and stoop
D. bend his knees and lift with his legs
194. Apart from red, what Other colour is frequently used for a CO2 extinguisher?
A. Black
B. Light blue
C. Green
D. Yellow
195. Apart from red, what Other colour is frequently used for a dry powder extinguisher?
A. Blue
B. Black
C. Green
D. Yellow
196. Sign(s) of respiratory arrest requiring artificial respiration is (are):
A. vomiting
B. blue color and lack of breathing
C. irregular breathing
D. unconsciousness
197. The necessity for administering artificial respiration maybe recognized by the victim's_____
A. blue color and lack of breathing
B. unconscious and no pulse
C. constriction of the pupil
D. spontaneous gasp of breath
198. Prior to lowering the lifeboat the most important item to check is the:
A. Oars
B. Sail
C. Boat plug
D. Life-preservers
199. Your liferaft is to leeward of a fire on the water and riding to its sea anchor. You should FIRST __________.
A. boat the sea anchor
B. paddle away from the fire
C. splash water over the liferaft to cool it
D. get out of the raft and swim to safety
200. What is Hypothermia and how is it cured?
A. Body temperature below 35C / Heat the body
B. Heavy coughing / Medication
C. Body temperature above 39C / Cooling down the body
D. Body temp below 23C / Slowly heat the body
201. A towing vessel's capability is best measured by horse power, maneuverability, displacement and:
A. stability
B. propeller design
C. bollard full
D. towing winch horse power
202. As per 46 CFR 182.30-1 and 182.30-5, auxiliary steering will not be required:
A. where no regular rudder is fitted and steering action is obtained by a change of setting of the propeller unit
B. where a rudder and tiller is the normal means of steering
C. both A and B
D. auxiliary is always required
203. The C02 flooding system is actuated by a sequence of steps which are __________.
A. break glass, pull valve, break glass, pull cylinder control
B. sound evacuation alarm, pull handle
C. open bypass valve, break glass, pull handle
D. open stop valve, open control valve, trip alarm
204. You detect an odor of burning electrical insulation and then notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway. After activating
the fire alarm, which of the following is the LEAST likely of your next actions?
A. Close the door to the room
B. Locate the nearest CO2 or dry chemical extinguisher
C. Secure power to the washers and dryers
D. Break out the nearest fire hose
205. What is meant by the term “overhaul” in fire fighting?
a. Cover the fire with foam
b. Smother the fire with a blanket or similar object
c. Slow down the spread of fire by cooling adjacent structures
d. Break up solid objects to ensure that any deep seated fires are extinguished
206. Dry chemical extinguishers extinguish class B fires to the greatest extent by
A. cooling
B. smothering
C. oxygen dilution
D. breaking the chain reaction
207. Since electrical burn victims are subjected to shock, the first medical response is to check for:
A. indication of broken bones
B. breathing and heartbeat
13
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
C. symptoms of concussion
D. bleeding injuries
208. Blood flowing from a cut artery appears:
A. dark red with a steady flow
B. bright red with a steady flow
C. bright red and in spurts
D. dark red and in spurts
209. What should you do with your EPIRB if you are in a life raft during storm conditions?
A. bring it inside the life raft and leave it on
B. bring it inside the life raft and turn it off until the storm passes
C. leave it outside the liferaft and leave
D. leave it outside the liferaft and leave it off
210. How does foam extinguish an oil fire?
A. by cooling the oil below the ignition temperature
B. by removing the fuel source from the fire
C. by excluding the oxygen from the fire
D. by increasing the weight of the oil
211. How should the master ensure that the officer in charge of the watch know the location and operation of all navigational and safety
equipment and can take account of the operating limitations of such equipment?
A. By have him demonstrate his ability
B. By asking if he can
C. By checking his certificate
D. By consulting agent
212. When you join a new ship, how are you informed about safety rules, alarm instructions and your own duties in case of an emergency?
A. By muster lists exhibited in conspicuous places
B. By oral instructions by the Captain
C. By folder distributed to each crewmember
D. By alarm instructions in all crew cabins
213. How does low expansion foam act as an extinguishing agent when dealing with oil fires?
A. By smothering and also providing some cooling
B. By cooling only
C. By smothering only
D. The heat from the fire causes the foam to produce an inert gas which gradually extinguishes the fire.
214. A person who sees someone fall overboard should __________.
A. call for help and keep the individual in sight
B. run to the radio room to send an emergency message
C. immediately jump in the water to assist the individual
D. go to the bridge for the distress flares
215. At which time shall required fixed fire-detection and fire-alarm systems with manual operated call points be in operation? (SOLAS II-
2/13.1.1)
A. Capable of immediate operation at all times
B. At all times during navigation
C. Always at nighttime
D. At sea and in ports when there are qualified officers on duty
216. The extinguishing agent most likely to allow re-ignition of a fire is:
A. carbon dioxide
B. foam
C. water fog
D. water steam
217. A rescuer can most easily determine whether or not an adult victim has a pulse by checking the pulse at the __________.
A. carotid artery in the neck
B. femoral artery in the groin
C. brachial artery in the arm
D. radial artery in the wrist
218. You are carrying out a search in a smoke filled room wearing BA. How would you conduct this search?
A. Carry out a right or left hand search and proceed carefully feeling the area in front with the foot and using the back
of the free hand to check the area in front.
B. As soon as you enter carry out a right or left hand search by placing the appropriate hand onto the bulkhead and then
follow the bulkhead round as quickly as possible.
C. Proceed to the approximate centre of the room and then carry out the search on a circular pattern.
D. Proceed straight ahead to the far bulkhead and then carry out a left or right hand search as appropriate
219. Which routine procedures should be carried out before cold work commences?
A. Carry out procedures to instructions for cold work including filling in forms and having them signed
B. Have a breathing apparatus standing by
C. Sound the general alarm and carry out procedures to instructions for cold work including filling in forms and having them
signed.
D. Sound the general alarm
220. Which type EPIRB must each ocean-going ship carry?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Category I
221. The Master is duly bound to report to the charterer any incident or shipboard casualty that may _________.
A. cause delay to the ship
B. affect crew morale onboard
C. affect radio communication
D. cause poor performance of the crew
222. Carbon dioxide is a better fire fighting agent compared to other because it is:
a. causing minimal damage
b. cheaper
c. safer for personnel
14
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
d. most effective on a per unit basis
223. Fixed fire detection and alarm system, fire door indicator panel and other control and indicator functions are centralized in:
A. fire control station
B. navigation bridge
C. central control station
D. cargo control room
224. The main location of the fire door indicator panels and other control and indicator functions of the fixed fire detection and alarm system are
found in:
a. central control station c. fire control station
b. cargo control room d. navigational bridge
225. Which fire-fighting equipment is most efficient and with least side effects in case of a large fire in the engine room?
A. Central gas extinguishing system and/or water fog.
B. Central foam extinguishing system
C. Sprinkler system
D. Powder extinguishing system
226. Which of the following documents would list all the lifesaving equipment required for a vessel?
A. Certificate of Inspection
B. Certificate of Registry
C. International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea Certificate
D. American Bureau of Shipping Classification Certificate
227. You are moving a gas free tank barge to dry dock for repairs. The barge must have onboard a valid __________.
A. Gas Free Certificate
B. Certificate of Inspection
C. Permit to Proceed and Hot Work Permit
D. All of the above
228. A gas-free certificate would usually be issued by a (0) __________.
A. port engineer
B. coast guard marine inspector
C. certified marine chemist
D. ABS marine surveyor
229. What is required in addition to heat, fuel and oxygen of the fire triangle to have a fire?
B. Electricity
C. Pressure
D. Chain reaction
E. Smoke
230. What would you do if a person suffers a heart attack and stops breathing?
A. administer oxygen immediately
B. check his pulse and start CPR
C. make the victim as comfortable as he could be
D. let him lie on his side
231. If water is rising in the bilge of a lifeboat, you should FIRST __________.
A. abandon the survival craft
B. check for cracks in the hull
C. shift all personnel to the stern
D. check the bilge drain plug
232. In addition to weighing the cartridge, what other routine maintenance is required for a cartridge-operated dry chemical extinguisher?
a. Discharge small amount to see if it works c. Check the hose and nozzle for clogs
b. Weigh the powder in the canister d. Check the external pressure gage
233. You are Sen. Off. Decks on a vessel and you have been in collision with an other vessel. The other vessel is on fire. What will you do?
A. Check your own vessel for any loss of life, danger of explosion and offer your assistance to the other vessel
B. Leave the other vessel because the other vessel was to blame for the collision
C. Commence arguing with the other Sen. Off. Deck about the reason for the collision
D. Stay close to the other vessel and commence fire fighting
234. Which one of the following items has to be included in an abandon ship drill according to SOLAS regulations?
A. Checking that life-jackets are correctly donned
B. Maneuvering the lifeboat in the water
C. Starting and operating radio life-saving appliances
D. Launching and recovery of a survival craft
235. Which of the following items shall be included in an "abandon ship"-drill?
A. Checking that passengers and crew are suitably dressed and lifejackets correctly donned
B. Checking the distress signal rockets and Other distress signals
C. Checking the lifeboat provisions and supplies
D. Checking that all crew and passenger are present
236. Anyone of the crew who is assigned to watch duties in ports has a number of important tasks to carry out. Which one of the listed tasks has
to be included in the watchman's duties?
A. Checking the moorings for tightness/slack
B. Checking the trim of the vessel
C. Checking the safe and secure handling of cargo
D. Checking the number of persons entering/leaving the vessel
237. Which of the following items shall be included in each fire drill?
A. Checking the operation of watertight doors, fire doors, fire dampers and relevant communication equipment
B. Checking the operation of fire doors
C. Checking the fire wires
D. Checking closure mechanism for all air ventilators and Other openings to accommodation, engine rooms and cargo spaces
238. Foam extinguishes a fire by _____________.
A. chemical action
B. cooling
C. inerting the air
D. smothering
15
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
239. Spontaneous combustion is caused by:
A. an outside heat space heating a substance until it ignites
B. conduction of heat through a wall of material to the substance
C. chemical action within a substance
D. any of the above
240. When in port, who gives appropriate instruction and orders to be followed in gasses operations?
A. Master
B. Chief Mate
C. Shipper
D. Supercargo
241. Who is normally appointed as a Fire Officer on board ship?
a. Second Officer c. Radio Officer
b. Chief Officer d. Third Officer
242. What class of fire is a smouldering fire of wood, textiles, paper and Other carbonaceous materials?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
243. Fires are grouped into what categories?
A. Class A, B, C and D
B. Type 1, 2, 3 and 4
C. Combustible solids, liquids, and gases
D. Flammable solids, liquids, and gases
244. Flammable liquids, gases, grease and other similar products are classed under which fire?
A. class C
B. class A
C. class D
D. class B
245. What class of fire involves liquids?
A. Class B fire
B. Class A fire
C. Class C fire
D. Class D fire
246. What class of fires would most likely occur in the engine room of a vessel?
A. Classes A and B
B. Classes C and D
C. Classes A and D
D. Classes B and C
247. The muster list shall show the duties assigned to the different members of the crew. Which of the given duties do not necessarily have to be
included in the muster list?
A. Clearing escape routes
B. Manning of fire parties assigned to deal with fires
C. Muster of passengers
D. Preparation and launching of survival crafts
248. Topping lifts and runners supporting flexible cargo hoses should be made fast to the:
a. gypsy head c. cleats
b. manifold riser d. capstan
249. Which one of the listed requirements regarding the use of an immersion suit does not correspond to present regulation? The suit shall
permit the wearer to:
A. climb up and down vertical ladders from the survival craft embarkation point to the water
B. jump from a height of 4.5m into the water without being injured or damaging the suit
C. perform normal duties during abandonment
D. swim a short distance through the water and board a survival craft
250. To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________.
A. shut off all electrical power
B. remove combustibles from direct exposure
C. cool the bulkhead around the fire
D. close all openings to the area
251. In the event fire in crew’s quarters of your vessel, one of your first action should be to:
a. Ventilate the quarters as much as possible
b. prepare to abandon ship
c. Close all ventilation to the quarter if possible
d. Attempt to put the fire out yourself without sounding the alarm
252. Which of the following actions should be done first to stop the spread of fire?
a. Alter ships course to put the fire to leeward
b. Cut off electricity in the area of fire
c. Close down ventilation to isolate the fire
d. None of these
253. When possible, what is the FIRST step in fighting an engine fuel-pump fire which results from a broken fuel line?
A. Secure all engine room doors, hatches, and vents
B. Close the fuel line valve
C. Check the spread of the fire with foam
D. Cast the barge off the wharf
254. The smoke detector (fire indicator) indicates fire in a cargo hold loaded by general cargo. What first action should be taken?
A. Close the ventilation system and Other openings to the hold in order to choke the fire
B. Start the fire pumps, open the hatches and start fighting the fire by fire hoses
C. Use the ship's gas extinguishing central system to put out the fire
D. Inspect the scene before deciding the method to be used for fire-fighting
255. The Muster List shall show the duties assigned to members of the crew. Which of the following duties shall be included in the "muster list"
according to present regulations?
16
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
A. Closing of watertight doors, fire doors, valves, scuppers, side scuttles skylights
B. Operation of the vessel's propulsion system
C. Preparation of survival craft's Emergency Positions Indicating Radio Beacons
D. Preparation of immersion suits and thermo protective aids for the ship's passengers
256. In case of fire in the switch board, what kind of extinguisant to be preferred?
A. CO2
B. Powder
C. Water
D. Water spray
257. Which extinguishing agent is the best for use on electrical fires?
A. Foam
B. CO2
C. Dry chemical
D. Water fog
258. What kind of permits have to be obtained before starting cold work in tanks?
A. Cold work permit + Permit for entry
B. Hot + Cold work permit
C. Cold work permit
D. Hot work permit
259. You are starting to get low on water in the lifeboat. What should you do?
A. Collect rain water
B. Use sea water
C. Mix sea water with 50% fresh water
D. Drink urine
260. Hydrocarbon vapors are usually detected by the use of _______.
a. oxygen indicator c. combustible gas indicator
b. flame safety lamp d. gasometer
261. On cargo and miscellaneous vessels what is NOT a required part of the fireman's outfit?
A. Self-contained breathing apparatus with a lifeline attached
B. Combustible gas indicator
C. Rigid helmet, boots, and gloves
D. Flame safety lamp
262. Hydrocarbon vapors are usually detected by the use of:
A. oxygen indicator
B. flame safety lamp
C. combustible gas indicator
D. gasometer
263. Which of the following is incorrect as part of the Tetrahedron of Combustion?
A. combustible liquid
B. heat
C. oxygen
D. chain reaction
264. A fire has broken out on the stern of your vessel. To help fight the fire, you should maneuver your vessel so that the wind_________.
A. comes over the stern
B. comes over ether beam
C. blows the fire toward the vessel
D. comes over the bow
265. If Mouth - to - Mouth (M-T-M) ventilation by itself is unsuccessful and the casualty's heart stops, or has stopped beating, you must perform
External Chest Compression (ECC) in conjunction with M-T-M. What is the complete rate when performing EC
A. Complete 15 compressions at the rate of 80 compressions per minute
B. Complete 20 compressions at the rate of 60 compressions per minute
C. Complete 10 compressions at the rate of 40 compressions per minute
D. Complete 25 compressions at the rate of 75 compressions per minute
266. The success of an indirect attack on a fire depends on the:
A. size of the fire when initially observed
B. complete containment of the fire
C. cooling ability of the firefighting agent
D. class of the fire
267. In case each hydrant is not fitted with hose and nozzles, what is the requirement? (SOLAS II-2/4.6.1)
A. Complete interchangeability of hose couplings and nozzles
B. Hoses and nozzles for each hydrant to be available at the fire stations
C. At each fire station, sufficient number of hoses with nozzles for the hydrants in the area shall be available
D. Hoses with fixed nozzles to be kept ready for use in conspicuous positions near the hydrants
268. Fire in an engine compartment is best extinguished with carbon dioxide gas (CO2) and by:
A. closing the compartment except for the ventilators
B. completely closing the compartment
C. leaving the compartment open to the air
D. increasing the air flow to the compartment by blowers
269. Which one of the listed requirements regarding containers for inflatable liferafts do not correspond to present regulations? The liferaft
shall be packed in containers that are:
A. completely watertight
B. so constructed as to withstand hard weather condition encountered at sea
C. of sufficient buoyancy to operate the inflation mechanism should the ship sink
D. marked with the date when last serviced
270. The air cylinder bottles in the survival craft should be refilled with:
a. oxygen c. compressed air
b. nitrogen d. nitrogen and oxygen
271. The type of head injury in which the skull has received a heavy blow and is characterized by momentary loss of consciousness is called
A. amnesia
B. confusion to the brain
C. concussion of the brain
17
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
D. cracked skull
272. The heat generated by a fire will be transferred to a bulkhead or deck through:
A. Radiation
B. Conduction
C. Convection
D. Advection
273. As an extinguishing agent, foam_____________________.
A. should be directed at the base of the fire
B. is most effective on burning gases which are flowing
C. extinguishes cooling oil fires below ignition temperature
D. conducts electricity
274. One of the limitations of foam as an extinguishing agent is that foam
A. Conducts electricity
B. is heavier than oil and sinks below its surface
C. cannot be made with salt water
D. is corrosive and a hazard to fire fighters
275. Why do we have to have an International Shore coupling onboard? To be able to ...
A. Connect the fire lines ship/shore
B. Connect the cargo hoses to shore
C. Connect the bunker hoses to ship/shore
D. Connect slop lines ship/shore
276. When making entries in the Oil Record Book, all quantities should be ______.
a. verified by the Master
b. recorded directly from the oil discharge monitor
c. recorded as cubic meters with a conversion to barrels
d. consistently recorded in one specified unit (gallons, barrels, cubic meters)
277. The signal for fire aboard ship is:
A. more than 6 short blasts and 1 long blast on the whistle and the same signal on the general alarm
B. continuous sounding of the ship’s whistle and general alarm for at least 10 seconds
C. 1 short blast on the whistle
D. Continuous sounding of the ship’s whistle for a period of 10 seconds
278. The order of importance in addressing damage control is __________.
A. control flooding, control fire, repair structural damage
B. restore vital services, control fire, control flooding
C. control fire, restore vital services, control flooding
D. control fire, control flooding, repair structural damage
279. Fire dampers prevent the spread of fire by:
A. Convection
B. Conduction
C. Radiation
D. Direct contact
280. Fire doors are part of ship’s fire protection installed in order to prevent fire from expanding by:
A. conduction
B. convection
C. radiation
D. explosion
281. The best method of extinguishing a class A fire is to:
A. Smother with CO2
B. Smother fire with foam
C. Remove oxygen from the sea
D. Cool fuel below ignition temperature
282. To prevent the spread of fire by conduction, you should________________.
A. cool the bulk heads around the fire
B. shut off all electrical power
C. close all openings to the area
D. remove combustibles from direct exposure
283. The primary method by which water fog puts out fire is by ___________________.
A. removing combustible material
B. cooling the fire below the ignition temperature
C. diluting combustible vapors
D. removing the oxygen
284. What is CSS an abbreviation for?
A. Co-ordinator Surface Search
B. Commander Ship Search
C. Control Center of Survivors
D. Co-ordination Ship Search
285. Having boarded the liferaft, how do you release the painter?
A. Cut it with the safety knife stowed on the exterior of the canopy close to the painter attachment point
B. Let go the quick release toggle
C. Cut it with the axe provided
D. Wait for it to break as it is provided with a weak link
286. The function of a davit limits switch is to:
a. cut off power to the winch when the lifeboat nears the final stowed position
b. control the descent rate of the lifeboat
c. control the ascent rate of the lifeboat
d. cut off the power to the winch when the lifeboat reaches the davit bumpers
287. An aluminum power fire is classified as class
A. D
B. A
C. B
18
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
D. C
288. Fires in combustible, metals such as sodium or magnesium are classified as what class of fire?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
289. After a collision and survivors have been assisted, fire has been controlled, what is the next action of the crew?
A. damage control
B. resume deck work
C. repair structural damage
D. proceed to the nearest port
290. The lifeboat releasing gear lever should be marked with the words __________.
A. DANGER, DO NOT TOUCH
B. DANGER, BOAT MAY DROP
C. DANGER, LEVER RELEASES BOAT
D. DANGER, LEVER DROPS BOAT
291. Bleeding from a vein is:
A. dark red and has a steady flow
B. bright red and slow
C. bright red and spurting
D. dark red and spurting
292. If the cause of severe list, or trim is due to off center ballast, counterflooding into empty tanks will ________.
a. increase the righting arm c. decrease list or trim
b. increase list or trim d. increase the righting moment
293. An important step in fighting any electrical fire is to:
A. stop ventilation
B. stop the vessel
C. de-energize the circuit
D. apply water to extinguish the fire
294. When personnel are lifted by a helicopter from an inflatable life raft, the personnel on the raft should_________.
A. deflate the floor of the raft to reduce the danger of the raft
B. take in the sea anchor to prevent fouling of the rescue sling
C. remove their lifejackets to prepare for the transfer
D. inflate the floor of the raft to provide for additional stability
295. Drinking salt water will:
A. protect against heat cramps
B. prevent seasickness
C. be safe if mixed with fresh water
D. dehydrate you
296. What does the term "head" mean when applied to fire pump?
A. Sum of the discharge and suction pressures
B. Height of the discharge pipe
C. Length of the discharge pipe
D. Difference between the discharge and suction pressures
297. A severe blow to or a heavy fall on the upper part of the abdomen (solar plexus) can upset the regularity of breathing. What is the symptom
and sign?
A. Difficulty in breathing in and the casualty may be unable to speak.
B. The casualty may start sweating profusely and develops a fever.
C. The casualty feels very hungry.
D. The casualty is speaking in a very load manner.
298. While reading the station bill, you find three (3) short blasts on the whistle and three (3) short rings on the general alarm bells, this signals
is for:
A. man overboard
B. fire and emergency
C. abandon ship
D. Dismissal from fire and emergency
299. After smoking cigarettes they should be disposed of as follows:
A. Disposed of in an ashtray and ensuring that it is extinguished
B. Dropped over the side only if you are certain they are extinguished
C. Dropped over the lee side only so that it cannot blow back on board
D. Dropped into a waste bin
300. The helicopter hoisting, an arm extended horizontally, fingers clenched, thumbs downs, signals means __________.
A. stop hoist temporarily
B. do not hoist
C. hoist up
D. lower the hoist
301. You hear a hissing sound coming from an inflated liferaft, what would you do?
A. plug the safety value
B. don’t be alarmed as it will soon stop unless it goes on for a long period of time
C. unscrew the deflation plug
D. remove the safety valve and replace it with a soft patch
302. The training manual shall contain instructions and information in easily understood terms and illustrated wherever possible. Which of the
following objects do not have to be explained in detail in the manual according to present regulations?
A. Donning of fire protection clothing
B. Donning of lifejackets and immersion suits
C. Muster of assigned stations
D. Boarding, launching and clearing of the survival crafts and rescue boats
303. If you reach shore in a life raft, the first thing to do is _____________.
A. find some wood for a fire
B. set the raft back out to see to someone spot it
C. get the provisions out of the raft
19
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
D. drag the raft ashore and lash it down for a shelter
304. If you are fighting a fire below the main deck of your vessel, which action is most important concerning the stability of the vessel?
A. shutting off electricity to damaged cables
B. draining fire-fighting water and pumping it overboard
C. maneuvering the vessel so that the fire is on the lee side
D. removing burned debris from the cargo hold
305. What kind of extinguishing-remedy would you choose to put out an electrical fire?
A. Dry extinguishing remedy
B. Water
C. Foam
D. Combination of powder and water
306. Which type of portable fire extinguisher is best suited for putting out a Class D fire?
A. Dry chemical
B. CO2
C. Foam
D. Dry powder
307. Which information MUST be entered on the muster list?
A. Names of all crew members
B. Use and application of special equipment
C. Listing of approved emergency equipment
D. Duties and station of each person during emergencies
308. Under the regulations for cargo vessels, which statement is TRUE concerning fireman’s outfits?
a. Each fireman’s outfit shall contain a freshair breathing apparatus
b. If a vessel carries two outfits, they may be stored in the same location
c. Each fireman’s outfit shall contain a flame safety lamp of an approved type
d. All of these
309. What is required by regulations concerning the stowage of lifeboats on cargo vessels?
a. There may not be more than two launching appliances on the same deck
b. Launching appliances must be of a gravity type
c. Each lifeboat must have a launching appliance
d. All of these
310. Which one of the listed requirements regarding abandon ship drills corresponds to present SOLAS regulation?
A. Each lifeboat shall be launched with its assigned crew, and maneuvered in the water at least once every three months
during an abandon ship drill.
B. Drills shall be conducted when the ship is in a harbour.
C. All lifeboats shall be lowered during drills.
D. On ships on short international voyages, each lifeboat shall be launched and maneuvered in the water at least every six months.
311. Where is the International Shore coupling to be stored?
A. Easy accessible by the gangway
B. In the engine room
C. In the accommodation
D. Together with the cargo hoses
312. To maintain a fire, three conditions need to be met: Oxygen, combustible material and sufficient temperature for combustion. What subject
must be removed to extinguish the fire?
A. Either of the mentioned alternatives
B. Heat, Oxygen and combustible material
C. Oxygen
D. Combustible material
313. All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT __________.
A. heat
B. oxygen
C. electricity
D. fuel
314. What is the primary hazard others fire damage associated with the Class "C" fire?
A. Deep seated fire
B. Electrocution or shock
C. SInternationaleptible to reflash
D. Explosion
315. When helicopter hoisting is to be done onboard a tanker ship, the hoisting cable must be properly grounded in order to preclude fire or
explosion due ______________.
a. electrostatic charge c. electromagnetic discharge
b. kinetic discharge d. short circuit
316. Which of the following should NOT be done to a person who has fainted?
a. Elevate head c. Provide fresh air
b. Splash face with water d. Loosen clothing
317. Rest periods as required by STCW need not be maintained in cases such as _________.
a. stoppages of the main engines
b. maneuvers to dock and undock
c. cleaning holds
d. emergency overriding operational conditions
318. What is EPIRB an abbreviation for?
A. Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon
B. Emergency Position Indication Radio Buoy
C. Electronic Purpose If Rescue Begins
D. Electronic Pressure Indication Radar Buoy
319. Which one of the listed requirements regarding hand flares do not correspond to present regulations? The hand flare shall:
A. emit smoke of a highly visible colour
B. have a self-contained means of ignition
C. have a burning period of not less than 1 minute
D. continue burning after being immersed for 10 seconds under water
20
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
320. According to the regulations for lifeboat falls, what action must be taken at 30 month intervals?
A. End-for-ended
B. Inspected
C. Renewed
D. Weight tested
321. After start of man-over-board maneuver, whom shall be informed?
A. Engine Room
B. Chief Officer
C. Galley
D. Electrician
322. Which of the following actions will most effectively prevent fire in a cabin?
A. Ensuring that all persons avoid smoking in bed.
B. Request people to refrain from smoking.
C. Removing all ashtrays.
D. Install fire detecting devices
323. The muster list shall show the duties assigned to crewmembers in relation to passengers in case of emergency. Which of the following
duties do not necessarily have to be included in the muster list? The duties shall include:
A. ensuring that every passenger is provided with an immersion suit or a thermal protective aid
B. assembling passengers at muster stations
C. seeing that passengers are suitably clad and have donned their lifejackets correctly
D. ensuring that a supply of blankets is taken to the survival craft
324. A self contained breathing apparatus is used to ________
A. make underwater repairs to barges
B. determine if the air in a tank is safe for men
C. enter area that may contain dangerous fumes or lack oxygen
D. resInternationalitate an unconscious person
325. A self-contained breathing apparatus is used to:
A. make underwater repairs to barge
B. determine if the air in a tank is safe for men
C. enter areas that may contain dangerous fumes or lack of oxygen
D. resuscitate an unconscious person
326. If you must enter water on which there is an oil fire, you should:
A. protect your life preserver by holding it above your head
B. enter the water on the windward side of the vessel
C. keep both hands in front of your face to break the water surface when diving head first
D. wear very light clothing
327. Before CPR is started, you should __________.
A. establish an open airway
B. treat any bleeding wounds
C. insure the victim is conscious
D. make the victim comfortable
328. Your vessel has been damaged and is partially flooded. The first step to be taken in attempting to save the vessel is to __________.
A. establish flooding boundaries and prevent further spread of flood water
B. plug the hole(s) in the outer shell
C. pump out the water inside the vessel
D. calculate the free surface effect and lost buoyancy to determine the vessel's stability
329. Your vessel is equipped with a fixed CO2 system and fire main system. In the event of an electrical fire in the engine room what is the
correct procedure for fighting the fire?
A. Evacuate the engine room and use the fire main system
B. Evacuate the engine room and use the CO2 system
C. Use the fire main system and evacuate the engine room
D. Use the CO2system and evacuate the engine room
330. How often should an inflatable liferaft be serviced at an approved service station?
A. Every 12 months
B. Every 24 months
C. Every 6 months
D. Every 5 years
331. When reasonable and practicable, how often shall rescue boats be launched with their assigned crew aboard and maneuvered in the water?
A. Every month
B. Every week
C. Every two weeks
D. Every three months
332. At least how often shall rescue boats (MOB) be launched with their assigned crew and maneuvered in the water?
A. Every three months
B. Every week
C. Every two weeks
D. Every month
333. The biggest problem encountered when towing bridle legs are two short is:
A. Retriever
B. Adjusting tension
C. Excessive strain
D. Hook up to main tow line
334. If you have to jump in the water when abandoning ship, your legs should be _________.
a. in a kneeling position
b. spread apart as far as possible
c. held as tightly against your chest as possible
d. extended straight down and crossed at the ankles
335. High velocity fog:
A. Is a fine, more diffuse water spray than low velocity fog
B. Requires that the water pressure be no greater than 60 psi
C. Produces an effective fog pattern no more than 6 feet beyond the nozzle
21
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
D. Extinguishes a fire by absorbing heat and reducing the supply of oxygen
336. When launching an inflatable liferaft, make sure that the operating cord is:
A. not fastened to anything
B. fastened to some substantial part of the vessel
C. secured to the hydrostatic release
D. fastened to the raft container
337. When joining the female coupling of the fire hose to the male outlet of the hydrant, sea should make sure that the ___________.
A. hose is led out
B. threads are lubricated
C. female coupling has a
D. nozzle is attached to the hose
338. Your vessel has been involved in a collision. As master you have to write about the accident in the log-book. In order to only write the facts
in the log-book, which of the following procedures do you find most correct?
A. Find out from officers and crew who have been in connection with the collision, what they have seen, so that detailed and
complete description of the sequence of events can be entered in the log-book.
B. Write continually in the log-book as soon as the accidents happen.
C. Write down all the facts you have collected, and also write down your own opinion about the circumstance
D. Write down the story as favourable as possible seen from your own point of view. Make sure that your log-book tells your story.
339. A continuous blast of the ship’s whistle for a period of not less than 10 seconds, supplemented by a continuous sounding of the general
alarm for a period of not less than 10 seconds is the _________.
a. lower lifeboat signal c. secure from boat stations signal
b. boat stations signal d. fire alarm signal
340. You hear the general alarm and ship’s whistle for over 10 seconds. This is the signal for:
A. abandon ship
B. man overboard
C. fire and emergency
D. dismissal from fire and emergency stations
341. You are on a vessel that carries liquefied gasses in bulk. The person on watch is required to have what information about the cargo easily
accessible?
a. Regulatory and proprietary names
b. Exact quantity on board
c. Name and address of consignee
d. Fire fighting procedures
342. If you hear a continuous blast of the whistle for a period of not less than 10 seconds, supplemented by a continuous ringing of the general
alarm bells for not less than 10 seconds, you should go to your:
A. collision station
B. boat station
C. man overboard situation
D. fire station
343. A useful means of moving a casualty if a ladder or stairway has to be climbed is:
A. Neil Robertson stretcher
B. Fireman's lift
C. Three-handed seat
D. Drag lift
344. Before commencing the tow, a continuous radio communication shall maintained between the Masters. No navigation or engine maneuver
will commence without________
A. first advising the other master
B. checking two system is okay
C. clearance for the tow by ship owner
D. none of these
345. Which type of oil is best for use as storm oil?
a. Lube Oil c. Fish Oil
b. Crude Oil d. Mineral Oil
346. On a rigid life raft which is equipped with all of the required equipment you may NOT find a _______
A. boathook
B. fishing kit
C. lifeline or grab rail
D. sea painter
347. When evacuating a seaman by helicopter lift, which statement is TRUE?
A. The vessel should be stopped with the wind dead ahead during the hoisting operation
B. Flags should be flown to provide a visual reference as to the direction of the apparent wind
C. The drop line should be grounded first then secured as close to the hoist point as possible
D. The hoist area should be located as far aft as possible so the pilot will have a visual reference while approaching
348. A device fitted over the discharge opening relief valve consisting of one or two woven wire fabrics is called a _______.
a. flame screen
b. flame stopper
c. flame restricter
d. flame filter
349. Fuel oil tank vents are fitted with a screen which will stop ______:
A. air from entering the tank vent
B. flames on deck from entering the tank vent
C. vapors from leaving the tank vent
D. oil from flowing out of the tank vent
350. A foam-type portable fire extinguisher would be most useful in combating a fire in
A. flammable liquids
B. solid materials such as wood or bales of fiber
C. combustible metallic solids
D. a piece of electrical equipment
351. Which materials or substance is carbon dioxide made of extinguishing?
A. flammable liquids
22
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
B. wood
C. textile
D. combustible metals
352. Any tank is "gas free" when there is an absence of dangerous concentrations of:
a. residues from cargo oil c. flammable or toxic gases
b. any combustible liquid d. all flammable liquids
353. In prolysis, a block of wood can be converted by heat into:
A. ash
B. flammable vapor
C. chemichal vapor
D. charcoal
354. The lowest temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient vapor to form a flammable to mixture over its surface is termed as
__________.
A. flash point
B. flammable limit
C. auto-ignition point
D. saturation point
355. Which firefighting method is an example of an indirect attack on a fire?
A. Bouncing a straight stream of water off the overhead to create spray effect
B. Spraying foam on a bulkhead and letting it flow down and over a pool of burning oil
C. Flooding a paint locker with CO2 and sealing the compartment
D. Cooling adjacent bulkheads with water to prevent the spread of the fire by conduction
356. The BEST method of applying foam to a fire is to ________________.
A. flow the foam down a nearby vertical surface
B. sweep the fire with the foam
C. spray directly on the base of the fire
D. spray directly on the surface of the fire
357. What is the proper first air when the eyes sprayed with Caustic Soda cargo?
a. Wipe eye are clean
b. Flush the eye with abundant water
c. Apply ointment around area of eye
d. Give proper ventilation to patient
358. What is the proper first aid for LPG in the eye?
a. Apply an ice pack to the eye
b. Keep the eyelid closed
c. Flush the eye with plenty of water
d. Rub the eye area clean
359. Which one of the listed fire-extinguishing medium is most effective against an open oil fire?
A. Foam
B. Water
C. Powder
D. Gas
360. Control of flooding should be addressed __________.
A. first
B. following control of fire
C. following restoration of vital services
D. only if a threat exists
361. For how long should a tank be ventilated when people are working inside?
A. For as long as people are working in the tank
B. For at least 60 minutes
C. For as long as it is deemed necessary by the chief officer
D. Until the tank is gas free
362. On the OBA (bottle type) when you hold the fully charge bottle in a vertical position with the valve down, and then open and close the
main valve quickly, you are testing __________
A. for oxygen in the bottle
B. the amount of pressure in the bottle
C. for CO2 in the bottle
D. for moisture in the bottle
363. If there are a number of survivors in the water after abandoning ship, they should
A. tie themselves to the unit so they won't drift with current
B. form a small circle group to create warmer pocket of water in the center of the circle
C. send the strongest swimmer to shore for assistance
D. form a raft by lashing their life preservers together
364. On a vessel with lifeboats on both sides, the NO. 2 lifeboat is located _______.
a. forward of lifeboat no. 4 on the starboard side
b. forward of lifeboat no. 4 on port side
c. aft of lifeboat no. 1 starboard side
d. aft of lifeboat no. 3 portside
365. The No. 2 lifeboat would be found _____.
a. forward starboard side c. aft of No. I lifeboat port side
b. forward portside d. aft of No. I lifeboat starboard side
366. The No.1 lifeboat on a tanker would be found:
A. forward starboard side
B. forward of No.2 lifeboat
C. forward port side
D. behind No.2 lifeboat
367. An effective method for lifting and carrying patients with spinal injuries is known as the
A. pack-strap carry
B. two man extremities carry
C. fireman's drag
23
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
D. four man log roll
368. Line throwing apparatus aboard ship must contain
A. two rockets, one of which shall be the buoyant type
B. three rockets, one of which shall be the buoyant type
C. four rockets, two of which shall be the buoyant type
D. five rockets, two of which shall be the buoyant type
369. Which item is not included in the fireman’s outfit on a cargo vessel?
A. Fire ax
B. Flashlight
C. Rigid helmet
D. Fresh air breathing apparatus
370. On what side of a listed vessel should the passengers be instructed to jump?
A. away from the fire
B. from the bow
C. from the stern
D. from the low side
371. In a fire triangle, it is the side that changes into gaseos forms and burns:
A. heat
B. oxygen
C. fuel
D. all of the above
372. Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by use of:
A. fusible links
B. heat or smoke detectors
C. remotely operated valves
D. CO2 system pressure switches
373. The ventilation system of your ship has fire dampers restrained by fusible links. Which statement is true?
A. Fusible links must be replaced at every inspection for certificate
B. A fusible links will automatically open after a fire is extinguish
C. Fusible links are tested by applying a source of heat to them
D. Fusible links must be replaced if a damper is activated
374. Annex V to MARPOL 73/78 contains requirements pertaining to the discharge into the marine environment of:
A. Air Pollution C. noxious liquid substances
B. Oil D. garbage
375. By definition, an example of a flammable liquid is ______.

a. caustic potash c. Gasoline
b. Kerosene d. animal and vegetable oil
376. In which compartments are halogenated hydrocarbons not allowed as fire-extinguishing media? (SOLAS II-2/5.3.1)
A. General cargo holds
B. Engine rooms
C. Pump rooms
D. Cargo holds for passenger cars and Other empty vehicles
377. Which one of the listed routine test and inspections of life-saving appliance is not required by the regulations?
A. General emergency alarm to be tested daily
B. Inspection of life-saving appliance, including lifeboat equipment shall be carried out monthly to ensure they are complete
and in good order
C. Survival crafts and rescue boats with launching appliance shall be visually inspected weekly to ensure they are ready for
use
D. Lifeboat engines to be run for at least 3 minutes every week
378. Having a CO2 alarm during normal working hours, what immediate action should be taken?
A. Get out of the engine room as soon as possible
B. Get into the control room
C. Awaiting further order
D. Ignore the alarm
379. You are on watch aboard a vessel heading NW, with the wind from dead ahead, in heavy seas. You notice a man fall overboard from the
starboard bow. Which action would NOT be appropriate?
A. Hard right rudder
B. Throw a lifebuoy to the man, if possible
C. Send a man aloft
D. Get the port boat ready
380. Which one of the listed requirements regarding buoyant smoke signals do not correspond to present regulations? The buoyant smoke signal
shall:
A. give a bright red light during the entire emission time
B. not be swamped in a seaway
C. emit smoke for at least 3 minutes when floating in calm water
D. continue to emit smoke when submerged in water for a period of 10 seconds under 10 cm of water
381. Which of the following should not be a treatment for a person who has received a head injury and is groggy or unconscious?
A. give a stimulant
B. elevate his head
C. stop severe bleeding
D. treat for shock
382. You are standing the wheel watch when you hear the cry, "Man overboard starboard side". You should instinctively __________.
A. give full right rudder
B. give full left rudder
C. put the rudder amidships
D. throw a life ring to mark the spot
383. Which procedure should not be done for a person who has fainted?
A. revive the person with smelling salts
B. loosen the clothing
24
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
C. lay the person horizontally
D. give the pain reliever
384. Unconscious person should not be:
A. placed in a position with the head lower than the body
B. given an inhalation stimulant
C. given something to drink
D. treated for injuries until conscious
385. An alarm signal consisting of seven short blasts followed by one long blast is sounded by the ship's whistle and the alarm bells. What are
you to do?
A. Go to your lifeboat station (muster station)
B. Go to your fire station
C. Report on the bridge (deck crew) or engine control room (engine crew) for further orders
D. Go to (or remain in) your cabin and wait for further orders
386. The maximum speed of lowering for a lifeboat on gravity davits is controlled by the __________.
A. limit switches
B. emergency disconnect switch
C. governor brake
D. position of the counterweight on the brake handle
387. The spray of water produced by using the high-velocity fog position on an all-purpose nozzle will have __________.
A. greater range than low-velocity fog
B. lesser range than low-velocity fog
C. about the same range as low-velocity fog
D. greater range than a solid stream
388. Which item is NOT required to be marked with the vessel's name?
A. Immersion sult
B. Lifeboat oar
C. Life preserve
D. Hand-portable fire extinguisher
389. The longer an oil fire is permitted to burn, the:
A. easier it is to control
B. less chance there is of re-ignition
C. easier it is to extinguish
D. harder it is to extinguish
390. What kind of special safety measures are required when working on a stage aloft?
A. Harness with a rope secured to a safe point on the ship
B. Helmet, safety shoes and gloves
C. A rope around the waist, secured to the stage
D. No special safety measures required
391. Which one of the listed requirements regarding inflatable liferafts do not correspond to present regulations? The inflatable liferaft shall:
A. have at least two entrance
B. have a floor capable of being sufficiently insulated against cold by means of inflated compartments, or by equally efficient
means not dependant on inflation
C. maintain its form after inflation with full complement
D. be prevented from pressure exceeding twice the working pressure, either by relief valves or by limited gas supply
392. Which one of the listed requirements regarding enclosures of totally enclosed lifeboats do not correspond to present regulations? The
totally enclosed lifeboats shall:
A. have self-bailing arrangements
B. have safety belts to be designed to hold a person of 100 kg securely in place with the lifeboat in a capsized position
C. have automatic self-righting abilities
D. automatically attain a position in damaged condition, providing an above water escape for its occupants
393. Which one of the listed requirements regarding fire protected lifeboats do not correspond to present regulations? Water spray systems shall:
A. have separate draining pumps of sufficient capacity
B. protect the occupants through a continuous oil fire a period of not less than 8 minutes
C. have means for "turn on/turn off" the flow of water over the exterior of the lifeboat
D. be arranged for flushing with fresh water and allowing complete draining
394. There is a fire aft aboard your vessel. To help fight the fire, you should __________.
A. put the wind off either beam
B. head the bow into the wind and decrease speed
C. put the stern into the wind and increase speed
D. put the stern into the wind and decrease speed
395. What kind of safety protection is to be weared during a mooring operation?
A. Helmet, safety shoes, gloves and protecting clothes
B. Safety shoes and boiler suit
C. Gloves and helmet
D. No particular
396. At the lifeboat station, the following shall be done EXCEPT:
A. help facilitate the immediate lowering of the life lifeboat
B. lifeboat is not entered while still cradled unless to carry preparations
C. do not enter lifeboat without orders
D. enter the lifeboat when ordered by the lifeboat commander
397. When a sea anchor for a lifeboat is properly rigged, it will do which of the following?
a. Prevent the lifeboat from drifting
b. Help to prevent broaching
c. Prevent the lifeboat from pitching
d. None of the above
398. When beaching a ship to avoid immediate danger of foundering, it is ideal to do so at ________ so that the ship settles slowly, rather than
drive him hard ashore and strain the bottom plating.
A. high water or falling tide
B. neap tide
C. spring tide
D. full moon
25
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
399. If you jump from a vessel, the correct posture includes:
A. both hands holding the life preserver below the chin with knees
B. holding down the life preserver against chest with one arm cross
C. body straight and arms hold tightly at the sides for feet hist
D. knees bent and held close to the with both arms around legs
400. The greatest danger in cold temperatures when at sea in an inflatable liferaft is:
A. collapsing of the raft
B. asphyxiation
C. starvation
D. Hypothermia
401. What do you call the method used for bone-soft part injuries?
A. ICE-method
B. ABC-method
C. REHAB-method
D. First Aid -method
402. Which one of the listed items has to be included in a distress message?
A. Identification of the ship
B. Destination
C. Weather in immediate vicinity
D. Last port of call
403. What is the lowest temperature required to cause sustained combustion of a substance independent of any outside source of ignition called?
a. flash point c. Combustion temperature
b. explosive range d. Ignition temperature
404. Control of fire should be addressed:

A. immediately
B. following the control of flooding
C. immediately after restoring vital services
D. following establishment of fire boundaries
405. A crew member has just fallen overboard off your port side. Which action should you take?
A. Immediately put the rudder over hard right.
B. Immediately put the rudder over hard left.
C. Immediately put the engines astern.
D. Wait until the stern is well clear of the man and then put the rudder over hard right.
406. If you must abandon a rig in VERY HEAVY SEAS, in a survival craft, when should you remove the safety pin and pull the hook release?
A. Immediately upon launching
B. One to three feet before first wave contact
C. Upon first wave contact
D. Only when waterborne
407. If you must abandon in a very rough weather in a rigid survival craft, when should you remove the safety pin and pull the hook release?
A. upon Masters order
B. one to three feet before first wave contact
C. immediately upon launching
D. only when waterborne
408. If a person suffers a second-degree burn on the arm, you should:

A. immediately apply antiseptic ointment
B. drain blisters
C. clean the arm to prevent infection
D. immerse the arm in cold water
409. For small, first-degree burns, the quickest method to relieve pain is to _____________.
A. administer aspirin
B. apply a bandage to exclude air
C. apply petroleum jelly
D. immerse the burn in cold water
410. What should you do if a crew member has suffered frostbite to the toes of both feet.
A. Immerse the feet in warm water
B. Warm the feet with a heat lamp
C. Warm the feet at room temperature
D. Rub the feet
411. Which procedure should be followed when individuals are rescued in cold climates and suffer from hypothermia?
A. Give them brandy
B. Keep them in motion
C. Immerse them in a warm bath (105°F, 40°C)
D. Cover them with an electric blanket set for maximum heat
412. Which procedure should be followed when individuals rescued in cold climates suffer from hyporthemia?
a. Keep them in motion
b. Cover them with an electric blanket
c. Immerse them in warm bath
d. Give them brandy to warm them up
413. Which one of the listed requirements regarding rescue boat equipment do not correspond to present regulations? The normal equipment of
every rescue boat shall include:
A. immersion suits for the number of persons the boat is permitted to accommodate
B. a first-aid outfit in a watertight case
C. two buoyant rescue quoits attached to not less than 30m of line
D. an efficient radar reflector
414. What is the primary purpose of a splint applied in first aid?
A. Control bleeding
B. Reduce pain
C. Immobilize a fracture
26
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
D. Reset the bone
415. Which one of the listed requirements regarding the stowage of a survival craft corresponds to present SOLAS regulations? Each survival
craft shall be stowed:
A. In a secure and sheltered position and protected from damage by fire or explosion
B. Wherever space is available
C. On the starboard side of the ship
D. In a state of readiness so that two crew-members can prepare for embarkation and launching in less than 15 minutes
416. Narcotic is given to a patient when ______?
a. Unconscious
b. Intoxicated
c. he is groggy
d. in great pain
417. Where in accommodation spaces shall smoke detectors be located? (SOLAS II-2/13.2.2)
A. In stairways, corridors and escape routes
B. In all crew and passenger cabins
C. In mess rooms, public lounges and Other public rooms
D. Near ventilation ducts throughout the accommodation spaces
418. Where do you find instructions for tasks and duties in case of an emergency?
A. In the muster list
B. On posters at the lifeboat station
C. In instruction notice posted in the crew's cabins
D. In instruction notice posted in messrooms, recreation rooms etc
419. At the required fire drill, all persons must report to their stations and demonstrate their ability to perform the duties assigned to them
__________.
A. by the Coast Guard regulations
B. in the Muster List ("Station Bill")
C. by the person conducting the drill
D. at the previous safety meeting
420. The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be
A. the midships house
B. at the vent header
C. at the main deck manifold
D. in the pump room
421. At the required fire drill, all person must report to their stations and demonstrate their ability to perform the duties assigned to them:
a. by the Coast Guard regulations
b. in the station bill
c. by the person conducting the drill
d. at the previous safety meeting
422. What is the time limit a person can remain in an atmosphere of less than 15% oxygen while using a fresh air breathing apparatus?
a. Indefinitely c. 1 hour
b. ½ hour d. 2 hours
423. Persons who have swallowed a non-petroleum based poison are given large quantities of warm, soapy water or warm salt water to:
A. Induce vomiting
B. Absorb the poison in the blood
C. Neutralize the poison in the blood
D. Increase the digestive process and eliminate the poison
A. Instruction for emergency repair of fire-fighting equipment
B. Recovery of survival craft and rescue boats including stowage and securing
C. Best use of survival craft facilities in order to survive
D. Instructions for emergency repair of the life-saving appliance
425. A person slowly feels more sleepy and thirsty. The skin and slim inner become very dry and there is a sweet taste of the breath. The
glucose reaction shows positive. What kind of medicine will the person need as soon as possible?
A. Insulin.
B. A glass of cold milk.
C. Sugar lump, sugar drink or something sweet.
D. Nothing at all.
426. To safeguard personnel working on or near a hoisting operation, which of the following precautions should be observed?
A. do not use counterbalance if weighs are not movable
B. lifting appliance should be use in a manner likely to subject them to excessive over-turning moments.
C. insure that the lifting gear capacity is not exceeded
D. lifting gears should not be supported by outrigger
427. One of the recommended treatment to a victim of food poisoning who is conscious is:
a. injection of morphine
b. intake of activated charcoal and copious water
c. inducing vomiting
d. transfer casualty to fresh air
428. If a victim is unconscious, you should first look for evidence of:
A. irregular breathing
B. broken limbs
C. head injury
D. high fever
429. The SART-transmitted signal will be most conspicuous on the radar-screen when the receiver:
is not fine-tuned
is fine-tuned
is equipped with an SART device
Don't know
430. Which one of the listed requirements regarding life-jackets corresponds to present SOLAS regulations? A life-jacket shall be so
constructed that:
27
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
A. It allows the wearer to jump from height of at least 4.5 m into the water without injury and without damaging the life-
jacket
B. It gives a long-term thermal protection
C. It can be correctly donned within 3 minutes without assistance
D. It allows the wearer to jump from any height without injury and without damaging the life-jacket
431. Carbon dioxide as a fire fighting agent has which the following advantages over other agent:
a. It is safer for personnel
b. It cause a minimal damage
c. It is cheaper
d. It is most effective on a per unit basis
432. Which one of the listed requirements regarding partially enclosed lifeboats do not correspond to present regulations? The canopy between
rigid covers shall be so arranged that:
A. it has windows to admit sufficient daylight inside the lifeboat with the canopy closed
B. it can easily be erected by two persons
C. it is insulated to protect occupants against heat and cold
D. the occupants can escape in case of capsizing
433. Which statement is FALSE regarding Halon as a fire extinguishing agent?
a. It is always non-toxic c. It is more effective than CO2
b. It leaves no residue d. It is non-corrosive
434. When you are using a sea anchor, it is helpful if:
A. the weather is nice
B. it is fitted with a storm oil container and trip line
C. it is weighed with a shot of chain
D. you are docking in a current
435. How is the external flotation bladder of an immersion suit inflated?
B. It is inflated by a small CO2 bottle that is automatically tripped when the front zipper is at the top or zipper track
C. it is inflated by a small CO2 bottle that is manually tripped
D. it is inflated by blowing through an inflation tube
E. it inflates by sea water bleeding into the flotation bladder and reacting with a chemical therein
436. Which statement is TRUE concerning the "flash point" of a substance?
A. It is lower than the ignition temperature
B. It is the temperature at which a substance will spontaneously ignite
C. It is the temperature at which a substance, when ignited, will continue to burn
D. It is the temperature at which the released vapors will fall within the explosive range
437. What IMO conventions take care of the human safety at sea?
A. It is the SOLAS conventions that take care of the human safety at sea
B. It is the MARPOL conventions that take care of the human safety at sea
C. It is the STCW 78/95 that take care of the human safety at sea
D. There isn’t any conventions that take care of the human safety at sea
438. Which statement is TRUE of a gasoline spill?
A. It is visible for a shorter time than a fuel oil spill
B. It is not covered by pollution laws
C. It does little harm to marine life
D. It will sink more rapidly than crude oil
439. What is the purpose of the "Bowsing tackle" (block and tackle) supplied at each end of the lifeboat?
A. It keeps the boat alongside the embarkation deck so that the tracing pennants can be released
B. It is designed to pull the boat alongside the embarkation deck after the tracing pennants have been released
C. It is a general purpose tackle to be used in any type of emergency
D. It enables the boat to be secured to the embarkation deck so that the wire falls can be released for changing or end for ending
440. Which of the following is an advantage of the fresh air breathing apparatus over an OBA?
A. The wearer has unlimited mobility
B. The used canister are easy to dispose
C. It may be used for an unlimited period of time
D. It does require a lifetime
441. Foam is a very effective smothering agent and:
A. it provides cooling as a secondary effect
B. works well on extinguishing electrical fires
C. can be used to combat combustible metal fires
D. All of the above
442. Which statement concerning storm oil is CORRECT?
A. It is most effective in shallow water
B. It reduces friction between wind and water
C. It has a moderate effect in surf
D. Mineral oil is the most effective type
443. Which statement about the Williamson turn is FALSE?
A. It is the slowest of the methods used in turning the vessel
B. It returns the vessel to the original track line on a reciprocal
C. It is the best turn to use when the victim is not in signal due
D. It requires the shortest time to return to the fallen person
444. What does SART signal look like?
A. it transmits "SOS" and the vessel's name and person in slow speed Morse code
B. it will appear in a radar unit's PPI as a line of dots radiating outward with the innermost dot indicating the SART's
position
C. it will appear on a radar units PPI as a line of dots radiating outward with the outermost dot indicating the SART'S position
D. none of the above
445. Which one of the listed requirements regarding immersion suits does not correspond to present regulations? The immersion suit shall be
made of waterproof materials and constructed such that:
A. it will have sufficient built in buoyancy to avoid the use of a lifejacket
B. it can be unpacked and donned without assistance within 2 minutes
C. it is provided with arrangements to reduce free air in the legs of the suit
28
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
D. it will cover the whole body with the exception of the face
446. Which one of the listed requirements regarding liferafts do not correspond to present regulations? Every liferaft shall be so constructed
that:
A. it's canopy has viewing ports in all directions
B. it can be dropped from a height of at least 18 metros
C. it can withstand repeated jumps from a height of 4.5 metros
D. it can be towed at a speed of 3 knots with full complement
447. Due to the shape of the sea anchor, the best way to haul it back aboard is by __________.
a. cutting the line, as you cannot haul it back in
b. hauling in on the anchor line as you would any anchor
c. getting all hands to assist
d. its trip line
448. On smaller vessels, in the event of loss or damage to the rudder, an alternative steering arrangement is a(n)
A. replacement rudder
B. jury rudder
C. temporary rudder
D. steering oar
449. How should the hook be released from a davit lowered liferaft?
A. Just prior to reaching the water, the lanyard should be pulled. This sets the hook which will automatically release once
the raft is waterborne
B. Unscrew the shackle pin
C. Wait until the raft is waterborne, then pull the lanyard
D. Cut the weak link on the wire with the axe provided
450. The purpose of air tanks in a lifeboat is to __________.
A. make the boat float higher
B. provide a stowage place for provisions
C. add strength to the boat
D. keep the boat afloat if flooded
451. When a person is suspected of having appendicitis, the pain should be relieved by:
A. giving the patient laxative
B. keeping an ice bag over the location of the appendix
C. giving the patient morphine sulfate
D. giving the patient aspirin with a glass of water
452. After a person has been revived by artificial respiration, he should be __________.
A. walked around until he is back to normal
B. given several shots of whiskey
C. kept lying down and warm
D. allowed to do as he wishes
453. A squeeze-grip type carbon dioxide portable fire extinguisher has been partially discharged. It should be __________.
A. labeled empty and recharged as soon as possible
B. replaced in its proper location if weight loss is no more than 25%
C. replaced in its proper location regardless of weight
D. replaced in its proper location if weight loss is no more than 15%
454. If a crew member faints, you should:
A. administer liquid stimulants
B. lay him down with his head slightly raised
C. lay him down with his head lower than his feet
D. stand him upright to restore consciousness
455. A crew member is unconscious and the face is flushed. You should:
A. lay the crew member down with the head and shoulders slightly raised
B. administer a liquid stimulant
C. lay the crew member down with he head lower than the feet
D. attempt to stand the crew member upright to restore consciousness
456. Which of the following should NOT be done for a person who has fainted?
a. lay the person with his head higher than his feet
b. splash cold water in the face
c. get the person in the open air
d. loosen the clothing
457. First, second, and third degree burns are classified according to the:
A. layers of skin affected
B. size of the burned area
C. area of the body burned
D. source of heat causing the burn
458. How will you treat a seasick person?
A. Leave him in bed or request him to have some fresh air
B. Force him to eat any kind of fat food.
C. Encourage him to drink a lot of lukewarm sea water.
D. Make him swallow seasick pills until he stops vomiting.
459. Whilst in the Engine room you hear the CO2 release alarm, what action if any you should take.
A. Leave the engine room as quickly as possible, closing all doors behind you
B. Proceed to the engine control room and call the bridge for further instructions
C. Take no action as it is probably someone testing the system, as the fire alarm has not been sounded and the engine room is not
on fire
D. As CO2 can not kill you, secure present work and proceed out of engine room.
460. After having activated the emergency position indicating radio beacon, you should:
a. leaving it on continuously c. turn it off for five minutes every half-hour
b. turn it off during daylight d. turn it off and on at five minutes interval
461. Where will survivors on a life raft be best approached, relative to the wind direction?
A. With the life raft dead ahead
B. Leeward side
29
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
C. Either side
D. Windward side
462. After extinguishing a paint locker fire using the fixed CO2 system, the next action is to have the space __________.
A. opened and burned material removed
B. left closed with vents off until all boundaries are cool
C. checked for oxygen content
D. doused with water to prevent re-flash
463. What is the correct lifting technique?
A. Legs bent, back straight, using leg international’s to lift
B. Legs straight, back bent, using back international’s to lift
C. Legs bent, back bent, using both back and leg international’s to lift
D. Legs straight, back bent and twisted to the right or to the left while lifting
464. The expected time of survival for a person immersed in water of 2 degrees Centigrade is:
a. 1 hour c. 2 hours
b. less than 45 minutes d. 3 hours
465. Flames from small leaks of LFG may be extinguished by:
A. utilizing carbon dioxide or dry chemical fire extinguishers
B. utilizing soda and acid fire extinguishers
C. blowing the flames out
D. letting it burn itself out
466. During a stay in port, what shall always be ready at the gangway?
A. Life buoy with line
B. Air breathing apparatus
C. Fireman’s outfit
D. Survival suit
467. Which statement is true concerning life jackets?
A. Buoyant vest may be substituted for life jackets
B. Life jackets are designed to turn an unconscious person’s face clear of the water
C. Life jackets must always be worn with the same side facing outwards to float properly
D. Lightly stained or faded life jackets will fail in the water and should not be used
468. Which one of the listed requirements regarding the stowage of lifeboats and life-rafts corresponds to present SOLAS regulations?
A. Lifeboats shall be stowed attached to launching appliances
B. Life-rafts shall be stowed to permit automatic release from their securing arrangements.
C. Life-rafts intended for throw-overboard launching shall be stowed midships secured to means for transfer to either side.
D. Davit-launched life-rafts shall be stowed on starboard side of the ship.
469. Which one of the listed requirements regarding the stowage of lifeboats and liferafts do not correspond to present regulations? (SOLAS
II/13.3 - 13.6)
A. Liferafts intended for throw-overboard launching shall be stowed amidships secured to means for transfer to either
side
B. Lifeboats shall be stowed attached to launching appliance
C. Liferafts shall be so stowed as to permit manual release from their securing arrangements
D. Davit-launched liferafts shall be stowed within reach of the lifting hooks unless adequate means of transport is provided
470. After the lifeboat has reached the top of the davit heads, the davit arms begin moving up the tracks until the movement is stopped by the:
A. preventer bar
B. hoist man
C. brake handle
D. limit switch
471. If a drill required by regulations is not completed, the Master or person in charge must __________.
A. report this immediately to the Commandant of the Coast Guard
B. log the reason for not completing the drill
C. conduct two of the required drills at the next opportunity
D. All of the above
472. The length of the steering oar in a lifeboat is ___________.
A. the same length as the rowing oars
B. longer than rowing oars
C. shorter than the rowing oars
D. unrelated to the length of the moving oars
473. A casualty suddenly loses consciousness and falls to the ground letting out a strange cry. The patient is red-blue in the face and frOthers
may appear around the mouth. You are witnessing a major epileptic attack. What should you do?
A. Loose tight clothing, ask all unnecessary bystanders to leave and carefully place something soft under the head. If
casualty is unconscious, place the person in Recovery position.
B. Move the casualty in a sit-up position and put something in the persons mouth to protect the tongue.
C. Forcibly restrain and try to wake the casualty.
D. Give the casualty a lot to drink and keep talking to the person at all times.
474. The principal danger from ice collecting on a vessel is the __________.
A. adverse effect on trim
B. decrease in capacities of radar
C. loss of stability
D. decrease in displacement
475. The minimum concentration of a vapor in air which can form an explosive mixture is called the __________.
A. auto-ignition point
B. flash point
C. lower explosive limit (LEL)
D. threshold limit value (TLV)
476. The reading of a combustible gas indicator indicates the percentage of the _______.
a. concentration of flammable gas in a compartment
b. upper explosive limit of a flammable gas concentration
c. lower explosive limit of a flammable gas concentration
d. concentration by weight of nonflammable gas in a compartment
477. You are administering chest compressions during CPR. Where on the victim's body should the pressure be applied?
30
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
A. Lower half of the sternum
B. Tip of the sternum
C. Top half of the sternum
D. Left chest over the heart
478. An inert gas system installed on a tanker is designed to _____.
a. Lower oxygen content making tank explosion nearly impossible
b. Increase the rate of discharge of cargo
c. Force toxic and explosives fumes from a cargo tank to vent to the outside atmosphere
d. Aid in the stripping and cleaning of the cargo tanks
479. Appendicitis symptoms include cramps or pain in the abdomen located in the ___________.
A. upper right side
B. lower left side
C. upper left side
D. lower right side
480. What has to be done before the central gas extinguishing system is used on a fire in engine rooms, cargo holds or Other confined space?
A. Make sure that the compartment has been evacuated
B. All openings to the compartment must be closed
C. Stop all engines
D. Close down boilers
481. Which operation should be done when launching an inflatable liferaft by hand?
A. Make sure the operating cord is secured to the vessel before throwing
B. Turn the valve on the CO2 cylinder to start inflation
C. Open the liferaft casing
D. After inflation, detach operating cord from liferaft
482. You are Sen. Off. Deck / Duty officer onboard one of the vessels involved in a collision. How will you act just after the collision?
A. Make sure your vessel + crew are safe and then offer your assistance to the other vessel
B. Continue the voyage to your destination
C. Call the Company Office
D. Start an argument with the other vessel about fault
483. You are proceeding to a distress site where the survivors are in life rafts. Which of the following actions will assist in making your ship
more visible to survivors?
a. Steering a zigzag course with 5 to 10 minutes on each leg
b. Steering a sinuous course
c. Hoisting all the code flags
d. Making smoke in daylight
484. Which of the following is NOT a treatment for a traumatic shock?
A. keep the patient warm but not hot
B. administer fluids
C. have the injured person lie down
D. massage the arm and legs to restore circulation
485. The major cause of shock in burn victims is the:
A. high level of pain
B. emotional stress
C. increase in body temperature and pulse rate
D. massive loss of fluid through the burned area
486. Seeing that all hands are familiar with their duties, as specified in the station bill, is the responsibility of the:
A. Master
B. Chief Mate
C. Safety Officer
D. Department heads
487. The muster list must be posted in conspicuous locations and signed by the __________.
A. safety officer
B. Coast Guard Officer approving the bill
C. owner
D. Master
488. There exists an unqualified obligation to assist persons in distress, but does the Master have an obligation to assist in towing of a vessel?
A. Master has no obligations to assist in towing of a vessel
B. Master has no obligations to assist in towing of a vessel in distress, but may do so when taken necessary precautions in
coordination with Chief Engineer and Company Claim Manager.
C. Yes, but weather permitting.
D. Only if the vessel in distress can supply the insurance wire.
489. Preparation of muster lists and signing of same is the responsibility of the __________.
A. Chief Officer of the vessel
B. owner of the vessel
C. Master of the vessel
D. United States Coast Guard
A. Means of escape - escape routes
B. The use of all detection equipment
C. The use of all survival equipment
D. Illumination in launching areas
491. What is an oxygen analyzer used for?
A. Measure oxygen contents in the atmosphere
B. Check if the oxygen is contaminated
C. Check if there is explosive atmosphere in the oxygen
D. Measure humidity in the oxygen
492. What is the purpose of explosimeters?
A. Measure the amount of explosive gases in % of LEL
B. Check how much time you have before an explosion
31
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
C. Measure electric charging in the atmosphere
D. Check the power of the explosions in a combustion engine
493. What is the name of the IMO publication giving guidance in Search and Rescue operations?
A. MERSAR
B. AMVER
C. EPIRB
D. RASSO
494. A class "D" fire involves what type of material?
A. Metals
B. Gases
C. Liquids
D. Wood or Other carbonaceous material
495. What should NOT be given to a patient suffering from diarrhea?
A. Milk
B. Grated apple
C. Coca Cola
D. Oatmeal gruel
496. Which oil is not suitable for a use as storm oil?
a. Mineral oil
b. Fish Oil
c. Vegetable oil
d. Animal oil
497. A combination of Red, Blue, Yellow streamers accompanying a package being dropped by SAR aircraft to surface craft survivor means the
content is __________.
A. mixed and various items
B. medical supplies
C. food and water
D. miscellaneous equipment such as stoves, utensils, axes, etc.
498. Referring to the SOLAS convention, how often should a crew member on a cargo ship participate in one abandon ship drill and one fire
drill?
A. Monthly
B. Weekly
C. Every second week
D. This is only required when he joins the ship
499. The EPIRB on board your vessel is required to be tested
A. weekly
B. monthly
C. quarterly
D. yearly
500. Each EPIRB and SART for lifeboats shall be tested:
A. weekly
B. every 2 weeks
C. monthly
D. every 3 months
501. As compared to carbon dioxide, dry chemicals has which advantage?
A. cleaner
B. all of the above
C. compatible with all foams agents
D. more protective against re-flash
502. The abandon ship signal on the ship’s whistle is ____
a. more than 6 short blasts
b. 1 long blast of at least 10 seconds
c. more than 6 short blasts and 1 long blast
d. 6 short blasts and 1 long blast
503. What will be the abandon ship signal?
a. a continuous ringing of general alarm bells for at least 10 seconds
b. a continuous ringing of the general alarm, and sounding of the ship’s whistle
c. more than 6 short blasts and 1 long blast of the ship’s whistle and the same signal on the general alarm bells
d. a continuous sounding of the ship’s whistle
504. To restore breathing of a casualty, where mouth-to-mouth resuscitation is impractical due airway obstruction which of the following
alternative can be undertaken?
A. heart compression
B. mechanical resuscitation
C. artificial respiration
D. mouth-to-nose resuscitation
505. The battery of a SART:
charged condition must be checked once a week
must be re-charged weekly
must be replaced before the expiry date is exceeded
Don't know
506. Which one of the given requirements regarding survival craft muster and embarkation arrangements corresponds to the present SOLAS
regulations?
A. Muster and embarkation stations shall be readily accessible from accommodation and work areas
B. Davit-launched survival craft muster and embarkation stations shall not be arranged to enable stretchers to be placed in survival
craft
C. Muster and embarkation stations are to be arranged separately to improve working conditions
D. Searchlights to be provided at the launching station
507. Each crewmember has an assigned firefighting station. This assignment is shown on the __________.
A. fire fighting plan
B. shipping articles
32
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
C. Certificate of Inspection
D. muster list
508. Fire and abandon ship stations and duties may be found on the __________.
A. crewman's duty list
B. Certificate of Inspection
C. shipping articles
D. muster list
509. You are the Sen. Officer Deck of a vessel involved in a collision. All necessary actions to ensure safety of crew and vessel has been taken.
What shall you then tell the Sen. Off. Deck on the other vessel?
B. Name and Port of registry of your vessel
C. That you are sorry for the collision
D. Check with the pilot, or any witnesses, about their consideration of whom to blame for the collision
E. Don't talk to the Sen.Off.Deck on the Other vessel at all
510. You are Sen.Off.Deck on vessel "A" and your cargo is iron ore. The vessel is in narrow waters. You have been in collision with vessel "B"
and your vessel is taking in water. How will you act to save the vessel and the cargo?
A. Navigate the vessel on ground as soon as possible
B. Try to discharge the incoming water
C. Call tug boats for help
D. Call main office for help
511. This is a bridge instrument which complements SAT-C for short range weather forecasting very valuable especially for coastal and near
coastal voyages.
A. ECHO Sounder
B. SAT-A
C. Barometer
D. Navtex
512. The master or person in charge of a vessel shall insure that line throwing equipment is not operated ______
A. during a rain storm
B. near a lifeboat station
C. in an explosive atmosphere
D. by Other than licensed officers
513. In a smoke filled alleyway were will the cleanest air be found, and how should you proceed out?
A. Near to the deck, crawl out keeping your face as near to the deck as possible
B. It will be the same in all parts, therefore I would just leave as quickly as possible
C. Sit and wait for the rescue party
D. Towards the upper part, stand as tall as possible and walk out.
514. As a general rule, where would you expect to find a portable fire extinguisher in any space?
A. Near to the entrance to the space
B. There is no such standard practice.
C. Near the middle of the space
D. Under a porthole or window
515. Asthma is a distressing condition in which the muscles of the air passage go into spasm. How can the asthma attacks be triggered off?
A. Nervous tension, allergy, or none obvious cause.
B. Not keeping the diet
C. Loud music
D. Too much fresh air activity
516. Which of these should be taken when testing a line throwing gun?
a. wear asbestos gloves
b. fire it about 90 degrees from the horizon
c. never remove the line from the rocket
d. all of these
517. When two fire hose teams are attacking a fire, they should
A. use different fire hose pressure
B. use fire hoses of different sizes
C. not attack the fire from different directions
D. not wear protective clothing
518. A person suffering from possible broken bones and internal injures should
A. Be examined then walked to bunk
B. Not be moved but made comfortable until medical assistance arrive
C. Be assisted in walking around
D. Not be allowed to lie down where injured but moved to a chair
519. You have just abandoned ship and boarded a raft. After the raft is completely inflated you hear a whistling noise coming from a safety
valve. You should __________.
A. not become alarmed unless it continues for a long period of time
B. plug the safety valve
C. unscrew the deflation plugs
D. remove the safety valve and replace it with a soft patch
520. You hear air escaping from the liferaft just after it has inflated. You should __________.
A. quickly hunt for the hole before the raft deflates
B. check the sea anchor line attachment for a tear if the seas are rough
C. check the painter line attachment for a tear caused by the initial opening
D. not panic since the safety valves allow excess pressure to escape
521. Individual garments for protection against hypothermia should:
A. not sustain burning or melting when enveloped in a fire for a period of 2 seconds
B. always be worn during abandonment
C. not be damaged when wearer is climbing up and down stairs of 5 meters high
D. all of these
522. How much water would you allow per person as officer in charge of the lifeboat, following an abandon ship operation?
A. Nothing for the first 24 hours, then 1/2 litre per day (more in the tropics)
B. 1/2 litre immediately, followed by 1/4 litre per day (more in the tropics)
C. Nothing for the first 48 hours, then 1/4 litre per day (more in the tropics)
D. Nothing for the first 24 hours, then 1/4 litre per day (more in the tropics)
33
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
523. Tank top in engine room has a high quantity of oil residues floating around. When discovered, what action should be taken?
A. Notify Ch.Eng., find cause of leakage, remedy the leakage and then immediately start cleaning of the tank top.
B. Apply foam to the tank top to minimize the risk of fire.
C. Start the fire pump.
D. Open the overboard valve and start the bilge pump.
524. If you have to carry out hot work close to a smoke detector in the engine room, what precautions should be taken?
A. Notify Master, Deck officer and engineer in charge. The loop for this special sensor to be switched off and take
normal precautions for hot work
B. No special precautions except for having a watch man and a fire extinguisher available
C. Notify deck officer in charge that a fire alarm may occur
D. Disconnect the smoke detector
525. What should be carried out before entering the pump room?
A. Notify the Chief Officer or officer on duty and run the ventilation for at least 15 minutes
B. Notify the Chief Officer or officer on duty
C. Run the ventilation for at least 15 minutes
D. Always carry a walkie talkie with you into the pump room and call for help immediately if you start feeling dizzy
526. Portable foam type fire extinguishers are most effective on:
A. mattress fires
B. oil fires
C. wood fires
D. All of the above
527. To soften earwax when it causes deafness, an equivalent to arachis oil is:
A. oil of cloves
B. olive oil
C. salicylate liniment
D. glycerine oil
528. Which one of the listed requirements regarding abandon ship and fire drills do not correspond to present regulations?
A. On all short international voyages, muster of passengers shall take place as soon as possible after departure
B. A training manual shall be provided in each crew messroom and recreation room or in each crew cabin
C. Each member of the crew shall participate in at least one abandon ship drill and one fire drill every month
D. On all international voyages, except short voyages, muster of passengers shall take place within 24 hours after embarkation
529. Distress signals must be stowed
A. on the lifeboat
B. near the embarkation deck
C. on or near the navigating bridge
D. in accessible areas
530. What is the vessel that has the local command in a rescue operation called?
A. On Scene Commander
B. Local Rescue Commander
C. Commander of Rescue Operation
D. Commander of Operation
531. Responsible for on-scene coordination during search and rescue operations is:
A. On Scene Commander
B. Search and Rescue Coordinator
C. Rescue Commander Communications
D. Don't know
532. Which one of the listed requirements regarding abandon ship drills do not correspond to present regulations? (SOLAS III/18.3.5 - 18.3.7)
A. on ships on short international voyages, each lifeboat shall be launched and maneuvered in the water at least every
six months
B. Different lifeboats shall, as far as practicable, be lowered at successive drills
C. Drills shall, as far as practicable, be conducted as there were an actual emergency
D. Each lifeboat shall be launched with its assigned crew, and maneuvered in the water at least once every three months
during an abandon ship drill
533. When using a hand held smoke signal from a lifeboat, you should activate the signal:
A. on the downwind side
B. on the upwind side
C. inside the boat
D. at the stern
534. Where on board would you find out which fire sections are enclosed by "A" or "B" class divisions?
A. On the fire control plan
B. On the general arrangement plan
C. On the capacity plan
D. In the stability book
535. One has to check the SART-unit:
A. on the mechanism which automatically releases the SART during the sinking of the vessel
B. on the date of replacing the battery
C. on the proper functioning of the recharger and the charge-conditions of the battery
D. Don't know
536. The signal for fire alarm must be indicated:
a. near all exits c. at each alarm actuator
b. at each alarm bell d. on the station bill
537. The compulsory testing of a prescribed EPIRB is to be done:
A. once a week
B. once a month
C. once a year
D. Don't know
538. The compulsory testing of a prescribed SART is to be done:
A. once a week
B. once a month
C. once a year
D. Don't know
34
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
539. How often shall crew members participate in fire drills?
A. Once every month
B. Once every week
C. Once every 6 months
D. Once every year
540. How often shall each member of the crew participate in an "abandon ship"-drill?
A. Once every month
B. Once every week
C. Once every 6 months
D. Once a year
541. All self-propelled vessels on an international voyage must be equipped with how many EPIRB?
A. One approved Category I EPIRB
B. Three approved Category II EPIRBs
C. Four approved Category II EPIRBs
D. Two approved Category I EPIRB
542. What is the correct location of portable fire fighting equipment during loading/discharging operations?
A. One fire hose forward and aft of the manifold, and portable fire extinguisher near to ships manifold?
B. One fire hose and one powder extinguisher forward of the manifold area?
C. On the forecastle and poop deck?
D. Not necessary to locate portable fire fighting equipment near to the manifold?
543. How many 'thermal protective aids' are required to be carried on vessels with open lifeboats?
A. One for each person on board who is not provided with an immersion suit
B. Each lifeboat should carry the same number of thermal protective aids as the number of persons it is designed to carry
C. They are not required, providing the boat has a canvas canopy which can be rigged in cold weather
D. 10 in each lifeboat
544. How many 'thermal protective aids' are required to be carried on vessels with open lifeboats?
A. One for each person on board who is not provided with an immersion suit
B. Each lifeboat should carry the same number of thermal protective aids as the number of persons it is designed to carry
C. They are not required, providing the boat has a canvas canopy which can be rigged in cold weather
D. 10 in each lifeboat
545. All entries in the official logbook must be signed by the master and:
A. the person about whom the entry concerns
B. one other crew member
C. the Chief Eng’r.
D. another signature is required
546. Which of the signals listed is required to be displayed at night while bunkering at a dock?
A. One red light
B. Two red lights
C. One red light over a yellow light
D. One red light over a white light
547. The signal for lowering the ship’s lifeboat is sounded on the ship’s whistle as:
a. three short blasts c. one short blast
b. two short blast d. one long blast
548. For how long is the health certificate valid for a seafarer in foreign trade?
A. One year
B. Two years
C. No time limit
D. Three months
549. Testing a SART is permitted:
A. only in a port or harbour
B. only at sea, outside territorial waters
C. at sea, outside territorial waters, and in a port or harbour
D. Don't know
550. A Cospas-Sarsat EPIRB can be used in:
A. only in the sea-areas A1, A2 and A3
B. only in the sea-areas A2 and A3
C. all sea-areas (A1 to A4)
D. Don't know
551. Which one of the listed requirements regarding the launching and recovery arrangements for survival crafts do not correspond to present
regulations? (SOLAS III/15)
A. Only one type of launching and recovery arrangements shall be used for similar survival crafts onboard the ship
B. each lifeboat shall be provided with an appliance which is capable of launching and recovering the lifeboat
C. Launching and recovery arrangements shall be such that the operator can observe the survival craft during launching and, for
lifeboats, during recovery
D. Means shall be available to prevent any discharge of water on to survival crafts during abandonment
552. The authority to order to use of distress signals or distress alerts is:
A. only with the master
B. the person designated to maintain communication during distress situations
C. the first person to discover the distress situation
D. Don't know
553. It is the commander of a rescue unit designated to coordinate SAR operations within a specified search area.
a. Rescue unit (RU)
b. Rescue co-ordination center (RCC)
c. Rescue sub-center (RSC)
d. On-scene commander (OSC)
554. Overhauling a fire in the living quarters on a vessel must include __________.
A. opening dead space to check for heat or fire
B. evacuation of the vessel
C. sounding the "all clear" signal
D. operation of the emergency generator
35
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
555. A smoke signal giving off __________ smoke, indicating vessel in distress and in need of assistance.
A. blue smoke
B. black smoke
C. orange colored smoke
D. red smoke
556. Which of the following visual distress signals is acceptable for daylight use only?
a. Orange smoke signal c. Self-contained rocket propelled parachute red flare
b. Handheld red flare d. Red aerial pyrotechnic flare
557. You have abandoned ship in a liferaft. Which of the following actions should you take?
A. Organize a lookout system and join up with other survival craft if possible. You should also stream the sea anchor
B. Organize a lookout system
C. Start paddling in the direction of the nearest land
D. Join up with any Other survival craft and stream the sea anchor
558. Where may as a general rule pressure containers for gas fire-extinguishing medium be kept? (SOLAS II-2/5.1.10)
A. Outside the space which is to be protected
B. In the space which is to be protected
C. Above bulkhead deck
D. In cold storages
559. At what body temperature can be dangerous to the survival of a patient and which needs careful management and nursing
A. over 40 degree C
B. 39 to 40 degree C
C. 38 to 39 degree C
D. 37 to 38 degree C
560. Combustible gas indicators operate by drawing an air sample into the instrument __________.
A. over an electrically heated platinum filament
B. where it is mixed with nitrogen
C. where it is ignited by a sparking device
D. where its specific gravity is measured
561. It is a chemical process in which a substance reacts with oxygen:
A. chemical reaction
B. combustion
C. oxidation
D. evaporation
562. Removing what will extinguish a fire?
A. Oxygen
B. Sodium
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Nitrogen
563. In addition to cargo & machinery spaces which Other spaces if any have to be fitted with an approved fixed fire fighting system on cargo
ships?
A. Paint store
B. Focsle store
C. Rope store
D. No additional fixed systems are required.
564. The operating cord on an inflatable liferaft also serves as a __________.
A. lifeline
B. painter
C. drogue
D. marker
565. The zipper of an immersion suit should be lubricated with ________.
a. vegetable oil c. graphite
b. oil d. Paraffin
566. What would you use to lubricate the zipper of an immersion suit with?
A. candle oil
B. oil
C. Vaseline
D. Paraffin
567. Most covered lifeboats will right themselves after capsizing if the
A. fuel tanks are not less than half-full
B. sea anchor is deployed to windward
C. passengers are strapped to their seats
D. lower ballast tanks are filled with water
568. To soften earwax when it causes deafness, which is not antibiotic?
A. antihistamine
B. penicillin
C. tetracycline
D. streptomycin
569. The Declaration of Inspection made before oil transfer operations must be signed by the __________.
A. Master of the vessel
B. Captain of the Port
C. person(s) in charge
D. All of the above
570. The BEST information on the nature and extent of damage to the vessel is obtained from __________.
A. alarms and monitoring devices
B. the engine room watch
C. personnel at the scene of the damage
D. the bridge watch
571. Which of the following is true about hoisting operations?
A. personnel may work beneath suspended loads, as long as they are alert and wear hardhats
B. if a suspended load with no tag begins to spin, personnel should attempt to stop the spinning if the load is within reach
36
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
C. if tag lines are used to control a suspended load, they should be secured
D. personnel not involved in the hoisting operation should be kept clear of the transfer area
572. A burn may occur when electricity of high current and voltage passes through the body. Most damage occurs at the points of entry and
exit of electricity. What is the treatment of electrical burns?
A. Place sterile dressing over the burn and secure with a bandage
B. Break blisters and secure with bandage
C. Remove loose skin and apply ointment. Don't secure with bandage
D. Apply lotions and ointment to injured area and secure with a bandage
573. If Mouth - to - Mouth (M-T-M) ventilation by itself is unsuccessful and the casualty's heart stops, or has stopped beating, you must perform
External Chest Compression (ECC) in conjunction with M-T-M. When performing ECC, where do you place yo
A. Place the heel of one hand, two finger breadths above the bottom of breastbone. Cover the hand with the heel of the other
hand.
B. Place the heel of your hand on the top of the heart position. Cover the hand with the heel of the other hand.
C. The correct positions of your hands are of no importance.
D. Place the heel of your two hands on the top of the breastbone.
574. Treatment of burns and scalds depends on the severity of the injury. What is the correct thing to do for minor burns and scalds?
A. Place the injured part under slowly running cold water for at least 10 minutes, but preferably until the pain is gone.
If no water is available, use any cold, harmless liquid.
B. Break blisters, remove any loose skin or foreign objects from the injured area.
C. Apply lotions, ointments or fat to the injury.
D. Remove all sticky clothing from the casualty.
575. What is a contingency plan for ships?
A. Plan for safety preparedness
B. Plan for next voyage
C. Loading plan for general cargo
D. Plan for maintenance and repair
576. Universal antidote is used to neutralize a sick person with
A. dog bite
B. poison
C. shock
D. hypothermia
577. The satellite of the Inmarsat-EPIRB system have:
A. geopolar orbits
B. geostationary orbits
C. polar orbits
D. Don't know
578. To whom is the first report rendered in the oil pollution contingency plan of the vessel?
a. port authorities
b. ship agent
c. owners
d. none of the above
579. Where can you find out if you belong to the forward mooring gang or the aft mooring gang?
A. Posted on the notice board on board
B. Being distributed for each port
C. Deck crew forward and engine crew aft
D. Alarm instruction on board
580. When using the rainwater collection tubes on a liferaft, the FIRST collection should be:
A. saved to be used at a later time
B. passed around so all can drink
C. poured overboard because of the salt washed off the canopy
D. used to boil food
581. Which one of the listed fire-extinguishing medium is to be preferred to fight a fire in an electric installation (for example the main
switchboard)?
A. Powder
B. Water fog
C. Sprinkler
D. Foam
582. Fuel oil from a leaking fuel pipe has been collected in a drip tray under the boiler furnace. The oil is suddenly ignited by a backflash from
the boiler burner. The boiler room is manned and the person present has the choice of various extinguishers. The fi
A. Powder
B. CO2
C. Water
D. Any of the mentioned alternatives
583. The Muster List shall show the duties assigned to members of the crew. Which of the following duties shall be included according to
present regulations?
A. Preparation of survival crafts' Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacons (EPIRRB)
B. Preparation of immersion suits for passengers
C. General preparation of life-saving appliances
D. Operation of the vessel's propulsion system
584. Your vessel is damaged and partially flooded. It is listing 12° to port and trimmed 8 feet down by the head. It has a long, slow, sluggish
roll. Which action should you take first?
A. Press up an after slack centerline double bottom tank
B. Pump out the forepeak tank
C. Jettison the anchors and anchors cables
D. Jettison deck cargo from the port side
585. If a person suffers a simple fracture of a limb, you should:
A. prevent further movement of the bone
B. attempt to set the fracture
C. apply a tourniquet without delay
D. alternately apply hot and cold compresses
586. Antiseptics are used principally to __________.
37
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
A. speed healing
B. prevent infection
C. reduce inflammation
D. increase blood circulation
587. The most important reason for taking anti-seasickness pills as soon as possible after entering a life raft is to:
A. assist in sleeping
B. reduce appetite by decreasing nausea
C. prevent loss of body moisture by vomiting
D. prevent impaired judgment due to motion-induced deliriousness
588. The purpose of establishing emergency towing arrangement onboard tankers is to facilitate salvage and towing operations and _____.
A. prevent risk of environmental pollution
B. ensure easier salvage works
C. protect the interests of cargo owners
D. prevent undue delays to ship during engine breakdowns
589. Spreading oil on the open sea has the effect of _________.
A. lengthening the distance between successive crests
B. diminishing the height of the seas
C. prevent the wave crests from breaking
D. increasing the height of the seas
590. A class B fire is most successfully fought by____________.
A. cooling the burning material below its ignition temperature
B. preventing oxygen from reaching the burning material
C. using the extinguishing agent to absorb the heat
D. using the extinguishing agent to make the burning material fire
591. What is the Master's main responsibility when receiving a distress signal from any source?
A. Proceed at highest speed to the distress source position
B. Informing Head Office
C. Proceed to nearest Coastal Radio Station
D. Check if your ship has sufficient bunkers for a rescue operation
592. When the handle of an all-purpose nozzle is pulled all the way back, it will
A. produce high-velocity fog
B. produce low-velocity fog
C. produce a straight stream
D. shut off the water
593. Drinking salt water will _________.
a. protect against heat cramps c. promote urine excretion
b. prevent seasickness d. be safe if mixed with fresh water
594. All electrical appliance aboard vessel should be grounded to
A. prevent then from falling when vessel rolls
B. prevent unauthorized personnel from operating them
C. protect personnel from electrical shock
D. In tag lines are used to control a suspended load, they should b
595. To disengage a survival craft suspended from the cable above the water, you must pull the safety pin and __________.
A. pull the hook release handle
B. pull the hook release handle and use the ratchet bar
C. use the ratchet bar and depress the retainer
D. pull the hook release handle and depress the retainer
596. To inflate a davit-launched life raft, you
A. initially connect the compressed air nozzle to the inflation tide
B. pull the inflation lanyard
C. connect the hand pump to the inflation tube and pump it up
D. connect the helium nozzle to the inflation tube
597. To release the davit cable of a davit launched liferaft, you must:
A. pull on the ratchet handle
B. push the release button
C. pull the hydraulic release
D. pull the release lanyard
598. After you have thrown the life raft and stowage container into the water, you inflate the life raft by:
A. pulling on the painter line
B. forcing open the container which operates the CO2
C. hitting the hydrostatic release
D. using the hand pump provided
599. If it becomes necessary to pump bilges while a vessel is in port, which of the following procedure will you follow?
A. pump only as much as necessary
B. pump only during hours of darkness
C. pump only if discharge is led to tank or storage
D. pump only on the outgoing tide.
600. A person reports to you with a fishhook in his thumb. To remove it you should __________.
A. pull it out with pliers
B. cut the skin from around the hook
C. push the barb through, cut it off, then remove the hook
D. have a surgeon remove it
601. Unfortunately a fish hook has entered someone's finger. The barb of the hook is even inside the skin. How to remove the fish hook?
A. Push the hook through the skin until the barb protrudes, then cut the hook between the barb and the skin and
gently withdraw the hook.
B. Cut the skin so it is possible to take the hook directly out.
C. Remove the hook immediately by pulling it back.
D. Don't do anything by your self, see a doctor.
602. A raft should be manually releated from its cradle by
A. removing the rubber sealing strip from the container
B. pushing the button on the hydrostatic release
38
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
C. loosening the turnbuckle on the securing strap
D. cutting the staps that enclose from container
603. Under normal conditions life raft is released from its cradle by
A. unscrewing the tumbackle on the back of the cradle
B. pushing the plunger on the center of the hydrostatic release
C. lifting one end of the raft
D. cutting the restraining strap
604. Limit switches on gravity davits should be tested by
A. the engineers, from a panel in the engine room
B. shutting off the current to the winch
C. pushing the switch lever arm while the winch is running
D. any of the above
605. What is the first thing you are doing when having a lifeboat drill?
A. Put on the life jacket
B. Wait for order
C. Enter the lifeboat
D. Swing out the davit
606. When muster to a lifeboat drill, what is the first thing you do when entering the muster station?
A. Put on your life jacket
B. Report your presence
C. Wait for orders
D. Wait for the order to put on your life jacket
607. You are in a lifeboat in a heavy sea. Your boat is dead in the water, unable to make way. To prevent broaching to, you should:
A. put out the sea painter
B.take no action
C.put out the sea anchor
D. fill the bottom of the boat with water to make it ride better
608. Upon colliding with another vessel in calm weather, the engines should be stopped. When of the following should not immediately be
done?
A. Inform the crew of the situation.
B. Sound the general alarm.
C. Put the engines astern.
D. Close water light doors.
609. You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward part of your vessel. If practicable, the first thing you should do is to:
a. abandon ship to windward
b. put the vessel's stern into the wind
c. call for assistance
d. keeps going at half speed
610. My ship is infected with infectious disease. What international flag signal will I hoist?
A. Q
B. ZQ
C. QQ
D. QID
611. Sun rays and light reflected from a bright surface (e.g. sea); can cause damage to the skin and eyes. What is this type of burn called?
A. Radiation burns.
B. Electrical burns.
C. Dry burns.
D. Cold burns.
612. Spontaneous combustion is most likely to occur in
A. overloaded electrical circuits
B. rags soaked in oil
C. partially loaded fuel tanks
D. dirty swabs and cleaning gear
613. If you detect a fire on board the ship, dependent on the situation, which of the following actions is the first to be taken?
A. Raise the fire alarm
B. Try to kill the fire immediately by use of fire-extinguishers or other adequate appliance
C. Call the officer on duty
D. Check all nearby compartments for survivors
614. A define advantages of using water as a fire extinguishing agent is its characters?
A. Rapid expansion as water absorbs heat and changes to steam
B. Alternate expansion and contraction as water in liquid state bear
C. Rapid contraction as water is absorbs heat and charge to steam
D. Absorption of smoke and gases as water is converted from liquid
615. Which one of the listed requirements regarding the launching and recovery arrangements for rescue boats corresponds to present SOLAS
regulations?
A. Rapid recovery shall be possible with the boat's full complement of persons and equipment.
B. Embarkation and launching arrangement shall be such that the rescue boat can be boarded and launched in less than 5 minutes.
C. Launching shall be possible at the ship's headway speed up to 5 knots in heavy weather.
D. The release mechanism shall be of an automatic type approved by the flag state Administration.
616. The lifesaving equipment on all vessels shall be:
a. inspected weekly c. readily accessible
b. worn at all times d. tested preservers
617. After using a C02 portable extinguisher, it should be __________.
A. put back in service if some C02 remains
B. hydrostatically tested
C. retagged
D. recharged
618. Which emergency is required to be covered at the required periodic drills on a fishing vessel?
A. Recovering an individual from the water
39
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
B. Steering casualty
C. Emergency towing
D. Loss of propulsion power
619. Which distress signal is required for a liferaft in ocean service and could be effectively used to attract the attention of aircraft at night?
A. the water light
B. smoke marker
C. red flares
D. orange dye marker
620. What maneuver should be carried out in case of a fire onboard a ship?
A. Reduce speed and, if possible, keep the fire zone to the leeward of the ship
B. Keep the stem up against the wind if possible
C. Let the ship follow the wind in order to reduce the oxygen supply
D. Continue on course and speed
621. Frapping lines __________.
A. secure the lifeboat in the davits when in the stowed position
B. bring the lifeboat close alongside the rail in the embarkation position
C. give the occupants a safety line when the boat is being lowered from the embarkation level
D. reduce the swinging of the lifeboat at the embarkation level
622. In plugging submerged holes; rags, wedges, and Other materials should be used in conjunction with plugs to __________.
A. reduce the water pressure on the hull
B. reduce the possibility of stress fractures
C. prevent progressive flooding
D. reduce the water leaking around the plugs
623. Which of the following indications does NOT conform to the signs and symptoms of e excessive loss of blood on a bleeding patient
A. regular pulse
B. shortness of breadth
C. weakness of fainting
D. dilated pupils
624. You are carrying out a search in a smoke filled compartment wearing BA. At what stage should you start to make your way out of the
compartment?
A. Regularly check your pressure gauge and note how much air you used to reach your work area. Start to return
when you have this amount left plus a reasonable reserve.
B. Wait until the BA set warning whistle sounds.
C. 15 minutes after starting to use the set as this leaves you with five minutes air left.
D. Wait for the appropriate signal on your safety line as the personnel outside will be keeping a track of the time you have
spent inside.
625. Which sequence is correct when launching a lifeboat stowed in gravity davits?
A. Release gripes, turn on emergency disconnect switch, release frapping lines
B. Release tricing pendants, turn on emergency disconnect switch, release frapping lines
C. Operate limit switches, release gripes, lift brake
D. Release gripes, lif brake, release tricing pendants
626. What parts of a lifeboat must have red markings?
A. Hatchets
B. Releasing gear
C. Hooks
D. Compass
627. Which of the lifeboat parts must be painted bright red?
a. Releasing gear c. compass
b. Hooks d. whole lifeboat
628. Where a helicopter rescue is to be done from a liferaft, to avoid being overturned by the downdraught from the helicopter, the persons on
board the liferaft shall _____.
a. remain at the center of the raft
b. scattered themselves in the raft
c. remain in the rim of the raft
d. cling to sides of the raft
629. If you are forced to abandon ship in a lifeboat, you should __________.
A. remain in the immediate vicinity
B. head for the nearest land
C. head for the closest sea-lanes
D. vote on what to do, so all hands will have a part in the decision
630. If you have to abandon ship and enter a liferaft, your course of action should be:
A. head for the closest land
B. remain in the vicinity of the sinking ship
C. head for the closest sealanes
D. get a majority opinion
631. When transferring survivors from survival craft to rescue vessel, personnel on board the craft should:
a. Remove their life preservers to make it easier to climb on board the rescue vessel
b. Climb on top of the survival craft while waiting for their turn to transfer to the rescue vessel
c. Remain seated inside the survival craft and make the transfer one person at a time
d. Enter the water and swim over to the rescue vessel
632. When a helicopter is lifting a person from an enclosed lifeboat, the other in the boat should:
A. remain seated inside to provide body weight for stability
B. remove their life jackets to prepare for their transfer to the helicopter
C. stand on the outside to prepare for their transfer to the helicopter
D. enter the water in case the person being lifted slips from the sling
633. If, for any reason, it is necessary to abandon ship while far out at sea, it is important that the crew members should __________.
A. separate from each other as this will increase the chances of being rescued
B. get away from the area because sharks will be attracted to the vessel
C. immediately head for the nearest land
40
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
D. remain together in the area because rescuers will start searching at the vessel's last known position
634. Chemical burns in eyes or on the skin can cause severe damage. Some chemicals may be absorbed through the skin and cause widespread
and sometimes fatal damage within the body. What is the first main treatment if someone is a victim of chemical burns?
A. Remove any contaminated clothing and flood the affected area with slowly running water. Make sure that the
contaminated water drains away freely and safely.
B. Break possible blisters around the eye and mouth.
C. Apply lotions, ointments to the affected area ASAP.
D. The casualty may be free to both rub the eye and the affected area.
635. What is the only reliable way of checking that the CO2 cartridge in a "Dry Powder" extinguisher is full?
A. Remove the cartridge and weigh it as it has the full and empty weights stamped on it.
B. Check if the seal on the extinguisher release handle is intact.
C. Lift the extinguisher to check that it still has powder inside it.
D. All of the alternatives are reliable methods.
636. In order to discharge a CO2 portable fire extinguisher, the operator must FIRST __________.
A. invert the CO2 extinguisher
B. squeeze the two trigger handles together
C. remove the locking pin
D. open the discharge valve
637. How is the painter attached to the lifeboat released once the boat is waterborne and ready to leave?
A. Remove the toggle which will release the painter
B. Cut it with the axe provided
C. Cut it with the knife contained in the equipment locker
D. The painter will automatically part by the weak link when the boat goes astern to clear the ship
638. The spread of fire is prevented by __________.
A. heating surface adjacent to the fire
B. removing combustibles from the endangered area
C. increasing the oxygen supply
D. All of the above
639. The spread of fire is not prevented by:
A. shutting off the oxygen supply
B. cooling surfaces adjacent to the fire
C. removing combustibles from the endangered area
D. removing smoke and toxic gases by ensuring adequate ventilation
640. Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by __________.
A. removing the fuel
B. interrupting the chain reaction
C. removing the oxygen
D. removing the heat
641. In the event of a collision, the master is required to
A. call for a salvage tug
B. back out so that the other vessel can plug the hole
C. stay in place in order to plug the hole on the other vessel
D. render assistance to the other vessel and persons on board
642. If you discover serious technical deficiencies on your vessel, what would you do?
A. Report to and discuss with the Master
B. Take contact with the manager
C. Try to repair it
D. Inform class
643. Mention some important thoughts for what you have to do when you recognize that fire break out onboard.
A. Report to bridge or duty officer, actuate the fire alarm, call the persons around the fire and join the fire squad
B. Report to bridge or duty officer, actuate the fire alarm, organize and commence fighting the fire
C. Commence fighting the fire, call the persons around the fire and join the fire squad
D. Go to the lifeboat start the motor then call the duty officer and commence fight the fire
644. Which one of the listed requirements regarding the stowage of rescue boats do not correspond to present regulations? (SOLAS III/14)
A. Rescue boats shall be stowed attached to launching appliance
B. Rescue boats shall be stowed in a state of continuous readiness for launching in not more than 5 minutes
C. Rescue boats shall be stowed in apposition suitable for launching and recovery
D. Rescue boats shall be stowed so neither the rescue boat nor its launching arrangements will interfere with any survival craft at
any Other launching station
645. What is the centre for overall co-ordination of rescue operations called?
A. Rescue Co-ordination Centre
B. Maritime Rescue Co-ordination Centre
C. Ship Distress Centre
D. Emergency Ship Distress Centre
646. What is the absolutely main purpose with fighting a fire on board?
A. Rescuing of life
B. To put out the fire
C. To limit the fire
D. Try to put out the fire
647. What are the main objects a leader of fire fighting must take consideration of?
A. Rescuing of life, fighting the fire, limitation of the fire and secure the retreat
B. Fighting the fire, communicate with the fire brigade and arrange the lifeboats to evacuate the ship
C. Start the emergency fire pump, fighting the fire, call the local fire brigade, arrange transport to shore
D. Start the fire pump, inform Other ships, call the local fire brigade, arrange transport to shore
648. Aboard damaged vessels, the most important consideration is preserving
A. level attitude
B. instability
C. reserve buoyancy
D. bilge pumping capacity
649. Which danger exists to people when CO2 is discharged into a small enclosed space?
A. Damaged eardrums
41
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
B. Electric shock
C. Frostbite
D. Respiratory arrest
650. A strain occurs when a muscle or group of muscles is over- stretched and possibly torn, by violent or sudden movement.
Strain can be caused by lifting heavy weights incorrectly. The treatment of strain may be remembered as the word RICE.
A. Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation.
B. Right Internal Cooperative Ending.
C. Rest, Injury, Care, Evaluation.
D. Rubber, Internal, Careful, Estimation.
651. You are attempting to administer CPR to a victim. When you blow into his mouth it is apparent that no air is getting into the lungs. What
should you do?
A. Blow harder to force the air past the tongue
B. Raise the victim's head higher than his feet
C. Press on the victim's lungs so that air pressure will blow out any obstruction
D. Re-tip the head and try again
652. While you are working in a space, the fixed CO2 system is accidentally activated. You should
A. secure the applicators to preserve the charge in the cylinders
B. continue with your work as there is nothing you can do to stop the flow of CO2
C. retreat the fresh air and ventilate the compartment before returning
D. make sure all doors and vents are secured
653. When landing a lifeboat through heavy surf with a strong current running parallel to the beach (from right to left when facing from
seaward) the recommended procedure is to ___?
a. approach slow enough so that the boat can be brought around to meet breaking seas on the bow
b. approach while coming to the left to take advantage of the current
c. drop an anchor outside the surf line, then pay out anchor line over the bow while the seas carry the boat toward the beach
d. rig a drogue with tripping line over the bow, back ashore with drogue tripped between breakers
654. If your vessel is broken down and rolling in heavy seas, you can reduce the possibility of capsizing by:
A. moving all personnel forward a
B. rigging a sea anchor
C. moving all personnel aft
D. constantly shifting the rudder
655. During beaching operation, the approach should preferably be made at slow _____________ what angle to the beach?
A. Oblique angle with the port side onshore
B. Oblique angle with the stbd side onshore
C. All of these
D. Right angle
656. If the liferaft capsizes, all personnel should leave the raft and __________.
A. climb onto the bottom
B. swim away from the raft
C. right the raft using the righting strap
D. inflate the righting bag
657. To turn over an inflatable life raft that is upside down, you should pull on the _______________.
A. righting line
B. sea painter
C. manropes
D. canopy
658. At all angles of inclination, the true measure of a vessel's stability is ______.
a. Displacement c. righting moment
b. inclining moment d. metacentric height
659. To turn over an inflatable liferaft that is upside down, you should pull on the __________.
A. canopy
B. manropes
C. sea painter
D. righting strap
660. How many pyrotechnic signals to be in each lifeboat?
A. 4 Rocket parachute flares / 6 hand flares / 2 buoyant smoke signals
B. 10 Rocket parachute flares / 12 hand flares / 5 buoyant smoke signals
C. 8 Rocket parachute flares / 2 hand flares / 6 buoyant smoke signals
D. 6 Rocket parachute flares / 6 hand Flares / 6 buoyant smoke signals
661. A crew member has suffered frostbite to the toes of the right foot. Which is NOT an acceptable first aid measure?
A. Rub the toes briskly
B. Elevate the foot slightly
C. Re-warm rapidly
D. Give aspirin or other medication for pain if necessary
662. The distress message is used when the vessel is threatened by a serious and imminent danger and is in need of immediate assistance. What
is the telegraphy and telephony distress message like?
A. S O S (Telegraphy) / MAYDAY (Telephony)
B. X X X (Telegraphy) / PAN-PAN (Telephony)
C. F F F (Telegraphy) / RESCUE-RESCUE (Telephony)
D. T T T (Telegraphy) / SECURITE (Telephony)
663. What kind of foot wear should be used when working on deck and in the engine room?
A. Safety shoes or safety boots
B. Rubber boots
C. Tennis shoes
D. Sandals or plimsolls
664. Any act or activity undertaken to assist a vessel or any property in danger in any navigable water is considered as ________.
A. Salvage operations
B. emergency assistance
C. rescue operations
42
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
D. distress assistance
665. Any act or activity undertaken to assist a vessel or any property in danger in any navigable water is considered as ________.
A. Salvage operations
B. emergency assistance
C. rescue operations
D. distress assistance
666. A device fitted over the discharge opening on a relief valve consisting of one or two woven wire fabrics called a flame __________.
A. filler
B. stooper
C. screen
D. restrictor
667. Your vessels have been in collision and you are not sure if your vessel is sinking or not. How will you handle this situation?
A. Search for missing persons. Continue to monitor situation and prepare for abandonment in case it become necessary
B. Wait and see how the situation is developing
C. Leave the vessel and stay not closer than 5 nautical miles
D. Make sure that the life boat has as much bunker as possible and make you course for nearest land
668. You have abandoned your vessel. You are in a liferaft and have cleared away from your vessel. One of your first actions should be to:
A. take measures to maintain morale
B. prepare and use radio equipment
C. identify the person in charge of liferaft
D. search for survivors
669. What is the procedure for use of the main engine room fire extinguishing system, e.g. Halon or CO2 system?
A. Search the engine room, make sure all personnel is out. -Stop ventilation. -Close for all air access. -Upon approval of
the Master, release the halon/CO2.
B. Search the engine room, make sure all personnel is out. -Stop ventilation. -Close for all air access. -Release the Halon/CO2.
C. Release the Halon/CO2 as soon as possible without pre warning.
D. Release the Halon/CO2 upon the order of the engineer on duty.
670. Which one of the given requirements regarding survival craft muster and embarkation arrangements do not correspond with present
A. Searchlight to be provided at the launching station
B. Davit-launched survival craft muster and embarkation stations shall be arranged to enable stretchers to be placed in survival
craft
C. Muster and embarkation stations shall be readily accessible from accommodation and work areas
D. Where necessary, men shall be provided for holding the davit-launched craft against the shipside for embarkation
671. When a ship is abandoned and there are several rafts in the water, one of the best things is be done is_________.
A. separate the rafts as much as possible to increase detection
B. transfer all the injured in one raft
C. secure the rafts together to keep them from drifting apart
D. transfer all supplies to one4 raft
672. If heavy smoke is coming from the paint locker, the FIRST firefighting response should be to __________.
A. release the CO2 flooding system
B. open the door to evaluate the extent of the fire
C. enter and use a portable extinguisher
D. secure the ventilation
673. How should the lifeboat sea painter be rigged?
A. Spliced into the ring on the stem post
B. Secured by a toggle around the outboard side of a forward thwart
C. Secured by a toggle to the stem post and led outboard of the falls
D. Secured to the inboard side of the forward thwart and led inboard of the falls
674. How should the painter of a liferaft which is fitted with a hydrostatic release be secured to the ship?
A. Secured via a weak link to a secure part of the ship
B. Directly to a secure point on the ship
C. Secured to the part of the hydrostatic release that is designed to break free
D. It should not be secured in any way
675. How are lifelines attached to a life float?
A. By serving
B. By splicing one end of the line around the apparatus
C. Securely attached around the outside in bights no longer than three feet
D. With an approved safety hook or shackle
676. What is minimum equipment needed for entering a tank or void space that is not gas free or does not contain sufficient oxygen?
A. Self contained breathing apparatus in addition to normal safety equipment
B. Spark proof torch
C. Coverall and safety shoes
D. Good quality face mask and a safety line
677. Size III, IV, and V extinguishers are considered __________.
A. hand portable
B. all purpose
C. fixed extinguishers
D. semi-portable
678. Your vessels have been in collision with an other vessel. You are taking in water and you have to prepare for leaving the vessel. How will
you act?
A. Send a distress message and collect survival suits / thermal bags
B. Collect your own personal belongings
C. Assist your friends to collect their personal belongings
D. Just jump over board and be ready
43
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
679. At night while the ship is tied up to the dock, a fire breaks out in a cargo hatch. After sounding the alarm, what should the person on watch
do?
a. Begin fighting the fire immediately
b. Send a person to summon the shore authorities
c. Await further orders from the Master
d.Let go the lines to let the vessel drift to an anchorage
680. What alarm signal is to be sounded by the alarm bells in case of fire onboard ships?
A. Series of short blasts
B. One long blast followed by seven short blasts
C. Series of long blasts
D. Continuous signal
681. The operator of an uninspected vessel MUST assist people affected by an accident if he or she can do so without __________.
A. serious danger to his or her own vessel
B. further damaging the Other vessel
C. undue delay
D. creating a panic on either vessel
682. Your vessel has gone a ground in waters where the tide is falling. The best action you can take is to
A. set out a kedge anchor
B. shift the vessel's load aft and repeatedly surge the engine(s) in reversed
C. shift the vessel's load forward and wait until the next high tide
D. slowly bring the engine(s) to full speed reverse
683. What is the general emergency alarm signal as specified in SOLAS?
A. Seven or more short blasts followed by one long blast
B. Six or more short blasts followed by one long blast
C. One long blast followed by six short blasts
D. Continuous ringing of the alarm bells
684. What is the general emergency alarm signal to be sounded by the ship's whistle and alarm bells in case of an emergency situation?
A. Seven short blasts followed by one prolonged blast
B. Continuous sounding by whistle and alarm bells
C. Series of short blasts
D. Series of long blasts
685. Which of the listed requirements for cargo ships regarding personal life-saving appliance does not correspond to present regulations?
A. Ships fitted with free-fall life-boats may carry thermal protective aids instead of immersion suits
B. Ships with a length of 100 metros or less shall carry minimum 8 lifebuoys
C. Self-igniting lights for lifebuoys required on tankers shall be of an electric battery type
D. Cargo ships of less than 85 metros in length shall, as a general rule, carry immersion suits for every person onboard
686. During helicopter winching operations over the deck of a vessel needing assistance the high handler should be equipped with electricians
and rubber soled shoes to avoid _____________.
A. being grounded by helicopter currents
B. injury caused by the heat from helicopter engines
C. injury caused by the winch lines
D. shock from static discharge
687. Most fire and explosions occur in fuel tank:
A. during fueling when the fuel first strikes the tank bottom
B. during fueling when the fuel strikes fuel already in the tank
C. when underway as the fuel is moves by wave action
D. shortly after fueling when fuel vapors gather
688. A liferaft which has inflated bottom-up on the water __________.
A. should be righted by standing on the carbon dioxide cylinder, holding the righting straps, and leaning backwards
B. should be righted by standing on the life line, holding the righting straps, and leaning backwards
C. will right itself when the canopy tubes inflate
D. must be cleared of the buoyant equipment before it will right itself
689. You are on watch at sea at night and a fire breaks out in #3 hold. What should be done IMMEDIATELY?
A. Shut down the cargo hold ventilation
B. Proceed to the space and determine the extent of the fire
C. Flood the space with C02 from the fixed fire fighting system
D. Cool the deck to contain the fire
690. If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution hazard during fuel transfer operations which action should you take
FIRST?
A. Close the valves at the manifold
B. Notify the person in charge of the shore facility
C. Shut down the operation
D. Sound the general alarm
691. A fuel line breaks sprays fuel on the hot exhaust manifold, and catches fire. You should first _______________.
A. shut off the fuel supply
B. batten down the engine room
C. apply carbon dioxide to the fire
D. start the fire pump
692. When possible, what should be the first step in combating a fire on deck during oil transfer?
A. Prevent the spread of fire with a foam dam
B. Blanket the cargo spill with foam
C. Shut off the transfer of cargo
D. Apply CO2 on burning fuel at its source
693. In the first 24 hours after abandoning a vessel, water should be given only to who are:
a. sick or injured c. awake
b. thirsty d. weak
694. Which position is the best to stop bleeding from the nose?
A. Sitting on a chair, leaning forward, with two fingers pressing the nose together
B. Laying on the back, holding a wet, cold towel on the top of the nose
C. Laying on the back, leaning the head as much back as possible
44
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
D. Holding the nose above steamed water
695. Which of the following signals us used for boat stations or boat drill?
a. one long blast followed by three short blasts of the whistle
b. a continuous blast of the whistle for a period of not less than 10 seconds
c. one long blast of the whistle for a period of not less than 10 seconds
d. six or more short blasts followed by one long blast
696. When a sea anchor is used in landing in a heavy surf, headway is checked by __________.
a. slacking the tripping line and towing the mouth forward by the holding line
b. slacking the tripping line and towing the apex end forward
c. towing with the tripping line and the holding line slack
d.towing the apex end forward with the tripping line
697. You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the signal flag "A" hoisted. What should you do?
A. give the vessel a wide berth as she is carrying dangerous goods
B. attempt to call the vessel on VHF
C. stop your vessel instantly
D. slow your vessel and keep well clear because she has a diver down
698. CO2 extinguishes a fire by __________________.
A. cooling
B. chemical action
C. All of the above
D. smothering
699. The action of preventing the uniting of gases in a class B fire is called:
A. starving
B. smothering
C. cooling
D. oxygen dilution
700. Which one of the listed requirements regarding the stowage of rescue boats corresponds to present SOLAS regulations? Rescue boats shall
be stowed:
A. So neither the rescue boat nor its launching arrangements will interfere with any survival craft at any other launching
station.
B. In a state of readiness for launching in not more than two minutes.
C. Attached to launching appliances.
D. Wherever space is available.
701. The Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon on a cargo vessel must be stowed:
a. in an inside passageway
b. in an approval bracket
c. so that it is accessible from the bridge of the vessel
d. so that it will float free if the vessel sinks
702. Why should passageway fires be fought from one end only?
A. So that the extinguishing water can be trapped at the end of the passageway
B. This action will cause the passageway to become slippery and difficult for fire fighters to stand
C. It is impossible for the fire main to handle two fully pressurized hoses
D. So that one hose team does not push the flames heat and smoke directly at the other hose team
703. You are on night time duty as navigating officer on a ship under way, when a fire in the crew's accommodation is reported. What is the first
action you would take?
A. Sound the fire alarm signal
B. Call the Captain
C. Send the seaman on watch down to inspect and report the situation
D. Run to the scene as fast as possible and start fighting the fire by all available means
704. If a fire starts on your vessel while refueling you should first:
a. stop refueling
b. sound the general alarm
c. determine the source of the fire
d. attempt to extinguish the fire
705. After grounding, the extent of the damage to the vessel can determined by
A. testing if the engine is still working
B. checking if the engine room of flooded
C. taking sounding around the vessels
D. sounding of all compartments
706. The total available supply of CO2 for use in a fixed extinguishing system of a cargo vessel shall be at least sufficient for_________.
A. Engine room and largest cargo space
B. All cargo-space
C. Space requiring largest amount
D. All the space of the vessel
707. Fixed CO2 systems would not be used on crew’s quarters or:
A. the paint locker
B. spaces open to the atmosphere
C. cargo holds
D. the engine room
708. What characteristics is an advantage of the self contained demand type breathing apparatus as compared to the canister type breathing
apparatus?
A. longer wearing time
B. less awkward and bulky to wear
C. weigh less
D. speed of donning
709. Chemical action within a substance may cause ________.
A. spontaneous combustion
B. oxidation
C. explosion
D. deterioration of the substance
45
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
710. Abdominal Thrust is the name on a technique which involves applying a series of thrusts to the upper abdomen in an attempt to force air
out of a choking casualty's lungs. How to perform this technique?
A. Stand behind the casualty. Clench your fist with the tumb inwards in the center of upper abdomen. Grasp your fist with
your Other hand and pull quickly inwards.
B. Remove the obstruction and restore normal breathing.
C. Let the casualty grab a list and hang up right down for a period of minimum 5 minutes.
D. Lay casualty on a hard surface, e.g. deck, and press firmly and rapidly on the middle of the lower half of the breast bone.
711. Under the Merchant Shipping Act, the Master or person in charge of vessel involved in a collision shall, provided there is no danger to this
ship, crew and passengers, render to the Other vessel all possible assistance to save the ship and her comple
A. admit that he is liable for the collision
B. stand-by until such assistance is no longer necessary
C. blame the Other immediately for the collision
D. leave immediately after his vessel is clear from the vessel
712. If an inflatable liferaft is overturned, it may be righted by __________.
A. filling the stabilizers on one side with water
B. releasing the CO2 cylinder
C. pushing up from under one end
D. standing on the inflating cylinder and pulling on the straps on the underside of the raft
713. To prevent oil from escaping into the sea when ballasting through the cargo piping system, you should FIRST:
A. start the cargo pump, then open sea suction valves
B. open block valves, then start the cargo pump
C. open sluice valves, then start the cargo pump
D. open sea suction valves, then start the suction valves
714. In case a fire alarm is sounded from the bridge, what action would you take as Engineer on Duty?
A. Start the fire pump
B. Report to the muster station
C. Stop the engines
D. Contact the bridge by telephone and ask for instructions
715. Which of the following items do not necessarily have to be included in an abandon ship drill? (SOLAS III/18.3.4)
A. Starting and operating radio life-saving appliance
B. Starting and operating lifeboat engines
C. Checking that passenger and crew are suitably dressed
D. Checking that lifejackets are correctly donned
716. The MOST important element in administering CPR is __________.
A. having the proper equipment for the process
B. starting the treatment quickly
C. administering of oxygen
D. treating for traumatic shock
717. The ship must immediately report any accidental discharge of oil to the _______
A. state where the incident happened
B. InternationalG authorities
C. flag state of the vessel
D. pollution clean-up contractors
718. Boat stations and duty assignments may be found in the
A. station bill
B. mustering station
C. individual billing card
D. job description card
719. If the bow has penetrated the side of the other ship in a collision, it would be safe to
A. render assistance to the other vessel and persons on board
B. stay in place in order to plug the hole on the other vessel
C. back out so that the other vessel can plug the hole
D. call for a salvage tug
720. After abandoning ship, you should deploy the sea anchor from a liferaft to __________.
A. keep the liferaft from capsizing
B. navigate against the current
C. keep personnel from getting seasick
D. stay in the general location
721. You should deploy the sea anchor from the liferaft to:
A. keep the liferaft from capsizing
B. navigate against the current
C. keep personnel from getting seasick
D. stay in the general location
722. After launching the motor lifeboat when abandoning ship you should____
A. immediately steer away from the sinking ship
B. stand by on the side of the vessel
C. stay in the immediate area
D. wait for the survivors
723. When abandoning ship, after launching the motor lifeboat you should ______.
a. head for the closest area c. plot the course for the nearest land
b. stay in the immediate area d. vote on what to do
724. In fighting LPG fires, which of the following is most appropriate?
A. Stop flow of gas to the fire
B. Prevent re-ignition of the gas
C. Communicate with port authorities
D. Raise the alarm and muster fire party
725. First aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds is to __________.
A. lay the patient down and cover the wound when the bleeding stops
B. stop the bleeding, clean, medicate, and cover the wound
C. apply an ice pack to the wound and cover it when the bleeding stops
46
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
D. apply a hot towel to purge the wound, then medicate and cover it
726. On a small boat, if someone fell overboard and you did not know over which side the person fell, you should __________.
A. immediately reverse the engines
B. stop the propellers from turning and throw a ring buoy over the side
C. increase speed to full to get the vessel away from the person
D. first put the rudder hard over in either direction
727. A fire of escaping liquefied flammable gas is best extinguished by:
A. cooling the gas below the ignition point
B. cutting off the supply of oxygen
C. stopping the flow of gas
D. interrupting the chain reaction
728. Safety is dependent on orderliness. Order may be maintained by ________.
a. storing all items in an assigned place
b. storing all items in a common storage container except those ready-for-sea
c. tagging all items according to their use
d. disposing of worn out items
729. An accidental grounding is called
A. breaching
B. stranding
C. grounding
D. all of these
730. What shall be done to assist a survival craft in keeping alongside own vessel?
A. Stretch a painter from fore to aft.
B. Keep vessel underway.
C. Keep vessel stopped.
D. Use a winch.
731. Which one of the listed requirements regarding self-righting partially enclosed lifeboats do not correspond to present regulations? Self-
righting partially closed lifeboats shall have:
A. sufficient number of pumps and bailers
B. permanently attached foldable canopy over open parts
C. safety belts fitted at each indicated seating position
D. stability for inherently or automatically self-righting with full or partial complement
732. What shall a rescue person use if he has to jump into the water in order to assist a survivor?
A. Survival suit and lifeline
B. Lifejacket
C. Lifeline
D. Survival suit
733. Lookouts should be posted aboard life rafts immediately after abandoning the ship to look for ______
A. any floating lifejackets
B. life saving appliance
C. debris floating
D. survivors in the water
734. What is a practical way of rigging a jury rudder?
A. suspend drags from derricks swung over the side
B. using the steering oar from the lifeboat
C. constructing a temporary rudder in place of the lost rudder
D. towing the sea anchor at the stern
735. When attempting to enter a compartment containing fire, which methods of applying water a most appropriate?
A. Solid stream directed toward the overhead
B. Sweeping the compartment with a fog stream
C. Straight stream directed into the center of the fire
D. High-velocity fog stream directed toward the overhead
736. You are in the process of righting an inflatable liferaft that has inflated in an upside down position. Which statement is TRUE?
A. As the raft flips to the upright position, you will be thrown clear
B. After the raft is in the upright position on top of you, dive down to prevent your life preservers from fouling as you come out
C. Swim out from under the raft in a face up position to keep your life preservers clear of the raft
D. You should remove your life preservers before attempting to right an inflatable raft
737. While steering by autopilot you notice that the vessel has deviated 15 degrees from course and there is no corrective rudder being applied.
As a standard operating procedure you should first __________.
A. check the setting of the rudder adjustment
B. check the setting of the weather adjustment
C. switch to hand steering
D. immediately engage the trick wheel
738. Your ship is steaming at night with the gyro-pilot engaged when you notice that the vessel's course is slowly changing to the right. What
action should you take FIRST?
A. switch to hand steering
B. shift steering to the emergency steering station
C. call the Master
D. notify the engine room
739. Your ship is sinking rapidly. A container containing an inflatable liferaft has bobbed to the surface upon functioning of the hydrostatic
release. Which action should you take?
A. Cut the painter line so it will not pull the liferaft container down
B. Swim away from the container so you will not be in danger as it goes down
C. Take no action because the painter will cause the liferaft to inflate and open the container
D. Manually open the container and inflate the liferaft with the hand pump
740. Your vessel is a laden tanker. The vessel is colliding with another tanker and the vessels are interlocked. Which action/judgment should
first of all be taken?
A. Take separation of the two vessels into an immediate consideration, but consider that a separation may create a
larger oil spill
B. Separate the two vessels immediately
C. Reduce cargo content by dropping into empty/slack tank
47
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
D. Shut down non - essential air intakes
741. It is the responsibility of the Master to ensure that __________.
A. the muster list is posted in each compartment
B. temporary personnel and visitors are advised of emergency stations
C. names of crew members are listed on the muster list
D. no changes are made to the muster list
742. The Class A EPIRB transmits a signal _______________.
A. that activates an alarm on board nearby aircraft
B. to alert shore stations and then transmits a homing signal
C. that can be picked up by SARSAT satellite
D. that follows the curvature of the earth
743. What is most important when preparing for emergencies?
A. That people are well trained
B. That people know where to find designated equipment
C. That people know where to muster
D. That people listen to orders given
744. What is most important when preparing for emergencies?
A. That people are well trained
B. That people know where to find designated equipment
C. That people know where to muster
D. That people listen to orders given
745. A person referring to the stern sheets of a life boat is speaking of ________________.
A. the aftermost seating
B. a canvas awning
C. the line attached to the tack of the lug sad
D. the emergency rudder
746. An oxygen indicator will detect _______.
a. the amount of oxygen in space
b. concentrations of explosive gas
c. the presence of harmful amounts of carbon monoxide
d. all of these
747. Who is the leader of the lifeboat drill (abandon ship drill)?
A. The appointed lifeboat commander
B. Sen.Off.Deck
C. Sen.Off.Engine
D. The first member of the crew arriving at the survival craft
748. In order for automatic lifeboat drain to operate properly:
A. there is an automatic ball check in a siphon tube
B. the cap should be removed to drain the boat when it is waterborne
C. the cage must be free of rubbish or the ball may not seat properly
D. the small lever to release the rubber ball float must be turned counterclockwise
749. When a fire breaks out in the engine room, who is in charge of the fire fighting operations?
A. The Chief Engineer
B. The Captain
C. The engineer on duty
D. The first person to arrive at the scene
750. When a fire breaks out in the accommodation, cargo holds or on deck, who is in charge of the fire fighting operations?
A. The Chief Officer
B. The Captain
C. The officer on duty
D. The first person arriving at the scene
751. Portable CO2 fire extinguishers should not be used to inert a space containing flammable liquids due to the danger of:
A. the CO2 being inhaled by personnel
B. re-flash of burning liquids
C. vapor condensation on the extinguisher
D. the discharge causing a static spark
752. A dry chemical fire extinguisher is not as desirable as CO2 for fighting a class C fire because ____________.
A. the dry chemical is a conductor
B. CO2 will not dissipate in air
C. it takes smaller amount of CO2 to cover the same area
D. the dry chemical leaves a residue
753. Which one of the listed requirements regarding lifeboat propulsion do not correspond to present regulations?
A. The engine shall be provided with an electric power starting system with rechargeable energy batteries
B. Every lifeboat shall be powered by a compression ignition engine using fuel with a flamepoint of not less than 44°C
C. Means shall be provided for recharging all engine-starting, radio and searchlight batteries
D. Water resistant instruction for starting and operating the engine shall be provided
754. Blocking open or removing fire dampers can cause __________.
A. the fire to spread through the ventilation system
B. fixed foam systems to be ineffective
C. faster cooling of the fire
D. the accumulation of explosive gases
755. The blocking or absence of fire dampers can cause:
A. The accumulation of explosive gases
B. Faster cooling of the fire
C. The fire to spread through the ventilation system
D. Fixed foam systems to be ineffective
756. In the event of fire in a machinery space _____.
A. the fixed carbon dioxide system should be used only when all other means of extinguishment have failed
B. the fixed carbon dioxide system should be used immediately, as it is the most efficient means of extinguishments
C. water in any form should not be used as it will spread the fire
D. the space should be opened 5 minutes after flooding CO2 to prevent injury to personnel
48
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
757. In the event of fire in a machinery space, ______?
a. the fixed carbon dioxide system should only be used only when all other means of extinguishment have failed
b. The fixed carbon dioxide system should be used immediately, as it is most efficient means of extinguishments
c. Water in any form should not be used as it will spread the fire
d. The space should be opened 5 minutes after flooding CO2 to prevent injury to personnel
758. When entering a compartment which is on fire:

A. the flames should be beaten back from the door with water
B. a straight stream of water should be used to cool the door
C. you must wear rubber gloves
D. a straight stream of water should be used to cool the fire fighters
759. If circumstances permit, how should low expansion foam be applied to oil burning in the bulkhead of the engine room?
A. The foam should be aimed at the bulkhead behind the fire and allowed to spread out slowly over the fire.
B. The applicator should be used in a sweeping motion to spread the foam over the surface.
C. The foam should be applied to the centre of the fire.
D. The foam should be aimed at about 45 degrees upwards so that it can drop onto the fire
760. Fusible-link fire dampers are operated by ___________.
A. a mechanical arm outside the vent duct
B. electrical controls on the bridge
C. the heat of a fire melting the link
D. a break glass and pull cable system
761. You must evacuate a seaman by helicopter lift. Which statement is TRUE?
A. The ship should be stopped with the wind off the beam while the helicopter is hovering overhead.
B. The basket or stretcher must not be allowed to touch the deck.
C. The tending line of the litter basket should be secured to the ship beyond the radius of the helicopter blades.
D. The hoist line should be slack before the basket or stretcher is hooked on.
762. Which statement about immersion suits is true?
A. all models will automatically turn an unconscious person face-up in the water
B. the immersion suit reduces the rate of body cooling and increase the survival time in cold water to hours or days
C. the suit is flameproof and provides protection to a wearer swimming in burning oil
D. The suit provides a full range of body movement and is suitable for routine wear on deck
763. Which of the following statements is/are FALSE in regard to Ro-Ro vessels' spaces that are "specially suitable for vehicles"?
A. The spaces shall be fitted with an approved fire or smoke detecting system
B. The spaces shall be fitted with an approved fixed fire extinguishing system
C. The installation of a water sprinkler extinguishing system is prohibited
D. All of the above
A. The spaces shall be fitted with an approved fire or smoke detecting system
B. The spaces shall be fitted with an approved fixed fire extinguishing system
C. The installation of a water sprinkler extinguishing system is prohibited
D. All of the above
765. When giving the first aid, you should understand how to conduct primary and secondary surveys and know:
A. which medication to prescribe
B. how to diagnose an illness from symptoms
C. the limit of your capabilities
D. how to set broken bones
766. When evacuating a seaman by helicopter lift, which statement is TRUE?
A. Evacuation should be from an area forward of the bridge
B. The vessel should be slowed to bare steerageway
C. If the hoist is at the stern, booms extending aft at the stern should be cradled with the topping lifts hove taut
D. The litter should not be touched until it has been grounded
767. Who should inspect and test an inflatable liferaft?
A. The Chief Mate
B. The manufacturer or authorized representative
C. Shipyard personnel
D. A certificated lifeboatman
768. Who is the responsible person for the safety of the ship and all those onboard?
A. The Master
B. Master, Chief Officer and Chief Engineer
C. The company
D. The authorities in each different port the ship calls
769. If you discover alcohol and drug abuse onboard, whom do you report to?
A. The master
B. Flag state authorities
C. The manager
D. Port authorities
770. Who is responsible that regulatory working hours are not exceeded?
A. The master and department heads
B. The individual person
C. The bosun and the second engineer
D. The safety officer
771. Upon receipt of a distress message, a merchant vessel is bound to proceed to the scene of the distress. Under which of the following cases
would this NOT be true?
A. The vessel would arrive at the distress scene more than 36 hours after the receipt of the initial distress message
B. There are vessels closer to the distress scene that are proceeding to assist
C. The Master of the vessel in distress has requisitioned another vessel, and that vessel has accepted the requisition
D. You are on a tank vessel and the distress involves a major fire on board the other vessel
772. In all probability, the last persons to abandon the vessel will be _________. When they leave the post, all machinery should be stopped and
water light doors and hatches tightly closed.
A. those persons more than 75 kgs
49
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
B. those engaged in last-minute damage control
C. the Master, Chief Engineer and the Chief Officer
D. those who brought their luggage
773. Who should be informed first when receiving a distress signal from an Other ship/vessel?
A. The nearest coastal radio station
B. Your own company
C. AMVER
D. Associated Press
774. Combustible gas indicators measure percentage of the concentration of the lower explosive limit of gases. If the hydrocarbon content of
the sample exceeds the upper explosive limit:
a. it will not be detected
b. the needle will move to the maximum reading and return to zero immediately
c. the needle will move rapidly to and remain at the maximum reading
d. the needle will rise slowly to and remain at the maximum reading
775. The danger of a charged hose left unattended on deck with the nozzle open is
A. the hose could burst
B. the nozzle end will whip about, causing damage or inquiry
C. water damage to vessel's cargo or structure
D. personnel might trip over the hose
776. How would you know how many people a lifeboat is supposed to hold?
A. The number of persons should be clearly stated on the outside of the boats bow
B. Fill the boat up until no more space is left
C. Ask one of the deck officers
D. No fixed number as it depends on the people's size
777. Unconscious casualties who are breathing and whose hearts are beating should be placed in the Recovery Position. What is the Recovery
Position?
A. The patient placed in a "face -to-the-floor" position, and with arms and legs arranged in order to stabilize this
position.
B. The patient sitting in a up-right position and with the arms and legs arranged in order to keep this position stable.
C. The patient sitting in a position with the head kept as low as possible.
D. Laying in a water-bed.
778. Unconscious casualties who are breathing and whose hearts are beating should be placed in the Recovery Position. Why is this position so
important?
A. The position ensures that an open airway is maintained
B. Because it keeps the heart beating
C. The position prevents the patient from falling asleep
D. The recovery position makes it easy to maintain any kind of bleeding
779. A combustible gas indicator is used to determine _______.
a. the amount of CO2 present in flue gas
b. the presence of flammable gases or vapors in the air
c. the toxicity of flammable gases or vapors
d. if there is sufficient oxygen to support life
780. A combustible gas indicator is used to determine:
A. the amount of CO2 present in flue gas
B. the presence of flammable gases or vapors in the air
C. the toxicity or flammable gases or vapors
D. if there is sufficient oxygen to support life
781. A galley grease fire on the stove may be extinguished using_______.
A. water
B. foam
C. the range hood extinguishing system
D. fire dampers
782. The bypass valve on a self contained breathing device should be opened if ________
A. you are entering a space containing poisonous vapors
B. you are entering a space containing explosive gases
C. the regulator of the breathing apparatus malfunction
D. the face piece of the breathing device is too tight
783. Which one of the listed requirements regarding the launching and recovery arrangements for rescue boats do not correspond to present
A. The release mechanism shall be of an automatic type approved by the Administration
B. Embarkation and launching arrangements shall be such that the rescue boat can be boarded and launched in the shortest
possible time
C. Launching shall be possible at ship's headway speed up to 5 knots in calm weather
D. Rapid recovery shall be possible with the boats full compliment of persons and equipment
784. How can a SART's effective range be maximized?
A. The SART should be placed in water immediately upon activation
B. Switch the SART into the "high" power position
C. If possible, the SART should be mounted horizontally so that its
D. The SART should be held as high as possible
785. Where on board can you find the different types of protection equipment, the placement, how much equipment etc?
A. The ship’s safety plan
B. Stated in your cabin
C. In cargo control room
D. The engine room
786. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE in regard to Ro-Ro vessels' spaces that are "specially suitable for vehicles"?
A. The space shall be fitted with an approved fire or smoke detecting system.
B. The space shall have designated smoking areas.
C. The spaces are prohibited from being fitted with fixed CO2 fire extinguishing systems.
D. All of the above
50
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
A. The spaces shall NOT be fitted with a flame detecting system.
B. The spaces shall be fitted with an approved fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system.
C. As an alternative to a fixed CO2 system, the Commandant may permit a water sprinkler system.
D. All of the above
788. At the moment of impact of collision, the following should be noted:
A. the compass heading and approximate angle between the two ships
B. the compass heading and speed impact
C. the speed of impact and approximate angle between the two ships
D. speed of impact
789. Emergency exits are provided for personnel's safe and quick escape from the engine room in case of fire. The emergency exits are an item
to be checked during the Safety Equipment survey annually. What is the surveyor checking?
A. The surveyor is checking that the emergency exits are properly marked, free from obstacles and that the closing
devices are easy operable.
B. The surveyor is checking that the vessel is equipped with emergency exits.
C. The surveyor is checking that there are no oily residues in the emergency exits.
D. The surveyor is checking the lighting fixture in way of emergency exits.
790. A tank has been sealed and unventilated for a long period of time. Which of the following conditions does this indicate?
a. carbon monoxide is present
b. the tank is safe to enter after being opened
c. the tank is especially dangerous to enter
d. water vapor when the tank was sealed has oxidized
791. The correct working of an SART can be tested by means of:
A. the test function on the SART
B. mandatory monthly test calls by SAR-radar installation
C. a special test program which is installed in every radar used in vessels
D. Don't know
792. Radiation spreads a fire by __________.
A. transmitting the heat of a fire through the ship's metal
B. burning liquids flowing into another space
C. heated gases flowing through ventilation systems
D. the transfer of heat across an unobstructed space
793. The training manual shall contain instructions and information in easily understood terms and illustrated wherever possible. Which one of
the following objects do not have to be explained in detail in the manual according to present regulations?
A. The use of onboard communication systems
B. With assistance of illustrations, the use of radio life-saving appliance
C. The use of engines and accessories (lifeboats/rescue boats)
D. The use of drogues
794. A drip tray containing oil is on fire. The only fire fighting equipment available is water hose with spray jet/spray nozzle. How, if at all,
should you attempt to put out this fire using water?
A. The water can be applied in a fine spray starting from the front in a sweeping motion
B. Water should not be used on any type of oil fire
C. Water should be applied to the oil in a single jet only
D. Water should be applied in a jet to the back of the fire
795. A “15 pound” CO2 extinguisher is so called because _______.
a. there are 15 pounds of CO2 in the container
b. the container plus CO2 equals 15 pounds
c. the pressure at the discharge nozzle is 15 PSI
d. the empty container weighs 15 pounds
796. Which one of the listed requirements regarding liferaft equipment do not correspond to present regulations? The normal equipment of
every liferaft shall consist of:
A. thermal protective aids for the number of persons the liferaft is permitted to accommodate
B. instructions on how to survive
C. instructions for immediate action
D. one set of fishing tackle
797. Oily rags and metal twist pose a particular fire hazard because:
A. They are liable to spontaneous combustion.
B. They are not a hazard unless ignited.
C. They generate their own oxygen when ignited and are therefore difficult to extinguish.
D. They are not a hazard.
798. Why are lifeboats usually double-enders?
A. They are more seaworthy and less likely to be swamped or broach to
B. They can go forward and backward more easily
C. They require less space for stowing aboard ship
D. There is no particular reason for this
799. Which of the following is false regarding Halon fire extinguishers?
A. they are non-toxic
B. they leave no residue
C. they are non- corrosive
D. they are more effective than CO2
800. Which statement is true concerning combustible gas indicators?
A. one sample of air is adequate to test a tank
B. they do not work properly when there is a lack of oxygen
C. They will detect a lack of oxygen
D. They are calibrated to read the percentage chance of explosion
801. Which statement is TRUE concerning small oil spills?
A. They usually disappear quickly
B. They may cause serious pollution as the effect tends to be cumul
C. A small spill is not dangerous to sea life in the area
D. They usually stay in a small area
802. To properly maintain fire hoses, you should ____
A. immediately stowed it in the box
51
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
B. wash it with fresh water and secured it on the hose rack
C. thoroughly drain them after each use
D. secured the hose from the next use
803. You are in a tank wearing the self-contained breathing apparatus and you desire to return topside. How many tugs of the lifeline mean to
take up the slack
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
804. What should be done by the first person to notice a man overboard incident?
A. inform the watch, throw life buoy
B. sound fire alarm, throw life buoy
C. throw a lifering to the victim, notify the crew
D. pass the word man overboard over the P.A system
805. One of your crew members falls overboard from the starboard side. You should IMMEDIATELY __________.
A. apply left rudder
B. throw the crew member a life preserver
C. begin backing your engines
D. position your vessel to windward and begin recovery
806. To launch a liferaft by hand, you should:
a. detach the operating cord, throw the raft over the side and it will then inflate
b. cut the casing bands, throw the raft over the side and pull the operating cord
c. throw the liferaft over the side and pull the operating cord
d. cut the casting bands, throw the liferaft over the side and it will then inflate
807. An inflatable life raft is hand-launched by ______________.
A. removing the securing straps
B. kicking the hydrostatic release
C. throwing the entire container overboard then pulling on the painter
D. the float-free method only
808. If more than one raft is manned after the vessel has sunk, you should __________.
A. go in a different direction in search of land
B. spread out to increase the possibility of a search aircraft finding you
C. reduce the number of rafts by getting as many people as possible into as few rafts as possible
D. tie the rafts together and try to stay in a single group
809. What is the purpose of an explosimeter?
a. to indicate the absence of oxygen c. to detect combustible gases
b. to identify combustible gases d. all of these
810. What is the purpose of a painter?
A. To keep the lifeboat in an accurate position close to the vessel
B. To avoid the lifeboat to drift away
C. To keep the lifeboat up against the sea/wind
D. To adjust the drifting speed of the lifeboat
811. What is the purpose of a sea-anchor?
A. To keep the lifeboat up against the sea/wind
B. To keep the lifeboat in a position close to the vessel
C. To give a better signal to any aircraft searching for survivors
D. To adjust the drifting speed of the lifeboat
812. Why should there be checklists or work permits for hazardous operations?
A. To make sure the job is done under controlled conditions
B. To locate crew members in case of emergencies
C. So we know who to blame when something goes wrong
D. Because it is required by International G (US Coast Guard)
813. A fire must ventilated:
A. When using an indirect attack on the fire such as flooding with water
B. To prevent the gases of combustion from surrounding the fire fighters
C. To minimize heat build-up in adjacent compartments
D. If compressed gas cylinders are stowed in the compartment of fire
814. You should deploy the sea from a life raft to _____________.
A. Keep the life raft from capsizing
B. Navigation against from getting seasick
C. To keep personnel from getting seasick
D. To stay in the general location
815. You are approaching a distressed vessel which is on fire in order to remove survivors. Your approach should be
A. from the bow
B. from the low side
C. to leeward of the distressed vessel
D. to windward of the distressed vessel
816. In order to benefit from the use of storm oil in heavy seas, the storm oil should be
A. to leeward of the vessel
B. to windward of the vessel
C. around the rudder and screws
D. completely around the vessel
817. If a person is in a state of shock, what of the following is the correct thing of you to do?
A. Treat and reassure the casualty and stay with the person at all times.
B. Be kind to the casualty and give anything to eat or drink at first opportunity.
C. Move the casualty as much as possible.
D. Apply hot-water bottles to keep the patient warm.
818. The FIRST concern in treating a person with extensive burn is:
A. reducing disfigurement
B. preventing infection
52
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
C. treating for shock
D. reducing swelling
819. The sorting of accident victims according to the severity of their injuries is called:
A. Evaluation
B. Triage
C. Surveying
D. Prioritizing
820. The part of sea anchor that allows it to be easily brought back aboard a life raft is the
A. drag line
B. bridle
C. trip line
D. iron ring
821. If vomiting occurs a resuscitation effort, the best immediate procedure to follow is:
a. pause for a moment until the patient appears to be quiet then resume CPR
b. switch to mouth-to-mouth ventilation
c. turn the patient’s body to one side, sweep out the mouth and resume CPR
d. ignore it and continue mouth-to-mouth resuscitation
822. How often should the lifeboat wire falls be turned and renewed?
A. Turned at intervals of not more than 30 months and renewed every 5 years
B. Turned every 2 years and renewed every 4 years
C. Turned every 30 months and needs only to be renewed if the wire is in poor condition
D. Renewed every three years
823. A portable foam fire extinguisher is placed in operation by:
A. pressing the foam lever
B. squeezing the grip handle
C. turning it upside down
D. opening the hose valve
824. You are proceeding to a distress site where the survivors are in life rafts. Which of the following actions will assist in making your ship
more visible to survivors?
A. steering in a sinuous course
B. steering a zigzag course
C. turning on all available deck light at night
D. hoisting all the code flags
825. Seawater may be used for drinking water:
A. at a maximum rate of two ounces per day
B. if gathered during or immediately after a hard rain
C. after mixing with an equal amount of fresh water
D. under no circumstances
826. A 6-men inflatable liferaft shall be carried as far forward as is reasonable and practicable. Where is the best stowing position?
A. Under the forecastle
B. Aft of the forecastle, secured with wire and turnbuckle
C. All forward on the forecastle and secured with the use of hydrostatic release device
D. Aft of the forecastle secured with the use of hydrostatic release device
827. When administering first aid you should avoid:
A. any conversation with the patient
B. instructing bystanders
C. unnecessary haste and appearance of uncertainty
D. touching the patient before washing your hands
828. When giving first aid you should avoid __________________.
A. Unnecessary haste and appearance of uncertainty
B. Instruction by standers
C. Any conversation with the patient
D. Touching the patient before washing your hands
829. A ship is still capable of performing all distress and safety functions but found out defective in equipment for her general radio
communications functions. Such ship is considered to be:
a. in violation of regulation and needs repair prior to sea
b. unseaworthy
c. seaworthy
d. detainable in port
830. In a distress situation how many times, or for how long is the emergency alarm signal to be sounded?
A. Until all crew members and passengers have reported to their respective muster stations
B. 3 minutes
C. 3 times
D. Until the signal "risk is over" or the order "abandon ship" is given
831. The "flammable limits" of an atmosphere are the _____________________.
A. two temperatures between which an atmosphere will burn if an ignition
B. upper and lower pressures between which an atmosphere will both b
C. two temperatures between which an atmosphere will self ignite
D. upper and lower percentage of vapor concentrations in an atmosphere
832. The best procedure to follow in fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the engine room would be to secure the power, then
A. use a portable foam extinguisher
B. use a low velocity fog adapter with the fire hose
C. use a portable CO2 extinguisher
D. determine the cause of fire
833. You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the engine room. You should secure the power, then __________.
a. use a portable CO2 extinguisher
b. use a portable foam extinguisher
c. use a low-velocity fog adapter with the fire hose
d. determine the cause of the fire
53
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
834. If conditions permit, which is the best way to board a liferaft which is floating close to the ship?
A. Use a rope ladder close to the raft to climb down and board
B. Wearing a lifejacket, jump into the water close to the raft and then swim to it
C. Jump onto the raft itself
D. Jump into the water close to the raft, without a lifejacket, as this will make it easier to swim and board the liferaft
835. What is the generally accepted method of determining whether the atmosphere within a cargo tank is explosive, too rich, or too lean to
support combustion?
A. Use the open flame test on a small sample that has been taken from the tank.
B. Send a gas sample ashore for laboratory analysis.
C. Enter the tank with an oxygen analyzer.
D. Use an explosimeter
A. Use of breathing apparatus
B. Method and use of devices for protection in launching areas
C. Method of launching from inside survival craft
D. Release from launching applications
837. In a distress situation and immediately after the distress signal has been sounded, what is the next action to be taken by the Chief Officer on
duty?
A. Use the intercom to inform crew and passengers of the reason for the alarm
B. Call the nearest coastal radio station
C. Send distress signals to call for help
D. Use the VHF-radio telephone to ask ships in the vicinity to stand by
838. How should signal flares be used after you have abandoned ship and are adrift in a life raft?
A. Immediately use all the signals at once
B. use all the signals during the first night
C. employ a signal every hour after abandoning ship until they are gone
D. use them only when you are aware of a ship or plane in the area
839. How should signal flares be used after you have abandoned ship and are adrift in a life raft?
a. Use all the signals during the first night
b. Immediately use all the signals at once
c. Use them only when you are aware of a ship or plane in the area
d.Employ a signal every hour after abandoning ship until they are gone
840. You have abandoned ship and after two days in a raft, you can see an aircraft near the horizon apparently carrying out a search pattern. You
should
A. Switch the EPIRB to the homing signal mode
B. use the voice transmission capability of the EPIRB to guide the aircraft to your raft
C. turn on the strobe light on the top of the EPIRB
D. use visual distress signals in conjunction with the EPIRB
841. You can prevent broaching in heavy seas when hove to with your engines stopped by:
A. using a sea anchor
B. shifting weight to the stern
C. lashing the helm
D. shifting the rudder from side to side
842. What method shall be used when hauling survivors out of the sea (state of survivors is critical)?
A. Using nets
B. Using lifebuoy
C. Using heaving line
D. Using painter
843. You can make an emergency sea anchor by:
A. using tarpaulins, wooden doors, hatch covers, anchor chain or anything to act as a drag
B. pumping water over the side
C. setting out three heavy lines with knots tied in them
D. running lines from the bow to the stern
844. Large volumes of carbon dioxide are safe and effective for fighting fires in enclosed space such as in a pump-room, provided
that________________________.
A. ventilation system is secured and all persons leave the space
B. persons in the space wear damp clothes over their mouths and nost
C. ventilation system is kept operating
D. persons in the space wear gas masks
845. In a Williamson turn, the rudder is put over full until the __________.
A. vessel has turned 90°From her original course
B. vessel has turned 60°From her original course
C. vessel is on a reciprocal course
D. emergency turn signal sounds
846. What is the most favorable heading of own vessel when launching a lifeboat / MOB?
A. Vessel steering a few degrees off weather / sea (approx 30 degree)
B. Vessel have weather / sea abeam
C. Vessel steering with sea / weather astern
D. Vessel laying still in the water
847. When a rescue vessel approaches a survival craft in heavy seas, the person in charge of the survival craft should:
a. Tie up to the rescue vessel
b. Transfer only those personnel transferring personnel
c. wait for calmer weather before transferring personnel
d. Transfer all personnel immediately
848. What will you bring in a lifeboat if the ship is abandoned?

A. Warm clothes, blankets and life vests
B. As much biscuit and canned food as possible
54
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
C. All valuables like money, jewelry etc.
D. All pets that will most likely not be able to enter the boat by themselves
849. What kind of warning signs should be placed on manholes into void spaces?
A. Warning signs that indicate lack of oxygen inside
B. No smoking signs
C. Danger of explosion signs
D. Breathing apparatus mandatory sign
850. If a person get battery acid in his eyes while filling a battery, he should first wash eye with
A. boric acid solution
B. water
C. baking soda solution
D. ammonia
851. Which fire extinguishing agent has the greatest capacity for absorbing heat?
A. Water
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Dry chemical
D. Foam
852. If a person gets battery acid in his eye while filling a battery, he should FIRST wash
the eye with:
A. water C. baking soda solution
B. boric acid solution D. Eye cleaner
853. Which of the following should NOT be used on an electrical fire?
A. Water extinguisher
B. Dry powder extinguisher
C. CO2 extinguisher
D. Halon extinguisher
854. An extinguishing agent which effectively cools, dilutes combustible vapors, removes oxygen, and provides a heat and smoke screen is
__________.
A. carbon dioxide
B. Halon 1301
C. dry chemical
D. water fog
855. To safely enter a compartment where CO2 has been released from a fixed extinguishing system, you should:
A. wear a canister type gas mask
B. test the air with an Orsat apparatus
C. test the air with a pure air indicator
D. wear a self-contained breathing apparatus
856. You can determine that a CO2 fire extinguisher is fully charged by:
A. looking at the gauge
B. weighing by hand
C. checking the name plate data
D. weighing with a properly calibrated scale
857. The key to a rapid effective response to a man overboard situation is
A. well conducted drills
B. a dedicated crew
C. good equipment
D. good communication
858. A tourniquet should be used to control bleeding ONLY __________.
A. with puncture wounds
B. when all other means have failed
C. when the victim is unconscious
D. to prevent bleeding from minor wounds
859. When seeking radio advice about an injury, your message should include:
a. nothing concerning the treatment already given
b. the name ,of the person who caused the injury
c. only specific information about the injury and nothing about the patient’s general condition
d. when and how the injury occurred, what part of the body was injured, and if bleeding is prevent
860. While retrieving the survival craft, the engine should be stopped __________.
A. when the craft clears the water
B. when the cable has been attached
C. on approach to the platform
D. at the embarkation deck
861. The most critical part of the bunkering operations which can result in oil spill is:
a. when the system is being lined up c. when the tanks are being topped off
b. when the hose joints are made up d. when pumping operation is first started
862. A carbon dioxide fire extinguisher should be recharged_________________.
A. at least annually
B. only if the extinguisher has been used
C. before every safety inspection
D. whenever it is below its required weight
863. When should gangway nets be rigged?
A. Whenever the gangway is rigged
B. When it is deemed necessary by the Master or the Chief Officer
C. Whenever the gangway is regarded as unsafe
D. Between sunset and sunrise
864. After an injury, which of the following can be determined by examining the condition of a victim's pupils?
a. The degree of vision impairment
b. The degree of pain being suffered
c. Whether or not the brain is functioning properly
d. Whether or not the victim's blood pressure is normal
55
A. 0.27 N/mm2
B. 0.31 N/mm2
C. 0.35 N/mm2
865. An immersion suit should be equipped with a(n)
A. air bottle for breathing
B. whistle and light
C. whistle, light and reflective tape
D. whistle, light and sea dye marker
866. After abandoning a vessel, water consumed within the first 24 hours _____.
a. will quench thirst for only two hours
b. will help to prevent fatigue
c. will pass thru the body with very little being absorbed by the system
d. helps to prevent seasickness
867. Which one of the listed requirements regarding enclosures of totally enclosed lifeboats do not correspond to present regulation? The
enclosures shall be provided with:
A. windows on both sides which can be closed watertight and opened for ventilation
B. access hatches which can be closed watertight
C. access hatches capable of being opened and closed from both sides
D. arrangement for rowing
868. Survivors on the water are best approached on what side, relative to the wind?
A. Windward side
B. Either side
C. within star vision directly astern
D. beeward side
869. A cargo hold containing cargo such as nitrates, chlorates etc which produce oxygen under the influence of heat catches fire. How would
you deal with this?
A. With this type of material the hatches should not be battened down. The fire can only be extinguished by using large
quantities of water.
B. Close the hatches and use the fixed CO2 system
C. Apply boundary cooling
D. Close the hatches, apply boundary cooling and allow the fire to use up the oxygen and extinguish itself
870. The Master is responsible that all crew participate in monthly emergency drills. If 25% of the crew -or more- has not participated in such
drill during the last month, what is the time limit to conduct such a drill after the vessel has left a port?
A. Within 24 hrs.
B. Within 12 hrs.
C. Within 30 hrs.
D. Within 48 hrs.
871. Changing rescuers while carrying out artificial respiration should be done __________.
A. without losing the rhythm of respiration
B. only with the help of two other people
C. by not stopping the respiration for more than 5 minutes
D. at ten-minute intervals
872. All lifeboats, rescue boats, and rigid-type life rafts shall be stripped, cleaned, and thoroughly overhauled at least once every:
B. months
C. year
D. 18 months
E. two years
873. Ship staff shall inspect all lifting equipment and record the inspection in the cargo gear record book at intervals of:
A. Yearly
B. 5 years
C. 2 years
D. Whenever it is deemed necessary by the master
874. The specified dimension and color marking the designed helicopter pick up area on the area of a ship is _________.
A. orange circular in shape about 5 meters in diameter
B. white circular in shape about 5 meters in diameter
C. yellow circular in shape about 5 meters in diameter
D. red circular in shape about 5 meters in diameter
875. You are duty officer on board a vessel in open sea. The look out is doing work and you are alone on the bridge, presently checking the
position in the chartroom. Suddenly you are colliding with a fishing vessel. You will be most to blame for the collision
A. You did not maintain a proper look - out by all available means
B. You shall always give the "keep away" signal when doing chart work
C. You should ask over VHF if there is any vessels in the surrounding waters before going to the chart room
D. The fishing vessel should have kept away and you will not be blamed
876. You suspect that a crewmember has fallen overboard during the night and immediately execute a Williamson turn. What is the primary
advantage of this maneuver under these circumstances?
A. You will be on a reciprocal course and nearly on the track-line run during the night
B. The turn provides the maximum coverage of the area to be searched
C. The turn enables you to reverse course in the shortest possible time
D. You have extra time to maneuver in attempting to close in on the man for rescue
877. Which situation requires you to furnish a notice of marine casualty to the Coast Guard?
A. A seaman slips on ice on deck and sprains his ankle, requiring an ace bandage.
B. You collide with a buoy and drag it off station with no apparent damage to the vessel or the buoy.
C. Storm damage to the cargo winch motors requires repairs costing $19,000.
D. Your vessel is at anchor and grounds at low tide with no apparent damage.
56

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103. In launching a lifeboat, when should the tricing pendants be released?

C. Water has a clear limitation in fighting an oil fire.

375. By definition, an example of a flammable liquid is ______.

404. Control of fire should be addressed:

408. If a person suffers a second-degree burn on the arm, you should:

758. When entering a compartment which is on fire:

848. What will you bring in a lifeboat if the ship is abandoned?

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