Target - Online Exam - Oral Pathology Medicine Radiology

ORAL PATHOLOGY, MEDICINE & RADIOLOGY

Q.No. 1 Facial hemihypertrophy is not seen in:
1. Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
2. McCune-Albright syndrome
3. Langer-Giedion
4. Noonan’s syndrome
Q.No. 2 Cheilitis granulomatosa is seen in all of the following except:
1. Melkersson-rosenthal syndrome
2. Crohn’s disease
3. Sarcoidosis
4. Peutz-Jegher’s syndrome
Q.No. 3 Which of the following is congenital cause of true macro-glossia?
1. Gargoylism
2. Cretinism
3. Small pox
4. Pellagra
Q.No. 4 The unilateral inflamed & enlarged lingual tonsil can be mistakenly
diagnosed as:
1. Early carcinoma
2. Foliate papillitis
3. Reactive lymphoid hyperplasia
4. Lymphoid polyps
Q.No. 5 In a heriditory autosomal dominant, LADD syndrome, D’ denotes:
1. Occlusion of lacrimal puncta, nasolacrimal duct

2. Clinodactyly, enamel hypoplasia
3. Cup-shaped ears
4. Dacrocystitis
Q.No. 6 Intraoral verruca vulgaris can be treated by the following: following:
1. Surgical excision
2. Liquid nitrogen cryotherapy
3. Topical application of Keratinolytic agents
Q.No.
Facial hemihypertrophy is not seen in:
1.Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
2.McCune-Albright syndrome
3.Langer-Giedion
4.Noonan’s syndrome
Right -> Noonan’s syndrome

Your Answer -> Not Attempt
Reference : - > Shafer’s textbook of oral pathology-6th/13
Q.No.
Cheilitis granulomatosa is seen in all of the following except:
1.Melkersson-rosenthal syndrome
2.Crohn’s disease
3.Sarcoidosis
4.Peutz-Jegher’s syndrome
Right -> Peutz-Jegher’s syndrome

Q.No.
Which of the following is congenital cause of true macro-glossia?
1.Gargoylism
2.Cretinism
3.Small pox
4.Pellagra
Right -> Gargoylism

Q.No. The unilateral inflamed & enlarged lingual tonsil can be
mistakenly diagnosed as:
1.Early carcinoma
2.Foliate papillitis
3.Reactive lymphoid hyperplasia
4.Lymphoid polyps
Right -> Early carcinoma
Q.No. In a heriditory autosomal dominant, LADD syndrome, D’
denotes:
1.Occlusion of lacrimal puncta, nasolacrimal duct

2.Clinodactyly, enamel hypoplasia
3.Cup-shaped ears
4.Dacrocystitis
Right -> Clinodactyly, enamel hypoplasia

Q.No. Intraoral verruca vulgaris can be treated by the following:
following:
1.Surgical excision
2.Liquid nitrogen cryotherapy
3.Topical application of Keratinolytic agents
4.All of the above
Right -> All of the above

Q.No. The oral nevi in which nevus cells are extended till the basal cell
layer of epithelium, is: the basal cell layer of epithelium, is:
1.Junctional nevus
2.Compound nevus
3.Intra-mucosal nevus
4.Blue nevus
Right -> Junctional nevus

Q.No.
Following features are seen in epithelial dysplasia except:
1.Increased nuclear cytoplasmic ratio
2.Increased cellular cohesion
3.Enlarged nucleoli
4.Increased mitotic figures
Right -> Increased cellular cohesion

Q.No. The oral mucosal lesion predominantly associated with only
smoking is:
1.Caries
2.Lichen planus
3.Palatal crythema
4.OSMF erythema
Right -> Palatal crythema

Q.No. A patient is having a tumour of 2 cms with metastasis in a 3 cm
single ipsilateral lymph node but no distant metastasis is seen, the
stage of carcinoma is:
1.Stage I
2.Stage II
3.Stage III
4.Stage IV
Right -> Stage III

Q.No. In ABCDE rule used for clinical diagnosis of melanoma, E refers
to:
1.Raised surface
2.Erythematous patch
3.Pigmentation
4.Border inregularity
Right -> Raised surface

Q.No.
Blue, compressible lesions found on ears & lips are seen with:
1.Lentigo
2.Venous lake
3.Seborrleic keratosis
4.Haemangioma
Right -> Venous lake

Q.No.
The least survival rate is seen in the patient having tumours with:
1.Invasion of subcutaneous fat

2.Invasion of papillary dermis
3.Invasion of epidermis
4.Invasion of reticular dermis
Right -> Invasion of subcutaneous fat

Q.No.
Osteoclastoma is also known as:
1.Central ossifying fibroma of bone

2.Peripheral giant cell granuloma
3.Central giant cell granuloma
4.Giant cell tumour of bone
Right -> Giant cell tumour of bone

Q.No.
The only bacteria infecting peripheral nerve is:
1.M. Leprae
2.Clostridium tetani
3.A. odontolyticus
4.Actinobacillus
Right -> M. Leprae

Q.No.
Pregnancy tumour is histologically identical to:
1.Rhino scleroma
2.Noma
3.Pyogenic granuloma
4.Myoblastoma
Right -> Pyogenic granuloma

Q.No.
Incubation period of herpes simplex disease is:
1.1-8 days
2.1 day-3 months
3.1-14 days
4.1-26 days
Right -> 1-26 days

Q.No. Raised, discrete, white/yellow to dark pink solid papules or
nodules, surrounded by narrow zone of erythema and are non-
ulcerative, non-vesicular lesion in the oral cavity are the
characteristic features of:
1.Measles
2.Apthous fever
3.Acute lymphnodular pharyngitis
4.Chicken pox
Right -> Acute lymphnodular pharyngitis

Q.No. Bronchial pneumonia, encephalitis, otitis media, occasionally
noma, lowered general body resistance, are the complications of:
1.Chicken pox
2.Measles
3.Mumps
4.Poliomyelitis
Right -> Measles

Q.No.
Incubation period of ‘Varicella zoster virus’ is:
1.30 days
2.1-7 years
3.6 months
4.Upto 2 weeks
Right -> Upto 2 weeks

Q.No. Which disease is characterized by inflammation of dorsal root
ganglia or extra-medullary cranial nerve ganglia with vesicular
eruption of skin or mucous membrane in areas supplied by
affected nerve?
1.Chickungunya
2.Small pox
3.Shingles
4.Measles
Right -> Shingles

Q.No.
Which of the following virus is involved in the
1.Human herpes virus type 6

2.Varicella zoster
3.Human papilloma virus
4.Human herpes virus type-8
Right -> Human herpes virus type-8

Q.No.
Darling’s disease is also known as:
1.Gilchriest’s disease
2.Blastomycosis
3.Histoplasmosis
4.Cryptococcosis
Right -> Histoplasmosis

Q.No.
Darling’s disease is caused by:
1.Histoplasma capsulatum
2.Blastomyces Brasiliensis
3.Blastomyces dermatiditis
4.Cryptococcus neofarmans
Right -> Histoplasma capsulatum

Q.No.
Antibiotic sore month is also known as:
1.Denture stomatitis
2.Histoplasmosis
3.Rhinosporidosis
4.Erythematous candidiasis
Right -> Erythematous candidiasis

Q.No.
The fungal infection caused by mucorales & Entomophthorales
1.Phycomycosis
2.Mucormycosis
3.Zygomycosis
4.All of the above

Q.No.
The connective tissue fibres that are embedded in the
1.Dentogingival
2.Dentoperiosteal
3.Alveologingival
4.Transeptal
Right -> Dentoperiosteal

Q.No. The principal fibers of periodontal ligament which run at right
angle to the long axis of the tooth from cementum to the alveolar
bone are known as:
1.Alveolar crest group

2.Oblique group
3.Horizontal group
4.Inter-radicular group
Right -> Horizontal group

Q.No. The stains which are seen in children & are caused by the
coloration of Nasmyth’s membrane by blood pigments are:
1.Brown strain
2.Black stain
3.Yellow stain
4.Green stain
Right -> Green stain

Q.No. A delicate pigmented dental plaque, which appears as a thin dark
line on the enamel at the cervical margin of the tooth is known as:
1.Plaque line
2.Eccentric line
3.Mesenteric line
4.Black line
Right -> Mesenteric line

Q.No. Which of the following is not the systemic cause of the gingival
diseases?
1.Drug action
2.Allergy
3.Nutritional deficiencies
4.Mouth breathing
Right -> Mouth breathing

Q.No.
Following are the causes of desquammative gingivitis except:
1.Dermatoses
2.Acute infections
3.Abnormal responses to irritation
4.Hormonal influence
Right -> Acute infections

Q.No. Which of the following does not exhibit desquammative
gingivitis?
1.Pemphigus
2.Lichen planus
3.Cicatricial pemphigoid
4.Leukoplakia
Right -> Leukoplakia

Q.No. The distinct form of gingivitis, which arises a hypersensitive
reaction to chewing gum & dentifrices, is known as:
1.Plasma cell gingivitis

2.Atypical gingivitis
3.Plasma cell gingivostomatitis
4.All of the above

Q.No.
The most susceptible tooth in the oral cavity to dental caries is:
1.Upper & lower 1st molars

2.Upper & lower 2nd molars
3.Upper first Bicuspid & lower 2nd bicuspid
4.Upper second bicuspids
Right -> Upper & lower 1st molars

Q.No. According to the nature of attack, the secondary caries are known
as:
1.Recurrent caries
2.Chronic caries
3.Adolescent caries
4.Virgin caries
Right ->
Q.No.
The early microscopic change in smooth surface caries is:
1.White spot
2.Brown spot
3.Accentuation of perikymata
4.Decalcified area
Right -> White spot

Q.No. Which of the following statement is not true in relation to the
‘Dark zone’ of enamel caries?
1.It is a positive zone & is always present

2.It shows positive birefringence
3.Micropore systems gets devoid of air & becomes dark
4.Water may penetrate it
Right -> Micropore systems gets devoid of air & becomes dark
Q.No. Prominent striae of Retzius are seen in which zone of enamel
caries:
1.Dark zone
2.Body of the lesion
3.Translucent zone
4.Surface zone
Right -> Translucent zone

Q.No.
Rinses used for caries reduction having pH of 7.0 are:
1.Aq. sodium fluoride 0.2%

2.Aq. Sodium Fluoride 0.05%
3.Aq. Acidulated phosphate fluoride 0.02%
4.Both 1 & 2
Right -> Aq. Sodium Fluoride 0.05%

Q.No.
Pulp polyp is most commonly seen in:
1.Deciduous molars & 1st permanent molars

2.Second permanent molars
3.Maxillary & Mandibular premolar
4.Lower third moalrs
Right -> Lower third moalrs

Q.No. The infection the tooth having lateral or accessory canals opening
on the lateral surface of the root, may give rise to:
1.Gingivitis
2.Lateral granuloma
3.Root fracture
4.Acute periodontitits
Right -> Gingivitis

Reference : - > Shafer’s textbook of oral pathology-6th/481,482
Q.No.
Epithelium of periapical granuloma may originate from:
1.Respiratory epithelium of the maxillary sinus

2.Oral epithelium from fistulous tract
3.Oral epithelium fro periodontal pocket
4.All of the above
Right -> Oral epithelium from fistulous tract

Q.No. The condition in which, inflammatory cell infiltration, foreign
body cell collection, & presence of rushton bodies are present, is
known as:
1.Giant cell hyaline angiopathy

2.Neuropathy
3.Rushton disease
4.All of the above

Q.No.
The mostly occurring micro-organisms in the periapical area are:
1.Streptococcus haemolyticus
2.Staphylococcus albus
3.Streptococcus viridians
4.Pneumococcus
Right -> Streptococcus haemolyticus

Q.No.
What treatment is done so as the residual cyst does not recur?
1.Curettage
2.Curettage with elimination of inflammatory foci
3.Drainage
4.Extraction of the related tooth & thorough curettage
Right -> Drainage

Q.No.
What are the complications of periapical abscess?
1.Osteomyelitis
2.Cavernous sinus thrombosis
3.Cellulitis
4.All of the above
Right -> Cavernous sinus thrombosis
Q.No. Predominant micro-organisms in acute supportive osteomyelitis
are:
1.Porphyromonas
2.Diphtheroids
3.Micrococcus tetragenus
4.All of the above

Q.No. The condition having close relation to chronic diffuse sclerosing
osteomyelitis & sclerotic cemental mass along with occurrence of
simple bone ‘cysts’ is called as:
1.Garre’s osteitis
2.Condensing osteitis
3.Florid osseous dysplasia
4.Chronic osteomyelitis with proliferative periosteitis
Right -> Garre’s osteitis

Q.No.
Phlegmon is also known as:
1.Suppurative encephalitis & ependymitis

2.Transverse myelitis
3.Cavernous sinus thrombosis
4.Cellulitis
Right -> Cavernous sinus thrombosis

Q.No. Following are the spaces seen in relation to upper jaw in the
maxillofacial region except:
1.Subtemporalis muscle interval
2.Maxillary antrum
3.Parotid space
4.Buccal space
Right -> Parotid space

Q.No. Peritonsillar space in the maxillofacial region is in close relation
to:
1.Lower jaw
2.Upper jaw
3.Tongue
4.Pharynx
Right -> Lower jaw

Q.No.
The spread of infection from mandibular premoalrs is seen as:
1.Lateral abscess
2.Vestibular abscess
3.Sublingual abscess
4.Sub massetric abscess
Right -> Vestibular abscess

Q.No. The pus from the infection of the maxillary canine failing to
penetrate the levator muscle of the upper lip forms:
1.Lateral abscess
2.Palatal abscess
3.Vestibular abscess
4.Canine space abscess
Right -> Vestibular abscess

Q.No. The space which is bounded anteriorly by the wall of pharynx,
posteriorly by the prevertebral fascia & laterally by the lateral
pharyngeal space & carotid sheath, is known as:
1.Retropharyngeal space
2.Lateral pharyngeal space
3.Carotid space
4.All of the above
Right -> Retropharyngeal space

Q.No. The mostly occurring intracranial complication of the dental
infection is:
1.Subdural empyema
2.Sinus thrombosis
3.Brain abscess
4.Lepto-meningitis
Right -> Sinus thrombosis

Q.No. A child having headache, persistent cough, fever & purulent
rhinorrhea is suffering from:
1.Thrombophlebitis
2.Acute maxillary sinusitis
3.Chronic maxillary sinusitis
4.Rheumatoid arthritis
Right -> Chronic maxillary sinusitis

Q.No. ‘Rebound response’ of the pulp includes all of the following
except:
1.Oedema
2.Fibrosis
3.Odontoblastic disruption
4.Increased predentin formation
Right -> Increased predentin formation

Q.No.
Which of the following is incorrect use of laser in dentistry?
1.To vaporize the inorganic tissue in RCT

2.To desensitize the root surface
3.To eliminate retention sites for bacteria
4.To vaporize the carious tissue
Right -> To vaporize the inorganic tissue in RCT

Q.No.
What is the thickness of smear layer?
1.50 – 60 µm
2.1 µm to 5 µm
3.10 – 40 µm
4.10 – 12 µm
Right -> 1 µm to 5 µm
Q.No. In the cavity, if the remaining dentin thickness is less than 2.0 mm,
following procedure should be done:
1.Should be kept open

2.Composite restoration
3.Cement base
4.RCT
Right -> Cement base

Q.No. Which of the following cement is used as base due to its
comparatively low degree of pulpal irritation?
1.Simer amalgam
2.Compomer
3.Zinc oxide eugenol
4.Polycarboxylate
Right -> Polycarboxylate

Q.No. For how much time should be, the cavity sterilizing agent packed
into the cavity for dentin sterilization:
1.8 days
2.62 hours
3.24-48 hours
4.21 days
Right -> 24-48 hours

Q.No.
Portland cement is a mixture of the following except:
1.Di-calcium silicate
2.Tri-calcium aluminate
3.Tetra-calcium alumino ferrate
4.Tri-calcium phosphate
Right -> Tri-calcium phosphate

Q.No.
Following are the treatment for Bruxism:
1.Removable splints (night guards)

2.Correction of the nervous factor
3.Botox injection
4.All of the above
Q.No. When the traumatized tooth became non-vital but there is no loss
of crown structure, then the patient exhibits which type of injury
according to Ellis clarification:
1.Class-4
2.Class-5
3.Class-6
4.Class-7
Right -> Class-4

Q.No.
Class 9 of the Ellis classifications states:
1.Displacement of tooth without fracture of crown or root

2.Fracture of the crown en masse
3.Traumatic injury to deciduous teeth
4.Displacement of tooth with fracture of root
Right -> Traumatic injury to deciduous teeth

Q.No. An injury leading to the increased sensitivity of the tooth to the
percussion from any direction is known as:
1.Concussion
2.Tenderness
3.Avulsion
4.Fracture of root
Right -> Concussion

Q.No. If the extensive area of the root is involved & the tooth gives dull,
muffled sound on percussion, the tooth is:
1.Periodontally weak
2.Tenderness
3.Infections
4.Ankylosed
Right -> Ankylosed

Q.No.
The cyst which lacks an epithelial lining is:
1.Traumatic cyst
2.Unicameral bone cyst
3.Haemorrhagic cyst
4.All of the above

Q.No.
The cyst which develops after a Caldwell-Luc operation is:
1.Traumatic cyst
2.Idiopathic bone cavity
3.Extravasation cyst
4.Sinus mucocele
Right -> Sinus mucocele

Q.No. Which of the following statement is not true about ‘Riga-Fede’
disease?
1.It occurs in infants between week & 1 year of

2.Lesions are seen on anteroventral surface of tongue
3.Lesions are caused by the contact of erupting mandibular molars
4.It usually seen in natal or neonatal teeth
Right -> Lesions are caused by the contact of erupting mandibular molars
Q.No.
Denture injuries have following manifestations:
1.Traumatic ulcer
2.Generalized inflammation
3.Papillary hyperplasia of palate
4.All of the above

Q.No. The mucous accumulation occurring in the floor of mouth in
association with the sub-maxillary & sublingual gland is known
as:
1.Mucocele
2.Ranula
3.Mucous retention cyst
4.Both 1 & 3
Right -> Ranula

Q.No.
Which of the following is Radio resistant tissue?
1.Salivary glands
2.Mature bone & cartilage
3.Endothelium of blood vessels
4.Conjunctiva, cornea
Right -> Mature bone & cartilage

Q.No. After how much period of completion of radiotherapy does the
taste activity gets restored to the normal:
1.8 – 10 days
2.1 year
3.60 – 120 days
4.8 – 10 months
Right -> 60 – 120 days

Q.No.
Disease caused due to mercurial toxicity is:
1.Acrodynia
2.Pink disease
3.Swift disease
4.All of the above

Q.No. Haemorrhagic gingiva & blue colouration of lip is caused by
which etiologic agent:
1.Benzene
2.Radium
3.Acrolein
4.Organic sugar
Right -> Benzene

Q.No.
Inorganic arsenic has following oral manifestation:
1.Caries
2.Necrosis of bone
3.Localized abrasion
4.Anesthesia & Parasthesia of tongue
Right -> Necrosis of bone

Q.No. The watch dial painters have the following occupational disease
oral manifestations:
1.Carcinoma of lip
2.Stomatitis
3.Osteo myelitis
4.Pytalism
Right -> Osteo myelitis

Q.No.
Raised amalgam restoration is seen in the following:
1.Erosion
2.Attrition
3.Abrasion
4.Abfraction
Right -> Erosion

Q.No. The loss by wearing of surface of tooth/restoration caused due to
parafunction, is known as:
1.Erosion
2.Attrition
3.Abfraction
4.Abrasion
Right -> Attrition

Q.No.
Which of the following is not the factor risking dental erosion?
1.Vomiting
2.Citrus fruits intake
3.Fluoride intake
4.Apple vinegar intake
Right -> Fluoride intake
Q.No. Following is seen as black zone in transmitted light & white zone
in reflected light:
1.Secondary dentin
2.Reticular atrophy of pulp
3.Osteodentin
4.Dead tracts
Right -> Dead tracts

Q.No. The localized masses of calcified material which does not exhibit
dentinal tubules is:
1.Pulp stones
2.False denticles
3.True denticles
4.Diffuse calcific degeneration
Right -> False denticles

Q.No.
Following is the cause of internal resorption of tooth:
1.Periapical inflammation
2.Impaction of teeth
3.Idiopathic
4.Tumours & cysts
Right -> Idiopathic

Q.No.
The mostly involved teeth in idiopathic resorption is:
1.Central incisor
2.Canine
3.1st premolar
4.Lateral incisor
Right -> Central incisor

Q.No.
Chronic perforating hyperplasia of pulp is also
1.Pink tooth of mummery

2.Odontoclastoma
3.Internal resorption
4.All of the above

Q.No.
Following can cause cementum hyperplasia except:
1.Inflammation of tooth
2.Tooth repair
3.Resorption of tooth
4.Paget’s disease
Right -> Resorption of tooth

Q.No. Which of the statement is not true about butyl & isobutyl
cyanoacrylate?
1.They have haemostatic effect

2.They have bacterostatic effect
3.They act as surface tissue adhesive in only dry
4.They permit uncomplicated healing
Right -> They act as surface tissue adhesive in only dry

Q.No. Late reduction in the size of the scar in contrast to immediate
wound contraction is known as:
1.Cicatrization
2.Late callus
3.Keloid formation
4.Hypertrophic scar formation
Right -> Cicatrization

Q.No. The most common & painful complication in the healing of
extraction wound:
1.Dry socket
2.Alveolalgia
3.Alveolitis sicca dolorosa
4.All of the above

Q.No.
The normal inorganic phosphate level of blood in children is:
1.2-4 mg/dL
2.8-12 mg/dL
3.3-5 mg/dL
4.0.5-2.0 mg/dL
Right -> 3-5 mg/dL

Q.No. Increased levels of magnesium are seen in all of the following
except:
1.Advanced renal failure

2.Controlled diabetes mellitus
3.Acute renal failure
4.Hypothyroidism
Right -> Controlled diabetes mellitus

Q.No.
Human copper deficiency disease is:
1.Wilson’s disease
2.Menke’s syndrome
3.Microcytic hypochromic anaemia
4.All of the above

Q.No.
A early indication of selenium toxicity is:
1.Garlicky breath
2.Pancreatic pain
3.Gives cell necrosis
4.Thick nails
Right -> Garlicky breath

Q.No. Following features like early clouding of cornea, & death of
patient occurs usually before 10 years of age, are of:
1.Scheier syndrome
2.Hurler syndrome
3.Hunter syndrome
4.Maroteaux lamy syndrome
Right -> Hurler syndrome

Q.No.
Deficiency of -L-iduronidase causes:
1.Hurler’s syndrome
2.Scheie
3.Hurler-Scheie compound
4.All of the above

Q.No. Which of the following is a ‘bacterial’ disease which appears
clinically as midline lethal granuloma?
1.Rhabdomyosarcoma
2.Wegener’s granulomatosis
3.Actinomycosis
4.Myiasis
Right -> Actinomycosis

Q.No.
Stomatitis venenata is caused by the following therapeutic agent:
100
1.Alcohol
2.Iodide
3.Volatile oil
4.All of the above

Q.No. Which of the following is a ‘predisposing condition’ for oral
101 cancer?
1.Dyskeratosis congenita
2.Erthyroplakia
3.Lichenoid dysplasia
4.Candidal infection
Right -> Dyskeratosis congenita

Reference : - > Wood & Goaz-5th/589
Q.No. Which of the following is not a chemo-therapentic agent for oral
102 cancer?
1.Cisplatin
2.Cyclophosphamide
3.Bleomycin
4.Flutemide
Right -> Flutemide

Q.No. Which of the lesion is the most strongly associated with HIV
103 infected patient?
1.Verruca vulgaris
2.Thrombocytopenic purpura
3.Pseudomembranous candidiasis
4.Melanotic hyperpigmentation
Right -> Pseudomembranous candidiasis

Q.No. Which of the viral Hepatitis has least incubation period with rare
104 mortality?
1.Hepatitis B
2.Hepatitis C
3.Hepatitis A
4.Hepatitis D
Right -> Hepatitis A

Q.No.
The total serum calcium level in a normal human being is:
105
1.2.6 – 6.0 mg/ 100 ml

2.8.4 – 10.2 mg / 100 ml
3.2.7 – 4.5 mg / 100 ml
4.3.5 – 7.2 mg / 100 ml
Right -> 8.4 – 10.2 mg / 100 ml

Q.No.
Following pathologic mass has ‘cheesy’ consistency:
106
1.Epidermoid cyst
2.Aneurysm
3.Chondrosarcoma
4.Fatty tumour
Right -> Epidermoid cyst

Q.No.
Which of the following is the painless mass?
107
1.Laryngocele
2.Early haematoma
3.Chondrosarcoma
4.Adenoid cystic carcinoma
Right -> Laryngocele

Q.No. The burning sensation of the tongue is seen in all the diseases
108 except:
1.Psychosis
2.Burning mouth syndrome
3.Histiocytosis-X
4.Neurosis
Right -> Histiocytosis-X

Q.No. A patient complains of ‘recently the teeth don’t bite right’, the
109 causes may be:
1.Over-contoured restoration
2.Pericementitis
3.Fibrous dysplasia
4.All of the above

Q.No.
The mass which increases in size just before eating is seen with:
110
1.Chronic infections
2.Abscess
3.Salivary retention phenomena
4.Reactive hyperplasia
Right -> Salivary retention phenomena

Q.No.
Following bony lesion is predominantly seen in males is:
111
1.Osteogenic sarcoma
2.Central giant cell granuloma
3.Osteoporosis
4.Florid cementosseous dysplasia
Right -> Osteogenic sarcoma

Q.No.
Following conditions are the responses to trauma except:
112
1.Bleb
2.Purpuric macule
3.Ulcer
4.Papule
Right -> Papule
Q.No. Which of the nutritional deficiency does not predispose oral
113 candidiasis?
1.Vit. B
2.Vit. C
3.Vit. A
4.Biotin
Right -> Vit. A

Q.No. The drug reaction which resembles lichen planus is caused by the
114 following drugs except:
1.Captopril
2.Furosemide
3.Penicillin
4.Bleomycin
Right -> Bleomycin

Q.No. The white lesions of the oral mucosa which is slonghing, pseudo
115 membranous & necrotic is:
1.Pyogenic granuloma
2.Lichen planus
3.Leukoplakia
4.White exophytic squamous cell carcinoma
Right -> Pyogenic granuloma

Q.No. The following lesions are oftenly mis-intepretated as homogenous
116 leukoplakia are except:
1.Lichen planus
2.Lupus erythematosus
3.Radiation mucositis
4.Verruca vulgaris
Right -> Radiation mucositis

Q.No.
Migratory glossitis is the red lesion which is:
117
1.Keratotic
2.Necrotic
3.Vesiculobullous
4.Mucous
Right -> Keratotic

Q.No.
Which of the following is not an exophytic oral
118
1.Tori & exostoses

2.Mucocele
3.Oral papilloma
4.Sublingual caruncles
Right -> Sublingual caruncles

Q.No.
Following is firm minor salivary gland tumour:
119
1.Acinic cell carcinoma

2.Well-differentiated mucoepidermoid carcinoma
3.Mucous producing adeno-carcinoma
4.Warthin’s tumour
Right -> Acinic cell carcinoma

Q.No.
Fissures of the oral cavity are, except:
120
1.Angular cheilosis
2.Epulis fissuratam
3.Syphilitic rhagades
4.Chancre syphilis
Right -> Chancre syphilis

Q.No. The distinct periapical radiolucent lesions which are the sequelae
121 of pulpitis are except:
1.Periapical glamuloma
2.Scal
3.Radicular cyst
4.Dentigerous cyst
Right -> Dentigerous cyst

Q.No.
Which of the entity is predominantly seen in mandible?
122
1.Pagets disease
2.Cement-ossifying fibroma
3.Chondroma
4.Fibrous dysplasia
Right -> Cement-ossifying fibroma

Q.No.
Which of the following shows true periapical radioopacity?
123
1.Tori
2.Impacted teeth
3.Sclerosing osteitis
4.Sialolith
Right -> Sclerosing osteitis
Q.No.
Blue nevus is:
124
1.Tumour of the melanocytic system

2.Benign tumour of epidermal appendages
3.Papulosquamous dermatitides
4.Vascular tumour
Right -> Tumour of the melanocytic system

Q.No.
Which of the following lesion of lip is not a brown lesion?
125
1.Hemochromatosis
2.Melanoma
3.Nevus
4.Snuff dipper’s lesion
Right -> Snuff dipper’s lesion

Q.No. Multiple pigmentations are seen in the following conditions
126 except:
1.Nevus
2.Thrombocytopenic purpura
3.Kaposi’s sarcoma
4.Peutz-Jegher’s syndrome
Right -> Nevus

Q.No.
Which statement is not true about lower lip sinuses?
127
1.They are caused due to the mechanical trauma near the lower lip
2.They include lip pits, commissural pits & fistulas
3.They usually don’t need any surgical intervention
4.They are congenital defects
Right -> They are caused due to the mechanical trauma near the lower lip
Q.No.
The lesions commonly associated with oropharynx are except:
128
1.Herpangina
2.Pemphigus
3.Enlarged tonsils
4.Waldeyer’s ring
Right -> Waldeyer’s ring

Q.No. In which of the disease the whole mucosal surface of the oral
129 cavity is a mass of ulcers, blebs & erosive erythematous areas:
1.Melkerson-Resenthal syndrome
2.Periodontitis
3.Cat-scratch disease
4.Squamous cell carcinoma
Right -> Cat-scratch disease

Q.No.
Differential diagnosis for white sponge nevus are except:
130
1.Cheek chewing
2.Pachyonychia congenial
3.Hereditary benign intraepithelial dyskeratosis
4.Mercury contact allergy
Right -> Mercury contact allergy

Q.No. According to medical complexity status classification, the patient
131 is suffering with epilepsy & that is controlled with medications,
falls under which category?
1.MCS-1B
2.MCS-1A
3.MCS-2A
4.MCS-2C
Right -> MCS-1B

Reference : - > Burket’s oral medicine-11th/11
Q.No. According to medical complexity status classification & protocol
132 in the patient with uncompensated congestive heart failure,
following precaution is to be taken:
1.Avoid administration of antibiotics

2.Avoid placing the patient in a supine position
3.Always place the patient in a supine position
4.Avoid any dental treatment
Right -> Avoid placing the patient in a supine position

Q.No. Following drug should not be given to the patients having very low
133 Haemoglobin count:
1.Augmentin
2.Acyclovir
3.Valacyclovir
4.Famciclovir
Right -> Valacyclovir

Q.No.
Which of the drug does not increase salivation?
134
1.Amifostine
2.Pilocarpine
3.Cevimelene
4.Glyco pyrrolate
Right -> Glyco pyrrolate

Reference : - > Burket’s oral medicine-11th/18,19
Q.No. Following drugs administration is contraindicated with anti-
135 coagulants and anti-platelet medications except:
1.Tramadol
2.Naproxen sodium
3.Meloxicam
4.Ketoralac
Right -> Tramadol

Q.No. Which of the following is an injectable corticosteroids used in the
136 patients suffering with ulcerative and vesiculobullous oral mucosal
disease?
1.Triamcinolone
2.Beclomethasone
3.Halobetasol
4.Fluocinonide
Right -> Triamcinolone

Q.No. Systemic anti-fungal drugs for the management of oral candidiasis
137 are:
1.Itraconazole
2.Nystatin
3.Ketoconazole
4.All of the above
Right -> Itraconazole

Q.No. The solid raised lesions which are larger than 1 cm in diameter are
138 known as:
1.Macule
2.Plaque
3.Papule
4.Erosion
Right -> Plaque

Q.No. The micro-organisms involved in the etiology of acute necrotizing
139 ulcerative gingivitis are except:
1.Treponema
2.Fusobacteria nucleatum
3.Selenomonas
4.Cytomegalo virus
Right -> Cytomegalo virus

Q.No.
Following disease or condition exhibits single oral ulcer:
140
1.Trauma
2.Coccidioidomycosis
3.Syphilis
4.All of the above

Q.No. Which are the local predisposing factors for oral candidiasis &
141 candida associated lesions?
1.Imbalance of the oral microflora

2.Impaired helath status
3.Endocrine disorders
4.Chemotherapy
Right -> Imbalance of the oral microflora

Q.No. The method used for candida isolation in the clinic &
142 quantification from oral samples is:
1.Imprint culture
2.Impression culture
3.Oral rinse
4.All of the above

Q.No. Which of the following antifungal drug has Antistaphylococcal
143 activity?
1.Nystatin
2.Clotrimazole
3.Itra conazole
4.Miconazole
Right -> Clotrimazole

Q.No. Which of the following indicates the definitive diagnosis of oral
144 Hairy Leukoplakia?
1.Characteristic gross appearance of the lesion

2.If the lesion is non-responsive to antifungal therapy
3.Light microscopy of histologic sections revealing hyperkeratosis
koilocytosis & acanthosis
4.Hybridization of histologic specimens reveals
Right -> Hybridization of histologic specimens reveals

Q.No. Following are the criteria used for diagnosing epithelial dysplasia
145 except:
1.Loss of polarity of basal cells

2.Increased no. of mitotic figures
3.Decreased nuclear cytoplasmic ratio
4.Loss of intercellular adherence
Right -> Decreased nuclear cytoplasmic ratio

Q.No.
The drug which does not cause Lichenoid Reaction is:
146
1.Carbamazepine
2.Piroxicam
3.Oxpronolol
4.Atenolol
Right -> Atenolol

Q.No. The Blue, purple coloured lesion which is associated with oral
147 mucosal discolouration is:
1.Lymphoma
2.Lipoma
3.Mucocele
4.Vascular leiomyoma
Right -> Lymphoma

Q.No. Following are the etilogical factors for multifocal, diffuse or
148 generalized muco-cutaneous melanosis except:
1.Adrenal insufficiency
2.Hypothyroidism
3.Vit B12 deficiency
4.Cushing’s disease
Right -> Hypothyroidism
Q.No. Which of the syndrome is not associated with café au Lait
149 pigmentation?
1.Ring chromosome 7 syndrome

Right -> Ring chromosome 5 syndrome

Q.No.
Causes of oral petechiae are:
150
1.Oral intubation
2.Systemic lupus erythematosus
3.Forceful coughing
4.All of the above

Q.No.
Von Recklinghausen’s disease is also known as:
151
1.Neurofibromatosis
2.Neurofibroma
3.Schwannoma
4.Neurilemmoma
Right -> Neurofibromatosis

Q.No.
The clinical spectrum of Langerhan cell Histiocytosis includes:
152
1.Eosinophillic granuloma
2.Hand-Schuller-Christian disease
3.Letterer-Siwe disease
4.All of the above

Q.No.
Surgical treatment is indicated for following oral cancers except:
153
1.Tumours not involving bone

2.Tumours which lack sensitivity to radiation
3.Recurrence of tumours even after radiotherapy
4.When side effects of surgery are less than that of radiation
Right -> Tumours not involving bone

Q.No.
‘T4N2bM’ indicates which stage of the salivary gland cancer:
154
1.Tumour size greater than 6 cm, multiple ipsilateral node, no metastases

2.Tumour size less than 6 cm, single ipsilateral node, no metastases
3.Tumour size greater than 4 cm less than 6 cm, multiple ipsilateral node,
distant metases
4.None of the above
Right -> Tumour size greater than 6 cm, multiple ipsilateral node, no
metastases
Q.No. Which of the following is a T-cell neoplasm (Non- Hodgkin’s
155 lymphoma)?
1.Plasmacytoma
2.Mycosis fungoides
3.Mantle cell lymphoma
4.Hairy cell leukemia
Right -> Mycosis fungoides

Q.No.
Following drugs are used for the management of Mucositis:
156
1.Kaolin-Pectin
2.Aluminum Hydroxide
3.Doxepin HCL
4.All of the above

Q.No. When is Hyperbaric oxygen therapy indicated in Post-radiation
157 Osteonecrosis:
1.When wound is chronic & non progressive

2.When wound is active & progressive
3.When there is no pathologic fracture
4.When there is a pathologic fracture
Right -> When there is no pathologic fracture

Q.No. What is the action of Antimicrobial & Anticonvulsant medications
158 in the Head & Neck cancer?
1.Modifies pathologic process

2.Elevates pain threshold
3.Promotes sound sleep
4.Reduces inflammation
Right -> Modifies pathologic process

Q.No. Identification of regional salivary gland functional alterations &
159 inflammation is done by the following modality:
1.Radionuclide imaging
2.Positron emission tomography
3.Magnetic resonance imaging
4.Sialography
Right -> Positron emission tomography

Q.No. Lack of facial movement is seen in which of the following nerve
160 disorder or injury?
1.V
2.VI
3.VII
4.X
Right -> VII

Q.No.
Injury to Vagus nerve causes:
161
1.Trouble in swallowing
2.Dysarthria
3.Lateral gaze
4.Paresthesia
Right -> Trouble in swallowing

Q.No. Earache, trismus, alteral sensation in the mandibular branch
162 distribution, are some of the oro-facial pain symptoms that may
indicate serious disease such as:
1.Cardiac ischemia
2.Temporal arteritis
3.Carcinoma of the infratemporal fossa
4.Neurogenic disorder
Right -> Carcinoma of the infratemporal fossa

Q.No.
Following orofacial disorder is often confused with toothache are:
163
1.Trigeminal neuropathy
2.Atypical odontalgia
3.Acute & chronic maxillary sinusitis
4.All of the above

Q.No. Following are the gastrointestinal disturbances seen in uremic
164 syndrome except:
1.Parotitis
2.Gastritis
3.Asterixis
4.Ammoniacal taste & smell
Right -> Asterixis

Q.No.
Oral radiographic manifestations of renal disease are except:
165
1.Socket sclerosis
2.Thickening of lamina dura
3.Arterial calcification
4.Ground-glass appearance
Right -> Thickening of lamina dura

Q.No. Phenacetin is to be avoided in patients on dialysis due to the
166 following effect:
1.Nephrotoxicity
2.Catabolic effect
3.Alkalosis effect
4.Acidifying effect
Right -> Nephrotoxicity
Q.No. Which analgesic causes Haemolysis in Glucose-6- phospate
167 Dehydrogenase-Deficient patients?
1.Acetanilid
2.Primaquine
3.Dapsone
4.Pentaquine
Right -> Acetanilid

Q.No.
Increased polymorphonuclear neutrophils is seen in:
168
1.Agranulocytosis
2.Infectious diseases
3.Toxic states
4.Hyperspenism
Right -> Toxic states

Q.No.
Which of the following is a congenital neutropenia?
169
1.Bone marrow aplasia

2.Myelokataexis
3.Hypersplenism
4.Bone marrow dysplakia
Right -> Myelokataexis

Q.No. Following Immunosuppressive agents causes Hepatotoxicity
170 except:
1.Cyclosporine
2.Tacrolimus
3.Azathioprine
4.Muromonab-CD3
Right -> Muromonab-CD3

Q.No. In patients on radiation therapy on oral structures, there is
171 significant increase in which of the following micro-organisms:
1.Streptococcus mutans
2.Lactobacillus
3.Candida
4.All of the above

Reference : - > White & Pharoah (Oral radiology-Principle & Interpretation)-
6th/24
Q.No.
The lowest susceptible organ for Radiation induced cancer is:
172
1.Brain
2.Bone marrow
3.Bladder
4.Thyroid
Right -> Brain

6th/29
Q.No. What is the average annual effective dose of Dental ionizing
173 radiation?
1.0.08 µSv
2.0.01 µSv
3.0.4 µSv
4.1.2 µSv
Right -> 0.01 µSv
6th/33
Q.No.
X-ray films are very sensitive to which regions of the spectrum?
174
1.White
2.Red
3.Blue-green
4.Yellow
Right -> Blue-green

6th/69
Q.No. What is the development time for an intra-oral film at 760F
175 developer temp.?
1.1.5 mins
2.5 mins
3.4 mins
4.3 mins
Right -> 3 mins

6th/71
Q.No.
Film Fog is caused due to?
176
1.Overdevelopment
2.Underdevelopment
3.Double exposure
4.Excessive peak Kilovoltage
Right -> Overdevelopment

6th/74
Q.No. Excessive time in wash water causes following problem in an
177 intraoral x-ray?
1.Light x-ray
2.Emulsion peel
3.Film Fog
4.Blurring
Right -> Emulsion peel

6th/74
Q.No. What should be the exposure time insecs for the Xray of
178 edentulous periapical area of molar region?
1.0.20
2.0.25
3.0.30
4.0.35
Right -> 0.30

6th/102
Q.No.
How much angulation is to be given for mandibular premolar?
179
1.Plus five degrees

2.Minus five degrees
3.Plus ten degrees
4.Minus ten degrees
Right -> Minus ten degrees

6th/135
Q.No. Salivary stores are very w ell detected in which view of Intraoral
180 Radiograph?
1.Full mouth periapical

2.Occlusal
3.Conventional tomography
4.Panoramic
Right -> Occlusal

6th/248
Q.No.
Which is the most radiopaque material seen in plain radiograph?
181
1.Bone marrow
2.Trabecular bone
3.Metal
4.Cortical dentin
Right -> Metal

6th/264
Q.No.
All of the following may lead to internal resorption
182
1.Enamel invagination
2.Trauma
3.Pulpotomy
4.Pulpectomy
Right -> Pulpectomy

6th/317
Q.No.
Following is the differential Diagnosis for Hypercementosis:
183
1.Severely dilacerated root

2.Cementoblastoma
3.Mature cement-osseous dysplasia
4.All of the above
6th/322
Q.No.
Which of the following is not a periapical
184
1.Chronic periodontitis
2.Focal sclerosing osteitis
3.Osteoma
4.Periapical granuloma
Right -> Osteoma

6th/326
Q.No.
How much dose of radiation causes osteoradionecrosis?
185
1.50 Gy
2.100 Gy
3.1000 Gy
4.500 Gy
Right -> 50 Gy

6th/337
Q.No.
Incomplete removal of which gives rise to residual cyst? Cyst?
186
1.Dentigerous cyst
2.Radicular cyst
3.Hyperplastic follicle
4.Paradental cyst
Right -> Radicular cyst

6th/346
Q.No. The syndrome which comprises of multiple abnormalities such as
187 multiple nevoid basal cellcarcinomas of skin, skeletal
abnormalities, CNS abnormalities, eye abnormalities is known as?
carcinomas of skin, skeletal abnormalities, CNS abnormalities, eye
abnormalities is known as?
1.Basal cell nevus syndrome

2.Nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome
3.Gorlin-Goltz syndrome
4.All of the above

6th/354
Q.No. A cyst show female predominance with age of 46-50 yrs. & is
188 aggressive in nature & has tendency to recur after surgery is?
1.Lateral periodontal cyst

2.Calcifying odontogenic cyst
3.Sialo-odontogenic cyst
4.Gorlin cyst
Right -> Sialo-odontogenic cyst

6th/356
Q.No.
Which of the following is stochastic effect of Radiation?
189
1.Sub-lethal damage to DNA

2.Radiation induced cataract formation
3.Radiation induced mucositis
4.Severity of clinical effects is proportional to dose
Right -> Sub-lethal damage to DNA

6th/19
Q.No. The most radiosensitive cells have following characteristics
190 except:
1.High mitotic rate

2.Undergo many future mitosis
3.Low mitotic rate
4.Primitive in differentiation
Right -> Low mitotic rate

6th/20
Q.No.
The least radio sensitive organ is:
191
1.Salivary glands
2.Testes
3.Intestine
4.Muscle
Right -> Muscle

6th/22
Q.No. In acute radiation syndrome, severe Hematopoietic symptoms are
192 observed at following dose?
1.2 to 4 Gy
2.4 to 7 Gy
3.7 to 15 Gy
4.50 Gy
Right -> 4 to 7 Gy
6th/27
Q.No. Following is the processing errors of film exposure which causes
193 Dark Radiograph:
1.Excessive milliamperage
2.Excessive time
3.Accidental exposure to light
4.Film-source distance too short
Right -> Accidental exposure to light

6th/74
Q.No.
Cushing’s syndrome is caused due to:
194
1.Adrenal adenoma
2.Adrenal carcinoma
3.Medical therapy with exogenous corticosteroids
4.All of the above

6th/461
Q.No. The disorder of bone which results from a defect in the
195 differentiation & function of osteoclasts, is known as:
1.Albers-Schonberg disease
2.Marble bone disease
3.Osteopetrosis
4.All of the above

6th/465
Q.No.
Retention Pseudo cyst is also known as:
196
1.Bengin mucous cyst

2.Mesothelial cyst
3.Mucosal antral cyst
4.All of the above

6th/511
Q.No.
Growing anthrolith exhibits following clinical features:
197
1.Toothache
2.Pus filled nasal discharge
3.Facial pain
4.Severe itching
Right -> Facial pain

6th/513
Q.No. Apical migration of the alveolar bone on one side of the implant is
198 the radiographic sign implicating:
1.Nonaxial loading resulting from proper angulation of the implant

2.Unfavourable stress distribution during function
3.Failure of implant integration with the adjoining bone
4.Food lodgment resulting to periodontal pocket
Right -> Nonaxial loading resulting from proper angulation of the implant
6th/609
Q.No. The inflammation of the ductal system of the salivary glands is
199 known as:
1.Sialadenosis
2.Sialodochitis
3.Sialosis
4.Sialolithiasis
Right -> Sialodochitis

6th/586
Q.No. Which is the unilateral parotid gland enlargement?
200
1.Bacterial sialadenitis
2.Human immunodeficiency virus-associated multicentric cysts
3.Sialodochitis
4.Alcoholic hypertrophy
Right -> Sialodochitis

6th/579

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ORAL PATHOLOGY, MEDICINE & RADIOLOGY

Q.No. 2 Cheilitis granulomatosa is seen in all of the following except:

Q.No. 3 Which of the following is congenital cause of true macro-glossia?

Q.No. 5 In a heriditory autosomal dominant, LADD syndrome, D’ denotes:

1. Occlusion of lacrimal puncta, nasolacrimal duct

Q.No. 6 Intraoral verruca vulgaris can be treated by the following: following:

Right -> Noonan’s syndrome

Right -> Peutz-Jegher’s syndrome

Right -> Gargoylism

1.Occlusion of lacrimal puncta, nasolacrimal duct

Right -> Clinodactyly, enamel hypoplasia

Right -> All of the above

Right -> Junctional nevus

Right -> Increased cellular cohesion

Right -> Palatal crythema

Right -> Stage III

Right -> Raised surface

Right -> Venous lake

1.Invasion of subcutaneous fat

Right -> Invasion of subcutaneous fat

1.Central ossifying fibroma of bone

Right -> Giant cell tumour of bone

Right -> M. Leprae

Right -> Pyogenic granuloma

Right -> 1-26 days

Right -> Acute lymphnodular pharyngitis

Right -> Measles

Right -> Upto 2 weeks

Right -> Shingles

1.Human herpes virus type 6

Right -> Human herpes virus type-8

Right -> Histoplasmosis

Right -> Histoplasma capsulatum

Right -> Erythematous candidiasis

Right -> All of the above

Right -> Dentoperiosteal

1.Alveolar crest group

Right -> Horizontal group

Right -> Green stain

Right -> Mesenteric line

Right -> Mouth breathing

Right -> Acute infections

Right -> Leukoplakia

1.Plasma cell gingivitis

Right -> All of the above

1.Upper & lower 1st molars

Right -> Upper & lower 1st molars

Right -> White spot

1.It is a positive zone & is always present

Right -> Translucent zone

1.Aq. sodium fluoride 0.2%

Right -> Aq. Sodium Fluoride 0.05%

1.Deciduous molars & 1st permanent molars

Right -> Lower third moalrs

Right -> Gingivitis

1.Respiratory epithelium of the maxillary sinus

Right -> Oral epithelium from fistulous tract