HEMATOLOGY PAST PAPERS 3RD YEAR

RBC disorders
 Most common cause of megaloblastic anemia: Pernicious anemia
 Most common form of B12 deficiency? Pernicious anemia
 A 46-year female, gastric irritation, Achlorhydria? B12 def, hyper segmented neutrophils
 Macrocytic cells, most common cause of megaloblastic anemia? Vit b12, folic acid deficiency
 A vegetarian comes with anemia? Megaloblastic
 Which drug will not be given in megaloblastic anemia with neurologic symptoms? Folic acid
 A pt. taking methotrexate develops megaloblastic anemia, give him? Leucovorin
 In gastrectomy, which vitamin is given? Vit B12
 Presence of hyper segmented neutrophils is a feature of: Megaloblastic anemia
 Increased levels of methyl malonic acid is found in: Pernicious anemia
 Increased levels of homocysteine lead to? Atherosclerosis
 A Beta thal patient who gets regular blood transfusions done has started developing urticaria in the last 4-
5 months, what should you do? Give him antihistamines before starting transfusion
 Alpha thalassemia: Gene deletion
 Macrocytic anemia? Thalassemia
 In thalassemia, there is? Deficient globin chains or defective globin chain synthesis.
 Children suffering from B-thalassemia classically present at the age of : 6-9 months after birth
 Thalassemia B major clinical feature? +ve family history
 Thalassemia is characterized by? Increased HbA2
 In beta Thalassemia major, which one of the following hematological parameters is characteristically
altered? MCHC is decreased, MCHC is normal, TIBC is increased, Pancytopenia is marked, B globin
chains aggregations
 Crew cut appearance in x-ray is a feature of which of the following conditions? B-Thalassemia major
 Father Thalassemia + mother sickle cell anemia - least probably cause of child.
 target cell- thalassemia minor
 A person with G6PD deficiency- treatment? Inject the enzyme, prevent oxidative stress by avoiding
food and stuff that causes oxidative stress
 A pt. treated ẽ antimalarials, presented ẽ anemia? G6PD
 A pt. comes with anemia, lab investigation shows Heinz bodies? G6PD def.
 Following is true about G6PD? Cause of neonatal jaundice, Commonly presents as a chronic hemolytic
anemia
 G6PD crisis? Anti-malarial
 57 years old male, decreased MCV, increased MCHC, anemia? HS
 A pt.’s anima test shows cell deficient of spectrin? Diverse mutation of membrane skeleton
 Mode of inheritance? Autosomal dominant.
 What can be found on peripheral blood film? Spherocytes.
 Treatment for hereditary spherocytosis? Splenectomy.
 Test for hereditary spherocytosis? Osmotic fragility test
 Confirmatory test for RBC Spherocytosis?
 Spherocytes in anemia other than hereditary spherocytosis?
 Treatment of Hereditary Spherocytosis: Splenectomy
 Single most important diagnostic test for iron def anemia? Serum Ferritin
 Most common cause of iron deficiency anemia: Nutritional deficiency, Malabsorption
 Common cause of iron deficiency anemia? Peptic disease
 Rx of iron deficiency anemia is all but not? Folic acid
 Koilonychias is seen in anemia.
 Most imp cardinal sign in sickle cell anemia? Vaso occlusive crisis
 A case where a patient had bone pains, chest x ray showed pulmonary infiltrates? sickle cell anemia.
 Blood test done to detect sickle cell anemia: Osmotic fragility test, Schillings test

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 Only Tx for pain in sickle cell? Hydroxyurea
 Sickle cell clinical features? Skeletal abnormalities
 Diagnostic test for sickle anemia? Metabisulfite test
 Most prominent sickle cell crisis? Veno-occlusive
 In sickle, most featured complication is? Autospenectomy
 Most common cause of death in SCD? Acute chest syndrome
Bleeding disorders
 A guy had bleeding into his joints; his uncles also had it. What’s true? Mother is a carrier, sister is a
carrier, father has the same disease
 Hemophilia A is? X linked disease
 Female carrier married to a normal male; chances will be? 50%
 A baby came in for circumcision and was bleeding right after it and his brothers had the same problem
 What test should be done for this bleeding diathesis? Bleeding time
 Platelet aggregation defect: Glanzmann thrombasthenia
 Chronic ITP is due to? Antibodies
 In hemophilia A you give? Recombinant factor 8 products
 Regarding hemophilia? All cases have family history
 Platelet transfusion s indicated at? Platelet < 50,000
 Spontaneous bleeding occurs at? Platelet < 20,000
 Which one of the following statements is not true in hemophilia A? Bleeding is mainly mucosal
 A young school teacher following obstetric complications experiences respiratory distress. Syndrome with
ARF condition and coma followed by bleeding. Which of the following condition is most likely
possibility? DIC
 DIC is: PT, APTT is prolonged
 Factor 8 Dec, PTT and bleeding time increased - von Willebrand / hemophilia A
 HUS is a triad of- renal impairment + hemolytic anemia + thrombocytopenia
 Vit k deficiency leads to? Increased PT
 Microangiopathic, hemolytic anemia, fibrin use? DIC
 Shopkeeper gets mirror cut; lab report has increased megakaryocytes? Thrombocytopenia
 More than 3mm or less than 1cm? petechiae
 Bernard Soulier? Glycoprotein Ib antibodies
 HUS is systemic deposition of? Immune complexes
 Tortuous vein thin wall? Hereditary hemorrhagic telangient
WBC disorders
 Tdt staining is for? ALL
 A child with Hepatosplenomegaly? ALL
 Most common leukemia is of? B cell origin
 A patient who has CLL comes with jaundice- what is the cause? Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
 Proliferation centers are feature of? CLL/SLL
 Cells in CLL? Smudge cells
 Dry tap is seen in: Hairy leukemia
 Differentiating gene in CML: BCR-ABL
 Not a feature in Polycythemia: Hypotension
 Philadelphia chromosome? T(9:22)
 Philadelphia chromosome is associated with? BCR-ABL
 Philadelphia chromosome is associated with? CML
 A pt. suspected of CML, diagnostic test? Philadelphia chromosome
 30% EBV is associated with? Burkett’s lymphoma
 Disseminated lymphadenopathy above & below diaphragm in NHL stage? No stage
 Another question on a person with non-HL had mesenteric and aortic nodes also involved, what stage is
this? 3
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 Due to myelodysplastic fibrosis, there's extra medullary hematopoiesis. Which one of these is the most
common site of extra med hematopoiesis? Spleen
 Ringed sideroblastic are found in? myelodysplastic syndrome
 Tumor of T helper cells: Sezary syndrome
 What does leucoerythroblastic mean? Immature RBCs and WBCs
 In leucoerythroblastic what would you find in a peripheral blood smear
 Lymphoma treatment? combination chemotherapy, radiotherapy, steroids, imatinib
 Treatment plan includes all of the following except? Anti CD20 and anti CD56 antibody
 In one of the lymphoma/leukemia sbl's, the drug's mechanism of action. Inhibits the synthesis of the
essential amino acid asparaginase.
 Cells with Auer rods were asked. Myeloblastic type of leukemia.
 Correct statement for stages of Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma:
 Most common Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma in USA? Diffuse
 In hematological malignancies: All forms of AML have their lowest incidence in old life
 M3- pro myelocytic leukemia
 Not a characteristic of acute myelogenous leukemia
 True about ALL? NO blast cells seen in BM & periphery
 Mediastinal mass in 14-year-old boy? ALL
 Most common non-HL? Follicular, large B cell
 A person with HL has lymph nodes above AND below the diaphragm involved, what stage is this? 3
 Interpretation of Stage IA Hodgkin’s lymphoma: LN one side of neck
 In Hodgkin’s lymphoma, reed-Stenberg cells are seen. Lacunar variant seen in nodular sclerosis.
 Diagnostic test for Hodgkin’s lymphoma in a lymph node: FNAC, excision biopsy and histopathology
 Stage IV Hodgkin lymphoma has a prognosis of:
 60 to 70% Lymphocytes predominating HL? Nodules are present
 Mixed cellularity HL? Mononuclear variant
 Best prognosis f HL? Lymphocyte predominance
 Max reed-Sternberg cells are present in?
 Hodgkin lymphoma- thymic mass.
 Which one of the following is the most common type of Hodgkin lymphoma? Nodular sclerosis
Pharmacology
 Which drug decreases the anti-coagulation effect of warfarin? Rifampin, cimetidine
 Gp2b/3a antagonist? Abciximab
 Cardiac toxicity? Doxorubicin
 ADP inhibitor of platelet? Clopidogrel
 Rx of thrombosis is all except? Anti-fibrinolytic
 Cyclophosphamide (alkylating agent)
 Which of these is not a platelet inhibitor? Abciximab, eptifibatide, tirofiban, warfarin, vit K
 A question regarding heparin apart from the sbl. Heparin shows its effect in collaboration with
antithrombin.
 Ibuprofen used in? closing PDA in premature
 Some drug that was causing megaloblastic anemia, you can reverse that by giving? Cyanocobalamin (vit
b12)
 True about Heparin? Not contra in pregnancy
 True about warfarin - safe in pregnancy.
 Heparin can be given in!? Pregnancy
 S/E of warfarin? Severe birth defects
 Milk and Egg white is? mechanical and physical Antidote
 Aspirin incorrect statement - It inhibits phospholipase as well as Cox.
 MOA of folic acid synthesis inhibitors? Inhibit conversion of DHF to THF
 Tranexamic acid is antidote for? Fibrinolysis

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 Iron toxicity is mediated by? Necrotizing gastroenteritis
 Iron chelating agents? De-ferrousamine
 Busulfan is? Alkylating agent
 Tacrolimus is? Calcineurin inhibitor
 Oral anti-coagulant, BT will decrease by? Oral contraceptives
 A pt. developed HIT, change with? Lepirudin
 Drug given for parenteral iron therapy? Dextran iron
 Leucopenia is associated with which of the following disease? Anticancer drugs
 Which one of the following thrombolytic agents has very short half-life & is fibrin selective? Alteplase
 Which one of the following is the fastest route of administration? Sublingual
 5-flourouracil: Inhibits thymidylate synthase
 In treatment of acute leukemia, most tumor bulk is destroyed in: Remission induction
 Which of the following condition does not require heparin as a treatment? Dilated Cardiomyopathy
 Which of the following anticancer drugs is not an anticancer antibiotic? Chlorambucil
 Methotrexate is contraindicated for use in: Pregnancy
 Alteplase given in? acute ischemic stroke
 Alteplase made by? DNA recombinant
Vaccination
 The capacity of a vaccine to cause immune reaction is: Immunogenicity
 How many vaccines are included in the EPI program? 9.
 Which vaccine is given subcutaneously?
 Which vaccine is given intra muscularly?
 Which vaccine is going to be added to EPI program very soon? Rotavirus, hep A.
 Measles second dose should be given when? 15 months
 Which of the following is the Range of T at which vaccines should be stored during transportation? 0-8 ⁰C
 How many doses of tetanus toxoid are given to a person in EPI? 4 doses
 How many doses of BCG are given to a child in a life time? One
 DPT vaccine?
 Giving immunoglobulin made in another body is? Passive
 Immunizing of whole community? herd immunity
 Vaccines given at birth OPV+BCG
Misc.:
 Shelf life of whole blood is? 2-3 weeks, 4 weeks, 5-6 weeks, 8 weeks, 12 weeks
 The extrinsic pathway of blood coagulation is initiated by? Thromboplastin
 Which chains are found in HbA? 2 alpha 2 beta
 Reflection of status of body iron? Ferritin
 One pint of blood increases Hb by 1gm/dl and HCT by 3%
 WHO criteria for anemia in infants are Hb less than 110 g/L (11 mg/dl).
 Cells with high nuclear : cytoplasmic ratio having fine chromatin.
 Which of these products is not prepared from blood? Recombinant factor VIII
 In acute blood loss anemia is? Normocytic normochromic
 Rh incompatibility causes? Anemia in infants
 Hemostatic factors by endothelium?
 Hemolytic anemia may be caused by? Mushroom poisoning
 Following can cause anemia? Ancylostoma duodenale
 Coagulation pathways meet at? Factor X
 Warm antibody hemolytic anemia dx? IgG level
 A “dry tap” is a characteristic of: Aplastic anemia
 Inc. RBC count in male in comparison to female of same age group is due to: Androgens
 Adverse reaction of chronic iron overload in the body? Hemochromatosis

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 Regarding Comb’s test (DAT)?
 Hemoglobinuria? Intravascular hemolysis
 Chronic intravascular hemolysis? Hemosiderinuria
 Feature of Aplastic anemia? retiulopenia
 Features of extra vascular hemolysis: gall stones
 Howell Jolly bodies seen in? post Splenectomy
 Decreased red cell production is shown in peripheral smear as: Reticulocytosis
 Which one of the following is not a reaction to blood transfusion? Hypocalcemia
 Dog bite question? ARV
 Immediate transfusion reaction is characterized by: Acute extra vascular hemolysis, Occurs 3-14 days
after transfusion, Associated with ABO IgM is antibodies, Result of IgG antibodies, Hemolysis of IgG
coated antibodies occur in the spleen
 most accurate technique to determine cause of anemia
 poly chromic basophilic stippling
 not presentation of hemolytic diseased newborn- Hydrops fetalis
 test doesn't affect mother- Pv ultrasound
 Low MCV in? iron deficiency anemia
 ESR low? Inability to rouleaux formation
 Following is not a basic test? Lumbar puncture
 MCH? Average mass of Hb per RBC
 Carpopedal spasm and twitching after some transfusion, management? iv diazepam
 The best way to maintain compliance of a drug: Patient and patients’ needs are fully articulated
 Info not needed to tell patient? Natural regression
Cases/OSPEs
A pt. whose sclera appeared icteric, splenomegaly, total bilirubin raised, direct bilirubin & LDH
normal
 His sclera appeared icteric because of? hemolysis or hypersplenism
 His reticulocyte count raised due to? hemolysis
An 80-year-old lady having anemia, brought to opd by husband.
 She suffered from nutritional deficiency, because of which there was decreased DNA synthesis.
 Prescribed her B12 injections
 I believe yak packed cells they shayad.
 Which part of the history will you focus on? I marked dietary history.
Baloch girl sbl disease? Thalassemia trait?-She is going to be married after 6 months.
 Which test do you prescribe? Hb electrophoresis
 Treatment?
SBL; There was a schematic diagram of extrinsic and intrinsic clotting pathways along with a photograph of
pretibial petechiae. There was this statement before the questions: Master Shafique (6 years old) with a history
of fever develops petechiae and purpuric spots.
 What test should be done? Bleeding profile& platelet count
 His manifestation due to? Decreased platelet count
 Platelet half-life? 10 days
 Which is ant platelet drug? Aspirin
 Diagnosis? ITP

SBL (Pulmonary embolism)

 Most common cause? Deep vein thrombosis.
 Investigation? Pulm CT angiography
 Most common cause Of DIC? Bacterial sepsis
 DIC is due to? Release of tissue factor

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 D-dimers is accurate for? DIC
A case in which bone marrow biopsy showed hypercellularity over 80% and myeloblasts 3%.
 Dx; chronic myelocytic leukemia.
 distinguishing feature of an acute pathology should have been blast cells
OSPE: Chronic myeloid leukemia
 Case was given; it said the person is suffering from? CML.
 60% of cases of CML progress to: myelofibrosis
 Hallmark of primary myelofibrosis: Obliterative marrow
fibrosis
 Which of these cells is not present in myelofibrosis:
Pseudo-Pegler-Huet cells, Tear-drop RBC’s, large platelets,
leukoblastosis, erythroblastosis

OSPE: Sickle cell anemia

 Identify lesion? Sickle cell anemia
 In this disease, there is an abnormality of: red cell
membrane
 Sickling occurs due to: dehydration

OSPE
1. Identify the lesion shown in figure: Hodgkin’s
lymphoma
2. Microscopically which cell is important? Reed-
Sternberg cell
3. Characteristic immune marker in the diagnosis of above
disease: CD15 and CD30
4. The lesion is a disease of? Lymph nodes
5. Clinical manifestation of this lesion is:
Lymphadenopathy
SBL which mentioned about normocytic normochromic erythrocytes with rouleaux formation.
 Dx; It should have been multiple myeloma.
 Cells affected; Plasma cells are affected,
 Lab; Serum protein electrophoresis
 Morpho; Monoclonal gamma globulins
 Most common serum monoclonal immunoglobulin (M protein) in patients with multiple myeloma? IgG
Chemotherapy:
 Which of these is NOT one of the commonest complications of chemotherapy? Bladder cancer, alopecia,
stomatitis, vomiting.
 A question where definitions of adjuvant chemotherapy, neoadjuvant chemotherapy and other words was
given, and we had to pick up the wrong one.
 Chemotherapy should not be done in
(ABO incompatibility)
 Blood group B will have? Anti A antibodies
 Which thalassemia is incompatible with life? Hydrops fetalis
 Incompatible transfusion from B to O.
SBL (Iron)
 Iron is needed in children for? Brain growth, bone growth, stature something,
 Daily iron loss? 1 g
 Iron supplements should be given to? Children, lactating mother, infants.
 Iron directly affects? Blood concentration

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 How much iron is lost each day from our body? 1 g
 Iron is needed in less quantity because? Its recycled
 What daily requirement of iron in pregnant females?
 Is needed for the absorption of iron? Ascorbic acid
SBL (Immunity)
 T lymphocytes function in? Immune response.
 Plasma cells produce? Anti-bodies.
 Plasma cells are produced from? B cells.
 T cells mature in? thymus

HEMATOLOGY MODULE PAPER D22

 Heinz bodies cause intravascular hemolysis
 HBA chains: Two alpha and two beta chains
 Hot and cold antibodies: IgG and IgM
 Sickling of rbcs causes: hemolysis and occlusive crises
 A pregnant lady in her 3rd trimester, iron deficiency anemia. What type of cells will you find?
Hypochromic, microcytic
 Slicing mutation in B thalassemia: B°
 Intravascular hemolysis= reticulocytes are normal
 Best diagnosis for iron deficiency?
 Coombs test positive in ....DIC, AIHA
 Neutropenia: aplastic anemia
 Characteristic of sideroblastic anemia: refractory anemia
 Aplastic anemia? HSM is not present
 Loss of central pallor: hereditary spherocytosis
 Progressively increasing pallor & dyspnea, severe anemia, splenomegaly of 8 cm: Sickle cell
 Giant nonfunctional platelets, thrombocytopenia etc. Inheritance pattern of this disease is: Autosomal
recessive (They asked about Bernard-soulier syndrome)
 Increased BT and PFA-100 is abnormal diagnostic test: vWF activity, vWF antigen, flow cytometry
 A 5-month-old child, bleeding from genitals. Child's activities and reflexes were intact? Hemophilia
 Both arterial and venous thrombosis in: SLE
 Protein C due to which vitamin: K
 In hemophilia: PT, APTT, BT
 Hemophilia B: Deficiency of factor IX
 Hemolytic uremic syndrome: fragmented RBCs
 Functional platelet defect? Normal or low platelet, APTT and PT Normal
 Severe liver damage due to cirrhosis. Person will be unresponsive to? Vitamin K
 Hodgkin lymphoma: reed Sternberg cells
 70 yrs. old male presented with pain in back, generalized lymphadenopathy what will be seen on tests?
Hypercalcemia
 Blood transfusion is not required in: DIC
 EBV virus; in Burkett lymphoma
 What's seen in CML : inc basophils
 Hodgkin lymphoma most common form? nodular sclerosis
 In mixed cellularity lymphoma: mononuclear
 Lymphoproliferative type of Hodgkin’s lymphoma is characterized by Popcorn cells? Lymphocytes
predominant
 Acute myelogenous leukemia = gum infiltration
 Common feature of ALL? Only T cells, Only B cells
 Leukemoid reaction

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 What cross match tests should be taken before organ transplant? Minor histocompatibility, Major
histocompatibility
 What is common among all types of myeloproliferative disorders? Hypoplasia of bone marrow
 Cause of neutropenia: Aplastic marrow, Steroids, Infection
 Interleukin cause: chemotaxis
 Which of the following blood cells have phagocytic activity? Neutrophils
 Basophils produce? histamine and heparin.
 Eosinophilia: allergen and parasites
 In general lymphadenopathy best lymph node for examination: supraclavicular, Para-aortic, Mediastinal
 Something just like this primary graft failure: 5 days 30 days
 T cells of recipient recognize MHC on? donor's antigen presenting cells
 The case was that lady received 6 units of blood and developed spasm in hands and had flushed face
something. What to give to relieve her condition? IV diazepam
 Tacrolimus is: Calcineurin inhibitor
 Alteplase works by: Converting plasminogen into active plasmin
 Drugs that work by inhibiting ADP binding to platelet receptor: abciximab
 Drug inhibiting only factor 10A: Heparin(unfractionated), rivaroxaban
 Streptokinase is contraindicated in ? DIC
 Platelet aggregation inhibitor drug: aspirin
 The capacity of a vaccine to cause immune reaction is: Immunogenicity
 The best way to maintain compliance of a drug: Patient and patients’ needs are fully articulated
 Indoor air pollution: 1.Elderly 2.women and children 3.middle age men 4.pregnant women 5.no age
 Hospital staff used wrong instruments
 Cephalic index is: Ratio of maximum breadth of skull to its maximum length
 Inappropriate one; Clavicles fuse by the age of 10 yrs., Lambdoid suture closes by 30-40 yrs.,
Parietosigmoid suture by 40-50 yrs., Occipital by 70 yrs., Anterior fontanels by 1 yr.
 Age and sex determination of a skeleton: skull/mandible
 Correct statement for age estimation: Gustafson uses microscopic examination of LS to assess changes
due to wear and tear
 Which one of the following is cold according to cold and hot theory: diarrhea, ulcers, rash
Case on G6PD
 G6PD inheritance pattern: X linked recessive
 Heinz bodies cause: Intravascular hemolysis
 Heinz bodies form due to: Enzyme defect
Case on pulmonary embolism : 70-year-old man comes with dyspnea.
 He was a smoker and have had: DVT.
 JVP was: decreased.
Case: 4 yr. old child .... nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio
 Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
 Treatment: asparaginase
HEMATOLOGY SEMESTER PAPER D22
1. Most common inherited hemolytic anemia?
a. Hereditary spherocytosis
b. Sickle cell
c. G6PD deficiency
d. Autoimmune hemolytic
2. Blister cells and bite cells : G6PD Deficiency
3. Erythropoietin is given in chronic kidney disease.
4. Worm infestation, which type of anemia? Megaloblastic, Iron deficiency, vit b12
5. Non neoplastic cells in? Aplastic anemia
6. Most common Cause of iron deficiency anemia? diet

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7. Poikilocytoses : iron def
8. Iron def: koilonychia
9. What about that left sided hemiplegia one? Sickle cell anemia
10. Bone swollen thi symptoms me : sickle cell
11. Person with a motorcycle accident: Normochromic normocytic anemia?
12. Mcv to check morphology of rbcs
13. Bloody diarrhea, anemia and kidney involved. Blood smear - schistocytes
14. related to pernicious anemia? Person after partial gastrectomy had neurological symptoms and
macrocytic anemia
15. female in her early twenties develops easy bruising and experiences gum bleeding. PT. APTT,
16. Bleeding time all in normal range. What does she have?
a. Thrombocytopenia
b. Vascular disorder
c. VWD
17. spontaneous bleeding occurs in thrombocytopenia when platelet count is
a. Less than 150,000
b. Less than 50,000
c. Less than 20,000
18. girl comes with complain of easy bruising and petechiae which appear on and off. Her brother had the
same problem. Her APTT and BT is increased. Most probable diagnosis: Hemophilia, vWF disease
19. Gingival bleeding+ aptt normal +pt normal +bleeding time prolong+ schistocytes? TTP
20. Aptt normal pt normal bleeding time prolonged+ petechial hemorrhages, But no fever no cns
involvement, Mild splenomegaly? ITP
21. Multiple coagulation factor deficiency? We will give fresh frozen plasma
22. Platelet infusion contraindicated in: TTP, ITP
23. Cns symptoms unremarkable, peripheral film- schistocytes
24. DIC due to gram -ve sepsis, 1st step to manage:
a. FFP
b. Platelet
c. IV antibiotic+ IV hydration
25. A 60-year-old female has generalized lymphadenopathy. Which lymph node biopsy would yield diagnosis
a. Supraclavicular
b. Paraaortic
c. Mediastinal
d. Jugulodigastric
e. Inguinal
26. I/V drug abuser has generalized lymphadenopathy. Which test would help in finding the cause of this
lymphadenopathy?
a. HIV serology
b. Bone marrow biopsy
c. Cbc
d. histopathology
27. which of the following are not neoplastic cells? (part of a cbl)
a. Lacunar
b. Mononuclear
c. Blast cell
d. Popcorn
e. Reed Sternberg cell
28. Lady already had Hodgkin lymphoma diagnosed and cured. But now she has right axial lymph node
enlargement and right breast lump. What is the diagnosis?
a. Hodgkin lymphoma
b. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
c. Breast cancer
29. The origin and synthesis of wbcs is called:
a. Leucopoiesis
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 b. Thrombopoiesis
c. Erythropoiesis
d. Hemostasis
30. Reed Sternberg cell in Hodgkin lymphoma
31. Starry sky. Burkitt
32. Correct about non-Hodgkin.
33. CML chromosome? 9:22
34. Multiple myeloma? Monoclonal band
35. Abnormal & uncontrolled production of white blood cells. leukemia.
36. Prognosis for lymphadenopathy
a. Hilar lymphadenopathy - poor prognosis
b. Increased LDH- good prognosis
37. Woman with severe back ache, Hb= 7mg/dl, creatinine 2%, finding on investigation:
a. Hypernatremia
b. Hypercalcemia
38. Erythropoietin receptor type?
a. Cytokine receptor
b. Tyrosine kinase receptor
39. Antidote of heparin? Protamine
40. Why LMW heparin is preferred over unfractionated heparin
41. Vit K given in? Peptic ulcer , heparin par ismy warfarin optn ni tha
42. Erythropoietin in chronic renal failure
43. Young female in her early twenties attends antenatal booking appointment. She have had 3 miscarriages.
She has mouth ulcers, joint pain and is evaluated for arthritis/arthralgia. Which test should determine the
cause of her symptoms:
a. Inc ESR and rheumatoid factor
b. Inc Serum ldl and bilirubin
c. Dec hb walay do options thy
44. which autoantibody is found in anti-phospholipid antibody syndrome
a. RA
b. ANA
c. Anti CCP
d. Anti-ds DNA
e. Anti-cardiolipin antibody
45. Mother was on epileptic drugs, baby got bleeding from genitals? vit K deficiency
46. Donors blood is undergone screening to protect recipient from
a. Viral infection
b. Bacterial infection
c. Protozoal infection
47. Vaccines given at birth: BCG and OPV
48. Diphtheria vac is: toxoid
49. A man has a history of eczema and allergic asthma. Which diagnostic test? CBC, chest X ray
50. Which antibodies of recipient attack donors blood cells. (idr but ques was somewhat like this)
a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgE
e. IgD
51. Maximum no of cells present in blood
a. platelets
b. erythrocyte
52. Small notched central incisors in : Syphilis
53. Guy who shot himself with gun gets instantaneous rigor. how to differentiate it from rigor mortis?
Indicates manner of death
54. Advantage of fingerprinting:
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 a. No special training
b. Applicable to all ages
c. Applicable to all persons
d. No special instrument required
e. Can specifically identify a person
55. What was the first immediate sign after death? Primary relaxation
56. Carpopedal spasm and twitching after some transfusion, management? iv diazepam
57. Giving immunoglobulin made in another body is? Passive
58. Immunizing of whole community? herd immunity
59. Vaccines given at birth OPV+BCG
60. Which factor is not important in transfusions? Occupation
61. Parasitic reaction? Eosinophils
62. Vitamin b12 converts homocysteine into methionine
63. Dead body thi 6 to 10 hrs. guzar chuky thy
a. Postmortem lividity
b. Potassium increase in csf
64. Diagnostic for rh incompatibility
a. Amniocentesis
b. Doppler MCA
c. Direct coombs test
d. Indirect coombs test
65. Dominant in viral infection? Lymphocytes
66. phagocytic cell that lives longer and gastric content something? Macrophages
Case on DVT
67. Which surgery most commonly causes DVT? Hip surgery
68. Which drug should be given? Heparin
69. Diagnostic test? U/S Doppler
70. Antidote to vit K? warfarin
71. Both arterial and venous thrombus ? protein S def
Ospe on Hodgkin lymphoma
72. Diagram shows: HL
73. Types of HL: 5
74. Non-classical HL? Lymphocyte predominance
Ospe on thalassemia major
75. Diagnosis? Thalassemia major
76. Test indicated? HPLC
77. Best treatment?
78. Next advice?
79. Your advice about children?
Ospe on iron deficiency anemia
80. Iron deficiency anemia
81. What to be advised?
82. What is deficient in diet
83. Single important test? Ferritin
84. It is absorbed in? duodenum

Compiled by: Shabir Ahmed D22

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