Rbi Grade-B: Self-Learning Material

Self-Learning Material
For
RBI Grade-B
Head Office
New Central Office Building,
Shahid Bhagat Singh Rd, Fort,
Mumbai, Maharashtra-40000
In co-ordination with
Mahendra Educational Pvt. Ltd.

CP-9, Vijayant Khand,Gomti Nagar, Lucknow-226010
Toll Free No.- 1800-103-5225 website : mahendras.org

(9 A.M. - 6 P.M.)
Training Material 1
Self-learning material
For candidates preparing for examination
for
RBI Grade-B
Written examination
Selection will be through Online Examination and Interview. The Online Examination will be
for 200 marks
Serial Section No. of Maximum Duration
Number Asked Marks
Questions
1. General Awareness 80 80 Composite
2. Quantitative Aptitude 30 30 time of 2 hours
3. English Language 30 30
4. Reasoning 60 60
Total 200 200
(i) The above tests except the Test of English Language will be available bilingually, i.e.
English and Hindi.
(ii) A candidate has to qualify in each part of the Objective test separately. There will be
negative marks for wrong answers in the Objective tests. 1/4th marks will be deducted
for each wrong answer. Candidates will have to pass in each of the objective tests.
2 Training Material
TEST OF ENGLISH LANGUAGE

This test intends to measure your proficiency in English language. English language ability
will be tested through questions/items on functional grammar, reading comprehension,
context based vocabulary etc. There will be no questions on English Literature, or on poetic
expressions.
The different types of questions which are used in this test can be classified as :
(A) Spotting the Error
(B) Sentence Correction/Phrase Replacement
(C) Fill in the blanks
(D) Cloze Test
(E) Reading Comprehension
(F) Rearrangement of Sentences
(G) Odd one out / Use of appropriate words
Each of the above measures one or more areas of language abilities.
(A) Spotting the Error:
Candidate’s familiarity with the conventions and grammatical rules of standard written English
is tested in this type of questions. The Emphasis here will be on assessing knowledge of
correct expression. A correct sentence should be grammatically and structurally correct.
Each question in this section is divided into four parts and each part is numbered as (1), (2),
(3) & (4). You have to decide whether there is any error in the sentence and find out in which of
the parts the error exists, if there is any. The number of that part is the answer. If the sentence
is correct, your answer is “5” i.e. “No error”. Study the examples given below :
Ex.1. She could not / vote in the coming election / since she will not be / eighteen, by then. No error
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
Note that the sentence has been divided into four parts and each part is numbered. The
sentence is about the ineligibility of a female to vote in the coming election as she has not
attained the required age. The tense in the First part of the sentence does not agree with the
tense in the other three parts of the sentence. Hence the error is in part (1). Therefore “1” is
the answer to this question.
You should note that if the sentence has an error, it will be in only one part. It should be
possible to correct the sentence by making changes in that part only. If you locate a part which
according to you contains an error and it requires changes in other parts as well, this is not
to be considered as an error.
Ex.2. He could be successful / only after working / very hard over / a long period of time. No error
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
In the above sentence you will note that there is no grammatical error. Therefore your answer
to this question should be “5” which is “No error.
(B) Sentence Correction/Phrase Replacement:
In this type of questions, a sentence is given in which a group of words/phrase is printed in
bold type. The phrase may contain a grammatical or idiomatic error in it. Below the sentence
are given four phrases numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4) one of which can correctly substitute
the phrase printed in bold type if it contains an error. The number of that phrase which can
correctly substitute the wrong phrase is the answer. If the sentence is correct as it is, i.e. the
phrase printed in bold type does NOT contain any error, the answer is (5) i.e. No correction
required.
Example 1 :
In which newspaper the Chief Minister’s speech appeared?
(1) did the Chief Minister’s speech appeared
(2) did the Chief Minister’s speech appear
(3) the Chief Minister’s speech was appeared
(4) the Chief Minister’s speech did appear
(5) No correction required
Note that the phrase printed in bold type contains an error. In the above sentence, which is
an interrogative sentence the correct grammatical structure would be “In which news paper
Training Material 3
did the Chief Minister’s speech appear ?” Thus the correct substitute for the erroneous phrase
printed in bold type in the sentence is the one which is denoted by answer number “2”. Hence
the correct answer to the above question is “2”.
Example 2 :
In the following question a part of the sentence is given in bold, it is then followed by three
sentences which try to explain the meaning of the phrase given in bold. Choose the best set
of alternatives from the five options given below each question which explains the meaning
of the phrase correctly without altering the meaning of the sentence given as question.
A human rights group is urging the nearly one million US citizens who live in Mexico to vote
in hopes of keeping Republican Trump out of the White House.
(I) to be hopeful of getting the US President Trump back.
(II) to be hopeful of showing the US President way out of the President house.
(III) to be positive about voting out the US President.
(1) Only (I) is correct (2) Only (II) is correct
(3) Both (II) and (III) are correct (4) None is correct
(5) All are correct
In the above sentence, the phrase printed in bold basically emphasis that the U.S. citizens want
Triumph to be out of the white house. Hence the answer is “3” which includes both statements
(I) and (III)
(C) Fill in the blanks :
This type of questions measure your ability to recognize words and phrases that both logically
and grammatically complete the meaning of the sentence. A sentence is given with a word/
phrase missing in it. The missing word will be indicated by a blank. You have to find the most
appropriate word/phrase from the given alternatives. In deciding which of the five words best
fills the blank space, you must consider the context provided by the sentence.
Given below are two items for practice :
Example 1 :
Virat went on foot; but he ................ gone by bus to reach on time.
(1) would have (2) may have (3) must have (4) should have (5) might have
In the above example, the first clause states how the action has actually taken place. The
fact is that “Virat went on foot”. The latter part conveys what Virat should have done instead
of going on foot. Therefore the most appropriate group of words to fill in the blank in the
sentence is “should have” i.e. answer number 4. The other answers are misfit in the context
of the sentence.
Example 2 :
In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each five pairs of words
have been denoted by numbers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). Find out which pair of words can be
filled in the blanks in order to make a meaningful sentence.
A good monsoon, _____ and timely decision making at the Centre will definitely push India’s
growth ______ the 8 per cent mark in subsequent quarters of this fiscal.
(1) reform, blurred (2) reunite, exasperated (3) reforms, beyond
(4) implore, far (5) revive, sicest
On the basis of the meaning conveyed by the above sentence, it is obvious that a word which
is related to guidelines and a word which would mean something more are required. Therefore
the correct words to be filled up in the blanks are reforms and beyond. Therefore the answer is
“3”.
(D) Cloze Test :
You may be given a passage with some of the critical words missing in it. Study the instructions
and the passage that follows.
Instructions : In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered
as well as filled with a word which may be appropriate in context of the passage or maybe
not. If the word highlighted is incorrect and needs improvement then choose any one option
suggested given below. But if the given word is correct and requires no change then mark (5)
i.e. no change required as your answer.
4 Training Material
Climate change may negatively impact the sea turtle population, as warmer temperatures could
lead to higher numbers of females and increased nest failure, scientists have akin__ (1).
The series____ (2) at which sea turtle embryos incubate determines the sex of an individual,
which is known as temperature-dependent sex determination (TSD). The pivotal temperature
for TSD is 29 degrees Celsius as both males and females are produced in equal proportions—
above 29 degrees Celsius mainly females are produced while below 29 degrees Celsius more
males are born.
“Up to a certain point, warmer incubation temperatures benefit sea turtles because they increase
the natural growth rate of the population: more females are origin____ (3) because of TSD,
which leads to more eggs being laid on the beaches,” said Jacques.
However, beyond a critical temperature, the natural growth rate of the population decreases
because of an increase of temperature-linked in-nest mortality, researchers said.
“Temperatures are too high and the developing embryos do not survive. This threatens the
long-term survival ____ (4) of this sea turtle population,” Laloe said. Within the context of
climate change and warming temperatures, all else being equal, sea turtle populations are
expected to be more female-biased in the future.
While it is known that males can mate with more than one female during the breeding season,
if there are too few males in the population this could threaten population viability, researchers
said. Sea turtle eggs only develop only ____ (5) in a relatively narrow thermal range of about
25-35 degrees Celsius, so if incubation temperatures are too low the embryo does not develop
but if they are too high then development fails, they said.
Q.1. (1) squabble (2) slump (3) warned (4) hived off (5) No change required
Q.2. (1) level (2) pressure (3) temperature (4) moisture (5) No change required
Q.3. (1) produced (2) tentacle (3) delved (4) swathe (5) No change required
Q.4. (1) supremacy (2) mercy (3) unnerving (4) fitting (5) No change required
Q.5. (1) knowingly (2) thoroughly (3) abrupt (4) successfully (5) No change required
It may be noted that each blank space is to be so filled up that the passage in totality becomes
meaningful. If you consider each sentence in isolation, each of the four words suggested for
filling up the blank fits appropriately as far as the limited context of the sentence is concerned.
But when you consider the passage as a whole only one of the four words can correctly fill up
the blank. The fifth option says no correction required which means out of the four alternatives
given none fits the passage and word given in the passage is the most suited word.
In order to comprehend the content, read the entire passage with the blanks and try to get
some clues about the meaning that the passage conveys. On the basis of those clues find out
which particular word fits best into the blank so that the meaning of the passage is dazzlingly
clear.
For example, in the above passage each of the four words given against Q.No.1 can fit best
grammatically in the blank space numbered 1 in the first sentence. However as we read the
passage further, we get a clue that the passage conveys about “the impact of the climate
change on turtle population” etc. With this clue, the only correct word that can fill up the blank
no.1is “warned” which is answer number “3”. Similarly, for Q.No.3 “produced “ is the only word
which fits in, in the context of the whole passage. For question no. 2 answer is temperature,
question no. 4 “ no change required” and for question no. 5 “successfully”
(E) Reading Comprehension :
Questions on reading comprehension measure the ability to understand, analyze and apply
information and concepts presented in the written form. All questions are to be answered on
the basis of what is stated or implied in the given passage. Reading comprehension, therefore
evaluates your ability to:
* understand words and statements in the given passage
* understand the logical relationships between points and concepts in the given passage
* draw inference from facts and statements in the given passage.
Guidelines for answering the Reading Comprehension Questions.
Given below are some guidelines which would be of use to you in answering satisfactorily the
questions set on the passage.
I. Answer all questions on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage itself. Even when
you do not agree with what the author of the passage is saying, do not let your opinions or
Training Material 5
knowledge and information influence your judgment of what the author is saying.
II. Read the questions carefully, making sure that you understand what is being asked. If need
be refer back to the passage for finding the answer.
III. Read all the alternatives carefully. Without first reading all the alternatives, do not assume that
you have selected the best answer.
IV. Remember that understanding is the critical factor in reading comprehension.
An example of this type of questions is given below :
Q.1-6. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain
words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some
questions.
A data glove, which measures the individual joint angles of all the five fingers to understand
the activity of daily living, developed by Nayan Bhatt, Research scholar from the Department
of Applied Mechanics, IIT Madras. Mr. Bhatt has been working on developing models for
studying finger kinematics for the past three years.
The data glove has 15 sensors that help in gathering information about kinematics or
hand motion. The sensors are placed on the segments of a finger — each finger has three
segments and the junction between two segments forms a joint. Each sensor is connected to
a microcontroller board using a flexible wire to collect data.
“The sensors measure the joint angles through the change in orientation information. We are
interested in gathering information about motion of the fingers excluding the wrist,” said Mr.
Bhatt. “In the case of people with Parkinson’s disease, the data glove will provide information
about hand kinematics and help clinicians assess the severity of disease. It will complement
the traditionally used Universal Parkinson’s Disease Rating Scale.”
The development may find application in animation and other industries. Unlike in the case of
the conventional data glove, the sensors are placed directly on each segment of the finger to
avoid any deformation. “We placed the sensors directly on the segments of fingers as the use
of cloth like in a traditional data glove can hinder natural movements and also cause slippage
or deformation,” he said.
Efforts are on to reduce the number of sensors used. “We will first use all the 15 sensors to
perform some training postures, which will then be used for developing an algorithm that will
reduce the number of sensors used. Currently, with the machine learning algorithm developed
by Mr. Bhatt. We can use as few as eight sensors. “We are using the prototype to develop
products for speech-related disability,” Dr. Varadhan said. “By using specific movements of
a finger for specific words, the data glove can help speech-disabled people to communicate.
We can use a speech synthesiser and speaker to generate sound.” Work has to be done to
first map specific words to specific movements of the finger.
One finger can move in different directions. So the total number of joint angles is about 21.
Sensors have been used to sense all the 21 angles. “Ten predicted angles have large errors of
more than two degree, and the remaining angles have less than 2 degree error. The average
is five degrees. In a few months, with advanced algorithms, we might be able to reduce the
average prediction error to two-three degrees,” Dr. Varadhan said.
Q.1. For which of the following purposes 15 sensors of data glove can help?
(1) In gathering information about the total number of joint angles.
(2) In gathering information about kinematics or hand motion.
(3) In gathering information about the remaining angles.
(4) In gathering information about the specific movements of the finger.
(5) In gathering information about developing an algorithm.
Q.2. How can the data glove help speech-disabled people to communicate?
(1) By using specific trajectory swiping movements for specific words.
(2) By using specific rotational hand movements for specific words.
(3) By using specific movements of a finger for specific words.
(4) By using specific movements of a thumb towards the right direction for specific words.
(5) Both 2 and 3
Q.3. In the case of people suffering from Parkinson’s disease, how can the information
provided by the data glove help clinicians?
6 Training Material
(1) By assessing the reasons of the Parkinson’s disease.
(2) By assessing the the machine learning algorithm developed by Mr. Bhatt.
(3) By assessing the severity of the Parkinson’s disease.
(4) By learning the daily living activities of the people suffering from Parkinson’s disease.
(5) By assessing the remedial actions of the Parkinson’s disease.
Q.4. As per the passage which of the following can be used to generate sound?
A. A speech synthesiser B. A speaker C. A transmitter D. A receiver
E. An encrypted language
(1) Both B and C (2) Both C and D (3) Both D and E
(4) Both A and B (5) All Except C
Q.5. Choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning as the word printed in bold
as used in the passage.
Flexible
(1) Tough (2) Mettle (3) Benediction
(4) Derelict (5) Rigid
Q.6. Choose the word most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold, as used in the passage.
Orientation
(1) Direction (2) Interrogation (3) Impression
(4) Formation (5) Generation
Answers
Q.1.(2) The answer choice can be best understood while going through second paragraph of the given
passage.
Q.2.(3) The answer choice can be best understood while going through the last part of the fifth
paragraph of the given passage.
Q.3.(3) The answer choice can be best understood while going through middle part of the third
Q.4.(4) The answer choice can be best understood while going through the very last part of the fifth
Q.5.(5) For other options
Mettle(N)-Fortitude
Benediction(N)-prayer
Derelict(N)-vagabond
Q.6.(1) For other options
Impression(N)-Feeling
(F) Rearrangement of sentences :
EXAMPLE -1
Another set of questions, by which the ability to understand what is read to extract information
and to arrange the string of thoughts in logical order is assessed, is discussed below. These
questions test your ability to organize your thoughts and ideas in a suitable sequence.
Questions of this type require the candidates to rearrange the given set of jumbled sentences
in the proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph.
Q.1-5. The following conversation between two persons has been divided into six statements/
questions (A), (B), (C, (D), (E) and (F). Rearrange them in the proper sequence so as to form
a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them :
(A) “Absolutely nothing is wrong with me”.
(B) “Then I had never been hungry in the past”.
(C) “This word is quite new to me. What does it mean ?”
(D) “You are hungry, aren’t you ?”
(E) “Don’t you eat? One wants to eat and it is called hunger”.
(F) “Obviously something is wrong with your health then”.
Q.1. Which of the following should be the first sentence ?
(1) F (2) E (3) D (4) C (5) B
Q.2 . Which of the following should be the second sentence ?
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E
Q.3. Which of the following should be the third sentence ?
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E
Training Material 7
Q.4. Which of the following should be the fourth sentence ?
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E
Q.5. Which of the following should be the sixth (last) sentence ?
(1) F (2) A (3) D (4) C (5) B
While trying the above type of questions you should first read all the sentences and see the
context in which the sentences have been given. The above conversation between two persons
is based on the meaning and concept of the word “hunger” which is not known to one of them.
Once the meaning of each sentence is comprehended properly, the logical arrangement of
sentences could be easy.
EXAMPLE -2
In the following question, there is a passage of which some parts have been jumbled up and
are labelled (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), (F) and (G). One of the sentences is completely irrelevant
of the other sentences of the passage. Find out the irrelevant or odd sentence and then re-
arrange the rest of the sentences to make the passage meaningful and answer the questions
accordingly.
A. By 0.4 per cent in April 2016/February 2017,
B. The vice-chairman of the Niti Aayog is too good an economist not to know the mess we are
in.
C. In 2017, the growth was minus 1.2 per cent.
D. Since 2012, we are told that the next quarter will be better, but not how.
E. The latest period for which we have the facts.
F. A country aims to raise nuclear installed capacity to 58 gigawatts.
G. The Index of Industrial Production grew, by 2.4 per cent in 2015/16, but only
Q.1. What can be the correct sequence of the given passage?
(1) BEDFGC (2) DFEAGC (3) CAFBDG (4) BGAECD (5) BGFDAE
Q.2. Which of the following sentence is an odd one out sentence?
(1) A (2) F (3) C (4) D (5) G
The correct sequence is ‘BGAECD’ and the topic is based on ‘The blind men of NITI Aayog’
and the odd one out sentence is about a ‘country’s nuclear installation capacity’. Therefore
(F) is odd one out sentence.
(G) Spellings/use of appropriate words :
There may be some questions based on spotting errors of spelling or use of inappropriate
words in the sentence. Study the following :
Instructions : In the sentence below, four words which are printed in bold have been numbered
(1), (2), (3) and (4). One of them may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context
of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if there is any. The
number of that word is the answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spell and also
appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) as the answer i.e. All correct.
Q.1. He boasted that he would succed in the activity despite his lack of experience. All correct
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
In the above sentence, the word numbered (2) “succed* is wrongly spelt. The spelling of that
word should have been “succeed”. All other words printed in bold are spell correctly and also
are appropriate in the context. Therefore the right answer to this question is “2”.
Now read the following sentence.
Q.2. Due to exorbitant rise in prizes of essential commodities, people find it difficult to save. All correct
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
In the above sentence each of the words printed in bold is correctly spelt as far as The word
is considered in isolation. But when we consider the context provided by the sentence, the
bold word numbered “2” i.e. prizes is misfit i.e. inappropriate in the context .It should have
been prices. Therefore the right answer to this question is “2”.
To answer such question correctly, first look for the spelling of each word that is printed in
bold. If you find a word mis-spelt, mark the number of that word as your answer. In case you
find that all the four words printed in bold are correctly spelt, look for the context and judge
whether each of the four words is appropriate in the context of the sentence. If you find that
all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also are appropriate in the context, your
answer will be (5) i.e. All correct
8 Training Material
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
CHAPTER
1 SIMPLIFICATION
(vi) Prime Numbers : A natural number which has
Types of Numbers
only two factor (one and itself) are called prime
(i) Natural Numbers : Counting numbers are called number.
natural numbers. Thus 1, 2, 3, 4,5, 6,.......etc. are
2 is smallest prime number
all natural numbers.
There are 15 prime numbers upto 50 and 25 prime
(ii) Whole Numbers : All counting numbers together
numbers upto 100.
with zero form the set of whole numbers.
(vii) Composite number : Natural numbers which
Note :
have more than two distinct factors are called
(a) 0 is the only whole number which is not a composite numbers eg. (4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14)
natural number Note :
(b) Except 0 every natural number is a whole 1. 1 is neither prime nor composite.
number.
2. 2 is the only even number which is a prime
Thus 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6,........are whole number.
numbers.
(viii) Co-Prime Numbers : Two natural numbers a
(iii) Integers : When negative value of natural number and b are said to be co-prime, if their H.C.F is 1
are included with the whole number these number as-
are known as integers. in other words numbers
(2, 3), (4, 5), (7, 9), (8, 11), (9, 14)
which have no fractional part are integer
Note:
e.g. {--&4] &3] &2] &1] 0] 1] 2] 3] 4] 5--}
it is not necesssary to have a pair consisting prime
(a) Positive Integers : All integers greater than number to be co prime number.
0 are known as positive integers.
Important Algebric Identities
{1, 2, 3, 4, 5.............}
(a+b)2 = a2 +2ab +b2
(b) Negative Integers : All the integers less
than 0 is known as negative integers.

(a-b)2 = a2-2ab+b2
{-1, -2, -3, -4......}

a2-b2 = (a+b).(a-b)
Note : (a+b)3 = a3 +b3 + 3ab (a+b)
0 is called null integer as it is neither positive nor (a-b)3 = a3 -b3 - 3ab (a-b)
negative a3+b3 = (a+b) (a2 +b2 -ab)
(iv) Even Numbers : A natural number which is a3 - b3 = (a-b) (a2 +b2 +ab)
divisible by 2 is called an even number. If unit
digit a number is 0, 2, 4, 6 then the number is
Fraction
divisible by 2 and hence even number When we divide 50 rupees among 10 people each
will get 5. But what will happen if number of people
Thus 0, 2, 4, 6, 8, 10........etc. are all even
increased by 2?
numbers.
Every one will get 4 rupees after which 2 rupees will
(v) Odd Numbers : A natural number which is not
left. If we divide this 2 rupees among 12 people each
divisible by 2 is called an odd number.
one will get some part of rupees i.e. some paise.
Thus 1, 3, 5, 7, 9.......etc. are odd numbers.
This is fraction.
Training Material 9
5 2 fractions are solved seperately then both are combined
Example ,23 to get answer
7
3 1 7 1 1
Ex. 24 +18 −13 − 2 = ?− 2
Classification of Fraction : 4 2 8 6 4
(i) Proper fraction - A fraction whose numerator is less 3 1 7 1 1
than denominator or in others words a fraction whose Sol. ?= (24 + 18 - 13 -2+2) +  + − − + 
4 2 8 6 4 
value is less than one is called proper fraction.
1 2 15 18 +12 − 21 − 4 + 6
e.g., , ?=29+
2 5 23 24
(ii) Improper fraction - A fraction whose numerator
is more than denominator or in others words a fraction 11 11
?= 2 9 + = 29
whose value is more than one is called improper fraction. 24 24
12 100 214
e.g., , 3 3 1
5 3 5 215 + 711 − 500 = ?
Ex. 5 11 7
(iii) Mixed fraction - When a fraction is denoted as
combination of integer and fraction is called mixed
Sol. ?= (215 + 711 -500) + 2 3 1 + 1 0 5 − 5 5
fraction. 385
281 281
e.g. 2 2 , 4 5 4 2 6 + = 426
385 385
3 9
Only improper fraction may be converted into mixed
fraction. Multiplication
(i) Multiplication of 2 digit Numbers:
e.g. 1 1 ⇒ 3 2
3 3 Ex. 48 × 72
Addition & Subtraction Step ⇒ 1.
(i) Addition & subtraction of whole Number:
Ex. 8456 + 3891 + 4560 + 9823 = ?
Sol. ? = 26730
Ex. 94532 - 6754 - ? = 75432 - 2346 ∴ Unit digit of result = 6
Sol. 94532 - 6754 - 75432 + 2346 = ? Step ⇒ 2.
? = 14692
(ii) Addition and Subtraction of Decimal :
To solve the questions based on addition and subtraction
of decimal numbers, first we put zeros after the decimal
equal to maximum digit after demical present in total ∴ Ten's digit of Result = 5
numbers and then we operate addition and subtraction. Step ⇒ 3.
Ex. 87.25+125.235-1234.63+14.2+2018 = ?
Sol. 87.250+125.235-1234.630+14.200 +2018 = ?
? = 1010.055

Ex. 266.230 + 934.600 - 16.256 = ? + 6.658
⇒
Sol. ? = 1177.916
∴ Hundred digit of Result = 4
Addition & subtraction of Mixed Fraction:
Result = 3456
To solve questions related to addition and subtraction
of mixed fraction whole numbers are solved seperately (ii) Multiplication of 3 digit Numbers:
and added and subtracted together and then we solve 432 × 763
10 Training Material
Step ⇒ 1. 52 = 25 302 = 900
6 2
= 36 31 2
= 961
7 2
= 49 32 2
= 1024
8 2
= 64 33 2
= 1089

Unit digit of result = 6 9 2
= 81 34 2
= 1156
Step ⇒ 2. 10 2
= 100 35 2
= 1225
11 2
= 121 36 2
= 1296
12 2
= 144 37 2
= 1369
13 2
= 169 38 2
= 1444

14 2
= 196 39 2
= 1521
∴ Ten's digit of Result = 1
15 2
= 225 40 2
= 1600
Step ⇒ 3.
4 3 2 16 2
= 256 41 2
= 1681
17 2
= 289 42 2
= 1764
7 6 3 18 2
= 324 43 2
= 1849
14 +18 +12 = 44 19 2
= 361 44 2
= 1936

20 2
= 400 45 2
= 2025
⇒ 44 + 2 = 46
21 2
= 441 46 2
= 2116
Hundred digit of Result = 6
22 2
= 484 47 2
= 2209
Step 4.
4 3 2 23 2
= 529 48 2
= 2304
24 2
= 576 49 2
= 2401
7 6 3
25 2
= 625 50 2
= 2500
21 +24 = 45
Ex. (56) 2

= (5/6)2
∴ Thousand's digit of Result = 9
= 52 / 2 × 5 × 6/ 62
Step ⇒ 5. 6 3

=
25 / 60 / 36
= 31 / 3 / 6
= 3136
⇒ We break number in two parts i.e. 5 & 6 and
∴ Ten thousand's digit of Result = 2 follow the rule of (a+b)2 = a2 /2ab/ b2

Ex. (92)2
Required result = 329616

= (9/2)2
Square and Square Roots
= 81 / 3 6 /04
Square of (1-50) numbers
= 8464
Students you should remeber these squares to speed
your calculation Ex. Find the square of 112
12 = 1 262 = 676 I. Method :
2 2
= 4 27 2
= 729 (We break 112 in two parts like that (11/2)
3 2
= 9 28 2
= 784 (11/ 2)2 = 112 / 2 × 11 × 2 / 22
42 = 16 292 = 841
= 125 / 4 / 4
Training Material 11
12544 Square Roots:
II. Method : See the given table :
(We break 112 in two parts like that 1 / 12) By oberving unit place of any number we can
(1/ 12) = 1 / 2 × 1 × 12 / 12
2 2 2 find the unit place of its square root.
1

= 1 / 2 4 / 1 44 1
9
= 1 / 25 / 44 4
Ans = 12544 4
8
Ex. Find the square of 211 5 5
(2 / 11)2 = 22 /2 × 2 × 11 / 112 4
6
6
= 4 / 44 / 12 1
3
Ans. 44521 9
7
In (998)2 — the above rule is failed
0 0
Now we can use Base-method..........
Note: We can see a perfect square number may have 0,
1000 base (When the number is near about
1, 4 , 5, 6, 9 at unit place It means if a number has 2,
1000)
3, 7, 8 at its unit place it will not be a perfect square
Ex. 2
2
number
(9 9 8 ) = 9 9 8 -2 / 2
2
If a number has 0, 1, 4, 5, 6 or 9 at its unit place

= 996 / 004 it has a chance to be a perfect square number.
(998)2 = 996004 Perfect square :
Since base is 1000 therefore Right hand side part If square root of any number is integer then
one in three digit. number is said to be perfect square number.
Ex. 12
Ex.
2 36 = 6
(1 0 1 2 ) = 1 0 1 2 + 1 2 / 12
2
4 4 1 =21
= 1024 / 144
Non-perfect square :
(1012)2 = 1024144
If square root of any number is not integer but fraction
Ex. 2
8
or decemal then number is said to be Non-perfect square
(1 0 0 8 ) = 1 0 0 8 + 8 / 8
2
number.
= 1016 / 064 5, 200
(1008)2 = 1016064
How to find square root of perfect square
Special Type : number
When unit place of the number is 5.
Ex. Find the 2601
(x5)2 = x (x+1)/25
Ex. (75)2 = 7 × 8 / 52

= 56 / 25
(75) = 5625
2
Ex. (85)2 = 8 × 9 / 52

= 72 / 25

(85)2 = 7225
Ans = 51
Ex. (105)2 = 10 × 11 / 52
Rules :

= 110 / 25
 For unit place of the answer we see that last digit
(105)2 = 11025
of the question i.e. 1 (see the above table) 83 = 512 213 = 9261
For the ten’s place of the ans. we always take 93 = 729 223 = 10648
smaller number whose square is most nearest to
26. 10 3
= 1000 23 3
= 12167
(i.e. 5) 11 3
= 1331 24
3
= 13824
 In the above process we find two ans. i.e. 51 or 123 = 1728 253 = 15625
59
13 3
= 2197
 We multiply ten digit number to next number
i.e. 5 × 6 = 30) How to find cube root of perfect cube
Number
 now compare 26 to 30 (we find that 26 is less
than 30). While calculating Cube root of any number we will
 Therefore in both the ans. 51 and 59 the least ans divide it in two parts.
is correct. Second part (first three digit of number) will be used to
Other example. calculate the unit place of cube root and first part will be
use to calculate remaining part of the cube root.
Ex.
Ex. Cube Root of 50653

Unit Place : To find second part will be used. As we can
2 see the unit place of Second part is 3 which comes at the
end of cube of 7 so the unit place of cube root will be 7.
Since 92 is greater than 90 therefore in both the
ans. 96 is correct. Remaining part : To find remaining part of cube root
first part will be used. As we can see first part is between
Ex. cube of 3 and 4 hence cube root will be between 30
and 40.
Cube root : Combining above two statements we can
say that required cube root will be 37.
Ex.
Now 11 × 12 = 132
125 is less than 132
∴ 112 is correct answer.
Cube & Cube Root

Special Note for cube : Learn cube of 1 to 25 only for
the competitive exams.
Surds and Indices
Cube of the numbers: An index (plural: indices) is the power, or exponent, of
a number. For example, a3 has an index of 3.
13 = 1 143 = 2744
A surd is an irrational number that can be expressed
2 3
= 8 15
3
= 3375
with roots, such as 2 or 1 9 .
5
33 = 27 163 = 4096
Important formulas of surds and indices.
43 = 64 173 = 4913
Indices Surds
53 = 125 183 = 5832
a × an = am+n
m 1
63 = 216 193 = 6859
n
a =an
73 = 343 203 = 8000
am 2 1 1 1 1 
= a m −n
n
ab = n a × n b Ex. ÷ − − = ?
an 3 3  3 6 2 
2 1 1 1 
?= ÷ +
3 3  3 3 
(a )
n
m
=a mn
a n
a
n =
b n
b 2 1 2 3
?= ÷ [2 ] = × = 1
(ab) = a b
n n n 3 3 3 2
( a)
n
n
=a
Approximation:
n Approximation is the way of calculation in which we
a  an m n
a − mn a take estaimated value is place of exact or real value.
b  = n
  b Now a days approximation question are asked usually
in PO exams and clerk mains exams
a0 = 1
( a)
m
n
= n am There is no fix rule to calculate but depends on you
which technique suits you.
−2 −4 In following examples we would try to find the find value
Ex. FG 1 IJ ÷ FG 1 IJ = ?
3 3
by taking nearest value and answer of these questions
H 216 K H 27 K depend upon the choices of given options.
? = b216 g ÷ b27 g
2/3 4 /3 What approximate value will come in place of
Sol.
question mark (?) in the questions given below?
2 6 ×6 4
4 Ex.
? = b6 g
3×
÷ b3 g
3 , ?= 3×?= 3
2415 × 655 ÷ 9600 = ?
9 ×9 9
1
Sol. 49 × 26 × = ? , ? ≈ 13
Ex. −3
98
6 6 × 63 ÷ 6 2 = 6 ? +2
Ex. 30.02 % of 261 + 59.98 % of 512 - 104.001 = ?
1 3 1 3 30 510
Sol. 6?+2 = 6 × 6 × 6 3 × 6 6?+2 = 1+ + 3 + Sol. 260 × + × 60 – 104 = ? ,
2 2 6 2 2
100 100
? + 2 = 6, ? = 4 ? ≈ 280
Simplification Ex. 249 299 14
× ÷ =?
VBODMAS Rule: 15 19 99
250 300 98
V → Vinculum means bar as (—) Sol. × × = ? , ? ≈ 1850
15 19 14
B → Bracket- () {} and then [ ]
Ex.
( )
2
O → of same as mulipilication but having greater 9 0 0 .0 1 5 – 8 .9 6 6
=?
priorty than divison ( )
2
5 7 5 .7 5 7 – 4 4 1 .1 1 1
D → Division [÷]
( )
2
M → Multiplication [×]
Sol. ? ≈
900 – 9
≈
(3 0 – 3 )2 ≈ 81
( ) (2 4 – 2 1)2
2
A → Addition [+] 576 – 441
S → Subtraction [-] 8 9 8 × (1 2 .0 0 4 ) + ? = 5 0 0 0
2
The word ‘VBODMAS’ represents the order of Ex.

calculation i.e. order of signs Sol. 900 ×122 + ? = 5000
Ex. 15 ÷ 5 (18 - 1 5 − 2 1 ) = ? ? = 5000–4320 = 680
Sol. ? = 18 ÷ 5 (18-(-6)) Ex. 125% of 8475 + 88 × 14.995 = ?
? = 18 ÷ 5 (24) = 18 ÷ 120 Sol. ? = 10595 + 1320 = 11900 (Approx)
18 3 Ex. 721.001 × 7.998 + 6.05 × 8.010 = ?
?= =
120 20
Sol. ? = 5760 + 48 = 5800 (Approx)
CHAPTER
Number Series
2
Number series is a order of numbers which are not 3. Geometric Series : Under this category, each
arranged randomly but follow a pattern. Here in this not successive number is obtained by multiplying (or
we will understand how to identify which kind of pattern dividing) the previous number with a fixed number.
is following because without this it is next to impossible Ex. 5, 35, 245, 1715, ?
to have a command on number series. Sol. Here previous number is multiplied by 7, hence
Types of Series answer is 12005
There are different type of number series, which is based Ex. 43923, 3993, 363, 33, ?
on some of the important rules or order. Sol. Here previous number is divided by 11, hence
1. Pure Series : In this type of number series, the number answer is 3.
itself obeys certain order so that the character of the Ex. 336, 168, 84, 42, 21, ?
series can be found out. Sol. Here previous number is divided by 2,
The number itself may be: hence answer is 10.5.
(i) Even Number : 4. Two-tier Arithmetic Series : Under this category, the
Ex. 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, ? differences of successive numbers form an arithmetic
Sol. 12 series.
(ii) Odd Number : Ex. 4, 5, 9, 16, 26, 39, 55 ?
Ex. 1, 3, 5, 7, 9, ?
Sol.
Sol. 11
4 5 9 16 26 39 55 74
(iii) Prime Number :
Ex. 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, ? +1 +4 +7 +1 0 +1 3 +1 6 +1 9
Sol. 17
(iv) Perfect square +3 +3 +3 +3 +3 +3
Ex. 121, 144, 169, 196, 225, ? 5. Mixed Series: Here, the numbers obeying various
Sol. 256 orders of two or more different type of series are
(v) Perfect cube arranged alternately in a single number series.
Ex. 6859, 5832, 4913, 4096, 3375, ? Ex. 7, 15, 32, 67, 138, ?
Sol. 2744 Sol. ×2 + 1, ×2 + 2, ×2 + 3, ×2 + 4, ×2 + 5,
2. Difference Series: Under this category, the change
Hence answer is = 281
in order for the differences between each consecutive
number of the series is found out. Ex. 8, 15, 42, 141, 580, ?
Ex. 13, 18, 28, 43, 63, ? Sol. +7×1, +6×2, +5×3, + 4×4, +3×5,
Sol. 13 18 28 43 63 88
Hence answer is = 2915
Ex. 7, 4, 5, 9, 20, ?
+ 5 + 10 + 15 + 20 + 25
Sol. ×.5+0.5, ×1+1, ×1.5+1.5, ×2+2, ×2.5+2.5
Ex. 1348, 1338, 1318, 1288, 1248, ? Hence answer is = 52.50
Sol. Types of Question:
1348 1338 1318 1288 1248 11 9 8 There are 3 type of questions usually asked in Banking
examination.
-10 -20 -30 -40 -50 1. Missing Number series.
2. Wrong number series ∴ (c) = 17.5×3.5+3.5 = 61.25+3.5 = 64.75
3. Coding and decoding series. Ex. 15, 9, 8, 12, 36, 170
1. Missing Number series: In this type of series one 19 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
number is missing in given series. Such type of series, What will come in place of (b) ?
find the given pattern and solved the missing number.
Sol.
Ex. What value come in place of question mark
(?).
Ex. 6 11 21 36 56 ? Similarly,
Sol. +5 +10 +15 +20
Hence, Answer is = 56 + 25 = 81
Ex. 3 7 15 31 63 ?
Sol. +4 +8 +16 +32
Hence, Answer is = 63 + 64 = 127 ∴ (b) = 13×2 - (5 × 2) = 26 - 10 = 16
Ex. 1 6 15 ? 45 66 91 Ex. 7, 6, 10, 27, 104, 515
Sol. +5 +9 +21 +25
9 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
Hence, Answer is = 15 + 13 = 28
Ex. 504 336 210 120 ? 24 What will come in place of (d) ?
Sol. 83-8 73-7 63-6 53-5 43-4 Sol.
Hence, Answer is = 43-4 = 60
2. Wrong number series: In this type of series one
Similarly,
number is odd man out which does not follow the
sequence.
Ex. Find the wrong number in given series:
Ex. 2, 3, 7, 22, 89, 440, 2677, 18740
Sol. ×1+1, ×2+1, ×3+1, ×4+1, ×5+1 ......... ∴ (d) = 39×4 - 4 - 4 = 156 - 4 = 152

So, 440 is replaced by 446
Ex. 5, 6, 14, 40, 89, 170, 291 Ex. 6, 16, 57, 244, 1245, 7506
Sol. +12, +32, +52, +72, +92 ............ 3 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
So, 14 is replaced by 15. What will come in place of (d) ?
Ex. 445, 221, 109, 46, 25, 11,4 Sol.
Sol. -3÷2, -3÷2..................
So, 46 is replaced by 53.
Ex. 12, 26, 56, 116, 244, 498, 1008 Similarly,
Sol. ×2+2, ×2+4, ×2+6.............
So, 116 is replaced by 118
Ex. 8, 27, 64, 125, 217, 343
Sol. 23 , 33 , 43 , 53 ..........
So, 217 is replaced by 216 ∴ (d) = 196×5 + (5)2 = 980 + 25 = 1005
3. Coding decoding series: In the following number
Ex. 8, 9, 20, 63, 256, 1285
series question a series a given. First you have to find
out the pattern given in the series then followed by this 5 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
pattern you make new series whose first term is given. What will come in place of (e) ?
Ex. 5, 9, 25, 91, 414, 2282.5
3 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Sol.
What will come in place of (c) ?
Sol. Similarly,
Similarly,

∴ (E) = 184×5 + (5) = 920 + 5 = 925

CHAPTER
3 Percentage
Introduction: Percentage is a fraction whose denominator Ex. If x is 80% of y, what percent of x is y?

is always 100. x percentage is represented by x%. 100 ×100
x Sol. Ist Method : y = ×x
80
I. To express x% as a fraction : We know x% =
100 ∴ y = 125% of x
.
IInd Method : Let y is 100 then x = 80
20
Thus 20% = .......(means 20 parts out of 100 parts) 100
100 Required % = × 1 0 0 = 125%
80
1
= .............(means 1 part out of 5 parts) Ex. K is what % of N ?
5
20 1 Sol. K K
and 20% = 100 = 5 ×100 = %
N N
x V. If A is R% more than B, then B is less than A by-
II. To express as a percentage:
y LM R × 100 OP%
We know that
FG
x
=
x IJ
× 100 %
MN b100 + R g PQ
Change in %
yH y K If A is R% less than B, then B is more than A by-
1 F1 I
Thus = G × 100 J % = 25%
LM R × 100 OP%
4 H4 K

MN b100 − R g PQ
8 F 8 I
= G × 100 J % = 80% Ex. If Akash income is 10% more than that of Vikas
10 H 10 K
and 0.8 =
income. How much % Vikas income is less than that
III. Remember it : of Akash income?
1 = 100% I. Method.
1 1 1
= 50% = 33 % By using formula-
2 3 3
r 10
1 1 less % = × 100 = × 100
= 25% = 20% 100 + r 100 + 10
4 5
10 1
1 2 1 2 = 110 × 100 = 9 11 %
= 16 % = 14 %
6 3 7 7
II. Method.
1 1 1 1 100%
= 12 % = 11 % Since 10% more Tw o tools
8 2 9 9
110%
1 1 1
= 10% =9 % 100
10 11 11 Less % = 10 × ........
110
1 1 1 9
=8 % =7 % (To decrease any number, we, multiply with small
12 3 13 13
IV. Comparison between two values x and y. number and divide with large number.)
(i) If x is compare to y then we assume always y is 1
equal to 100% = 9 11 %
(ii) When any question ask y is a what percent of x Ex. If the income of A is 40% less than that of B, How
then x is always write in the denominator much percent B’s income is more than that of A’s?
40 1. Population after n year
Sol. More% = 6 0 × 1 0 0 = 66.66%
= P 1−
FG R IJ n
VI. If the price of a commodity increases by R%,

then % reduction in the consumption as not to

H 100 K
increase the expenditure is- 2. Population n years ago
LM R × 100 OP% P
MN b100 + R g PQ
=
FG 1−
R
n
IJ

Ex. H K
100 population of a town is 72600 and
If the present
If the price of a commodity decreases by R%, then it is decreased by 10% per annum. What will be
the % increase in consumption as not to decrease its population 2 years hence?
the expenditure is- n
R 
LM R × 100 OP% Sol.

Population after n years = P  1 −
 1 0 0 

MN b100 − R g PQ Here P = 72600
R = 10%
Ex. If tax on a commodity is reduced by 10%, n = 2yrs.
total revenue remain unchanged. What is the
Population after 2 years
percentage increase in its consumption?
Sol. Percentage increase
= 72600 1 − FG 10 IJ 2
= 72600 ×
90
×
90
=
=
10
100 – 10
×100 =
100
9
1
= 11 %
9
H 100 K 100 100

VII. Result on population : (a) Let the population 58806
of a town be P now and suppose increases at the
rate of R% per annum, then : Trick:
1. Population after n years = P 1 +

FG R IJ n
Population after 2 yrs = 72600 ×
90
×
90
=

H 100 K 58806
100 100
P Note :
2. Population n years ago =
FG1 + R IJ n
These formula is also used for the depreciation
H 100 K value of machine.
Ex. Present population of a town 1.21 crore & it VIII. Net percentage change :
increases at 10% per annum. Then find out Assume your pocket money is Rs 500 per month.
population after two years as well as before 2 If it is increased by 20 % then what will be your
new pocket money?
year.
Of course your new pocket money will be 600.
Sol. Present Population = 1.21 crore But what if it is further decreased by 20% ?
r 
n Will your pocket money will become same as

Two years after = P  1 + = 1.21 before??
2  1 0 0  No.Why??
 10 
 1 + 1 0 0  This is because of successive process.
So next we are going to study is net percentage
= 1.21 × 1.21= 1.4641 crore change.
P xy
Two years before = n
x+ y+
 r  100
 1 + 1 0 0 
But always remember one thing x and y always
come with sign. Means if quantity is increased
1 .2 1 1 .2 1
= = we will take + and if it is decreased we will take
1 .2 1 = 1 crore
2
 10  -.
1 +
 1 0 0 
So the answer of the question asked will be-
(b) Results on Population : Let the 20 × 20
population of a town be P now and suppose 20 − 20 − = −4%
100
decreases at the rate of R% per annum, then :
But what if there are three changes?? Sol. Very important point it doesn’t matter which
We also have formula for that change is applied first final change will be always
same.
xy yz zx xyz
x+ y+z+ + + − 25 × 40
100 100 100 10000 40 − 25 − =5
100
But using this formula is not a great idea instead
this we can apply first formula thrice Like
5 ×10
Again 5 + 10 + = 15.5
Ex. Find the net percentage change of 40% 100
increase.25% decrease and 10% increase? So final change will be increase of 17.5%.
CHAPTER
4 Profit and Loss
Observation:
Profit and loss
I. In the case of profit or loss, the relation is
I. Cost price : The price at which an article is
generated between CP and SP.
purchased is called its Cost Price and denoted
by CP. If 25% profit accrued on an article it means:
or →100% represent cost price (CP)
For any person, Cost Price is an amount or →125% represent selling price (S.P.)
quantity which firstly releases from the pocket →25% represent profit
of that person.
II. Selling Price : The price at which an article is 10 0% (C P )
i.e. P rofit 25 %
sold, is called its selling price, and denoted by
12 5% (S P )
SP.
or If 15% loss accrued on an article, it means :
For any person, Selling Price is, an amount or → 100% → represent cost price (CP)
quantity which come to the pocket of that person.
→ 85% → represent selling price (S.P.)
III. Profit or Gain : If S.P. is greater than CP, then
→ 15% → represent loss i.e.,
Seller is said to have a profit or gain. i.e.
Profit = S.P - C.P 10 0% (C P )
i.e. Loss 15%
IV. Loss : If S.P.is less than C.P. the seller is said to 85 % (SP )
have a loss. i.e.
loss = C.P - S.P II. In the case of discount, the relation is generated
between SP/MP
V. Profit and loss are always counted on C.P.
If 20% discount accrued on an article it means
VI. CP is always 100% in the case of profit and loss.
:
VII. For any transaction there are two persons
→ 100% → represent marked price (MP)
involved one is called buyer and second one is
called seller. → 80% → represent selling price (SP)
VIII. Marked Price : MRP of an article is known as → 20%→ discount.
Marked Price or labelled price or listed price and
10 0% (M P )
denoted by MP. i.e. D iscou nt 2 0%
IX. Discount always carried on MRP (MP) 80 % (S P)

X. MRP is always 100% in the case of discount.
Ex. A man bought a cycle for Rs. 330. For how much
should he sell it so as to gain 10%? Ex. If the CP of 15 articles is equal to the SP of 12
Sol. Profit percentage = x% = 10% articles. Find the gain or loss %.
Cost Price = 100 Sol. Let the C.P of each article be Rs. 1.
Selling Price = 100 + x = 100 + 10 = 110 Then CP of 12 articles = Rs. 12

SP of 12 articles = Rs. 15
Required answer
330 3
= × 1 1 0 = 363
3 6 .3 Gain % = × 1 0 0 = 25%
100 12
Ex. A merchant professes to sell his goods at a loss Ex. A person bought articles at 20 for a rupee. How
of 10% but weighs 750 gm in place of 1 kg. Find many for a rupee must to sell to gain 25% ?
his real loss or gain percentage? Sol. CP of 20 articles = Rs. 1, SP of 20 article = 125%
Sol. Let cost price of 1 kg = 1000 of Rs. 1
But his giving product worth 750 5
For Rs. , article sold = 20
So it's very clear that he is getting a gain. 4
SP=900 4
For Rs. 1 article sold = 2 0 × = 16
CP=750 5
Short Trick :
Now gain percent
= 900 − 750 ×100% = 20%
750
Ex. A person got 5% loss by selling an article for Rs.
1045. At what price should the article be sold to
earn 15% profit ?
Sol. Let CP = 100 SP = 95 Ex. The percentage profit earned by selling an article
for Rs. 480 is equal to the percentage loss incurred
New SP = 115 by selling the same article for Rs. 240. At what
115 ×1045 price should the article be sold to make 20%
Required Answer ⇒ x = = Rs. profit?
1265 95
Sol. This question is easy as profit and loss both are
Short Trick : same so CP will lie exactly between then
S P 1 + S P2
CP =
2

480 + 240
Ex. A person sold an article at profit of 15%. If he had CP = = 360
sold it Rs. 480 more, he would have gain 18%. 2
What is the cost price ? 120
SP = × 360 = 432
Sol. Let the CP of an article be x Rs, then 100
115% of x + 480 = 118% of x Ex. A vendor bought bananas at 5 for Rs. 4 and sold
118% of x - 115% of x = 480 them at 4 for Rs. 5. Find his gain or loss percent.
3% of x = 480 Sol. Suppose, number of bananas bought
480 = LCM of 5 & 4 = 20
x= × 1 0 0 = Rs. 16000
3
FG 4 × 20 IJ =16;SP=Rs. FG 5 × 20 IJ = 25
Short Trick : CP=Rs.
H5 K H4 K
D iffe re n ce in S .P .
CP = D iffe re n ce in P ro fit % × 1 0 0 25 − 16
× 100 =
9
× 100
% Profit =
16 16
480
CP = × 1 0 0 = Rs. 16000
3 = 56.25%
Short Trick 75
= ×100 = 300
2 1 1
× 30 + × 16 + × 12
3 4 12
Equivalent Discount : When two or more than two
discount are given by seller then equivalant discount
may be calculated by following formula.
xy
x +y −
100

Special Case: If a'th part of some items is sold at x% Note :
loss, then required gain per cent in selling rest of For more than two discount you can use this
the items in order that there is neither gain nor formula further.
ax ( order is not important)
loss in whole transaction, is %
(1 − a ) Ex. Find the equivalent discount of 10% and 20%
Ex. A shopkeeper purchased medicines worth Rs. Sol. Let the MP be = Rs. 100
9000 form a company. He sold 1/3 part of the
90 80
medicine at 30% loss. On which gain he should Then, Net SP = 1 0 0 × × = Rs.72
sell his rest of the medicines, so that he has neither 100 100
gain or loss? Required discount = (100 -72)%=28%
Here a = 1/3 , x = 30 % Short Trick
1 xy
× 30 x+y-
Required gain % = 3 = 15% 100
 1
 1 − 
Special Case:  3 10 × 20
10 + 20 - = 28%
If 'a' part of an article is sold at x% profit/ 100
loss, 'b' part at y% profit/loss and c part at Ex. A tradesman marks his goods at 25% above his
z% profit/loss and finally there is a profit/
1
lossof Rs.R, then Cost price of entire article cost price and allows a discount of 1 2 % for
2
R
= ×100 cash purchases. What profit does he make?
ax + by + cz
Ex. 33.33% of a commodity is sold at 15% profit,25% Sol. Let CP=100
is sold at 20% profit and the rest at 24% profit. If MP=125
the Total profit is Rs. 80 is earned then find the
value of commodity? (in Rs.) SP=87.5% of 125=109.375
Sol. Part sold at 24% profit Now required answer

 1 
= 1−  +  =
1 5 1 0 9 .3 7 5 − 1 0 0
 3 4  12 = × 1 0 0 = 9.375%
80 × 100 100
Value of commodity = 1 1 5
= 400
×15 + × 20 + × 24 Ex. A seller gives 2 oranges free on purchase of 10
3 4 12 oranges. Find equivalent discount.
Ex. If 2/3 part of an article is sold at 30% profit, 1/4
Sol. Clearly, the retailer get 1 dozen out of 6 dozens
part at 16% profit and remaining part at 12%
free.
profit and finally, there is a profit of Rs.75, then
find the cost price of the article. 1
Hence discount% = ×100
Here a = 2/3 , x = 30 % , b =1/4 , y = 16 % , z = 6
12 % and R = 75 Rs
Required CP of article 2
=16 %
3
Short Trick Sol. C.P. of the book = Rs. x
2 Printed price = Rs. y
×100%
10 + 2
y × 90 x ×112
2 =
= 16 % 100 100
3
Ex. A shopkeeper earns a profit of 12% on selling a x 45
book at 10% discount on printed price. The ratio =
of the cost price to printed price of the book is ? y 56
CHAPTER Simple &

5 Compound
Interest
Principal: When you first deposit money in a saving Case III : When S.I. P, R are known
acount or When you borrow some money from another S . I × 100
person, bank, or any financial institute is known as T=
P ×R
principal.
Ex. Find simple interest on Rs. 5000 at the rate of
Rate of Interest: The extra money paid by the borrower 1
to the lender for the use of money lent is called Interest. interest 4% for 2 years.
2
The rate of interest is the percent charge, or paid, for
5
the use of money. 5000 × 4 ×
Sol. S.I. = 2 = Rs. 500
Simple Interest: When principal remains constant 100
irrespective of time period for which interest is being Ex. A sum of money doubles itself in 5 years. In how
calculated. many years it will become 4 times?
This interest is always same for same period at the same Sol. P = x, A = 2x
rate of interest. So it is known as simple interest denoted x ×R ×5
as S.I. S.I. = x, x = R = 20%
100
Formula : ...............(1)
P ×R × T Again P = x
S.I = 100 A = 4x
Where P → Principal S.I. = 3x
R → Rate percent per annum x ×R × T
T → Number of years 3x = 100
When S.I. is added to principal. It is change into amount. 300 = R × T ..............(2)
P + S.I. = A From eq. (1) and (2)
S.I. = A - P T = 15 years
Case I : If S.I, R & T are known, SHort Trick :
S . I × 100 n1 − 1 n 2 − 1 2 −1 4 −1
P= = =
R×T t1 t2 5 t2

Case II : If S.I., P & T, are known, 1 3
=
S . I × 100 5 t2
R=
P ×T
t2 = 15 years 48000
x= = Rs. 12000
By figure : 4
Compound Interest
5 year 5 year 5 ye ar
P-x 2x 3x +x 4x As we discussed the S.I. is same for same time but in
+x +x +x
the case of compound Interest this is not happened. In
Total years = 5 + 5 + 5 = 15 year the case of C.I.
Ex. The simple interest is the 9/16 of the principal & The interest varies according to time eg.
the number of years is equal to rate %. Find the
rate %. Suppose we take 100 Rs. at the rate of compound interest
10% after one year we can not able to pay amount so,
Sol. Let P = x
here C.I. is imposed on amount rate Ist year. ie. 10% is
PRT imposed on 110 and so on......
S.I. =
100
So. C.I. is equal to S.I. in first year
9 x ×R ×R but after 1 year C.I. > S.I.
x =
16 100
In ather words we can that principal varies with each
900 30 1 time period
R2 = ⇒R= = 7 %
16 4 2 Basic Formula :
Ex. A sum was invested at a certain rate of simple
A= P 1+
FG r IJ n
interest for two year. If the sum were invested at
3% more rate of interest, it would have fetehed
H 100 K
Rs. 72 more. What is the sum? LMF r IJ n OP
MNGH
C.I. = P 1 + −1
Sol. According to question change in interest 100 K PQ
= 3% per annum in years
A → Amount
Change in interest in 2 years
P → Principal
= 3% × 2 = 6%
r → Rate of Interest
that means
n → Number of years
6% = 72
*Note
72
100% = × 1 0 0 = Rs. 1200 Type Rate Time
6
Ex. Kumar borrowed a total amount of Rs. 30000 part Yearly R n
of it on S.I. rate of 12 p.c.p.a. and remaining on Half yearly R/2 2n
simple interst of 10 p.c.p.a.. at the end of 2 year
he paid in all Rs. 36480 to settle the loan amount. Quaterly R/4 4n
What was the amount borrowed at 12 p.c.p.a? compount intrest may also be calculated by SI
Sol. Given p = 30000 formula and change of principal after each time
period.
A = 36480
Note:
SI. = A-P = 36480 - 30000 = 6480
We can also use successive percentage net
Let sum borrowed is x at 12 p.c.p.a percentage method to calculate equivalent simple
according to question rate of interest.
x×
12
×2 +
(3 0 0 0 0 − x ) × 1 0 × 2 = 6 4 8 0 x +y +
xy
100 100 100
⇒ 24x + 600000 - 20x = 648000 If r = 20%
4x = 48000 for 2 year equvilant rate of interst
20+20
20 × 20
= 44% = 10,000 ×
LM10918 − 10 ,000 OP = Rs 918
100 N 10000 Q
For 3 years Short trick :
44 × 20 Ist Ye a r
44 + 20 + = 7 2 .8 % and son on. 6%
100 P = 1 0 ,0 0 0 600
Ex. Find C.I. on Rs. 16000 at the rate 5% p.c.p.a. for 6 % ra te o f in te re st

2 years, compounded annually. 6% 300 + 18
1 /2 n ye a r
Sol. By. Formula To ta l = R s. 9 1 8
LMF r IJ − 1OP
n
Ex. Mr. Bashu invested a certain sum in Scheme X
GMH
C.I. = P 1 + 100 K PQ for 4 year. Scheme X offers simple interest at the
N rate 12 p.c.p.a. for the first 2 years and compound

L
= 16000 MFG 1 + 5 IJ − 1P
O
2 interest at the rate 20% per annum for next two
year. The total interest earned by him after 4 years
MNH 100 K PQ is Rs. 11060. What was sum invested.
16000 × M
L 21 × 21 − 1OP Sol. Let sum invested be - x
= N 20 × 20 Q According to question.
L 441 O
= 16000 × M 400 − 1P
S.I. + C.I. = 11060

N Q C.I for 2 year by successive effect
20 × 20
= 16000 × 41 = 40 × 41 20+20+ = 44%
400 100
= Rs. 1640 x ×12 × 2 x × 44
+ = 11060
Short Trick : 100 100
5% for Ist year S.I. = C .I
800
P = 16000
1st year 24 x × 44
5% rate of interest x× 1 0 0 + 1 0 0 =11060
IInd year 800 + 40
5% 68
C .I. = 8 00 + 8 00 + 40 x× = 11060
= R s. 164 0
100
Ex. Find C.I. on Rs. 10,000 at the rate of interest 6% 11060

x= × 1 0 0 = Rs. 16200
1 68
for, 1 2 years, compounded annually.
Ex. Find the C.I. on Rs. 6000 at the rate of interest
LF r I − 1OP
PM 1+
n 5% for 3 years, compounded yearly.
Sol. C.I. = MGH 100 JK PQ LMF R I − 1OP
N n
C.I. = MGH 100 JK

P 1+
LF 6 I − 1OP 3 /2
Sol.
N PQ
= 10,000 MGH 1 + 100 JK LF 5 I O

MN PQ = 6000 MGH 1 + 100 JK − 1P
3
LF 6 I F1 + 6 × 1 I − 1OP
1

MN PQ
= 10,000 × MG 1 +

MNH 100 JK GH 100 2 JK PQ
F 105 105 105 I
= 6000 GH 100 × 100 × 100 − 1JK
= 10,000 × M
L106 × FG1 + 3 IJ − 1PO L 21 × 21 × 21 − 1OP

N100 H 100 K Q = 6000 × M
N 20 × 20 × 20 Q
= 10,000 × M
L106 × 103 − 1OP F 9261 − 1IJ

N100 100 Q = 6000 × G
H 8000 K
FG 9261 − 8000 IJ 31 = P
100
×
310
= 6000×
H 8000 K 100 × 100 100
P = Rs 1000
6 × 1261 7566
= = = Rs. 945.75 Short Trick:
8 8
10%
Important Formula
If difference between C.I. & S.I. is to find out.
P=? 1st 100 10%
Let the principal = P
Time = T 2nd + 10 10%
Rate % p.a. = R
3rd year + 10 + 10 + 1
(1) When time is 2 years
C.I - S.I = P
FG R IJ 2
H 100 K Ex. A sum of money doubles itself at compound
(2) When time is 3 years interest in 15 years. In how many years will it
become eight times.
C.I - S.I = P
FG R IJ × FG 300 + R IJ
2
FG IJ n
H 100 K H 100 K Sol. A =P 1+
H
r
100 K
Ex. The difference between the C.I. and S.I. for a
period of 2 years at the rate of 10% per annum
2P = P 1 +
FG r IJ 15
is 50. Find the Principal.

H 100 K
Sol. Method I.
By Slab. Method 2 = 1+
FG r IJ 15
.............(1)
10 % for Ist year S .I. = C .I
H 100 K
P=? 50 0
1st year Again,
10 % rate of interest
IIn d year 50 0 + 50
8P = P 1 +
FG r IJ n

10 %
Hence principal = 5000

H 100 K
Method II F r IJ
8 = G1 +
n
By formula

H 100 K .............(II)
2 using (I) and (II)

 r   10 
2
D = P   , 50 = P 
100 
100 
FG1 + r IJ R|F r I
n
= 8 = 2 = SG 1 +
15 U| 3
H 100 K J 3
V|
P=
500000
100 T|H 100 K W
P = Rs. 5000
FG1 + r IJ = FG1 + r IJ n 45
Ex. The difference between S.I. & C.I. on a certain

sum of money for 3 years at 10% is Rs. 31. Find H 100 K H 100 K
the sum of money. x = 45 years
Sol. From formula for 3 years. IInd method :
CI. - S.I. = P
FG r IJ FG 300 + r IJ
2
LMn = bn g OP t2
H 100 K H 100 K N 2
Q 1 t1

F 10 IJ × 310
31 = P GH
2
100 K
n2, n1 — number of times
100
t1, t2 — number of years.
t2 t2 t2 3 Sol. 150
8= 2bg 15 bg
23 = 2 15
15 = 1 150 20
t2 = 45 years 20 40 1
(i) r = ×100% = = 13 %
Ex. SI of 2 years is 300 and CI is 320. Find 150 3 3
(i) Rate of Interest 3
(ii) 1 5 0 × × 1 0 0 = Rs. 1125
(ii) Principal 40
CHAPTER
6 Average
Average is equal distribution of the overall value among of the numbers 3,11, 7, 9,15,13, 8,19, 17, 21,14
all the things or persons present there. So the formula and x. He found the mean to be 12. What should
for finding the average is as follows : be the number in place of x?
A verage =
FG S um of observations IJ Sol. 12=(3+11+7+9+15+13+8+19+17+21+14+x)/12
H N um ber of observations K Number in place of x is
If there are average is also known as mean observation 137+x=144 , x = 144-137

x1, x2,x3....xn x=7.
x 1 + x 2 + ... + x n Ex. The average score of a cricketer for 10 matches is
Average = 38.9 runs. If the average for the first six matches is
n
Ex. What is average of 40, 42, 38, 48. 42 then find the average for the last four matches.
40 + 42 + 38 + 48
Sol. Required average
Sol. Average = = 42
4 3 8 .9 × 1 0 − 4 2 × 6
= 34.25
Ex. T here are two sections A and B of a class, 4
consisting of 10 and 20 students respectively. If Ex. The average age of 80 girls was 20 years, the
the average weight of sections A is 60 kg and that average age of 20 of them was 22 years and
of section B is 45 kg. Find the average weight of another 20 of them was 24 years. Find out average
the whole class (in kg). age of the remaining girls?
60 ×10 + 45 × 20 Sol. Total age of remaining 40 girls
Sol. Average =
10 + 20 =(80 × 20 - 20 × 22 - 20 × 24) = 680 years
600 + 900 Average = 680 = 17 years
30 = 50 40

Ex. A batsman makes a score of 97 runs in the 21th Short Trick:
inning and thus increases his average by 2. Find 22 + 24
his average after 21th inning. Average of 40 girls= = 23 years
2
Sol. Let the average after 21th innings = x. Then, Average of 40 girls is 3 more than actual average so
Average after 20th innings = (x - 2) average of remaining 40 girls is 3 less than actual
average 20 - 3
Average
= 17 years
= 20 (x-2)+97 = 21x, 20x-40+97 = 21x
x = 57 Concept of Consecutive Term
Ex. A student was asked to find the arithmetic mean (A) To solve consecutive terms problem, we will use
exact mid concept. Exact mid term is average of The excluded or included item= Average + extra
given term. (Extra means total change in average)
 n u m b e r + 1 Ex. Average of 5 no. is 21 one no is excluded then
Exact mid = 
  te rm s average becomes 20. What is the excluded no.
2
6 +1 Sol. Average is 21.
Exact mid of 6 terms = = 3.5
2 So, if the excluded number is 21, then there will
be no change in average.
3.5 many in between 3 and 4 number exact mid
rd th
9 +1 But new average is 20.

of 9 terms = = 5th term
2 Average decreased by = 21 - 20 = 1
Ex. Average of 5 consecutive terms is 43. Total decreased = 1 × 4 = 4
So smallest no is- That means excluded no is 4 more than average.
5 +1 So, excluded number = 21 + 4 = 25
Sol. Exact mid of 5 terms = =3
2 Ex. The average of 12 no. is 45 when one no is
1 2 3 4 5 excluded then average becomes 46. What is the
41 42 exact mid term = 43 excluded number?
Smallest is 41 Sol. In this case average increased by = (46-45) = 1
(B) Average of consecutive terms: Total increased = 1 × 11 = 11
1 te rm + la st te rm
st
That means excluded number is 11 less than
= average.
2
Ex. Find the average of all the numbers from 20 to Number is 45 - 11 = 34
90 which is divisible by 3.
Ex. Average marks of 35 students is 70. If marks of
Sol. First term is 21 and last is 90. one student is excluded then average increased by
21 + 90 2 marks. What is the marks of excluded student?
So, average = = 55.5
2 Sol. Excluded student marks
Ex. Find the average of all the numbers from 20 to
= 70 – (35 - 1) × 2= 70 – 68 = 2
90 which is divisible by 8.
Ex. The average age of 12 persons is decreased by 2
Sol. First term 24 and last is 88.
years when one of them having age 39 years is
24 + 88 replaced by a new person. Then what is the age
So, average = = 56
2 of new person?
Ex. Find the average of all the numbers from 20 to Sol. Age of new person = 39 - (12 ×2)
90 which divisible by 6.
= 39 - 24 = 15 years
Sol. First term is 24 and last is 90.
24 + 90
Ex. The average weight of 10 persons is increased by
So, average = = 57 2.5 kg when two of them having weight 60 and
2
75 kg replaced by two new persons. Then what
Ex. The sum of eight consecutive even number 288.
is the average weight of new persons?
What is the sum of different set of six consecutive
numbers whose lowest number is 10 more than Sol. Sum of age of new persons = (60+75) + (2.5×10)
the mean of set A? = 135 + 25 = 160
288 Average age = 160/2 = 80 kg
Sol. Mean of set A = =36
8 Ex. The average of 50 numbers is 38. It was found
So, lowest number of other set = 36 + 10 = 46 that one number is misread as 89 instead of 39.
Required sum = 46 + 47 + 48 + 49 + 50 + 51 = The correct mean is?
291
 89 − 39 
Concept of addition or removal of items and change Sol. New average = 38 -   = 38 - 1 = 37
 50 
in average:
CHAPTER
Ratio &
7 Proportion
2. The ratio of two quantities determines how many
Ratio
times one quantity is contained by the other.
Ratio is a comparison of two quantities. The ratio of a
to b is written as- Comparison of Ratio:
Let a : b and c : d, be two ratios, then
a
a:b= = a ÷b a : b > c : d if ad > bc
b
Types of Ratio: a c
ie. > if ad > bc
(i) Compounded Ratio: When two or more than b d
two ratios are multiplied with each other, then it Similarly,
is called as Compounded Ratio.
a : b < c : d if ad < bc
a : b = c : d if ad = bc
2 4 6 48 2
Ex. × × = is the compounded ratio of Two Important Results
3 5 7 105 3
a
If > 1 , it is implied that a > b
4 6 b
, .
5 7 Ist term > 2nd term
a
a c e k and <1⇒a<b
So × × ........... = b
b d f l
Important Facts
(ii) Duplicate Ratio: Square of any ratio is known (a) If A : B = x : y and B : C = p : q then
as Duplicate Ratio.
(1) A : C = x × p : y × q
Duplicate Ratio of a : b = a2 : b2. (2) A : B : C = (x : y) ×p : y × q
Ex. Duplicate ratio of 7 : 5 = 49 : 25 =x×p:y×p:y×q
(iii) Triplicate Ratio: Cube of any ratio is known as Or
Triplicate Ratio. A:B =x:y
Triplicate Ratio of a : b = a3 : b3.
Ex. Triplicate ratio of 9 : 2 = 729 : 8 B :C =p:q
(iv) Sub Duplicate Ratio: Square root of any ratio x×p :y× p:y× q
is known as Sub Duplicate Ratio: (b)
If A : B = x : y, B : C = p : q and C : D = m : n,
Sub Duplicate Ratio of a : b = a1/2 : b1/2. then
(1) A : D = x × p × m : y × q × n
Ex. Sub duplicate ratio of 9 : 16 = 3 : 4
(2) A : B : C : D = (xp : yp : yq) ×m:y×q×n
(v) Sub Triplicate Ratio: Cube root of any ratio is
= xpm : ypm : yqm : yqn
known as Sub Triplicate Ratio:
Or
Sub Triplicate Ratio of a : b = a1/3 : b1/3.
Ex. Sub triplicate ratio of 27 : 125 = 3 : 5
Properties of Ratio :
1. In a ratio, two quantities are compared, so the
quantities must be of the same kind.
proportional. The first & the last terms are called
x:y the extreme term whereas the second & the third
terms are called middle term.
p:q Types of Proportion :
(i) Third Proportion :- If a : b :: b : c, then c is
m :n called the 3rd proportional to a and b. c will be
xp m :yp m :yq m :yq n calculated as below a : b :: b : c or a : b = b : c
Ex. If A : B = 3 : 4 and B : C = 8 : 9 then A:B:C is ⇒ a ×c = b × b
Sol. A : B = (3 : 4) × 2 b2
∴c =
B:C=8:9 a
A:B:C=6:8:9 Ex. Find the third proportion of 0.36 & 0.48.
SHORT Trick b 2 0 .4 8 × 0 .4 8
Sol. Third proportion = c = = 0 .6 4
A:B =3:4 a 0 .3 6
B :C =8:9 (ii) Fourth Proportion: If a : b :: c : d, then d is

A : B : C = 24 : 32 : 36 called the 4th proportion to a,b and c. d will be
A:B:C=6:8:9 calculated as below:
2 1 2 5 a : b :: c : d or a : b = c:d
Ex. If a : b = : , b : c = : and
9 3 7 14 ⇒ a×d = b×c
bc
7 3 ∴d =
d:c= : then a:b:c:d is- a
10 5
Ex. Find the fourth proportion of 3,6, and 12.
2 1 bc 6 ×12
Sol. a : b = : = 2:3 Sol. Fourth proportion= d = = = 24
9 3 a 3
2 5 (iii) Mean Proportion: If a and b are two numbers
b:c= : = 4:5 then mean proportion is a b
7 14
if mean proportion between a and b is A then :
7 3 a:A :: A:b
d:c= : = 7:6
10 5 ⇒ A2 = ab
or
⇒c:d=6:7
a ×b = A ×A
a:b=2:3
∴A = a b
b:c= 4:5
c:d= 6:7 Ex. Find the mean proportion between 9 and 16.
a:b:c:d = 2×4×6 : 3×4×6 : 3×5×6 :3×5×7 Sol. Required mean proportion
= 16 : 24 : 30 : 35 = a b = 9 × 16 = 12
Ex. If a : b = c : d = e : f = 1 : 2 then (pa+qc + re) : (iv) Continued Proportion :
(pb + qd +rf) is equal to Three quantities a, b, c of same kind are said to
Sol. a = c = e = 1 be in continued proportion, when a : b = b : c
b d f 2 The middle number b is said to be a mean
p a q c re 1 proportional to two extreme numbers a & c
⇒ = = = So, in such case of continued proportion.
p b q d rf 2
b2 = ac
p a + q c + re 1 (middle number)2 =First number × Last number
⇒ = or 1 : 2
p b + q d + rf 2 Ex. If 3, x, 27 are in continued proportion, then find the
value of x.
Proportion Sol. Since 3, x, 27 are in continued proportion.
A proportion is an expression which states that
x2 = 3 × 27
two ratios are equal.
3 1 x2 = 81
eg. = is a proportion x=9
12 4
It can also be expressed as Relation Among the Quantities More than two:
Given a : b = x : y
3 : 12 = 1 : 4 or 3 : 12 : : 1 : 4
b:c=m:n
Each quantity in proportion is called a term
then these three quantites are related as, Sol. Let the quantity of alcohol and water be 4x litres and
a:b= x :y 3x litres respectively.
4x 4
b:c= m:n = ⇒ 8x = 20
3x +5 5
a : b : c = xm : m y : yn x = 2.5
Quantity of alcohol = 4 × 2.5 = 10 litres
a:c = xm : yn Ex. Cost of a diamond varies directly as the square of
its weight. A diamond broke into four pieces with
Useful Results on Proportion : their weight in the ratio 1:2:3:4. If the loss in the
If four quantities a, b, c and d are said to be proportion total value of the diamond was Rs.70,000, the price
if and only if of the original diamond was-
Sol. Let the weight of the four pieces of diamond be
a:b=c:d
x, 2x, 3x & 4x units respectively.
Total weight of the original diamond
a×d=b×c = x + 2x + 3x + 4x
⇒product of extrems = product of means = 10x units
Ex. A bag contains 50 P, 25 P and 10P coins in the ratio Price of the original diamond
5 : 9 : 4. amounting to Rs. 206. Find the number of = K (10x)2 = K 100x2
coins of 50 paise. Where K is a constant
Sol. Let the number of 50P, 25P and 10 P coins be 5x, 9x Cost of four pieces of diamond
and 4x respectively. = K (x2 + 4x2 + 9x2 + 16x2)
5x 9x 4x = K.30X2
+ + = 206 Loss in the cost of diamond
2 4 10
= K (100x2 - 30x2)
50x + 45x + 8x = 4120
= K.70x2
103x = 4120 ∴ K.70x2 = 70000

x = 40
Kx2 = Rs. 1000
No. of 50 P coins = 5 ×40 = 200 ∴ Cost of the original diamond

Ex. A mixture contains alcohol and water in the ratio of
= K (100x2)
4 : 3. If 5 litres of water is added to the mixture the
= 1000 × 100 = 1,00,000 Rs.
ratio becomes 4 : 5. Find the quantities of alcohol in
the given mixture.
CHAPTER
PROBLEMs
8 ON AGES
present age of A is 20 years. Find the age of B
Introduction
after 5 years.
Problems based on ages are generally asked in
Sol. Let the age of A is 2x years and age of B is 3x
most of the competitive examinations. To solve
years.
these problems, the knowledge of linear equations
is essential. In such problems, there may be three 2x = 20
situations: x = 10
(i) Age some years ago then present age of B is
(ii) Present age 3 × x = 3×10 = 30 years
(iii) Age some years hence After 5 years, Age of B = 30 + 5
Some Important Solved examples : = 35 years
Ex. The ratio of present age of A & B is 2 : 3. The SHORT Trick :
A0 : B0 = 2 : 3, A0 = 20 year The age of A before 5 years = 7 × 2 = 14 years
20 At present age of A = 14+5 = 19 years
B0 = × 3 = 30 years
2 The age of B before 5 years= 7 × 3 = 21 years
B+5 = 30 +5 = 35 years At present age of B = 21 + 5 = 26 years
Ex. The present ratio of age of A & B is 3 : 5. If the short trick :
sum of present age of A & B is 48 years. Find -5 -5
A : B =2:3
the ages of A & B before 5 years.
(A+B) = 45 years
Sol. Let the ages of A & B are 3x years and 5x years
respectively. (A+B)-5 = 45 - 10 = 35 years
3x + 5x = 48 35
A-5 = 5 × 2 = 14 years
8x = 48
x = 6 years A0 = 14 + 5 = 19 years
Then the present age of A is 35
= 3 × x = 3 × 6 = 18 years B-5 = 5 × 3 = 21 years
Before 5 years the age of A B0 = 21 + 5 = 26 years
= 18 - 5 = 13 years Ex. The ratio of ages of A & B after 5 years will be
The present age of B is 3 : 5. If the sum of ages of A & B at present is 38
years. Find the ages of A & B before 5 years.
= 5 × x = 5 × 6 = 30 years
Sol. Let the ages of A & B are 3x years and 5x years
Before 5 years the age of B.= 30 - 5 = 25 years respectively after 5 years.
SHORT Trick : then,
A0 . B0 = 3 : 5 (3x - 5) + (5x - 5) = 38 years
8x - 10 = 38 years
(A+B)0 = 48 years
8x = 48 years, x = 6 years
A-5 = ? The age of A after 5 years
B-5 = ? = 6 × 3= 18 years
48 Then the age of B after 5 years
A0 = 8 × 3 = 18 years = 6 × 5 = 30 years
The age of A before 5 years
A-5 = 18 - 5 = 13 years
= 18 - 10 = 8 years
48 The age of B before 5 years
B0 = × 5 = 30
8 = 30 - 10 = 20 years
B-5 = 30 - 5 = 25 years SHORT Trick :
Ex. The ratio of ages of A & B before 5 years was 2 A+5 - B+5 = 3 : 5
: 3. If the sum of ages of A & B at present is 45 (A+B)0 = 38 years
years. Find the present ages of A & B . (A+B)+5 = 38 + 10 = 48 years
Sol. Let the ages of A & B 5 years before are 2x years 48
and 3x years respectively. A+5 = × 3 = 18 years
8
then, (2x + 5) + (3x + 5) = 45 years A-5 = 18 - 10 = 8 years
5x + 10 = 45 48
5x = 35 B+5 = × 5 = 30 years
8
x=7 B-5 = 30 -10 = 20 years
CHAPTER
9 PARTNERSHIP
2 : 3 : 5
Partnership
150000
When two or more than two persons run a business then P's share in profit = × 2 =30000/
they are called partners and when they agree to share 2 +3 +5
profit and losses, the deal is known as Partnership. Q's share in profit = 45000/-
Elements of Partnership: R's share in profit = 75000/-
Capital: The sum of money invested by the partners to Case 3 : When the investment in a business are different
start any business is known as capital. then the profit & loss is shared in the ratio of their
equivalent capital.
Equivalent Capital: When the capital invested by the
partners is multiplied by the time of investment, the Ex. A,B and C start a business each investing
product thus obtained is known as Equivalent Capital. Rs.20,000. After 5 months A withdraws Rs.5000,
B withdraws Rs.4000 and C invested Rs.6000
Categorisation of Partnership:
more. At the end of the year, a total profit of
Case 1 : When the investment and the time of investment Rs.69900 was recorded. Find the share of each.
is equal, the profit and loss is distributed equally.
Sol. Ratio of the capital of A, B and C
Ex. A, B and C are three partners. Each invested A : B : C
Rs.20,000 in a business. After a year the profit
(20000×5+15000×7):(20000×5+16000×7):(20000×5+2600
of the business was 90,000. Then find the share
0×7)
of each in the profit.
205000 : 212000 : 282000
Sol. Ratio of shares of A, B and C = Ratio of their
investment 205 : 212 : 282
A : B : C  69900 
A’s share= Rs.  2 0 5 + 2 1 2 + 2 8 2 × 2 0 5  = Rs.
20000×12 : 20000×12 : 20000×12  
20500
1 : 1 : 1
 69900 
Now Profit share of A B’s share=Rs.  × 2 1 2  = Rs.
21200 205 + 212 + 282 
 90000  90000 ⇒
=  1 + 1 + 1 × 1 ⇒ 30000/-
  3
 69900 
C’s share = Rs.  × 2 8 2  = Rs.
Similarly B and C will also get = 30000/-each.  2 0 5 + 2 1 2 + 2 8 2 
28200
Case 2: When the investment is different but the time
of investment is same. Then the profit and loss
is shared in the ratio of their capital. Case 4: When capital and time are given in form of
Ex. P, Q and R started a business each investing Rs. ratio.

20,000, 30,000, 50,000 respectively. After 1 year
the profit recorded by the business was 1,50,000. Ex. A, B and C become partners in a business.
Then find the share of each in the profit? 1 1
A contributes rd of the capital for th of
Sol. A : B : C 3 4
1
the time B contributes th of the capital
20000×12 : 30000×12 : 50000×12 5
1 if C retires, they share the profit of C in the ratio
for th of the time and C the rest of the
6 of 4 : 5 respectively.
capital for the whole time. If the profit is Rs. 1820,
then the A's share in profit is : The new profit shareing ratio of A and B will be
:
Sol. 1 1 1 1 7 , 1 1 7
× : × : ×1 : : 1 1 1
3 4 5 6 15 12 30 15 Sol. A : B : C = : : =3:2:1
4 6 12
5 : 2 : 28 1× 4 1 3 1 2 3 = 31
A:B:C= 3 + : 2 + ×5 = :
1820 : 23 9 9 9 9
Sahre of A = × 5 = 260
35
1 1 7
Ex. A, B and C share profit in the ratio of : :
4 6 12
CHAPTER
MIXTURE and
10
ALLIGATION
mixture be worth Rs.10 per kg?
General Rules
Sol. O ne ty pe of R ice 2n d typ e o f R ic e
I. Alligation : It enables us to find the ratio in which
two or more ingredients at the given price must R s .8 .50 R s .1 3.0 0
be mixed to produce a mixture of a desired price.
10 R s .
II. Mean price : The cost price of a unit quantity of
the mixture is called the mean price.
III. Basic Formula : If two ingredients are A and B 3.00 1.50
are mixed of price x and y respectively, then the
price of resultant mixture is M mean price. The 2 : 1
ratio in which ingredients are mixed is given by Ex. In what ratio must a grocer mix two varities of
rule of alligation sugr costing Rs.60 per kg and Rs.65 per kg, so
M −y that on selling the mixture at Rs.68.20 per kg he
R = may gain 10%?
x −M
The above formula can be respented as Sol. Cost price of 1 kg of mixture
Ingre die nt A Ingre die nt B 100
= 68.20×
x y 110
Applying Rule of Alligation
Ist type IInd type
m ea n price M R s .6 0 R s .6 5
R s .6 2 (M ix ture )
(M -y) : (x-M )
Thus the required ratio is R
M −y y −M 3 2
= =
x −M M −x Required Ratio = 3 : 2
Ex. 729 Litres of mixtures containing milk and water
Ex. In what ratio must rice costing Rs.8.50 per kg be
in the ratio 7 : 2. How much more water should
mixed with rice costing Rs.13 per kg so that the
be added so that the new mixture contains milk
and water in the ratio 7 : 3 ?. Sol.
I II II III
2
Sol. 729 litre quantity of water = 95 60 60 90
9
Pure water = 1
80 80
3
Quantity of water in mixture =
10
Applying Alligation:
2 20 15 10 20
9 1 4 : 3 1 : 2
3 III IV
10 90 50
80
3 3 2
1
10 10 9
7 7 30 10
10 90 3 : 1

Required Ratio = 9 : 1
I : II : III : IV = 4 : 4 : 5 : 1
9 = 729 litre
729 VI. Concept of replacement:
1= ×1= 81 Litres
9
IV. Mixture of more than two elements: Suppose a container contains a - units of liquid
from which b -units are taken out and replaced
These question may seems to be a little tricky at
by water- after k-operations, the quantity of pure
first, but similar concept is applied repeatedly in
liquid
order to calculate final ratio of ingredients when
mixture contains more than two ingredients. k
 
1. Take two ingredients in such away that first = a  1 − b   units.
ingredient is lower than the mean value and the   a  
other one is higher than mean value.
2. Calculate the ratio of ingredients. Ex. 8 litres are drawn from a cask full of wine and is
3. Repeat for all possible pairs. then filled with water. This operation is performed
three more times. The ratio of the quantity of wine
4. Final ratio is the ratio obtained from step 2 (if an
now left in cask to that of the water is 16 :65. How
ingredients is common in the ratios, add value for
much wine did the cask hold originally ?
this particular ingredient)
Ex. Three types of Rice of Rs. 1.27, Rs. 1.29 and Sol. Let initial quantity of wine in a cask = x lit
Rs. 1.32 per kg are mixed together to be sold at
Rs. 1.30 per kg. in what ratio should this rice be So, After 4 process,
mixed.
Sol. I III II III LM F
8 IJ 4 OP
127 132 129 132
4 = x 1− x
MN GH K PQ lit.
130 130
2 3 1 2 x 1−
FG 8 IJ 4
∴
H x K =
16
⇒ 1−
8 FG IJ = FG 2 IJ
4 4
⇒
FG x − 8 IJ = 2
Hence final ratio is 2 : 1 : 3 + 2 = 2 : 1 : 5 x 81 x H K H3K H x K 3
V. Mixture containing 4 ingredients: ⇒ 3x - 24
Ex. How much a shop owner mixture 4 types of rice
= 2x ⇒ x
worth Rs. 95, Rs. 60, Rs. 90 & Rs. 50 perkg so
that he can make the mixture of these rice worth
= 24 lit.
Rs. 80 perkg.
Ex. A shopkeeper has two types of article. The CP Ex. The ratio of milk and water in a mixture is 5 :
of 1st article is 20 Rs./Kg. and other article is 3. How much fraction of the mixture must be
X Rs./kg. He has quantity of 1st article is 10 kg drawn off and substituted by water so that the
and other article is 20 kg. He sold the mixture of ratio of milk and water is the mixture becomes
these article at Rs. 39/kg. with a profit of 30%. 1:1?
Find the value of X ? 3
Sol. 1
Sol. 20 x 8 1

30 2
30-x : 10 1 1
:
Again 2 8
30 − x 10 4 : 1
=
10 20 1
On solving above equation Removed mixture =
5
x = 25 Rs./Kg
CHAPTER
11 TIME AND WORK
In most of the problems on time and work, one of = sum of 1 day’s work by each person. i.e., If A,
the following basic parameters is to be calculated: B and C are three persons working on a job, then
(a) Time : Time needed by one or more than (A+B+C)’s 1 day’s work = A’s 1 day’s work +
one person to complete a job or time for which a B’s 1 day’s work + C’s 1 day’s work.
person(s) actually worked on the assigned job. (6) It is the application of concept (4) for more than
(b) Alone time : Time needed by single person one person.
to complete a job. The reciprocal of combined 1 day’s work gives
(c) Work : The amount of total work (assigned) the time for completion by the person working
or the part of total work actually done. together.
i.e., time for completion
Basic Concepts
1
(1) Total amount of a complete job (or assigned job) =
= 1, always, unless specified. com bined 1 day ' s w ork
(2) If any person ‘M’ completes a job alone in t days, It implies that.
then alone time for ‘M’ = t If three persons, say, A, B and C are working
(3) 1 day’s work by any person together on a job, then
FG 1 IJ th Time for completion by them

=
H alone tim eK × part of total work 1
(4) The reciprocal of 1 day’s work gives the alone
b g
= A + B + C ' s 1 day ' s w ork
time i.e. Important Formulas

1 (i) If A can do a piece of work in X days and B
Alone time ∝ can do the same work in Y days, then both
1 day ' s w ork
of them working together will do the same
(5) When more than one person working on the same
XY 
piece of work, then their combined 1 day’s work work in   days
X +Y 
(ii) A,B,C while working alone can complete a 1 1 8 −5 
work in X,Y and Z days respectively then = − = part
5 8  4 0 
they will together complete the work in
40
XY Z B finish the whole work = days
3
days
XY + Y Z + Z X 1
= 13 days
Ex. A can do a piece of work in 6 days and B in 9 3
days. How many days will both take together to 3. If A and B working together, can finish a piece
complete the work? of work in X days, B and C in Y days, C and A
Sol. Here A = 6 and B = 9 in Z days then.
They together complete work in 1 days A, B and C working together will finish the job
2 XY Z
= 1/6 + 1/9 in XY + Y Z + Z X days
3 +2 5 Ex. A and B can complete a piece of work in 8 days
= B and C can do it in days 12 days, C and A can
= 18 18
do it in 8 days, A B and C together can complete
18
They together complete the whole work= it in-
5
= 3.6 days 1
Sol. Work done by A and B in one day = 8
Ex. If man A complete a piece of work in 12 days
and the same work is completed by B and C in 1
15 days and 20 days respectively. In how many work done by B & C in one day =
12
days the work is completed if they work together
? 1
work done by C and A in 1 day = work done
by A,B and C together in 1 day 8
1 1 1
Sol. Work/ day of A,B and C = + +
12 15 20 11 1 1 1
5 +4 +3 1 =  + +  =
= = 2  8 12 8  6
60 5
A,B and C together complete the whole job =6
Total days = 5 days
days
FORMULA METHOD :
Ex. A can complete a piece of work in 20 days & B
They together complete the whole work can complete the same work in 25 days. If they
xyz start the work together but After 5 days A left the
= work. In how many days the total work would be
xy + yz + zx
finished?
12 ×15 × 20 Sol.
= = 5 days
12 ×15 + 15 × 20 + 20 ×12
Work/day of A and B
2. Two person A and B working together, can
complete a piece of work in X days. If A alone 1 1 9
= + =
can complete the work in Y days, then B working 20 25 100
 XY  5 ×9
alone will complete the work in   days A and B’s 5 day’s work = = 9/20
X −Y  100
Ex. A and B together can do a piece of work in 5 days Remaining work = 1 - 9/20 = 11/20
and A alone can do it in 8 days. B alone can do Since A left after 5 days hence remaining work
the same piece of work in done by B = 11/20
Sol.
11 / 20 11 25 3
Here (A+B) = 5 days, A = 8 days = × = 1 3 days
1 20 1 4
B alone can finish the work in one day 25
3 3 1
So, total days = 5 + 1 3 = 1 8 days i.e, work efficiency ∝ T im e
4 4
Ex. A is twice as good a work man as B & together
Ex. A and B can complete a piece of work in 24 days
they finish a piece of work in 18 days. In how
& 36 days respectively. They start the work but
many days will A alone finish the work ?
3 days before completion of work, A left. In how
many days will the total work be completed. Sol. A : B = 2 : 1
Sol. A’s 1 day’s work = 1/24 Time taken by A and B = 18 days
B’s 1 days’ work = 1/36 work done by A and B = 18 × 3 = 54 work
∴A left before 3 days 54
A will do alone = = 27 days
3 1 2
∴For last 3 days B’s work = = Ex. If the ratio of work efficiency of A & B is 6 : 5
36 12
& that of B & C is 6 : 5. If A can complete the
1 11 piece of work in 2 days, In How many days the
Remaining work = 1 − =
12 12 same work can be completed by B separately ?
Hence remaing work done by both so total days Sol. A : B = [6 : 5]
1111 Note : Here B : C is not required, this is given to

1 confuse you,
= 12
= 2 =13
1
1 1 5 5 time taken by A = 2 days
+
24 36 72
work done by A = 2 × 6 = 12 work
1 1 12 2
So total days = 1 3 5 +3 = 1 6 5 days time taken by B = = 2 days
5 5
Ex. A can complete a piece of work in 9 days and B
5. MDH FORMULA:
in 12 days respectively. If they work for a day
alternately, In how many days the work would (i) More men can do more work. i.e. M ∝ W.
be finished, If A begins the work? (ii) More men means less working hours. i.e. M
Sol. 4w /d A - 9 da ys 1
LC M = 36 w o rk ∝ .
H
3w /d B - 12 d ays (iii) More men can do same work in less number
Now, 1
of days. i.e. M ∝ .
A B A B D
7w W
4w 3w 4w 3w M∝
2 days 2 days DH

MDH
7 w → 2 days = Constant
W
5x 7w → 2 days ×5
(iv) If M1 can do W1 work in D1 days working
35w → 10 days H1 hr/day for Rs. R1 and M2 man can do W2
Remaining work = 36 -35 = 1 w work in D2 days working H2 hr/day for Rs.
1w will be done by A (because A starts the work) R2 then
ForMULA is given as:
1
∴ 1w → 4 days----------- (done by A) M 1D 1H 1 M 2 D 2 H 2
=
∴ Total time = 10 +
FG
1
days
IJ
W 1R 1 W 2R 2
1
H
4 K Here, R = wages (in Rs.)
= 10 days
4 Ex. If 10 men complete half work in 12 days when
4. Work efficiency of any worker inversely they work 8 hours per day, In how many days 18
proportional to time taken by him. men complete the full work when they work 6
hours/day ? From formula : M1 D1 = M2 D2
Sol. By formula : 3 m × 43 = (7m + 5w) × D2
M 1D 1H 1 M 2D 2H 2 15
= 129 m = (7m + m) × D2
W1 W2 4
43 m
10 × 12 × 8 18 × D 2 × 6 129 m =
4
× D2 ⇒ D2 = 12 days
=
1/ 2 1
SHORT Trick :
10 × 12 × 8 × 2 = 18 × D2 × 6
a ×b ×d
160 7 D =
D2 = = 17 days.
xb + ya
9 9
6. (i) If a men or b women can do a piece of work 3 × 4 × 43
D = = 12 days
in d days then x men and y women together 28 + 15
finish the whole work-
Ex. 1 man or 2 boys or 3 girls can do a piece of work
a m en or b w o m en d da ys in 88 days. In how many days one man, one boy
× and one girl can do the same work ?
+
x m en & y w om e n ? da ys Sol. 1m = 2b = 3g = 88 days
a ×b ×d (1m + 1b + 1g) = ?
D =
xb + ya By formula : m1 d1 = m2 d2

3g × 88 = (1m + 1b + 1g) × d2
(ii) If a men or b women or c children can do a piece
of work in d days then x men, y women and z 3
3g × 88 = (3g + g + 1g) d2
children together finish the whole work-
2
× FG 6 g + 3 g + 2 g IJ d
a m en or b w om en or c children d days 3g × 88 =

H 2 K 2
11
x m en & y w om en & z children ? days 3g × 88 = g × d2
2
a ×b ×c ×d d2 = 48 days
D =
xb c + ya c + za b SHORT Trick :
Ex. 3 Men or 4 Women can do a piece of work in 43 a ×b ×c ×d
D =
days. In how many days 7 men & 5 women can xb c + ya c + za b
do the same work ?
1 × 2 × 3 × 88
Sol. 3m or 4w = 43 days D = = 48 days
6 +2 +3
7m + 5w = ?
CHAPTER
PIPE & CISTERN
12
Pipe : Pipes are connected to a tank or cistern and are is negative.
used to fill or empty the tank, there are of two types. Important Points
Inlet : A pipe connected with a tank or cistern that fills
(1) Chapter Pipe & cistern is more similar to chapter
it is known as inlet, means nature of pipe is positive.
Time & Work.
Outlet : A pipe connected with a tank or cistern
emptying it is known as outlet, means nature of pipe (2) If an Inlet can completely fill the empty tank in x
hours, the part of the tank filled in 1 hour = 1/x.
(3) If an outlet can empty the full tank in y hours, the 1 1 1
part of the tank empty in 1 hour = 1/y. = + +
4 6 12
(4) If both inlet and outlet are open, net part of the
3 + 2 +1 1
1 1 = = part,
tank filled in 1 hour = − . 12 2
x y
All fill the tank in 2 hours.
(5) If a pipe A alone can fill the tank in x hours and
pipe B can fill or empty the tank in y hours. If (7) Two pipes A & B can fill the tank in X, Y
both pipe are working simultaneously then tank respectively. There is also an outlet pipe C. If all
 xy  three pipe opened simultaneously tank will full
to fill or empty by  hours. in Z hours the time taken by C to empty the full
 x ± y  tank is given by -
For filling pipe, we take ‘+’ sign.
XY Z
For empty or drain pipe we take ‘-’ sign. XZ + Y Z − XY

Ex. Two pipes A & B can fill a tank in 20 min. and
Ex. Two taps A & B, can fill the tank in 30 min and
30 min. respectively. If both the pipes are opened
60 min respectively. There is a third exhaust pipe
simultaneously. How much time will be taken to
C at the bottom of the tank. If all taps are opened
fill the tank ?
together then tank will be full in 45 minutes. In
Sol. Here A = 20 min, B = 30 min what time can exhaust tap C empty the cistern
∴ Part of the tank filled by A & B in 1 min. = when tank is completely full?

1 1 Sol. Here A = 30 min, B = 60 min and A+B-C = 45
+
20 30 min.
5 1
= = C can empty the tank in one minute
60 12
1 1 1 6 +3 −4 1
Both Pipes A and B together fill the tank in 12 = + − = = part.
30 60 45 180 36
min.
All fill the tank in 36 minutes.
Ex. If pipe 'A' can fill the tank in 8 hr. and pipe 'B' (8) One inlet pipe A is k times faster than the other
can empty the tank in 16 hr. When both pipes are inlet pipe B.
opened simultaneously, how much time will be
taken to fill the tank ? (a) If B can fill a cistern in x hrs., then the time
in which the cistern will be full, if both the
Sol. Here A = 8 hour, B = 16 hour
inlet pipes are opened together, is
Part of cistern fill by A & B in 1 hour hrs.
1 1 2 −1 1 (b) If A can fill a cistern in y hrs., then the time
= − = =
8 16 16 16 in which the cistern will be full, if both the
Both pipe fill the tank = 16 hours  k 
inlet pipes are opened together, is  y
 k + 1 
(6) Three pipes A,B,C can fill the tank in x,y and hrs.
z hours respectively.If all three pipes opened (9) One fill pipe A is k times faster and takes x minute
simultaneously the time taken to fill the cistern less time than the other inlet pipe B, then
is given by -
(a) The time taken to fill a cistern, if both the
xyz  kx 
pipes are opened together is  2
xy + yz + zx  (k − 1) 
mins.
Ex. Three taps A,B,C, can fill the tank in 4,6 and 12  x 
(b) A will fill the cistern in  min.
hour respectively. How long would these three k − 1 
taps take to fill the tank if all of them are opened
together?
 kx 
(c) B will fill the cistern in  min.
Sol. Here A = 4 hours, B = 6 hours and C = 12 hours  k − 1 
All together fill tank in 1 hour
Ex. One inlet pipe A is 9 times faster than second inlet then in how much time slower pipe can fill the
pipe B. If B can fill a cistern in 40 mins, then find the tank.
time when the cistern will be full if both inlet pipes Sol. Let time taken by faster pipe be x min then slower
are opened together. pipe take = 3x
Sol. Here k = 9 and x = 40 1 1 1
∴ + =
 x  x 3 x 36
∴ Cistern will be full in = 
 k + 1  mins 36 × 4
x= = 48 minute
 40  3
=  mins or 4 mins. The time taken by slower pipe to fill the tank
 9 + 1 
= 3×48 = 144 min.
Ex. One inlet pipe A is 3 times faster than second
inlet pipe B. If A can fill a cistern in 16 minute, Ex. One inlet pipe A is 5 times as fast as second inlet
then find the time when the cistern will be full if pipe B and takes 32 min less than the inlet pipe
both inlet pipes are opened together. B. When will the cistern be full if both inlet pipes
Sol. Here k = 3 and x = 16 are opened together?
Sol. Here k = 5 and x = 32.
∴ Cistern will be full in =  x  y minute
 k + 1  kx 
 3  ∴ Cistern will be full in =  2 min.
=  16 = 12 minute.  (k − 1) 
 3 + 1 
Ex. One inlet pipe A is 3 times faster than second inlet 5 × 32 20
= min. = min.
pipe B. If together can fill the tank in 36 min, (5 2 − 1) 3
CHAPTER
Speed, Time AND
13
Distance
Its speed in metre per second is-
Speed
The distance covered in a unit time interval is known as 5
speed. It is obtained by dividing the distance covered Sol. 1 8 0 × = 5 0 m/s
18
by an object by the time it takes to cover that distance.
Important Points :
D is ta n ce T ra v e lle d
Speed (S) = 1. If the time taken is constant, then the distance
T im e T a k e n
travelled is directly proportional to the speed i.e.
Distance (d) = Speed ×Time more speed, more distance can be travelled in the
D is ta n ce same time.
Time (t) =
Speed
S ∝ d → at constant time
Unit conversion :
1. km/hr to m/sec conversion: 2. If the speed is constant, the distance travelled is
directly proportional to the time taken, i.e. more
A km/hr = A ×
FG 5 IJ the distance travelled, more the time taken at the
H18 K
m/sec. same speed.
2. m/sec to km/hr conversion: d ∝ t → at constant speed
A m/sec = A ×
FG 18 IJ km/hr.
3. If the distance travelled is constant, the speed
H 5 K is inversly proportional to the time taken, that
is more speed, less the time taken for the same
Ex. A plane is moving with the speed of 180 km/hr. distance to be travelled.
distance covered by that object in a set period of time.
1
S ∝ → at constant distance T o ta l D ista n ce
t Average Speed =
T o ta l T im e T a k e n
Ex. In covering a certain distance the speed of A and
B are in the ratio of 3 : 4. A takes 30 minutes more (a) If A covers a distance d1 km at S1 km/hr and
than B to reach the destination. The time taken then d2 km at S2 km/hr. then the average
by A to reach the destination is- speed during whole journey is given by
Sol. Let the distance of destination be D km S 1S 2 ( d 1 + d 2 )

Average Speed =
Let the speed of A= 3x km/hr. S 1d 2 + S 2 d 1
The speed of B = 4x km/hr. (b) A person goes certain distance (A to B) at
speed of S1 and return (B to A) at speed of
According to the question
S2 km/hr. If he takes T hrs in all, then
D D 1
− = 30 = 2S 1 × S 2
3x 4x 2 Average speed =
S1 + S 2
D 1 D Distance between A and B is
= , =6
12x 2 x
 S1 × S 2 
D 6  t × S + S 
Time taken by A = = = 2 hours. 1 2
3x 3
(c) If a person travelled three equal distance by
short Trick : three different speed S1, S2 and S3 then
Speed ratio = 3 : 4 3S 1 × S 2 × S 3
Time ratio = 4 : 3 Average speed =
S 1S 2 + S 2 S 3 + S 3 S 1
1 = 30 min Ex. A man goes from place A to B at a speed of 12
4 = 120 min =2 hours km/hr. and return at the speed of 18 km/hr. The
average speed for the whole journey is-
Ex. If a person walks at 14 km/hr instead of 10 km/
hr, he would have walked 20 km more. The actual 2 ×12 ×18 2 ×12 ×18
Sol. Average Speed =
distance travelled by the person is: (1 2 + 1 8 ) = 3 0
Sol. Let the actual distance travelled be x km. 2
= 14 km/hr.
x x + 20 5
Then, = ⇒ 14x = 10x + 200
10 14 Ex. One-third of a certain journey is covered at the
⇒ 4x = 200 ⇒ x= 50km. rate of 25 km/hr. one fourth at the rate of 30 km/
hr. and the rest at 50 km/hr. The average speed
short Trick :
for whole journey.
20
(14 - 10) = Sol. Let total journey = x km
T
So, according to the question
T = 5 hrs.
x x 5x 3x
Distance = 10 × 5 = 50 km Total time = + + =
3 × 25 4 × 30 12 × 50 100
Ex. Excluding stoppages, the speed of a bus is 54
kmph and including stoppages, it is 45 kmph. For x 1
Average Speed = = 3 3 km/hr.
how many minutes does the bus stop per hour? 3x 3
Sol. Due to stoppages, it covers 9 km less. 100
Time taken to cover 9 km Relative Speed :
I. If two objects are travelling in the same direction
FG 9 × 60 IJ min = 10 min at s1 km/hr. and s2 km/hr respectively such that s1
= H 54 K >s2 then s1-s2 is called the relative speed.
Average Speed
The average speed of an object is a measure of the
B
II. If a man travels at the speed of x km/hr. reach t1
 A
s 1 km /hr
→ 
s 2 km /hr
→ hr. late and if he travels at the speed of y km/hr.
reach t2 hr. early the travel distance.
Relative Speed = s1-s2 (s1 >s2)
xy
A y −x
(t1 + t 2 )k m
←
s1 k m /h r 

III. If two persons A and B start at the same time
B from two points P and Q towards each other and
←
s 2 k m /h r 
after crossing they take T1 and T2 hrs in reaching
Q and P respectively, then
Relative Speed = s1-s2 (s1 >s2)
II. If two objects are travelling in the opposite A 's S p e e d T2
=
direction at s1 km/hr and s2 km/hr, respectively, B ' s Speed T1

then s1 +s2 is called their relative speed.
3
A B Ex. If a man travels th of his original speed then

s 1 km /hr
→ ←
s 2 km /hr
 4
he reaches 20 minutes late. Find his actual time
Relative Speed = s1+s2 :
A B Sol. Let the actual speed be x km/hr and the actual
←
s k m /h r  
s2 km / hr
→

1
time be t minutes
Relative Speed = s1+s2 1 1 20

− =
Ex. A thief is noticed by a policeman from a 3 x x 60
distance of 200 m. The thief starts running and 4
the policeman chases him. The thief and the
policeman run at the rate of 10 km/hr and 11 km/ 4x 1 1
− =
hr. respectively. What is the distance between 3x x 3
them after 6 minutes.
x = 1 km/hr.
Sol. P 11 km /hr. T
10km /hr.
1
200 m Actual time = = 1 hr. = 60 min.
1
Relative speed of police= 11-10 = 1 km/hr.
5 short Trick :
= m/sec
18 3
Actual time = × 20
∴ Distance decreased in 6 minutes (4 − 3 )
5 = 60 min.
= × 6 × 6 0 = 100 m
18
Ex. Ritu goes at the speed of 4 km/hr. reaches her
∴ Distance remained between them
school 6 minutes late and next day she goes at the
= 200-100 = 100 m speed of 5 km/hr. reaches her school 6 minutes
earlier find the distance between her home and
Important Points
school ?
a Sol. Let Distance = x
I. If the new speed is of the original speed,
b
then the change in time taken to cover the same x x 12
So, − =
distance is given by 4 5 60
x 1
b =
Change in time =  -1 ×o rig in a l tim e 20 5
a 
x= 4 km
short Trick : When they are travelling in opposite directions
4 × 5 12 (x + y) = 150 ....... (ii)
Distance = × = 4k m
1 60 Adding eq. (i) and (ii)
2x = 180
Ex. Two places A and B are placed at a distance of
150 km on a highway. A car moves from A and x = 180/2
another car moves from B at the same time. If x = 90 km/hr.
both car travelled in same direction with the Ex. Ram arrives at a Bank 15 minutes earlier than
different speed then they meet after 5 hours. If shedules time if drives his car at 42 km./hr. He
they travelled in opposite directions then they arrives 5 minutes late if he drives his car at 35
meet in 1 hour speed of the fast car is- km./hr. The distance of the Bank, from his starting
Sol. point is:
Sol. Difference in time = (15+5) minutes = 1/3 hour
When they are travelled in same direction (x>y)
∴ Required distance
then (x-y) × 5 = 150
42 × 35 1
⇒ x - y = 30 ......... (i)
= × = 7 0 km.
7 3
CHAPTER
PRoblemS
14 on Trains
This type of questions are totaly based on the concept Relative Speed = s1-s2 (s1 >s2)
of time & distance & speed. Mainly problems based on
A B
trains have two objects. ←
s k m /h r  ←
s k m /h r 
1 2
1. Object I: Those object who cross another object
is considered as object I (primarly trains are
(2) When both object are moving in opposite
considered as Ist object but some times person direction.
also considered as 1st object when person crosses In this case relative speed is sum of both
another object like stationary train or platform) speed of both object means relative speed
Ex. train, bus, person etc. = S 1 + S2
2. Object II : Those object who are crossed by B
object I train, platform, over bridge, tunnel,  A
s 1 km /hr
→ ←
s 2 km /hr

person, pole tree, wall etc.

General Rule Relative Speed = s1+s2
Concept of speed : A B
←
s k m /h r 
1

s2 km / hr
→
I.
When one object is stationary and another is still
then only speed of moving object is considered II. Concept of distance: Distance is always added
as S1=x (let) (S2 =0) of both object with irrespective of direction but in
(1) When both object are moving in same some exception are there when any vertical object
direction is taken then distance of that object is considered
In this case relative speed is difference as zero.
between speed of both objects that means Ex. Length of pole, person and tree is zero.
relative speed = S1 ~S2 III. Concept of Time : Time is always constant (The
A B
time which is taken by object I to cross object II)

s k m /h r → 
s k m /h r →
1

2 Some important points

1. When a moving train crosses a standing person
i.e. = 24 sec Ans.
L1 5. When a moving train crosses another stationary
S1 =
T train:
Ex. Find the time taken by a train 150m long, running L +L2
S1 = 1
at 54 km/h in crossing an electrical pole. T
L S2 = 0
Sol. S = (because pole has no breadth)
T Ex. A train 180 m long taken 20 sec. in crossing a
L 1 5 0m 150 stationary train 220 m long. The speed of the train
T= = 54 × 5 = = 10 sec is - (in km./h.)
S 15
m / s
18 L1 + L 2 180 + 220 400
Sol. S = = =
2. When a moving train crosses a moving person in t 20 20
the same direction 18
L = 20 × 5 = 72 km./h.
S 1 − S 2 = 1 and L2 = 0
T 6. When a moving train crosses another moving
Ex. A train 180m long is running at a speed of 65 train along same direction:
km/h. In what time will it pass a man who is L +L2
running at a speed of 5 km/h in the same direction S1 − S 2 = 1
T
?
L1 Ex. Two trains travelling in the same direction at 54
Sol. S1 - S2 = km/hr. and 36 km/hr. completely pass one another
T in 1 minute. If the length of the first train is 125
L1 180 metres, the length of the second train is:
T= = m/s= 10.8 sec
S1 − S 2 5 Sol. According to question
60 ×
18 L + L2
3. When a moving train crosses a moving persons S1 − S 2 = 1
in the opposite direction T
L 5 125 + L 2
S1 + S 2 = 1 (5 4 − 3 6 ) × =
T 18 60
Ex. A train 150metres long is moving at a speed of 5×60 = 125+L2
85 km/hr. It will cross a man coming from the L2= 175 metres.
opposite direction at a speed of 5 km./hr. in: 7. When a moving train crosses another moving
Sol. According to question train coming from opposite direction:
L L + L2
S1 + S 2 = 1 S1 + S 2 = 1
T T
5 150 Ex. Two trains are running in opposite directions with
(8 5 + 5 ) × =
18 T the same speed. If the length of each train is 120
T = 6 sec. metres and they cross each other in 12 seconds,
the speed of each train is :
4. When a moving train crosses a platform:
Sol. Let the speed of each train be x m/sec.
L +L2
S1 = 1 , S2 = 0 120 + 120
T Then, = 12
Ex. A train 140 m long is running at 60 km/h. In how x+x
much time will it pass a platform 260m long? 20  20 18 
∴x= m/sec. =  ×  km/hr.
L1 + L 2 L +L2 2  2 5 
Sol. S = ,t= 1
t s = 36 km/hr.
8. When a moving train crosses a person sitting in
140 + 260 another train:
=
5 L
60 × S1 ± S 2 = 1
18 T

L2 = 0 Ex. A train travelling at 36 km/hr. completely crosses
S1+S2 (according to direction) another train, having half its length and travelling
Ex. A goods train 150 m. long moving with speed 54 in the opposite direction at 54 km/hr. in 12
km/h. A man is sitting in a passanger train which
seconds. If it also passes a railway platform in 1
is moving with 18 km/hr. in same direction. In
how many seconds the goods train crosses the 1
minutes, the length of the platform is:
man sitting in a passanger train ? 2
Sol. Let the length of the goods train is L. Sol. Relative speed = (36+54)km/hr. = 90 km/hr.
S1 - S2 =
L
(because man has no breadth)
FG
= 90 ×
5 IJ
m/sec. = 25 m/sec.
t H 18 K
5 1 5 0m
(54 - 18) = Let l metre be the length of slower train.
18 t
Fl+ l I

5
×36 =
1 5 0m

G J
Now, G 2 J =12 or l = 200 m
18 t
GH 25 JK
t = 15 sec
Also, speed of slower train
9. When a moving train crosses two different object:

FG
= 36 ×
5 IJ
m/sec. = 10 m/sec.
Ex. A train running at a speed of 30 km/h takes 18
sec to pass a railway platform and it takes 15 sec
H 18 K
to pass a man who is running at a speed of 6 km/h Now, if x metre be the length of platform, then
in the same direction. Find the length of platform x + 200
? =90 or x = 700 metres.
10
Sol. Let the length of the train is L. 10. When two trains start from two points X & Y
and the length of the platform is P. towards each other at the same time and after
L +P crossing they take p & q second to reach Y & X
S1 =
t respectively then ratio of
5 L +P Speed = q: p
× 30 = 18
18 Ex. Two trains x and y start from stations A and
L + P = 150 ---- (I) B towards B and A respectively. After passing
Again each other, they take 4 hours 48 minutes and 3
L hours 20 minutes to reach B and A respec tively.
S1 - S2 = If train x is moving at 40 km/hr., the speed of
T train y is : -
5 L
x ' s rate
× ( 30 - 6) = 1 5 Sol. = T im e taken by Y to reach A
18 y ' s rate T im e taken by X to reach B
L = 100 meters
40 FG 10 × 5 IJ = 5
Length of train L = 100 m ⇒
Y ' s rateH 3 24 K 6
=
Length of platform = 150 - 100
= 50 m.
F 40 × 6 IJ km/hr. = 48 km/hr.
∴Y’s rate = G
H 5 K
CHAPTER
Boat & Stream
15
Concept of Boat and Stream Depends on Concept of B s km /hr.
Speed, Time and Distance mainly it has 4 facts.
B oa t
(1) Still water : If the speed of the water in the river
or pond is zero it is called still water. It is denoted
as Bs.
C s km /h r.
B oa t B s km /h Bs-Cs = Us
Ex. If the speed of the boatman in still water is 10
km/hr and speed of the water (stream) is 4 km/
Still w ater hr then the speed of the boatman in upstream.

Sol. Us = Bs - Cs
(2) Stream: If the water of the river is flowing at a
constant speed it is called as stream. It is denoted Hence Us = 10-4 = 6 km/h
as Cs. Important formulas:
(1) Speed of the boat in still water
d o w n stre a m sp e e d + u p stre a m sp e e d
C s km /hr. = 2
(3) Down Stream Speed: If a boat or swimmer goes Ds + Us
along the stream is called down stream speed. Bs = 2
Down stream speed = speed of the boat + speed Ex. A man can goes 32 km/hr upstream & 36 km/h
of the current downstream. Find the speed of man in still water.
Ds = Bs + Cs Sol. Speed of man in still water
Bs Ds + Us 32 + 36
(B s ) = =
B oa t 2 2
B s+C s = D s = 34 km/h
Cs (2) Speed of the current
Ex. If the speed of the boatman in still water is 10 d o w n stre a m sp e e d - u p stre a m sp e e d

=
km/hr and speed of the water (stream) is 4 km/ 2
hr then speed of the boatman in downstream.
Ds − Us
Cs =
Sol. Since Ds = Bs + Cs 2
Hence Ds = 10 + 4 = 14 km/hr. Ex. A man can go 36 km/hr upstream & 48 km/h
downstream. Find the speed of current.
(4) Up stream speed: If a boat or a swimmer moves
Ds − Us
against the stream it is called upstream speed. Sol. Speed of current Cs =
2
Upstream speed = speed of the boat - speed of
the current 48 − 36
= 6 km/hr
2
Us = Bs - Cs
CHAPTER
INEQUALITY
16
4x - 3y = 4...... (i)
Introduction
2x - 5y = -5.....(ii)
In this chapter, we will study about the problems based
on equations and methods of comparing their values. Now, Multiplying Equation (2) by 2, we get,
Inequality basically deals with few signs. (<) "Less 2(2x - 5y = -5) = > 4x - 10y = -10....(iii)
than"; (>) "greater than"; (=) equal to; (<) "less than or
Now, from (i) and (iii)
equal to"; (>) "greater than or equal to".
4x - 3y = 4
Pattern of questions asked in exams is as follows:-
4x - 10y = -10
In the following question two equations are given. You
have to solve both equations and- - + +
Give the answer- 7y = 14
(i) x >y (ii) x > y (iii) x < y y=2
(iv) x < y (v) x = y or the relation can’t be ∴ x = 2.5
established. Hence x > y
Variable : Variables are the values which do not remain Quadratic equation: A quadratic equation is a second -
fixed and thus are denoted by English alphabets order polynomial equation in a single variable because it
Ex. (a,b,c,m,n,o,p,q, r,x,y,z, etc.) is a second-order polynomial equation, the fundamental
theorem of algebra identities that it has two solutions.
Constant : Constant are the values which remain fixed.
These solutions may be both real or both complex.
Ex. (1,2,3,4 ........ and so on). Quadratic formula :
The power of any variable is always one and the variable For the standard equation ax2 + bx +c= 0
has one or more than one is known as linear equation.
x = −b ± b − 4a c
2
Types of Equation:
2a
(i) Linear Equation: A linear equation is an
equation in which each term is either a constant Ex. I. x2 + x - 6 = 0
or the product of a constant and the first power x2+3x-2x-6=0
of a single variable.
x(x+3)-2 (x+3)=0
(a) Linear Equation with one variable: (x+3) (x-2) = 0
Ex. (I) 6x + 5 = 4x - 15 x = - 3, 2
6x - 4x = - 20 II. y2 + 10y + 24 = 0
2x = - 20 y2 + 6y + 4y + 24 = 0
x = - 10 y(y+6) + 4 (y+6) = 0
(II) 4y - 4 = 5 + y (y+6) (y+4) = 0
4y - y = 5 + 4 y = -6, - 4
3y = 9 Now, on comparing the values of x and y we get,
y=3 x y
which means that x < y. - 3 > -6
(b) Linear Equation with two variables - 3 > -4
Ex. (I) 4x - 5 = 3y -1 2 > -6
(II) 2x + 3 = 5y-2 2 > -4
Hence, we can say that x > y II. 4x+2y=16
Sol. I. (2x+3y = 14)× 2 ⇒ 4x+6y = 28
Example: x + 2x = 7
2
4x + 6y = 28
x2 + 2x - 7 = 0 4x + 2y = 16
a = 1, b = 2 c = -7 (−)(−)(−)
With quadratic formula:
0 + 4y = 12
−b ± b 2 − 4a c
x= y=3
2a
x = 2.5
(2 ) − 4 (1)( −7 )
2
−2 ± x<y
x= Ex. I. 20x2–x–12=0
2 (1)
II. 20y2+27y+9=0
Sol. I. x = + 0.8, – 0.75
x=
−2 + (1 6 )
2
= =
(
−2 ± 2 2 −1 ± 2 2 ) II. y = – 0.6, –0.75
2 2 2 0.8 > -0.6
- 0.75 = - 0.75
= -1 ±2 2 -0.75 < -0.6
D = b2 - 4ac Hence no relationship can be established.
Discriminant Rule: 12
Ex. I. = x
(1) If b2 - 4ac is less than 0, there is no real solution. x
(2) If b2 - 4ac is equal to 0, then the equation has two 5
equal real solution. II. y 2 – (8 ) = 0

2

(3) If b2 - 4ac is greater than 0, then the equation has y
two different real solution. 12
Important Examples : Sol. I. = x , 12=x
x
Ex. In the following questions two equation
5
numbered I and II are given. You have to solve (8 ) 2 1 5
= 0 , y × y 2 – .8 2 = 0
2
both equestions and ----------- II. y 2
–
y
Give answer (1) if x >y
Give answer (2) if x ≥ y 5 5
Give answer (3) if x < y y2 = 82 , y=8
Give answer (4) if x ≤ y x > y
Give answer (5) if x = y or the relationship can 3 7 12 25
not be established. Ex. × x= × y
4 6 15 24
Ex. I. x2–24x+144=0 II. 2y2–52y+338=0 7 5
Sol. I. (x–12)2 = 0, x = +12 II. y2 – 26y+169=0 Sol. x= y
8 = 20y
21x 6
(y–13)2 = 0
y = +13, x<y x<y
Ex. I. x + y = 16
Ex. I. x + 18 = 144 − 49
II. x2 + y2 + xy = 192
Sol. I. (x+y)2 = 256
x2 +y2 + 2xy = 256 ....... (I)
10
12 × 4 3× 4 7 From eq. (I) and (II)
II.
4 - 4 =y xy = 64
y7 y7 (x-y)2 = (x+y)2 - 4xy
= 256 - 4 × 64
Sol. I. x+18=52 = 0
x=25–18=7 x-y = 0
14 ∴ x = y
II. 48–12=
y7 Ex. I. 4x2 + 8x = 4x + 8
II. y2 + 9y = 2y - 12
y2 = 36 Sol. I. 4x2 + 4x - 8 = 0
y = +6, -6 x2 + x - 2 = 0
x>y x2 + 2x -x - 2 = 0
Ex. I. 2x+3y=14
x (x+2) - 1 (x+2) = 0
x = -2,1 I: AB II: 9 cm
II. y2 + 7y + 12 = 0 Sol. I: ABCD is a parallelogram as opposite sides
y2 + 4y + 3y + 12 = 0 are parallel. In a parallelogram the diagonal are
y (y+4) +3 (y +4) =0 divided in equal part at the point of intersection.
y = - 3, - 4 So AC = 2 OC = 12 BD=16 cm
x > y means OB=8 and OA= 6
Ex. I. 2x2 + 40 = 18x in triangle AOB; use Pythagoras theorem to find
II. y2 = 13y - 42 AB=10 cm
Sol. I. x2 - 9x + 20 = 0 Q1>Q2
x2 -5x - 4x + 20 =0 Ex. It takes (X-2) men to do a work in 2Y days and it
x (x-5) - 4 (x-5) =0 takes (X+6) men to do the same work in Y days.
x = 4,5 I: X II: Y
II. y2 - 13y + 42 = 0 Sol. As the time is becoming half so means number of
y2 - 6y - 7y + 42 = 0 people have doubled; So (X+6)=2×(X-2)=>X=10
y (y-6) -7 (y-6) = 0 Using M1D1=M2D2 the value of Y cannot be
y = 6,7 found. Y can take any value.
x<y So we cannot determine a unique value of Y
New Pattern Inequality Ex. A hemisphere of radius 4 cm is to be shipped in a
Ex. In each of the following question, a question is shipping box of rectangular shape. The dimension
followed by information given in two statement of the box are consecutive odd numbers.
named as Quantity-I (Q1) and Quantity –II (Q2). I: Minimum volume of box required to have
You have to study the information along with the the shipment possible.
question and compare the value derived from II: 960 cm3
Quantity-I and Quantity-II and give answer- Sol. I: The minimum length of any side of
(1) Quantity I > Quantity II rectangular box should be greater than the
(2) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II diameter of the hemisphere. Diameter of
(3) Quantity II > Quantity I hemisphere=8; So for odd number, minimum
(4) Quantity II ≥ Quantity I length= 9, next side =11, next side=13
(5) Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot Volume=9×11×13= 1287 cm3
be established Ex. (I) No. of days in which A will work alone,
Ex. 90
0 given A and B can complete work in 8
A
D days, B and C can complete work in 12
50 0 days, C and A can complete work in 8
days.
(II) No. of days in which A will work alone,
B x0
y0 given A and B can complete work in 18
20
0
40
0 C days, they started work together and after
E working for 6 days A left and B completed
I. angle x II. 1100 remaining work in 24 days.
Sol. In triangle BCE, angle y= 180-(40+20)= 120 Sol. LCM = 24
Sum of exterior angle of a quadrilateral is 360 So
24
degree A+B= =3
So in quadrilateral ABCD; 8
50 + y +x+90=360 [y=120] 24
B+C= =2
x=1000 12

Q1<Q2 24
Ex. AB is parallel to DC and AD is parallel to BC. C+A= =3
8
BD is 4 cm more than AC. AC and BD are the 2 ( A+B+C) = 3+2+3 = 8
diagonal with O as point of intersection. A+B+C = 4
A B
(A+B+C) – (B+C) = 4 – 2 = 2
90 0
24
o 6 cm So A = = 12 days
2
D C
A = 36 days
Permutation &
CHAPTER
17 Combination
The study of permutations and combinations is 6! 6! 6 × 5 × 4!
(i) 6
concerned with determining the number of different P2 = = = = 30
( 6 − 2 )! 4 ! 4!
ways of arranging and selecting objects out of a given
number of objects, without actually listing them. There
(ii) 7 7! 7! 7 × 6 × 5 × 4!
are some basic counting techniques which will be useful P3 = = = = 210
( 7 − 3 )! 4 ! 4!
in determining the number of different ways of arranging
or selecting objects. Note : Number of all permuations of n-things, taken
Factorial all at a time = n!
Circular Permutations : There are two cases of
Factorial denoted by n or n !
circular-permutations:-
Where n! = n. (n-1) (n-2)...............3.2.1
(a) If clockwise and anti clock-wise orders
eg. (I.) 5! = 5.4.3.2.1 = 120 are different, then total number of circular-
(II) 6! = 6.5.4.3.2.1 = 720 permutations is given by (n-1)!
from (i),and (II) we get (b) If clock-wise and anti-clock-wise orders are taken
as not different, then total number of circular-
6! = 6.5.4.3.2.1
permutations is given by (n-1)!/2
6! = 6.5!
Combination
in general n! = n (n-1) !
(selection, committee, group)
(III) 1! = 1
Each of the different groups or selections which can
(IV) 0! = 1
be formed by taking some or all of a number of object
n! = n ×(n-1)! called a combinations.
n is greater than 0 Suppose we want to select two out of three persons A,
1! = 1 ×(1-1)! B,C. Then possible selections are :
1! = 1×(0)! AB, BC, CA
1 = 0! Note : AB and BA represent the same selection.
Permutation : (Arrangement) Suppose we want to select three out of three person A,
The different arrangements of a given number or things B, C. Then possible selections are ABC.
by taking some or all at a time, are called permutation. Note : ABC and BAC and CAB are the same selection.
A permutation is an arrangement of objects in a definite Number of combinations : The number of combinations
order. of n things, taken r at a time is :
All permutations (or arrangements) made with the letters n n!
Cr =
of ‘abc’, taking two at a time are : (ab ba, ac, ca, bc, cb).
b g
r !× n − r !
All permutation made with the letters a,b,c taking all
at a time are : Note : (i) If (n=r), n C r = 1 and n C 0 = 1
(abc, acb, bac, bca, cab, cba) Important points
Number of Permutations : Number of all permutations n
of n things, taken r at a time, is given by : C r = n C bn − r g ,
n n!
Pr = 16 !
bn − r g! eg.
16
C 13 =16 C 16 −13 =16 C 3 =
3 ! × 13 !
e.g.
16 × 15 × 14 × 13 ! 6 × 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 ×1
= = 560 = = 180
3 × 2 × 1 × 13 ! 2 ×1× 2 ×1
Conclusion : The basic difference between permutation Trick :
& combination.
6! 6 × 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 ×1
= = 180
Permutation 2 !× 2 ! 2 ×1× 2 ×1
There are three letters a,b,c and permutation made with
them by taking two at a time- a,b,c Ex. In how many different ways can the letters of the
word ELEPHANT be arranged so that vowels
ab
always occur together?
ac
bc Sol. Vowels = E, E and A.
ba 6-different w ays
3!
ca They can be arranged in= i.e. 3!/2! Ways
2!
cb
6! × 3!
* Here ab, is possible then ba is also possible in So total ways = = 2160
permutation. 2!
Combination : There are three person A, B, C we want Ex. In how many different ways can the lettes of the
to select two out of three. The number of combination word ‘ROSE’ be arranged so that vowels never
are : ABC come together ?
AB Sol. Ways (never)
AC
BA = Ways (total) - Ways (always)
BC 3-different w ays
CA = 4! - 3! × 2! = 24 -12 = 12
CB Ex. In how many different ways can the word
* Here AB is possible, then BA is not possible in ‘TOFFEE’arranged so as, vowels never come
combination because they represent same combination. together ?
Result : In the above discussion, we observe that if
Sol. Ways (never) = ways (Total) - ways (always)
AB is possible and BA is also possible then we apply
permutation and when AB is possible and BA is not 6! 4 !× 3 !
possible then we apply combination. = − = 180 - 36= 144
2 !× 2 ! 2 !× 2 !
Permutation : Ex. How many words can be formed by re-arranging
Ex. In how many different ways can the letters of the letters of the word CURRENT such that C
the word ROSE be arranged ? and T occupy the first and last position respec-
Sol. n = 4, r = 4 tively?
By Formula : 5!
Sol. = 60
4 4! 4! 4 × 3 × 2 ×1 2!
P4 = = = = 24
( 4 − 4 )! 0 ! 1 Ex. In how many ways 4 Indians, 5 Africans and 7

Japanese be seated in a row so that all person
Trick : of same nationality sits together?
4! = 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 = 24 Sol. 4! × 5! × 7! × 3!
Ex. In how many different ways can the letters Ex. In how many ways 5 Americans and 5 Indians
of word ‘Toffee’ arranged ? be seated along a circular table, so that they are
Sol. Here, ‘F’ and ‘E’ repeated two times seated in alternative positions?
therefore- Sol. 4!x5! =2880
6! Ex. How many necklace of 12 beads each can be
6
P6 ( 6 − 6 )! 6! made from 18 beads of different colours?
= =
2
P2 × 2 P2 2! 2! 2 !× 2 !
× Sol. Here clock-wise and anti-clockwise arrangements are
( 2 − 2 )! ( 2 − 2 )!
same.
Hence total number of circular–permutations: 10 5 10 5
= × = ×
3× 7 1 4 3 7 4
P1 2
18
18 !
= 10 × 9 × 8
2 × 12 6 × 24
= × 5= 120 × 5 = 600
3 ×2
Ex. In how many ways can 15 people be seated
around two round tables with seating capacities Ex. From a group of 10 men & 5 women. 4 persons
of 7 and 8 people? are to be selected such that either 4 men or 4
women in the group. Find the different number
Sol. 15
C8×6!×7! + 15C7×6!×7! of ways.
Combination 10 5
Sol. c4 + 5c4 =
4 6 + 4 1
10
Ex. Find the value of 5c2.

10 × 9 × 8 × 7
= + 5= 210 + 5 = 215
Sol. c2 = 2 5 = 2 5 =
5 5 ×4
= 10 4 ×3 ×2
5 -2 ×3 2
Ex. A committee of 5 members is to be formed out
Ex. Find the value of n when nc2 = 105 ?
of 4 men and 5 women.
Sol. c2 = 105
n
(i) In how many ways can a committee
n
2 n-2 = 105
consisting of at least 1 woman be formed?
n (n- 1) = 210 { 142 < 210 < 152} Sol. 5
c1 × 4c4 + 5c2 × 4c3 + 5c3 × 4c2 + 5c4 × 4c1 + 5c5 ×
4
c0
n = 15
= 5 × 1 + 10 × 4 +10 × 6 + 5 × 4 + 1 = 126
Ex. There are 15 persons in a group. They shake
hand with each other. Find the different no. of (ii) In how many ways can a committee
hand shake. consisting of 3 men and 2 women be formed
?
Sol. By formula
4 5
15 15 15 × 14 Sol. 4
c3 × 5c2 = 3 1 × 2 3
15
c2 = 2 1 5 – 2 = = = 105
2 13 2
Ex. From a group of 10 men & 5 women 4 persons 4 ×5 ×4
are to be selected to form a committee. Find = = 40
2
the different number of ways for selection.
15 15 Ex. There are 6 men and 7 women. In how many
Sol. 15
c4 = 4 1 5 -4 = 4 ways a committee of 4 members can be made
11
such that a particular man is always to be ex-
15 × 14 × 13 × 12 cluded?
= = 105 × 13 = 1365
4 ×3 ×2
Ex. From a group of 10 men & 5 women. 4 person Sol. Here are total 13 people, a particular man is to
is to be selected such that 3 men and 1 woman be excluded, so now 12 people are left to chosen
in the group ? from and 4 members to be chosen. So ways are
12
C4 = 495.
Sol. = 10c3 × 5c1
CHAPTER
PROBABILITY
18
Some useful facts
If one dice is rolled randomly, the set of total
possible outcomes are {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} and the 3
set of all outcomes even number is 2,4,6. Probability of the even number =
6
From the above example we design some 1
P (E) =
definitions 2
I. Experiment : An activity which when performed Results :
any number of times under identical condition
(i) P (S) = 1...........(maximum probability is 1)
gives the same (unique) outcome.
Ex. When we measure the three angles of any triangle (ii) P (φ) = 0..........(minimum probability is 0)
we always get their sum as 1800. (iii) 0 < P (E) < 1
II. Random Experiment : An experiment is called a (iv) P(E) + P ( E ) = 1
random experiment when it satisfies the following
two conditions: ie. P (E) = 1- P ( E ) ............Where E denotes not
E
(1) It has more than one possible outcome.
(2) It is not possible to predict the outcome in Ex. In a question there are 5-options in which one is
advance. right and remaining 4 are wrong, if one option is
to be selected randomly, what is the probability
Ex. Tossing a coin; tossing a dice. that-
III. Sample space : The set of total possible outcomes (I) The question will be right
in an random experiment is known as sample
space, denoted by S. (II) The question will be wrong
- For rolling a dice S = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} 1
Sol. P (E) = .............(I)
- For tossing a coin once, S = {H, T} 5
- If two coins are tossed, then 4
P (E ) = ..................(II)
S = {HH, HT, TH, TT} 5
Adding these equation (I) & (II), we get-
IV. Event : Any subset of a sample space is called
an event, denoted by E. 1 4

bg ej
P E +P E = +
5 5
In the above, E = {2, 4, 6} is an event and E ⊆ S
V. Probability of occurrence of an event(E) : bg ej
i.e. P E + P E = 1 ..........(Remember that)
Probability of any event(E) =

b g i.e.
nE Ex. Find the probability of getting head when single
n bS g coin is tossed.
n bE g
P bE g = Sol. For single coin
n bS g
n(E) = 1 {H}
Where n (E) ⇒ Total number of favourable n(S) = 2 {H, T}
outcomes
n (S) ⇒ Total number of possible outcomes. 1
P(E) =
P (E) ⇒ Probability of Event. 2
Ex. Find the probability of getting 1 head when two
For rolling a dice
coins are tossed simultaneously. 4 1
n (E) = 4, P(E) = =
Sol. For two coins 36 9
n(S) = 4 {(H, H) (T, T) (H, T) (T, H)} Ex. Find the probability that sum is divisible by 4 when
two dice are thrown simultaneously.
n(E) = 2 {(H, T) (T, H)} nE bg
Sol. P(E) = n S bg
2 1
P(E) = = LM1,3 2 ,6 2,2 OP
4 2 9 1
Ex. Find the probability of getting at least one head
MM 3,1 6 ,2 6,6
,
PP
=
36 4
when two coins are tossed simultaneously.
MN3,5 5,3 4,4
PQ
Sol. For two coins Ex. Find the probability that sum is a prime no. & less
n(S) = 4 {(H, H) (T, T) (H, T) (T, H)} than 8 when two dice are thrown simultaneously.
Here, n(E) = 3 {(H, H) (H, T) (T, H)} 1 + 2 + 4 + 6 13
Sol. P(E) = =
36 36
3 Note : Sum Ways No. of results

P(E) =
4 2 (1, 1) 1
Ex. Find the probability of getting at most one head
3 (1,2) (2,1) 2
when two coins are tossed simultaneously.
5 (3,2) (2,3) (1,4) (4,1) 4
Sol. n(S) = 4 {(H, H) (T, T) (H, T) (T, H)}
7 (1, 6) (6, 1) (4, 3) (3, 4)
n(E) = 3 {(T, T) (H, T) (T, H)} (2, 5) (5, 2) 6
Cards

3
P(E) = 4 DICE C A R D S (52 )
Ex. Find the probability of getting a multiple of 3 R e d (2 6) B lac k (2 6)
when one dice is thrown once.
Sol. n(S) = 6 {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} D ia m o nd H e art C lu b Spad e
n(E) = 2 {3, 6} 13 13 13 13
2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10 – no. cards
2 1 → 9×4 = 36
P(E) = =
6 3 Ace, King, Queen; Jack - Honour cards
Ex. Find the probability of that number which is a
→ 4×4 = 16
multiple of 2 when one dice is thrown once.
King, Queen; Jack - Face cards
Sol. n(S)=6 {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6,}
→ 3×4 = 12
n(E) = 3 {2, 4, 6}
Ex. If from a pack of 52 cards, 1 card is drawn at
3 1
P(E) = = random. Find the probability that the card is an
6 2 Ace card.
Ex. Find the probability that sum on both faces is 9
Solution :
when two dice are thrown simultaneously.
Sol. 62 = 36 n (E ) 4
C1 4 1
P(E) = = = =
n( S ) 52
C1 52 13
n(S) = 36
Ex. If from a pack of 52 playing cards, 1 card is drawn
LM6, 3 OP at random. What is the probability that it is either
MM3, 6 PP a king or queen?
MN5,4, 45 PQ 4
C 1 +4 C 1
=
8
=
2
Sol. P(E) = 52
C1 52 13
CHAPTER
19 DATA
SUFFICIENCY
4 more than the digit at tens place.Find the two
Introduction
digit number.
Data sufficiency has recently become a favourite topic
for many of the recent examinations. In this type of I. Sum of their digits is 10.
questions, usually a question is given followed by two or II. The difference between the number and
three statements. These two or three statements contain the number obtained by interchanging the
data or some pieces of information, using which, the position of the digits is 36.
question can possibly be solved. You are required to Sol. Let the two-digit number be 10x+y
judge whether the data given is sufficient to answer the Then, y-x = 4..........(i)
question or not.
I. x + y = 10 .........(ii)
Format of Study : Data sufficiency questions are not
new topics in themselves. They may be covering any Solving (i) with (ii), we get
of the topics already covered; for example : percentage, x = 3, y = 7
time and work, algebra, time and distance profit and Number = 10 × 3 + 7 = 37
loss, S.I., C.I., average etc. Hence you should treat
II. |10x+y-10y-x| = 36
these questions as old-type only. Only these questions
are asked in a different pattern and not the conventional or, |9x - 9y| = 36 or, |x-y| = 4
pattern. we wouldn’t get the value of x and y.
Helping Hands: When you are attempting a question Therefore, only statement I alone is sufficient to
of data sufficiency you should follow a systematic answer the question.
approach as laid down below. This approach being a Ex. What is the value of m - n ÷ 37 ?
systematic one, will save your time. Also in case you
I. m is the largest possible six-digit number
are stuck up at any point, it will help your chances of
and n
guessing a correct answer because it narrows down the
possible answers from 5 to 3 or 2. is the smallest possible six-digit number.
To understand this approach let us first look at the way II. The difference between m and n is known.
in which such questions are usually asked : (1) Two Sol. I. m = 999999, n = 100000 ∴ ? = m - n ÷ 37
statements D.S. (2) Three statements D.S. = 999999 - 100000 ÷ 37
Direction : The questions given below contain two = 999999 - 2702.70 = 997296.30
statements giving certain data. You have to decide II. m - n = known, but neither the value of ‘m’
whether the data given in the statements are sufficient is known nor the value of ‘n’ is known. So,
for answering the question ? Mark answer- we cannot find the value of m-n ÷ 37 by this
(1) If statement I alone is sufficient but statement.
statement II alone is not sufficient. Ex. What is the average daily wages of a worker who
(2) If statement II alone is sufficient but works five days if he made Rs. 80 for the first
statement I alone is not sufficient. day?
I. The worker made a total of Rs. 400 for the
(3) If each statement alone (either I or II) is
first four days of work.
sufficient.
II. The worker made 20% more each day than
(4) If statement I and II together are not he did on the previous day.
sufficient. Sol. Only II statement is sufficient.
(5) If both statement together are sufficient, but Ex. What is the difference between the present ages
neither statement alone is sufficient. of mother and her daughter?
Ex. In a two-digit number, the digit at unit's place is I. Ratio of the age of the daughter eight years
hence to the present age of the mother is 3 Sol. The length of the other train is not given in any
:4. of the statements.
II. Ratio of the present age of the daughter to Both the statements are not sufficient.
that of the mother is 11 : 20. Three Statement Data Sufficiency
Sol. Statements I and II will give us the separate Direction.The questions given below contain three
equations for mother and daughter. Therefore, statements giving certain data. You have to decide
both statements together are sufficient. whether the data given in the statements are sufficient
Ex. What is the population of state A? for answering the question ?
I. After an increase in the population of state Ex. What is the average of three numbers?
A by 12% it becomes 627.20 lakhs. I. The largest number is 20 more than the
II. Ratio of population of state A to that of state smallest number.
B is 4:5.
II. The sum of the largest and the smallest
Sol. I. Population of State number is twice the middle number.
627 .20 III. The difference between first two numbers
A= × 100 = 560 lakhs
112
. is 10.
II. Ratio never determine value therefore only (1) Only I and III
I statement is sufficient.
(2) Only II and III
Ex. What is the rate of simple interest per annum? (3) Any two
I. The sum trebles in 20 years at simple (4) All I, II and III
interest.
(5) Answer can not be given even using all
II. The difference between the sum and the the three statements.
simple interest earned after 10 years is Rs. Sol. Answer can not be given even using all the three
1000.
statements.
100
Sol. I. b g
R = 3 −1 ×
20
= 10% Ex. What will be the sum of ages of mother and
daughter after 6 years?
II. Here the sum is not given.
I. Mother's present age is 24 years more than
Therefore, statement I alone is sufficient. the daughter's present age.
Ex. What is the speed of a running train which takes II. 4 years ago, the ratio of ages of mother and
6 seconds to cross a signal post? daughter was 5:1.
I. The length of the train is 90 m. III. Five times the daughter's present age is 16
II. The train takes 18 seconds to cross a years more than the mother's present age.
platform180 m long. (1) Any two (2) Only I and either II
90 18 or III (3) Only I and II
Sol. I. ×
Speed of the train = = 54 km/hr (4) Only II and III
6 5
(5) None of these
II. Quicker Method : Length of train
Sol. From statement (I) and (II),
Length of platform
= × T im e M = D + 24 _________(i)
diff. in tim e
taken to cross a signal post M = 5 D ___________(ii)
From equation (i) and (ii),
180
= × 6 = 90 m D = 10 years
18 − 6
M = 34 years
90 18 From statement (I) and (III),
Speed of the train = × = 54 km/hr.
6 5 M = D+24 __________(iii)
Either I or II is sufficient. 5D = M + 16 _________(iv)
Ex. A train crosses another train running in the op From equation (iii) and (iv),
posite direction in x seconds. What is the speed
D = 10 years
of the train?
M = 34 years
I. Both the trains are running at the same
speed. Therefore, only I and either II or III is sufficient.
II. The first train is y cm long. Ex. What is the length of the platform?
I. A train running at the speed of 25 km./hr. 5 25
crosses a platform in 18 seconds. Relative speed = 25+5 = 3 0 × = m./sec.
18 3
II. The train crosses a man moving in opposite
25
direction at the speed of 5 km./hr. in 12 Distance = ×12 = 100 meter
seconds. 3
III. The train crosses a pole in 14.4 seconds. Length of train = 100 m.
(1) All I, II and III (2) Any two Length of train + length of platform
(3) Only II and either I or III (4) Only II and III 25 × 5
= ×18
(5) None of these 18
Sol. From statement (I) and (II), Length of platform = 25 m.
DATA
CHAPTER
20
INTERPRETATION
Data Interpretation (3) In percentage- 25% of 80 =
25
× 80 = 20
By interpretation of data we mean understanding, 100
organising and drawing appropriate conclusions from 80
the given data. In these days, Data Interpretation it is equivalent to- 80%of25= × 25 = 20
100
is an important aspect of almost every competitive
examination. Usually, a table or a bar diagram or a For example : Suppose a student got 80%
pie-chart or a graph is given and candidates are asked out of maximum mark 75. What is the marks
questions that test their ability to analyse the-data given obtained by that student ?
in those forms. Through these questions, examiner 4 4
makes an attempt to check your ability to calculate 80% of 75 = × 75 ...(∴ 80% = ) = 60
5 5
faster and to comprehend complex and voluminous data.
but, suppose another student got 64% marks
Unorganised and haphazard data does not make any out of maximum marks 75. What is the marks
sense more so to top management for whom time is a obtained by that student ?
very valuable and rare commodity. Hence, any data, be
It is difficult when we find 64% of 75 but if we
it daily production figures, daily sales Figures, financial
3
performance or productivity, will have to be presented find ( 75% = )
in a concise manner at the same time being precise so 4
that top management can study it with least of effort and 3
75% of 64 = × 64 = 3 × 16 = 48
time thus also facilitating faster decision making, 4
We easily get the required answer.
Types of D.I. :
(4) % profit of a company x in various years are
(1) Tabulation (2) Bar Graphs
given below in the form of line graph-
(3) Pie- charts (4) Line-Graphs
30
(5) Mixed Graph (6) Missing DI
25 25%
(7) Puzzle DI
Useful Tips : 20 20%
P ro fit P e rce n t
(1) To solve D.I., first we learn some useful topic; 15

percentage profit & loss, Ratio, Average,
10 12%
because these topics are used in D.I. 10% 7%
(2) In, income- expenditure type of D.I. 5
5%
Expenditure is equivalent to C.P. 0
2011 2012 2013 2014 2015 2016
& Income is equivalent to S.P.
Ex. In which year company x got maximum profit? Q.2. What is the difference between the number
Sol. (According to the question, most of the of tickets of movie D sold in Kolkata and
candidate answered year 2016 (25%) but it is the number of tickets of movie B sold in
not necessary) that 25% is maximum out of Lucknow?
all given years then the value of 25% is also (1) 7500 (2) 7000 (3)14000
maximum (it may be), because (% P is always (4) 9000 (5) None of the above
calculated on its expenditure, (expenditure is Q.3. What is the average number of tickets of
not given). movie C sold in all the six cities?
Ans. CND (1) 15500 (2) 2550 (3) 24000
Ex. In which year, company x got maximum % (4) 25500 (5) None of the above
profit? Q.4. The number of tickets of movie E sold in
Sol. 2016 (25%) Chennai is what per cent of number of tickets
movies A sold in Mumbai?
Solved Examples :
(1) 170 (2) 70 (3) 30
Table (4) 130 (5) None of the above
A table is one of the simplest and most convenient Q.5. In which city was the total number of tickets
means of summarising data and presenting them in of all the five movies together sold the
a meaningful way, as all the numerical values are minimum?
given directly and any errors that may arise due to (1) Delhi (2) Chennai
discrepancies in analysing or interpreting the data
(3) Lucknow (4) Kolkata
expressed in graphical form are eliminated. Here, it
should be borne in mind that data expressed in the (5) None of these
tabular form may be expressed in most of the other Explanation : Q.1-5.
graphical forms. So, we can express or summarise the
Q.1.(5) Total number of tickets of movie B sold in all
voluminous data in any one of the forms as we wish. the cities together
So, the ways of expression do not matter. The various
graphs can be drawn from the original piece of data =15+19+24+21+34+27 =140 (thousand)
which is in the form of table. Number of tickets sold of movie B in
Hyderabad =34 (thousand)
Q.1-5. Study the following table carefully and
answer the questions given below. 34
Required percentage= ×100 = 24
Number of tickets sold in a week of five 140
movies in the multiplexes in six different Q.2.(5) Number of tickets sold of movie D in Kolkata
cities (number in thousands) =21000
Movie® Number of tickets sold of movie B in
City¯
A B C D E
Lucknow =27000
Mumbai 20 15 35 26 18 Required difference=27000-21000=6000
Delhi 17 19 21 25 28 Q.3.(4) Total number of tickets of movie C sold
Kolkata 32 24 19 21 17 in all cities=35+21+19+32+26+20=153
Chennai 18 21 32 28 34 (thousand)
Hyderabad 16 34 26 29 22 153000
So, required average= = 25500
Lucknow 15 27 20 35 26 6
Q.4.(1) Number of tickets sold of movie E in Chennai
Q.1. The number of tickets of movie B sold in = 34 (thousand)
Hyderabad was approximately, what per cent Number of tickets sold of movie A in Mumbai
of the total number of tickets of the same
movie sold in all the cities together? = 20 (thousand)
(1) 15 % (2) 18 % (3) 12 % 34
required percentage = ×100 = 170
(4) 20 % (5) 24 % 20
Q.5.(1) Total number of tickets sold in Mumbai (1) 2004 (2) 2003 (3) 2006
= 114 (thousand) (4) 2005 (5) None of these
Total number of tickets sold in Delhi Explanation : Q.1-3.

=110 (thousand) Q.1.(1) In 2006
Total number of tickets sold in Kolkata 150
Q.2.(4) Percentage increase = × 1 0 0 = 50%
= 113 (thousand) 300
Q.3.(2) In 2003
Total number of tickets sold in Chennai
Pie-Chart
= 133 (thousand)
Total number of tickets sold in Hyderabad Pie-Charts (also called Circle-Charts) are used
to represent the relative sizes of component
= 127 (thousand) in an aggregate. Pie-Chart is a circle broken
Total number of tickets sold in Lucknow=123 down into component sectors. Therefore,
(thousand). Minimum tickets sold in Delhi. in pie-chart different data are represented
by sectors. Pie-Chart is generally used on a
Bar graph percentage basis and not on an absolute basis.
Bar graph is probably the most widely used method Different sectors of a Pie-Chart represent
of diagrammatic representation of data. A bar chart is various component parts. Each component
a graph that consists of a number of rectangles (called value is expressed either as a percentage of
bars) whose length or height varies with the magnitude respective total or as the central angle of the
repsresented but all bars are of equal width. The bars respective total.
may be arranged vertically or horizontally.
Central angle
Q.1-3. Read the following graph carefully and answer
the questions given below:- o
 V a lu e o f th e se c to r 
Profit earned by three companies in different =  × 360o 
to ta l V a lu e 
years (in crore Rs.)
Value of the Sector
C e n tra l A n g le
= × T o ta l V a lu e
360o
[Since the angle at the centre of the circle
is 360°, the total magnitude of the various
components is taken to be equal to 360°]
Total magnitude of the various components is
equal to 100%. Therefore, 100% = 360°
o o
 360   18 
1% =  = 3 .6 o =  
 1 0 0   5 
Q.1. In which of the following years was the
Hence, the percentage of the component parts
difference between the profit earned by
can be converted into degrees by multiplying
company B and company A maximum?
each of them by (3.6)°.
(1) 2006 (2) 2004 (3) 2008
Percentage Part of Total Value
(4) 2005 (5) None of these
Q.2. What was the percent increase in the profit  C e n tra l A n g le 
=  × 100 %
earned by company C from 2006 to 2007 ? 360o 
(1) 40 (2) 45 (3) 56
(4) 50 (5) None of these Central angle
o
Q.3. In which of the following years was the  P e rce n ta g e P a rt o f T o ta l V a lu e 
total profit earned by all the three companies =  × 3 6 0
 100 
minimum?
Q.1-5. Study the information carefully and answer 65000
the questions that follow: Q.1.(2) Required difference= × (3 0 − 2 9 )
100
The following pie-chart shows the = 650
percentage of people in Lucknow who
are interested to buy different company Q.2.(4) Number of people interested to buy Apple i
mobiles. Phone
6 5 0 0 0 × 2 .5
Total Number of peoples = 65000 = = 1 6 2 5 = 1625
100
Number of people interested to buy Motorola
65000 ×12
= = 7800
Redmi Vivo 100
20% 21%
1625
Required % = 7 8 0 0 × 1 0 0 = 20.83% = 21%
Motorola Oppo 2 .5 25 25
12% Q.3.(1) Required ratio = = = = 5 : 29
14.50% 1 4 .5 1 4 5 145
Apple I Q.4.(5) Number of people interested to buy Redmi
phone, 3% = 65000 × 20/100 = 13000
Samsung
30% Number of people interested to buy Oppo
= 65000 × 14.5/100 =9425
Q.1. What is the difference between the number
of people interested to buy Samsung and Required % = 13000/9425 × 100 = 137.93
the total number of people interested to buy = 138%
Oppo, Motorola and Apple i Phone together?
Q.5.(3)
(1) 750 (2) 650 (3) 605
(4) 625 (5) 675 Line Graph
Q.2. The number of people interested to buy Apple The line graph is one of the simplest ways of
i Phone is what percentage of the number of expressing the data. There could be one or
people interested to buy Motorola? (Calculate more lines depicting different sets of data.
approximate percentage) X-axis is usually the category axis and Y-axis
is usually the value axis. Therefore, in line
(1) 12% (2) 30% (3) 37%
graph there are two axes representing two
(4) 21% (5) 40%
different variables. It is also known as XY-
Q.3. What is the ratio of people interested to Chart or -XY Graph.
buy Apple i Phone to the number of people
interested to buy Oppo? Q.1-5. Study the following line graph and answer
the questions based on it.
(1) 5 : 29 (2) 17 : 5 (3) 6 : 22
(4) 7 : 29 (5) 29 : 5 Vehicles made by two companies
Q.4. The number of people interested to buy Redmi X Y
is approximately what per cent of the number
180
of people interested to buy Oppo? 160 159
148
(1) 148% (2) 118% (3) 130% 140 139 141
128
(4) 125% (5) 138% 120 119 120 120
107
100 99 100
Q.5. The number of people interested to buy
80 78
Motorola is approximately what per cent of 60
the people interested to buy Vivo, Redmi and 40
Oppo together? 20
0
(1) 14% (2) 32% (3) 22% 1 92011
97 1 2012
998 12013
999 2 0 2014
00 2 02015
01 22016
002
(4) 10% (5) 28% YE A R
Explanation : Q.1-5.
Q.1. What is the difference between the two com- For 2013 = (141000 - 100000) = 41000
panies in the given years ?
For 2014 = (128000 - 78000) = 50000
(1) 16000 (2) 26000 (3) 28000
(4) 30000 (5) None of these For 2015 = (120000 - 107000) = 13000
Q.2. What is the difference between the number of For 2016 = (159000 - 148000) = 11000
vehicles manufactured by Company Y in 2014 Clearly the difference was maximum in year
and 2015 ? 2014.
(1) 21000 (2) 22000 (3) 23000 Q.5.(5) Required Percentage
128000
Q.3. What is the average number of vehicles = × 1 0 0 = 1 6 4 .1 %
780000
manufactured by Company X over the given
period? Combined Graph
(1) 119133 (2) 119233 (3) 119333 Here combination of two or more than two
(4) 119433 (5) None of these graphs is given like table-line chart, pie chart
Q.4. In which of the following years, the difference with table, line chart with bar graph and
between the production of Companies X and double pie chart with table graph etc.
Y was the maximum among the given years ? Q.1-5. Read the following informations carefully to
(1) 2011 (2) 2012 (3) 2013 answer the questions asked-
(4) 2014 (5) None of these Given pie-chart shows the percentage distri-
Q.5. The production of Company Y in 2014 was bution of population and the table shows the
approximately what percent of the production percentage population below poverty line in
of Company X in same year ? these cities.
(1) 163% (2) 164% (3) 165% Total Population = 180 Lakhs
(4) 166% (5) None of these
A
Q.1.(2) Please note that line graph values are given in F 10
thousands. 18
Total production of Company X from 2011 to

B
2016 20
=119000+99000+141000+78000+120000+15
9000 = 716000 E
Total production of Company Y from 2011 to 22
C
2016 8
D
= 139000+120000+100000+128000+107000 13
+148000 = 742000

Difference = 742000 - 716000 = 26000 Population below
City
Q.2.(1) Required Difference = 128000-107000 poverty line
= 21000 A 48%
B 45%
Q.3.(3) Average number of vehicles manufactured by C 35%
Company X D 40%
= 1\6(119000+99000+141000+78000+12000 E 55%
0+159000) = 119333 F 45%
G 50%
Q.4.(4) For 2011 = (139000 - 119000) = 20000
Q.1. What is the population of City C which is above
For 2012 = (120000 - 99000) = 21000 poverty line? (in lakhs)
(1) 8.44 (2) 10.24 (3) 9.15 Population of City A which is below poverty line
(4) 7.96 (5) None of these
Q.2. What is the difference between the population 10 48
of City E which is below poverty line and that = 180 × × = 8 .6 4
100 100
which is above poverty line? (in lakhs)
(1) 2.96 (2) 3.24 (3) 3.96 8 .1 0
(4) 2.24 (5) None of these Required percent= ×1 0 0 % ≈ 9 4 %
Q.3. What is the ratio of the population of City A 8 .6 4
which is above poverty line to the population Q.5.(1) Population of City B which is below poverty
of City D which is below poverty line? line
(1) 3:2 (2) 2:3 (3) 4:5
(4) 5:4 (5) None of these 20 45
Q.4. The population of City G which is above pov- = 180 × × = 1 6 .2 0
100 100
erty line approximately what per cent of the
population of City A which is below poverty Population of City D which is below poverty
line? line
(1) 88% (2) 94% (3) 123
(4) 80% (5) 73% 13 40
= 180 × × = 9 .3 6
Q.5. The population of City B which is below pov- 100 100
erty line is approximately what percent more/ Required percent
less than the population of City D which is
below poverty line? 1 6 .2 − 9 .3 6
= ×1 0 0 % ≈ 7 3 %
(1) 73% (2) 79% (3) 67% 9 .3 6
(4) 52% (5) 85%
Missing DI
This type of DI is mostly in table form where
Q.1.(5) Population of City C which is above poverty
some values are missing and some values are
line
given with some instruction along the table.
Q.1-5. Study the table and answer the given
8 65 questions.
= 180 × × = 9 .3 6
100 100 Data related to the number of employees in
five different companies in December 2017.
Q.3.(5) Population of City A which is above poverty
line Percent Percent of Percent
Total
Company of Science Commerce of Art
Employee
Graduates Graduates Graduates
10 52
= 180 × × = 9 .3 6 M 1050 32% – –
100 100 N 700 – 31% 40%
Population of City D which is below poverty O – 30% 30% –
line P – – 40% 20%
Q – 35% 50% –
Note:
13 40
= 180 × × = 9 .3 6 (I) Employees of the given companies can be
100 100 categorised only in three types: Science
graduates, Commerce graduates and Arts
Required ratio=1:1 graduates
Q.4.(2) Population of City G which is above poverty (II) A few values are missing in the table (indicated
line –). A candidate is expected to calculate the
missing value, if it is required to answer the
9 50 given question, on the basis of the given data
= 180 × × = 8 .1 0 and information.
100 100
Q.1. What is the difference between the number of Now, the percentage of Arts graduate
Arts graduate employees and Science graduate employees and Commerce and Arts = 50 + 15
employees in Company N? = 65%
(1) 87 (2) 89 (3) 77 Average = 312
(4) 81 (5) 73 Therefore, the total number of employees in
Q.2. The average number of Arts graduate commerce and Arts = 2 × 312
employees and commerce graduate employees Let the total employees in Company Q be x
in Company Q was 312. What was the total
number of employees in Company Q? Then, 65% of x = 2 × 312
(1) 920 (2) 960 (3) 1120 x = 960

(4) 1040 (5) 1080 Q.3.(1) The percentage of commerce graduate and
Q.3. If the ratio of the number of Commerce Arts graduate employees in company M
graduate employees to that of Arts graduate = 100 – 32 = 68%
employees in Company M was 10 : 7, what
Now, the percentage of Arts graduate
was the number of Arts graduate employees in
employees
M?
(1) 294 (2) 266 (3) 280 = =28%
(4) 308 (5) 322
Q.4. The total number of employees in Company the percentage of Commerce graduate
N increased by 20% from December 2017 to employees
December 2018. If 20% of the total number of
employees in Company N in December 2018 = =40%
were Science graduates, what was the number
of Science graduate employees in company N The number of arts graduate employees in
in December 2018?
company M = =294
(1) 224 (2) 266 (3) 294
(4) 252 (5) 168 Q.4.(5) The number of employees in company N in
December 2017 = 700
Q.5. The total number of employees in Company
The number of employees in company N in
P was 3 times the total number of employees
December 2018
in Company O. If the difference between
the number of Arts graduate employees in =
Company P and that in Company O was 180,
what was the total number of employees in Number of Science graduate employees in
Company O? company N in December 2018
(1) 1200 (2) 1440 (3) 720 =
(4) 900 (5) 1080
Q.5.(4) The percentage of Arts graduate employees in
company O = 100 – 30 – 30 = 40%
Q.1.(3) Total number of employees in company N
The percentage difference between Arts
= 700 graduate employees in company O and P
Percentage of Science graduate employees = 40 – 20 = 20%
= [100 – (31 + 40)] = 29% Now, let the number of employees in company
Now, percentage difference between Arts O be x
graduate and science graduate employees Then, x × 20% = 180
11% of 700 = 77 x = 900
Therefore, difference = 77
Puzzle DI
Q.2.(2) The percentage of Arts graduate employees in
A puzzle is a set of information that is given
Company Q = 100 – 35 – 50 = 15% in paragraph form. In a puzzle, no tables
or graphs are given. You have to read the both the companies together?
information and draw a table or caselet
(1) 26 (2) 36 (3) 16
accordingly by means of which organize the
(4) 24 (5) 14
given data to solve the questions.
Q.5. In company B, what is the respective ratio
Q.1–5. This data is regarding total number of
employees working in Administration (admin), between the total number of employees (both
Operations (Ops.) and other departments of male and female) who work in ‘Admin’ and
corporate divisions of Companies A and B. the total number of employees (both male and
female) who work in ‘Other Department’ in
The total number of employees working in the same company?
both the companies together is 4800. The
respective ratio of number of employees in (1) 2 : 3 (2) 1 : 3 (3) 1 : 4
Companies A and B is 5 : 7. Each employee (4) 3 : 5 (5) 1 : 5
works in only one of the 3 Departments i.e.
“ops”, “Admin” and “others”.
For company A , Total = 2000
In company A, 70% of the total employees are
males. 60% of the total male employees work Male (1400) Female (600)
in ‘Ops’ out of the remaining male employees, Ops 840 285
1/8th work in ‘Admin’. Out of the total female
Admin 70 144
employees, 24% work in ‘Admin’ and 5/8th
of the remaining female employees work in Other 490 171
‘Ops’. For Company B –, Total = 2800
In company B, 80% of the total employees
Male (2240) Female (560)
are males. 65% of the total male employees
work in ‘Ops’. Number of male employees Ops 1456 364
who work in other departments in Company Admin 196 49
B is 20% more than the male employees who Other 588 147
work in ‘Other Departments’ in company A.
Number of female employees who work in 490
Q.1.(4) Required % = × 100 = 35%
Ops in Company B are less than the number 1400
of male employees who work for ‘Ops’ in the
49
same company by 75%. Out of the remaining Q.2.(2) Required % = × 100 = 8.75%
female employees, 1/4 work in ‘Admin’. 560
Q.1. What per cent of the total number of male Q.3.(4) Required no. of female = 285 + 364 = 649
employees in company A work in ‘other’ 171 + 147 70 + 196
departments? Q.4.(1) Required difference = −
2 2
(1) 45 (2) 25 (3) 30 = 159 – 133 = 26
(4) 35 (5) 40
Q.5.(2) Required Ratio = (196 + 49) : (588 + 147)
Q.2. What per cent of the total number of
female employees in company B work in = 245 : 735 = 1 : 3
administration department?
DI Based on Topics
(1) 18.5 (2) 8.75 (3) 14
(4) 16 (5) 19 Now a days in exams new type of DI questions are
asked in which we have to apply the fundamentals
Q.3. What is the total number of female employees which we learned in previous chapters.
who work on Ops in Company A and B
together? Q.1-5. Study the data carefully and answer the ques-
(1) 681 (2) 781 (3) 689 tions given below.
(4) 649 (5) 788 The table shows the distance travelled by five
Q.4. What is the difference between the average different boats upstream and downstream in
number of males working in ‘Admin’ in both same time and the speed of stream.
the companies together and average number
of females working in ‘Other Departments’ in
Down- Boat Speed of Speed of
Upstream Speed of boat stream
Boat stream
distance stream A 24 12
distance
B 24 8
A 96 288 12
C 40 15
B 120 240 8 D 25 10
C 100 220 15 E 40 20
D 150 350 10 Ratio = (24 + 24) : (25 + 40)= 48 : 65

E 180 540 20 Q.2.(5) Speed of Boat C in still water
Q.1. Find the ratio of the speed of Boats A and B
= 40 × 110% = 44 km/h
together in still water to the speed of Boats D
and E together in still water. Speed of stream = 15 × 120% = 18 km/h
(1) 23:25 (2) 34:41 (3) 48:65
Time taken by Boat C to cover the distance of
(4) 13:17 (5) None of these
91 km upstream
Q.2. If the speed of Boat C in still water is increased
by 10% and the speed of stream is increased
by 20%, Find the time taken by Boat C to = 91
= 3 .5 hours
cover the distance of 91 km upstream. 44 −18
(1) 2.5 hours (2) 3 hours (3) 4.5 hours 210 210
Q.3.(4) Required answer= + = 14
(4) 6 hours (5) None of these 40 − 20 40 + 20
hours
Q.3. The distance between point P and point Q is
210 km. Boat E travels from point P to Q and Q.4.(1) Speed of the Boat B in still water = 24 km/h
comes back. What is the time taken by Boat E
Speed of the Boat F in still water=
to cover the total distance?
(1) 10 hours (2) 12 hours (3) 12.5 hours 5
24 × = 30
(4) 14 hours (5) 15 hours 4
Q.4. The ratio of the speeds of the Boat B to the Let the speed of stream = x km/h
Boat F in still water is 4 : 5. If the Boat F
According to the question,
travels 126 km distance downstream and 81
km distance upstream in 7 hours 30 minutes.
What is the speed of stream of Boat F? 126 81 15
+ =
(1) 12 Km/hr. (2) 14 Km/hr. (3) 15 Km/hr. 30 + x 30 − x 2
(4) 10 Km/hr. (5) None of these
Q.5. The speed of Boat B and D in still water On solving, Speed of stream = 12 km/h
together is approximately how much percent
more than the speed of stream of the same Q.5.(5) Speed of Boat B and D in still water together
boats together?
= (25 + 24) = 49 km/h
(1) 125% (2) 80% (3) 150%
Speed of stream of Boat B and D together
(4) 190% (5) None of these
Explanation : Q.1-5. = 18 km/h
Required answer
96 288 49 −18
Q.1.(3) = = × 1 0 0 % ≈ 1172
70%
a −12 a +12 18

Q.1-5. Study the following information carefully and
On solving a=24 Km/h. answer the given questions :
similarly for others we can get this table
The following table represents time taken (in
hours) by different pipes to fill a cistern. Some 1 1
values are missing. (3) 27 hours (4) 26 hours
3 2
(5) None of these
Pipe Time taken to fill the cistern
Q.5. Three pipes A, D and F together can fill the
A 24 cistern in 8 hours. Find the time taken by F
alone to fill the cistern?
B --
(1) 20 hours (2) 15 hours
C -- (3) 18 hours (4) 12 hours
D 30 (5) None of these
E 45
F -- 4 4 5 5
Q.1.(4) + + + =1
24 x x 30
Q.1. If A and C are kept open for 4 hours then A is
replaced by D and kept open for 5 more hours, 27 1
the tank is filled. In how many hours pipe C x= = 13 h
2 2
alone can fill the cistern?
Q.2.(4) x + x + 2 0 =1
3 1 30 45 45
4 4 on solving above equation, we get

x = 10
1 1 Q.3.(4) Ratio of C, F and B to fill the cistern=1 :2 :4
2 2
1 1 1 1
(5) None of these + +
x 2x 4 x = 48
Q.2. Two pipes D and E are opened simultaneously x = 84
to fill the cistern. After how much time should Required answer=2×84=168 hours
D be closed so that E alone can fill the cistern
in another 20 hours? 1 1 3
Q.4.(2) Part of tank filled in 2 hours = + =
(1) 8 hours (2) 15 hours 24 30 40
(3) 12 hours (4) 10 hours 3 39
Part of tank filled in 26 hours = × 13 =
(5) None of these 40 40
Q.3. If C takes half of the time taken by F to fill the
39 1
cistern and F takes half of the time taken by Remaining part = 1 − =
B to fill the cistern and all of them working 40 40
together can fill the cistern in 48 hours, What Time taken by A to fill remaining part
is the time taken by F to fill the cistern?
(1) 120 hours (2) 144 hours 1 3
= × 24 =
(3) 180 hours (4) 168 hours 40 5
(5) None of these
3 3
Q.4. Two pipes A and D can fill the cistern. If they Total time = 26 + = 26
5 5
are opened on alternative hours and if pipe A
is opened first, in how many hours will the 1
cistern be full? Q.5.(1) 1 + 1 + 1 =
24 30 x 8

5 3 on solving above equation, we get
8 5 x = 20
CHAPTER
21 MENSURATION
Regular Ploygon :- A polygon that has all sides and all
Mensuration
interior angles equal.
Mensuration is the branch of mathematics which deals
with the study of different geometrical shapes, their Convex Polygon :- A convex polygon is defined as a
area and volume. In the broadest sense, it is all about polygon with all its interior angle less than 180o.
the process of measurement. It is based on the use B
of algebraic equations and geometric calculations to
provide measurement data regarding the width, depth A C
and volume of a given object or group of objects.
While the measurement results obtained by the use of D
mensuration are usually considered very accurate.
Concave Polygon :- A polygon that has one or more
There are two types of geometric shapes :
interior angle greater than 180o.
1. 2D : Those figures have two dimension is called 2D
figures. like- square, rectangle, parallelogram, D C
rhombus, triangle, trapezoid, circle etc.
2. 3D : Those figures have three dimension are called 3D
figures. like- cube, rectangular prism (cuboid), A B
cylinder, cone, sphere, hemisphere, prism, Properties of polygon :-
pyramid etc.
Polygon :- A polygon is a closed, plane figure bounded (n = number of sides in polygon)
by ‘n’ straight lines (n > 3). Each of the n line segments 1. Sum of interior and exterior angle is 180o.
forming the polygon is called its sides.
2. Sum of interior angles of polygon is
C (n–2)×180o.
B D
3. Sum of the exterior angles of polygon is
360o.
A E 4. Each interior angle of regular polygon is
Type of polygon No. of side
Triangle 3 (n − 2 ) × 1 8 0
Quadrilateral 4 n
Pentagon 5 5. Each exterior angle of regular polygon

Hexagon 6
3600
Heptagon 7 =
n
Octagon 8
6. Number of diagonals of a polygon
Nonagon 9
n (n − 3 )
Decagon 10 =
2
[Plane Figures]
Plane figures are flat two dimenstional shape. A plane figure can be made of straight lines, curved lines, or both
straight and curved lines. Ex. Square, Rectangle and Triangle etc.
In mathematics there are many plane figures which is listed below along with formulas.
S. NO. Name Figure Nomenclature Area Perimeter

l → length
Rectangle b → breadth 2l+2b = 2(l+b)
1. d b l×b = lb
d → diagonal
l 2 2
d= l +b
a
2. Square a → side (i) a×a = a2 a+a+a+a = 4a
a d → diagonal d2
a d d = a 2

(ii)
2
a
1
3. Triangle a, b and c are three (i) 2 ×b×h a+b+c = 2s
(Scalene) sides of triangle and
a c s is semiperimeter, (ii) s (s − a )(s − b )(s − c )
h
where (Heron’s formula)
a +b +c
b s =  2 
b is the base and h is
the altitutde of triangle
h = height or altitude
a → equal
Equilateral sides 1 3a
4. (i) ×a×h
triangle h → height or 2
altitude
a h a 3 2
3 (ii) a
h = a 4
2
a
a → equal
Isosceles sides 1 2a+b
5. b → base (i) ×b×h
triangle 2
h → height or
altitude 1
a a × b × 4a 2 − b 2
h (ii) 4
4a − b
2 2
h =
2
b
b → base
a → altitude/height 1
6. Right angled ×b×a b+h+a
h = h y p o t e n u s e 2
triangle a h
h = a2 + b2
900
b
a → equal sides 2
7. Isosceles right angled a b b → other side 1 2 b 2a + b
triangle a =
b = a 2 2 4
900
a
D C
AC is the diagonal and
8. Quadrilateral h1 h1, h2 are the altitudes on AB+BC+CD+AD
h2 AC from the vertices D
1
and B respectively. × A C × (h 1 + h 2 )
A B 2
9. Parallelogram a and b are side adjacent

to each other. 2(a+b)
h→ distance between
the parallel sides. a×h
a a- length of each side of

10. Rhombus D C
d 1 90 0 rhombus
a 90 0
d1 and d2 are the diago-
90 0 a 4a or 2 d 12 + d 22
nals 1
d 2 90 × d1 × d 2
0
d1 → BD
2
A a B d2 → AC
1 2 2
a= d +d
2 1 2
11. Trapezium D b C
a and b are parallel sides
to each other and h is the  a + b  AB+BC+CD+AD
h perpendicular distance  2  × h
between parallel sides.
A a B
a
12. Regular hexagon a 6a
a
a → length of each side 3 3 2
a
a
a 2
a
a a
13. Regular 8a
octagon
a a a → length of each side
(
2a 2 1 + 2 )
a a
a a
14. Circle r → radius of the circle 2πr (called as cir-

πr2
cumference)
15. Semicircle 1 2 36
r → radius of the circle πr r (π+2) = r
2 7
16. Quadrant r → radius 1/4 πr2 1 25

πr+2r = r
2 7
π(R2 – r2) (outer) →2πR

17. Ring or circlular path (shaded R→ outer
R (inner) →2πr
region) radius
r
r →inner radius
O→ centre of the  θ 
circle πr2   l+2r
18. Sector of a circle 360o 
O r → radius
θ
r l→ length of the arc
θ→ angle of the sec-
A
tor
B
l  θ 
l → 2πr 
 3 6 0 o 
Area of segment
19. Segment of a circle θ → angle of the sec-
O tor ACB (minor seg- 2r  πθ o + sin  θ  
r  360 2
 r → radius ment)
A B AB → chord  πθ sin θ 
ACB → arc of the = r  3 6 0 o − 2 
2
C
circle
l l → length (l+b – w)w 2(l+b) - 4w
W b → breadth
20. Pathways running parallel
inside to sides of a rectanlge w → width of the path
W W (road)
b
W
(l+b+2w) 2w (inner) →2 (l+b)

21. Outer path W l → length (outer) →2 (l+b+4w)
l b → breadth
bW w → width of the path
W l → length (Other)→2(l+b)
(l+b–2w) 2w
22. Inner path W
b → breadth (inner)→2(l+b-4w)
b
w → width of the path
l
Solid Figures
Solid figures are three dimensional objects what this mean is that solid figures which have a length a width and a height (depth).
Ex. Computer, Laptop, phone etc.
In mathematics there are many solid figures among few are is listed below along with formulas.
S. NO. Name Figure Nomenclature Volume Curved/ Total

Lateral surface
surface area area
1. Cuboid l → length lbh 2(l+b)h 2(lb+bh+hl)
h
b → breadth
b
l h → height
a a→ e d g e / s i d e a3 4a2 6a2
2. Cube
a
a
r
3. Right circular h r→ radius of πr2h 2πrh 2πr(h+r)

cylinder base
h→ height of
the cylinder
l h r→ radius
4. Right circular 1 πr2h πrl πr(l+r)
cone h→ height
3
r
l → slant height
l = r2 + h2
r
r → smaller radiusπ 2
(r +Rr+R2) π(r+R)l lateral sur-
h l R→ layer radius 3
Frustum of a face area +
5. l→ slant height
cone π[R2+r2]
h→ height
R
l= ( R − r )2 + h2
4 3
6. r→ radius πr 4πr2 4πr2
Sphere r 3
7. Hemisphere r 2 3
πr 2πr2 3πr2
r→ radius 3
4 inner = 4πr2 4π[R2 + r2]

r→inner radius
8. Spherical shell π[R3 – r3]
R r R→ outer radius 3 outer= 4πR2
area of base × perimeter of lateral surface
h—height
height base × height area + 2(area
9. Right triangular of base)
prism
1 lateral surface
10. Right pyramid ×area of 1
S la nt 3 ×perimeter area + area of
he igh t 2 base
base × height of base × slant
height
3 ( sid e )
1 2
(h ) = × 6 × sid e 1 3 3 2
× 2 × (sid e )
(sid e )
3
3
12
11. Tetrahedron 1 4
r= × 6 × sid e
12
1
R = × 6 × sid e
4
(Where h height, r
inradius R circum-
radius)
Ex. A cylinder whose base of circumference is 6 (approx.) whose radius is equal to the side of
m can roll at a rate of 3 rounds per second. the square. (in sq.cm.)
How much distance will the cylinder cover in
Sol. 4 a = 2 (l+b) = 2 (14+20) = 68
9 seconds?
a = 17 = r
Sol. Distance covered in one round = 2πr = 6 m
1 22
Distance covered in 1 second = 3 × 6 = 18 m A= × × 1 7 × 1 7 = 4 5 4 .1 4
2 7
So distance covered in 9 seconds = 18×9= 162
m Ex. What is the minimum amount of cardboard
required to make a closed box of dimension 26
Ex. If a square, circle and rectangle has same
cm × 20 cm × 7 cm?
perimeter then which one of them has the
maximum area? Sol. Area of required cardboard
Sol. In such case the area in descending order is: = 2 [26 × 20 + 26 × 7 + 20 × 7]
Circle> Square> Rectangle
= 2 (520+ 182 + 140)
Ex. The perimeter of a square is equal to the
perimeter of a rectangle of length 14 cm and = 2 × 842
breadth 20 cm. Find the area of a semicircle = 1684 cm2
REASONING ABILITY
CHAPTER alphabetical AND
1 Miscellaneous series
This chapter is based on series of numbers, letters or A C F J (O )

combination of letters,numbers and symbols. 1
B
3
DE GHI
6 +4 1 0
KLM N
15
+2 +3 +5
Typ es of S erie s
Ex.3. Consider the following series:
A B C D ..... X Y Z / Y X ..... BA / B C D .....
Le tter N u m ber M isce lla ne ous
S eries S eries S eries Y Z / Y X .... C B A / B C .... Y Z .....
Letter Sereis Which letter occupies the 1000th position in
the abaove series?
In this series only letters are available which follow a
certain pattern throughout. Candidate has to recognise (1) B (2) C (3) X
this pattern and to give the required answer.
(4) Y (5) None of these
Position of letters :
Sol.(1) We have 3 patterns :
First of all, we should know the position of all letters
from A to Z. I. ABCD ..... XYZ, which occurs only once.
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P II. YX ..... BA, which repeats alternately.
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 III. BC ..... YZ, which repeats alternately.
Q R S T U V W X Y Z Now, I has 26 terms.
17 1 8 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
So, number of terms before the desired term
EXAMPLES :
= (999–26) = 973.
Ex.1-3. A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O
P Q R S T U V W X Y Z Each of the patterns which occurs after 1, has 25 letters.
Ex.1. How many such vowels are there in the above Now, 973 ÷ 25 gives quotient = 38 and remainder = 23.
arrangement each of which is immediately
Thus, the 1000th term of the given series is the 24th term
preceded as well as followed by a consonant?
of the 39th pattern after 1.
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three
Clearly, the 39th pattern is 11 and its 24th term is B.
(4) Four (5) None of these
Sol. (4)
Miscellaneous Series
Consonant Vowel Consonant In this segment, questions are given related to (regarding)
the position of letters, numbers and symbols.
D E F
Ex.4-6. F @ 5 3 R $ J P E 1 H % I 8 4 B 8 A W 2 U G
H I J
6*9∆ ZNM©V
N O P
Ex.4. Which of the following element is 13th from
T U V the left end ?
Ex.2. What should come in the place of question mark (1) % (2) I (3) Q
(?)
A, C, F, J, ?
Sol.(2)
(1) Q (2) O (3) T
(4) U (5) None of these
Sol.(2)
Ex.5. Which of the following is 10th to the left ## Starting points of the series is left end and ending
of the 18th from the left end of the above point of the series is right end.
arrangement? ## To solve the question easily you should break the
(1) J (2) E (3) A series in combination of five- five elements.
(4) P (5) None of these ## We can easily understand the series problems by -
Sol.(4) A B C D E F G H I J K L M
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
Ex.6. If all the symbols are dropped from the above
arrangement, which of the following will be ## left element – left element = left element 13th element
the eleventh from the right end ? from left – 8th element left = 5th element from left is E.
(1) A (2) Q (3) W ## right element – right element = right element 13th
(4) I (5) None of these element from right – 8th element right = 5th element
Sol.(1) In case of dropping we count the element from from right is V.
the given side except the element which are ## left element + right element = left element
said to be dropped.
## 13th element from left + 8th element right = 21th
(left) F53RJ PE1H I 84B A W 2 U G69 ZNMV (right) element from left is U.
11 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
## right element + left element = right element
Ex.7-8. Study the following information carefully and ## 13th element from right + 8th element left = 21th
answer the questions given below. element from right is F.
English alphabets have been arranged into five groups ## all these situations are based on condition of left
starting with a vowel and including the consonants just end or right end.
after it. Thus in the first group, the letters are A, B, C and
## Once the candidate knows the position of letters,
D in the second group E, F, G, and H, and so on. In these
he requires to learn time management. We don’t
groups, the first group has been assigned a numerical
have much time and hence all the letters can’t be
value 10, second 20 and so on with the last group having
read throughly.
a value of 50. Each letter in a particular group will
have the same value in the formation of words, and for E J O T Y
calculating the value of the words the value of each letter 5 10 15 20 25
in the word will be added. Only First group (A,B,C,D)
is multiplied by 1 and other group is multiplied by 2. Words given above are just the arrangement of the
As an example: the value of CAB is 30 (i.e. 10 + 10 + alphabets having position multiples of 5 from this word
10), because all the letters are of the same group, whose we can learn position of 26 letters. Above mentioned
value is 10. While the value of BUT will be 10 + (50 × five letters have, 4 their followers, and 4 their precedent.
2) + (40 × 2) = 190. ## Here a new word is given below in which the
Ex.7. What is the value of the word ‘SHOP’ ? arrangement of letters have occupied positions in
the multiple of 3, with the help of this word we can
(1) 100 (2) 80 (3) 150
get the position of total 26 letters.
cfilorux
Sol.(5) 280
3 6 9 12 15 18 21 24
Ex.8. What is the value of the word ‘DRIVE’ ?
Lets See Some Examples With The Help
(1) 150 (2) 280 (3) 290
Of Shortcuts
Ex.9. Which of the following element is 13th from
Sol.(3) 290 the left end ?
Memorable Points F @ 5 3 R $ J PE 1 H % I 8 4 BAW 2 U G 6
## You can easily solve the problems based on this *9δZNM©V
chapter with the help of these short tricks -
(1) % (2) I (3) Q arrangement of symbols, letters and numbers :
(4) 1 (5) None of these ↑ 9BQ=$25RJ ∂ L3@YME68*÷
DFbH7©
Sol.(2) general method
Ex.11. How many such numbers are there in the
arrangement each of which is immediately
preceded by a symbol but not immediately
followed by a letter?
Short trick : (1) None (2) One (3) Two
F @ 5 3 R / $ J PE 1 / H % I 8 4 / B 8AW (4) Three (5) None of these
2/ UG6*9/ δZNM© / V Sol.(2)
13 from the left end is I. Ex.12. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
Ex.10. Which of the following is 10th to the left way based on the positions of the elements in
of the 18th from the left end of the above the above arrangement and hence form a group.
arrangement? Which one does not belong to the group?
(1) J (2) E (3) A (1) * ÷ 8 D 6 (2) Y M @ E 3
(4) P (5) None of these (3) @ Y 3 M L (4) b H 4 7 D
Sol.(4) general method (5) B Q 9 = ↑
Sol.(4)
Ex.13. How many such symbols are there in the
arrangement each of which is either immediately
followed by a number or immediately preceded
Short trick :
by a letter?
F @ 5 3 R / $ J PE 1 / H % I 8 4 / B 8AW
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three
2/ UG6*9/ δZNM© / V
(4) Four (5) More than four
18th from the left –10th left = 8th from the left.
Sol.(4)
Ex.11-13. These questions are based on the following
CHAPTER
2 coding-decoding
Coding is method of transforming the characters in such
a way that no third person can understand it.
Approach of solving the question of coding:
(a) Observe characters (alphabets/Number/Symbols)
Diagonal Pattern:
given in the code properly.
Where characters are coded diagonally.
(b) Find the pattern and sequence it follows, whether
it is ascending, descending or pair based. (a)
(c) Code the asked characters by using the same pattern
and sequence.
(b)
Placement Pattern
Parallel Placement Pattern:
(c)
Whether first character is coded as first character in code,
similarly second character is coded as second
character in code and so on..... (d)
(b) Number Coding
Coding Sequence:
(c) Conditional Coding
Ascending Order: Where characters are coded in
(d) Substitutional Coding
increasing order of there positions may be in parallel or
diagonal placement pattern. Letter Coding:
EXAMPLE : In letter coding, letters are coded in letters by using different
patterns and sequence.
(i) EXAMPLES :
Ex.1. In a certain code language, STUDENT is written
as TVXHJTA, then how is TEACHER written
in same code language?
(ii)
(1) GUDGMKY (2) UGGDMKY
Descending Order : Where characters are coded in (3) UGDGMKY (4) UGDGKMY
decreasing order of there positions may be in parallel or (5) None of these
diagonal placement pattern.
Sol.(3)
EXAMPLE :
(i)
(ii)

Opposite Alphabet Coding:- Ex.2. In a certain code language, REASONING
is written as HZVILTMRM, then how is
Pair Based: Pair of alphabets is also given in codes.
DIGINOTES written in same code language?
A Z (AmaZon)
(1) RTRMWHVGL (2) RTWRMHVGL
B Y (BoY)
(3) RTRWMHVLG (4) RTRWMHVGL
C X (CoX)
(5) None of these
D W (DeW)
Sol.(4)
E V (EVe)
F U (FUn)
G T (GeT)
H S (HiS)
I R (IRon)

J Q (Jungle-Queen)
Number Coding
K P (KaPoor)
In number coding, letters are coded in numbers by using
L O (LiOn) different patterns and sequence.
M N (MaN) Ex.3. In a certain code language “ASKED” is written
Miscellaneous Sequence as “45211”. How will “EIGHT” be wirtten in
that code language ?
Where combination of increasing, decreasing or pair based
coding is given in question. (1) 59782 (2) 28795 (3) 597820
EXAMPLE : (4) 95728 (5) None of these
Sol.(2) 1 11 5 4
(ii) A S K E D
Types of Coding 4 5 2 1 1
(a) Letter Coding
So,
5 7 8 20 20 - 13 = 7
E I G H T Final Coding = 7yo1
W O R L D
2 8 7 9 5 (world is new word so use new code ‘lu’)
Ex.4. In a certain code language “PERSON” is written 23, 4
as “957561”. How will “SHOULD” be wirtten 23 - 4 = 19
in that code language ? Final Coding = 19lu15
(1) 186334 (2) 198152 (3) 681433 Ex.6. Study the following information to answer the
given questions given below:
(4) 861334 (5) None of these In a certain code-‘Month date Social Work’ is
Sol.(3) 16 5 18 19 15 14 written as ‘+19pd $20sn #5vw @21oh’
P E R S O N ‘Anjan talk mobile shapes’ is written as ‘$21vn
*5pg @14hh %19mz’ ‘Common delete good
charge’ is written as ‘&14vx &21mx #10vw
9 5 7 5 6 1
^19wt,
So, Meerut change small very is written as ‘@18oh
19 8 15 21 12 4 !9be $11gn &14vx’.
S H O U L D Which is the code for ‘Mobile Team’?
(1) *9ng %22bn (2) %21vn ^18mg
6 8 1 4 3 3 (3) *9ng $21vn (4) *9ng %21kp
(5) *19nt $21vn
Conditional Coding :
Sol.(3)
In conditional coding, few conditions are given in 1. If the word start with,
the question, we have to follow the same to code the M- $ A- % V-! D- # T- *
characters. S- @ C- & W- + G- ^
Ex.5. In a certain code language, 2. For numbers,
‘economy receiving very fast’ is written as (Position of second letter + Number of letters in
‘14va1 3jo5 11ni5 20pa3’, the word)
‘very essences of economy’ is written as ‘9su6 3. For letters,
20pa3 14lo19 3jo5’, Opposite letters of first and last letter, then reverse.
‘fast money in banks’ is written as ‘12gy15 5bt14 Ex.7-11. In each of these questions a group of letters is
17ks1 14va1’, given followed by four combinations of number/
‘of banks in industry’ is written as ‘17ks1 symbol numbered (1), (2), (3) & (4). Letters are to
be coded as per the scheme and conditions given
16dm14 5bt14 9su6’.
below. You have to find out the serial number of
What will be the code for “money market the combination, which represents the letter group.
world’? Serial number of that combination is your answer.
(1) 17yo1 20pa3 18lu15 If none of the combinations is correct, your answer
(2) 7yo1 12gy15 19lu15 is (5) i.e. None of these.
(3) 17yo1 12gy15 20pa3 Letters : E Q B K N P L I T C S F H W A
(4) 12gy15 16dm14 5bt14 Symbol 5 * $ 2 © # 4 9 @ 6 1 8 % 7 3
(5) 10gy25 16dm14 5bt14 Code :
Sol.(2) In coding numbers comes from, Conditions :
(I) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is
difference of first and last letter position
a vowel,both will be coded as the code for the
M O N E Y vowel.
13, 25 (II) If the first letter is a vowel and the last is a
25 - 13 = 12 consonant, the codes for these two will be
Position of second letter 15 interchange.
M O N E Y (III) If both the first and the last letters are consonants,
(“gy” comes from the above statement) both will be coded as ‘d’.
(IV) If there are more than two vowels in the group
Final Coding = 12gy15
of letters, then all vowels will be coded as’£’.
M A R K E T Ex.7. IQCPWF
(market is new word so use new code ‘yo’) (1) 9*6#78 (2) 9*6#79 (3) d*6#7d
13, 20 (4) 8*6#79 (5) None of these
Sol.(4) According to condition (ii) Ex.12. What does “he” stand for ?
IQCPWF -8*6#79 (1) name (2) in (3) there
Ex.8. KAWIPL (4) list (5) None of these
(1) 2379#4 (2) d379#d (3) 4379#2 Ex.13. What is the code for “been” ?
(4) 2379#2 (5) None of these (1) he (2) lu (3) go
Sol.(2) According to condition (iii) (4) si (5) None of these
KAWIPL - d 3 7 9 # d Ex.14. Which of the following code represent “there
Ex.9. IKBQFA name has in merit” ?
(1) 92$8*3 (2) 923$*8 (3) 92*83$ (1) zo ya ma jho he (2) zo ya lu jho ma
(4) £2$8*£ (5) None of these (3) zo si ma boo lu (4) zo si ma lu boo
Sol.(5) I K B Q F A = 9 2 $ * 8 3 (5) None of these
Ex.10. IBTNAE Ex.15. What is the code for “in” ?
(1) £$@©££ (2) $9@©35 (3) $@9©35 (1) jho (2) ma (3) zo
(4) £©$©££ (5) None of these (4) boo (5) None of these
Sol.(1) According to condition (iv) Ex.16. “zo” is represented by which word ?
IBTNAE-£$@©££ (1) name (2) in (3) been
Ex.11. TCKAPE (4) idea (5) there
(1) @623#@ (2) @623#5 (3) 5623#5 Sol.12-16.
(4) 5623#@ (5) None of these Her idea has merit - fa lu boo ma
Sol.(3) According to condition (i)
merit list has been displayed - go he lu si ma
TCKAPE-5623#5
Substitution Coding : Her name displayed there - ya si boo zo
In substitution coding, one word is replaced by name in merit list - ma ya jho he
another word, rather than coding in a sequence.
Ex.12-16. Read the following information carefully and Sol.12.(4) he - list
answer the question given below. Sol.13.(3) been - go
In a certain code “her idea has merit” is Sol.14.(2) there name has in merit - zo ya lu
written as “ fa lu boo ma”, “merit list has been jho ma
displayed” is written as “go he lu si ma”, “her Sol.15.(1) in - jho
name displayed there” is written as “ya si boo
Sol.16.(5) there - zo
zo”, and “name in merit list” is written as “ma
ya jho he”.
CHAPTER
3 blood relation
Symbol’s used for Relation Representation Y is Brother of X

↔ or = → (Husband wife) ⇒ Mother’s or Father’s Daughter → Sister
→ (Brother’s Sister’s)-Sibling’s
→ (Son and Daughter)
or (+) → for male
Y X
or (-) → for female
Y is si ster of X
Some Important Relation and Their Represen-
tation.
⇒ Mother’s Brother – Maternal Uncle
⇒ Mother’s or Father’s Son → Brother Y
X
Y X Y is Maternal Uncle of X
⇒ Mother’s Sister– Maternal Aunt
Y
Y
X
X
Y is Maternal Aunt of X Y is Father-in-law of X
⇒ Father’s Brother– Paternal Uncle ⇒ Husband’s or Wife’s Mother– Mother-in-law
Y Y
X X

Y is Paternal Uncle of X
Y is Mother-in-law of X
⇒ Father’s Sister – Paternal Aunt
⇒ Husband’s or Wife’s Brother– Brother-in-law
Y

X Y
X Y is Brother-in-law of X
Y is Paternl Aunt of X ⇒ Husband’s or Wife’s Sister– Sister-in-law
⇒ Father’s Father– Paternal Grand Father X
Y
Y
Y is Sister-in-law of X
⇒ Sister’s husband– Brother-in-law
X X Y

Y is Paternal Grand Father of X.
Y is brother-in-law of X
⇒ Mother’s Father – Maternal Grand Father ⇒ Brother’s Wife– Sister-in-law
Y
X Y
Y is Sister-in-law of X
X Types Of Questions Asked In Various

Exams
Y is Grand Father of X
Type -I → Indicating form
Note - If simply Grand Father is written it
means either Mother’s or Father’s Father. Type -II → Puzzle form
⇒ Son’s Wife– Daughter-in-law Type -III → Coded form
X Simple Blood Relation Puzzle

Mixed with sitting and puzzle.

Y
Profession mix.
Y is Duaghter-in-law of X Type - I → Indicating Form
⇒ Daughter’s Husband – Son-in-law Ex.1. Introducing a man a lady said that “He is
X the father of my mother’s daughter’s only
brother”.
Y
How is the man related to lady?
Y is Son-in-law of X (1) Brother (2) Uncle (3) Cousin
X
⇒ Husband’s or Wife’s Father – Father-in-law (4) Father (5) None of these
Sol.(4) There are two married couples among them
M an and total member of females in the family is
three.
L a dy R is the mother of P and U.
T is the father of S.
Ex.2. Pointing to a boy a girl said “He is the son of P is the grandson of T.
the daughter of the father of my only uncle”.
Ex.5. How Q is related to U?
How is the boy related to girl?
(1) Sister (2) Grand mother
How is the man related to lady?
(3) Wife (4) Data Inadequate
(1) Brother (2) Nephew (3) Uncle
(5) None of these
(4) Son-in-law (5) None of these
Ex.6. Who is daughter of S?
Sol.(5)
(1) Q (2) P (3) U
(4) T (5) None of these
+ – Ex.7. If X is married to U then how X is related to
S?
(1) Daughter-in-law (2) Son-in-law
G irl B oy
(3) Daughter (4) Son
Type II- Puzzle form (5) Can’t be determined
Ex.3-4. Study the following information carefully Sol.5-7.
and answer the question given below. T+ Q–
Seven member of a family A, B, C, D, E, F and
G. There are two married couple in the family. R– S+
A is brother of D who is father of G.
P U
+ –

B is grand father of E who have only one sister.
Sol.5.(2) Sol.6.(3) Sol.7.(2)
G is daughter of C and her grand mother has
only two child. Ex.8-10. Study the following information carefully
and answer the question given below.
Ex.3. Who is grand mother of E ?
There are eight members P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and
(1) G (2) B (3) F W in a family. They all have different mobile
(4) C (5) None of these phones- Nokia, Micromax, Lenovo, Apple,
Ex.4. How is E related to A ? MotoG, Karbonn, Samsung and Sony but not
(1) Daughter (2) Grand Daughter necessary in the same order.
V is the daughter of the one who likes
(3) Niece (4) Nephew
Micromax. R likes Karbonn and is married
(5) Either 3 or 4 to one who likes MotoG. The one who likes
Sol.3-4. Nokia is grand mother of U who has only two
brothers. S likes Micromax and is married to
B+ F–
P. R is father of the one who likes Apple. Q is
the mother of T and U. U is not son of Q but
A+ D+ C– likes Lenovo. There are two married couples
in the family. Samsung is liked by W and Sony
G
–
E is liked by a female. The one who likes MotoG
Sol.3.(3) F is the daughter-in-law of S.
Sol.4.(5) Niece or Nephew Q.8. How is V related to P?
Ex.5-7. Study the following information carefully (1) Grand mother (2) Wife
and answer the question given below. (3) Mother (4) Daughter
P, Q, R, S, T and U are six members of a family. (5) Grand daughter
Q.9. Which of the following person likes Sony? Ex.12-15. Study the following information carefully
(1) V (2) W (3) T (4) R (5) S and answer the question given below.
Q.10. How many female members are there in the ‘A$B’ means ‘B is father of A’
family? ‘A@B’ means ‘B is brother of A’
(1) Two (2) Four (3) Five ‘A∆B’ means ‘B is wife of A’
(4) Three (5) Six ‘A#B’ means ‘B is sister of A’
Sol.8-10. M ic rom a x N o kia ‘A%B’ means ‘B is mother of A’
S P
Ex.12. What will come in the place of question mark
K a rbo nn M oto G to establish that P is son-in-law of S in the
S o ny V R Q expression?
P∆Q?R$S
W U T (1) $ (2) @
S a m su ng L en ov o A p ple
(3) ∆ (4) #
Sol.8.(4) Sol.9.(1) Sol.10.(2)
(5) Either @ or #
Type-III Coding Form
or S
+
Sol.(5) S +
Ex.11. Study the following information carefully
and answer the question given below. R
–
Q– P+ R
+
Q– P+
‘A+B’ means ‘A is the father of B’ Ex.13. What will come in place of question mark to
establish that U is grandmother of P in the
‘A–B’ means ‘A is wife of B’
expression?
‘A×B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’
P#Q?S∆T%U
‘A÷B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’
(1) % (2) ∆ (3) $
In which of the following means ‘S is father
of P’. (4) @ (5) Either $ or ∆
(1) P÷Q–R×S (2) P×Q÷R–S Sol.(3)
(3) P–Q×R÷S (4) P÷Q+R×S U-
(5) None of these
S+ T-
Sol.(2) R– S+
P+ Q– Q- P
CHAPTER
direction &
4
distance
In this test, the questions consist of a sort of direction
puzzle. A successive follow-up of directions is formulated
and the candidate is required to ascertain the final direction
on the distance between two points. The test is meant
to judge the candidate’s ability to trace and follow
correctly and sense the direction correctly.
There are four main directions :
North, East, South, West

There are four subordinate directions: Sol.(1)
North-East (N-E), South - East (S-E), South-West (S-W) &
North-West (N-W) these are also called subdirections and these 0
90 18 0 0
subdirections are between prime directions like NE is between
North and East, SE is between South & East & so on,.. R a hul
N S ou th
NW NE
From the diagram clearly we see that Rahul is
W E
facing south direction.
SE Ex.3. A person starting from a point and moves 1 km
SW
S towards North direction, then he turns to his
right and moves 3 km. Again he turns to his
right and moves 5 km. In which direction and
how far is he from his starting point ?
(1) 4 km North (2) 5 km North-East
(3) 4 km East (4) 5 km South-East
(5) 7 km North-East
Sol.(4) N
W E
Key Factors:
S
## At the time of sunrise shadow of an object will always
be towards west. A person starting from O and ends to D point.
## At the time of sunset the shadow of an object is always OC = AB = 3 Km.
in the East. CD = BD - BC = 5 - 1 = 4 Km.
## If a man is standing and facing North at the time of OD2 = OC2 + CD2
sunrise his shadow will be towards his left and at the = 32 + 42 = 9 + 16 = 25
time of sunset it will be towards his right. OD2 = 25, OD = = 5 km.
## At 12:00 noon, the rays of the sun are vertically Finally he is 5 Km in South-East direction from
downward hence there will be no shadow. point O.
EXAMPLEs 5 km South-East
Ex.4. A child is looking for his father. He went 90 metres
Ex.1. Shyam travels 7 km. North, then he turns to his
in the east before turning to his right. He went 20
right and walks 3 km. He again turns to his
metres before turning to his right again to look
right and moves 7 km forward. Now in which
for his father at his uncle’s place 30 metres from
direction is he from his starting point? this point. His father was not there. From there
(1) North (2) South he went 100 metres to his north before meeting
(3) East (4) West his father in a street. Now how far he is from his
(5) North-East starting point?
Sol.(3) (1) 80 m (2) 100 m
3 km .
(3) 260 m (4) 140 m
7 km . (5) 90 m
7 km .
Sol.(2)
N orth F N orth
A
E as t
W e st
S tarting
E
A = starting poiting E S ou th
Ex.2. Rahul is facing East direction.He turns to 900 A B
anticlock wise.Then he turns 1800 clock wise.
In which direction is he facing now? C
D
(1) South (2) West
(3) East (4) North
Required distance
(5) South-East
is 4 feet away, then she turns 900 right and goes 3
(8 0 ) + ( 6 0 )
2 2
= AF = feet to point P. Then she turns 900 right and walks
6 4 0 0 + 3 6 0 0 = 1 0 0 0 0 = 100m 1 feet to point Q. Then she turns left 900 and goes
Ex.5. Ashok wants to book a ticket to Madhurai. He starts to point V, which is 1 feet away and once again
and covers 5 km to reach the Booking Office which she turns 900 right and goes to point O, which is
is in the East of his house. From there he turns to the 3 feet away. What is the distance between T and
North towards the market by travelling 3 km. From O?
there he turns left to his friend Sandeep’s house (1) 4 ft. (2) 5 ft.
which is 5 km away. Now he has to reach his house. (3) 7 ft. (4) 8 ft.
How many km he has to cover to reach his house? (5) 6 ft.
(1) 8 km (2) 3 km (3) 5 km Sol.(4)
(4) 6 km (5) 7 km P
Sol.(2)
Q V
T U O
Required distance = (4 + 3 + 1) Feet = 8 feet.

Required distance = 3 km Ex.9. In an evening Rekha and Hema were talking to
Ex.6. A man is facing North. He turns to 180 0 in each other face to face. If Hema’s shadow was
clockwise direction and another 450 in the same exactly to the right of Hema, which direction was
direction and then 2700 in the anticlockwise Rekha facing ?
direction. In which direction is he facing now ? (1) North (2) South
(1) South-West (2) South-East (3) East (4) Data is inadequate
(3) North-East (4) North-West (5) West
(5) North Sol.(2) N o rth
Sol.(4) N
R ekha
27 0
0
W es t E a st
E
Sun
W
18 0 0 S o uth
H em a H em a's shadow
45
0

S
Final Direction North West Degrees can only be Shadow in the evening.
judged towards the direction in which a person is Ex.10. One morning Mohan and Gaurav were standing
facing instead of the path covered by him. opposite to each other. Mohan’s shadow fell
Ex.7. A man moves 5 km. towards North from any point, exactly on his left. Toward which direction was
then he turn to his right 900 and moves 5 km, then Gaurav facing?
he turn to his right 450 and moves to 2 km. Finally (1) South
he turns to his left 450 and moves 2 km. in which (2) North
direction he is facing now? (3) West
(1) South (2) South-East (4) Can’t be determined
(3) East (4) South-West (5) None of these
(5) North Sol.(1) N
Sol.(3) Shadow
Mohan
W E Sun
Gavrav
S
After Sun Rise
A person starting from O and his end point is
D from the diagram and he is facing in East Ex.11. In an evening when Suraj started walking from
direction. his house, his shadow was exactly towards his
Ex.8. Mira started her journey from point T towards east, right. He walked 6 km . Then he turnes to his
and walk straight to point U which is 4 feet away. left and moved 4 km. Again he turns to his right
She turns left, at 900 and walks to point W which and walked 6 km. Then he turned to his right and
moved 13 km. How far is he and in which direction AF = AB + CD = 6 + 6 = 12 km
from the starting point ? FE = DE - BC= 13 - 4= 9 km
(1) 15 km North-East EA= A F 2 + E F 2 = 12 2 + 9 2
(2) 15 km Noth = 144 + 81 = 225 =15 km
(3) 15 km South-East Ex.12. In morning Sobhit cover 10 metres and turn to his
(4) 16 km South right and covers 4 metres then he turn in his left and
(5) 17 km East covers 4 metres. At this time his shadow in his left.
Sol.(1) 13km
Then in which direction he started his journey ?
D 4 km F 9 km E (1) North-East (2) North
6 km (3) South (4) East
6km
N (5) West
C 4km B Sol.(2)
6 km 4m
4m
W E
A 10m
S
CHAPTER
5 Order & ranking
Then find the Rank of X from left end?

What is order?
(1) 12 (2) 13 (3) 14
Order is known as sequence. For example left, right,
(4) 15 (5) 16
top, bottom, ascending and desending.
Sol.(3) Given : Total no. of students = 27
What is Rank?
Rank of X from right end = 14
Rank is known as position in the given sequence.
To find : Rank of X from left end = ?
Type of Rank?
Formula is, Rank of X from left = Total number of
There are two types of Rank :
students -
(1) Base Rank : When rank of object is given from ?
any end.
Rank of X from right + 1 x
For example - A is from left end.
14
27
Base rank
Rank of X from left = (27+1)-14 = 14
(2) Reference Rank: When rank of one object with
Hence, Rank of X from left = 14th
reference to another object is given.
Ex.2. In a row of 40 students, A is 5th to the right of B,
For example - A is to the right of B.
who is 18th from the right end. Then find the rank
of A from left end?
Reference rank
(1) 28 (2) 26 (3) 29
Type of order and Ranking (4) 25 (5) 35
Question Sol.(1)
(a) Finding the rank of a person from one side. Given : Total no. of boys = 40
Value required to find the rank of a person. Rank of B from right end = 18
Required Information And, Rank of A is 5th to the right of B
(1) Total number To find ; Rank of A from left end = ?
(2) Rank of same person from another side. Formula to find rank of a person is
Formula, Rank from left/right = Total No. of Person Rank of B from left end = Total number of boys-
- Rank from right/left +1. Rank of B from right end + 1
EXAMPLES Rank of B from left end = 40 - 18 + 1 = 23
Ex.1. In a row of 27 students, X is 14th from right end. But we have to find the rank of A from left end.
Hence, Rank of A from left end = Rank of B from Total no. = A’s rank from left end + A’s rank from
left end + 5 23 + 5 right end - 1
28 Total no. = 17 + 25 - 1
A 7th + B 18th
41
17th
(c) To finding the Mid Number :
Ex.3. In a row, X is 8th to the left of B, who is 15th from Values required to find the mid number.
right end. Then find the rank of X from left end? (1) Rank of one person from one end.
(1) 28 (2) 26 (3) 29 (2) Rank of another person from another end.
(4) 25 (5) Cannot be determined (3) Total number
Sol.(5) (i) Formula to find Mid Number (Simple Case):
Given : Rank of X from right Note: Simple Case : When total number is more than
= Rank of B from right + 8 the addition of rank from both the end. Then such
i.e. Rank of X from right = 15 + 8 = 23 question is based as Mid number (Simple Case).
To find : Rank of X from left end = ? Formula:
Formula: Mid No. (Simple Case)
Rank of X from left end = Total no. Rank of X from = Total No. – (Rank of one person from one end +
right end + 1 Rank of another person from another end).
But, in this question total no. is not given. Ex.6. In a row of 51 girls, A is 15th from right end and
Hence, we can’t find the rank of X from left end. B is 17th from left end. Then find how many girls
So Answer is cannot be determined. are in between A and B?
(b) To Finding the total number in a sequence/order. (1) 19 (2) 22 (3) 25
Values required to find the total number: (4) 23 (5) 30
(1) Rank of a person from one side. Sol.(1)
(2) Rank of same person from another side. Given - Rank of A from right = 15
Formula to find total number is: Rank of B from left = 17
Total number = Rank of a person from left+Rank of Total number of girls = 51
a person from right -1 To Find : How many girls are in between A & B
Ex.4. In a row, X is 17th from left end and 19th from ? Here, Total Number > Rank from Right + Rank
right end. Then find the total number of students in from left. Therefore it is a simple case Mid Number
the given row? Question.
(1) 28 (2) 35 (3) 29 Formula:
(4) 25 (5) 30 Mid no. = Total no. - (Rank of A from Right+Rank
Sol.(2) of B from left)
Given : Rank of X from left = 17 Mid number = 51 - (15 + 17)
Rank of X from right = 19 51 - 32 19
To find : Total number = ?
Formula:
Total number = Rank of X from left + Rank of X
from right - 1
Total number = 17 +19 - 1 (ii) Formula to Find Mid Number (Overlap Case) :
th th Note : Overlap Case : When Total Number is less
= 35 than the addition of rank from both the end. Then
Ex.5. In a row, A is 7th to the left of B, who is 18th from such question is based on Mid number (Overlap
right end. And A is 17th from left end. Then find the Case).
total number of students/person sitting in a row? Formula: Mid No. (overlap Case) = (Rank of one
(1) 28 (2) 35 (3) 29 person from one end + Rank of another person from
(4) 41 (5) 30 another end) - (Total Number+2)
Sol.(4) Ex.7. In a row of 27 boys, X is 17th from left end and
Given : A’s rank from left end = 17th Y is 13th from right end. Then find how many boys
A’s rank from right end = 18 + 7 25th are in between X and Y?
To find : Total no. = ? (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3
Formula is (4) 4 (5) 5
Sol.(1) Given : Total Number = 27 Mid No. (Overlap Case) = (Rank of X from left end
Rank of X from left end = 17 + Rank of y from right end) - (Total No.+2)
Rank of Y from right end = 13 Total No. = (Rank of X from left end + Rank of y
To find : How many boys are in between X and Y. from right end) - (Mid No. +2)
Formula is: then, Total No = (17 + 11) - (4 + 2)
Mid No. = (Rank of X from left end + Rank of Y 28 - 6 22
from right end) - (Total No. + 2)
Mid No. = (17 + 13) - (27 + 2)
30 - 29 = 1

(d) To Finding the Exact Mid :
Required information :
(1) Total Number
(iii) To Find total Number with Mid Number: (2) Rank of one person from one end.
Value required to find total number. (3) Rank of another person from another end.
(1) Rank of one person from one end. (4) Mid Number
(2) Rank of another person from another end. Formula to find exact Mid:
(3) Mid Number M id n u m b e r + 1
Note : Both Mid number (Simple Case) and Mid Exact Mid =
number (overlap case) formula is required to find 2
Ex.9. In a row of 47 women, A is 12th from right end and
total number. By using Mid Number (Simple Case) B is 12th from left end. C is sitting exactly between
formula, we will get maximum total number and by A and B. Then, what is the rank of C from left end?
using Mid Number (overlap case). Formula we will (1) 22 (2) 32 (3) 24
get minimum total number. (4) 31 (5) Eithter (1) or (2)
Ex.8. In a row, X is 17th from left end and Y is 11th from Sol.(3)
right end and there are 4 person are sitting in between Given : Rank of A from right end = 12
X and Y. Then find total number of person in a row? Rank of B from left end = 12
(1) 22 (2) 32 (3) 23 Total Number = 47
(4) 31 (5) Eithter (1) or (2) Then Mid no = Total No. - (Rank of A from right
Sol.(5) end + Rank of B from left end)
Given : Mid No. 4 = 47 - 24 = 23
Rank of X from left end = 17 To find : Rank of C from left end = ?
Rank of Y from right end = 11 M id n o + 1
To find : Total Number = ? Exact Mid =
2
Maximum total number of person:
Mid no. (Simple Case) = Total No - (Rank of X from 12
left end + Rank of y from right end) Rank of C from left end = Rank of B from left end
Total No = Mid No + Rank of X from left end + + Exact Mid
Rank of y from right end. 12 + 12 24
th
Then, Total No = 4 + 17 + 11 = 32
x y
1 7 th 4 11 th

Minimum Total Number of Peson:
CHAPTER
SITTING
6
ARRANGEMENT
Sitting Arrangement questions involve arrangement (3) second to the right
of persons in a circular table, rectangular table or line (4) third to the left
arrangement with some given conditions. In order to
solve these type of questions, best strategy is to develop (5) None of these
a rough pictorial diagram. Once the diagram is complete, Sol.(1) Second to the left
questions that follow can be answered easily.
Ex.2. Who is third to the left of E?
Important Conjunctions (1) A (2) C (3) D
Here some Conjunction is also used instead of name of (4) E (5) None of these
candidate. In that case:
## If AND/BUT is used then subject of the previous
sentence (name of first candidate) will be used.
## If WHO/WHOM/WHOSE is used then object
of the previous sentence (name of second
candidate) will be used.
## Left or right of any candidate can only be judged
if it is given that towards which direction he
Sol.(2) C
is facing means you have to focus upon the
candidate towards which direction he is facing. Types Of Questions
Types Of Questions (B) FACING OUTSIDE OF THE CENTRE-
(A) FACING CENTRE-

Left -ANTI-CLOCKWISE DIRECTION
Right - ANTI-CLOCKWISE DIRECTION Right -CLOCKWISE DIRECTION
Left - CLOCKWISE DIRECTION Ex.3-4. Study the following information to answer
EXAMPLES: the given questions :
Ex.1-2. Study the following information carefully to P, Q, R, S, T, and U are seated in a circle facing
answer the given questions : opposite direction to the centre.
A, B, C, D, E and F are seated in a circle facing P is second to the right of S, who is third to the
centre. A is second right of D who is third left of left of U. R is third to the right of T and is not
F. C is third right of E and is not an immediate an immediate neighbour of U.
neighbour of F. Ex.3. What is position of R with respect to Q?
Ex.1. What is position of B with respect to C? (1) Second to the left (2) Third to the right
(1) second to the left (3) Second to the right (4)Third to the left
(2) third to the right (5) None of these
Sol.(3) Second to the right Ex.6. Who is third to the right of C ?
Ex.4. Who is third to the left of T? (1) V (2) U (3)T
(1) P (2) R (3) S (4) A (5) None of these
(4) T (5) None of these Sol.(4) A
Row / Column
Sol.(2) R In this type of the question people are made to sit
in a sequential manner in a particular direction.
Ex.7. Study the following information to answer
the given questions :
Seven friends A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seated
in a row facing north.
A is 4th to the left or right of B and both are not
at any end. E & G are immediate neighbour. A
Types Of Questions is not the neighbour of F . D is 2nd to the right
of C and 3rd to the right of E.
(C) FACING CENTRE AND OUTER
Who is 3rd right of G ?
(1) B (2) D (3) A
(4) None (5) None of these

Sol.(3) A
Rectangular Form
Ex.5-6. Study the following information to answer
the given questions : In this type of question some person are made to
sit around a rectangle facing the centre or facing
V, U, T are seated in a circle facing to the centre.
opposite to the centre.
A, B, C are also seated in same circle but two
of them are not facing centre(opposite of the
centre).V is second to the left of C. U is second
to the right of A. B is third to the left of T. C is
second to the right of T. A is next to V.
Ex.5. What is position of A with respect to B?
(1) 2nd to the left (2) 3rd to the right
(3) 2 to the right
nd
(4) 3rd to the left Ex.8-9. Read the following information carefully and
(5) None of these answer the question given below-
(in s id e ) A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a
A square table in such a way that four of them sit at
(in s id e )
V corners of the square while four sit in the middle
of each of the sides. Those who sit at the four
(in s id e ) corners faces outside while those who sit in the
T B (o u ts id e )
middle of the sides face the centre of the table.
(in s id e ) D sits third to the right of G. G faces the centre.
U E sits third to the left of C. C does not sit in the
middle of the sides. Only one person sit between E
C
(o u ts id e ) and F. F is not immediate neighbour of C. H faces
the centre. A is not an immediate neighbour of F.
Sol.(1) 2nd to the left Ex.8. What is the position of C with respect to B?
(1) Third to the right the one, who sits third to the right of the seat,
(2) C&B sit diagonally opposite which is opposite to S. C is not an immediate
neighbor of D. T, who likes neither White nor
(3) Second to right. Blue, does not face vacant seat. D faces R. The
(4) Second to the left. vacant seats are not opposite to each other. Two
seats are there between C and B, who sits third
(5) Fifth to the right.
right of the seat, on which the person who likes
Sol.(4) Second to the left Brown is sitting. S sits third to the right of seat
Q.9. Who sits exactly between E & F? on which R sits and likes Yellow. The one who
likes Pink faces the one who likes Yellow. The
(1) H (2) D (3) A
person who like Red and Purple are adjacent
(4) C (5) G to each other. The vacant seat in row 1 is not
Sol.(2) D adjacent to D. Q sits at one of the extreme ends.
E neither like Pink nor faces the seat which is
adjacent to the one who like Blue. The one who
like White is not to the immediate right of the
one who like Yellow. The person who like Green
does not face the person who like Purple.
Ex.10. How many persons are sitting between T and
the one who likes yellow color?
(1) None (2) One (3) Two
Ex.10–11. Answer the questions on the basis of the (4) Three (5) None of these
information given below. Sol.(3) two
Ten friends are sitting on twelve seats in two E D B ---- A C
parallel rows containing five people each,
in such a way that there is an equal distance Red Purple Grey Pink Brown
between adjacent persons. In Row 1: A, B, C, D
T R ---- P S Q
and E are seated and all of them are facing south,
and in Row 2 : P, Q, R, S and T are sitting and Green Black White Yellow Blue
all of them are facing north. One seat is vacant
in each row. Therefore, in the given sitting
Ex.11. Who is sitting at the immediate left of person
arrangement each member seated in a row faces
who likes purple color?
another member of the other row.
(1) E
All of them like different colors- Red, Green,
Black, Yellow, White, Blue, Brown, Purple, Pink (2) D
and Grey, but not necessarily in the same order. (3) The one who likes black color
There are two seats between Q and the vacant (4) The one who likes green color
seat. Q does not like White, Red and Purple. E
(5) The one who likes grey color
is not an immediate neighbor of C.B like Grey.
Vacant seat of row 1 is not opposite to S and is Sol.(5) The one who likes grey color
also not at any of the extreme ends of Row-1.
The one who like Black who sits opposite to
CHAPTER
7 puzzle
“Puzzle” as the implies means “confusion” Ex.1. What was the distance between points X and
Puzzles are designed to check one’s mind Y?
ability that how he/she would going to sort out (1) 10m (2) 15m (3) 20m
the confusion and finding an efficient or correct (4) 25m (5) 30m
way to solve it. Ex.2. Who among the following was standing third
Tips To Solve Puzzle to the right of D?
## To solve puzzle read the basic information carefully (1) B (2) G (3) E
like ‘six person or eight person’ (4) A (5) C
## Go through each line carefully and make graph Ex.3. What was the original distance between D and
according to it whether it position or negative E?
statement. (1) 90m (2) 100m (3) 105m
Example : A doesn’t travel in Train (4) 110m (5) 115m
A –Train X Ex.4. How much should G walk to reach his original
## Relate the previous information with other position?
information (1) 75m east, 30 m north
## Start the puzzle where maximum date is being (2) 35m west, 30m north, 40m east
provided so that you may solve it efficiently. (3) 55m west, 30m north, 20m west
Category of Puzzle (4) 30m north, 85m west
(5) None of the above
Ex.5. Who among the following were standing at
Classification Comparison the extreme ends?
Family Miscellaneous
Grouping Order based on Sequential
Week days Blood Relation Direction (1) A, B (2) C, F (3) C, A
based on weight
Floor + Train (4) C, B (5) F, A
attributes Age
Height Profession Sol.1-5.
Marks F D B G E A C
Ex.1-5. Study the following information carefully 40m
25m 30m 35m 40m 45m 50m
X 5 10 50m Z
and answer the questions given below: 10 Y 25 20 S 20 3S 20m
Seven Members A, B, C, D, E, F and G 25m 25m
40m 35m
were standing in a row facing north but not
Sol.1.(2) Sol.2.(3) Sol.3.(3)
necessarily in the same order. The distance
Sol.4.(1) Sol.5(2)
between each was a successive multiple of 5
(integral values). Classification Puzzle
Distance between A and C was twice that of the Ex.6-10.Read the following passage carefully and
distance between F and D. Distance between B answers the questions given below it.
and A was 120 m and not more than 3 persons A group of seven friends; A, B, C, D, E, F and
were standing in between them. D was to the G work as Economist, Agriculture Officer,
immediate left of B. Distance between D and IT Officer, Terminal Operator, Clerk, Forex
G was 65 m. C was 95m to the right of E. G Officer and Research Analyst, for Banks L,
moved for 50 m in South direction, took a left M, N, P, Q, R and S but not necessarily in
turn, moved for 75 m, took a left and moved the same order. C works for Bank N and is
for 20 m and stopped at point Z. F moved neither a Research Analyst nor a Clerk. E is
for 40 m in South direction, took a left turn, an IT Officer and works for Bank R. A works
moved for 50 m, took a left turn, moved for 10 as Forex Officer and does not work for Bank
m and stopped at point X. S was standing 55 m L or Q. The one who is an Agriculture Officer
west of point Z. He moved 45 m towards west works for Bank M. The one who works for
and stopped at point Y. Bank L works as a Terminal Operator. F works
for Bank Q. G works for Bank P as a Research (3) 40 minutes (4) 20 minutes
Analyst. D is not an Agriculture Officer. (5) Cannot be determined
Ex.6. Who amongst the following works as an Ex.12. Who among the following takes maximum
Agriculture Officer ? time to reach office ?
(1) C (2) B (3) F (1) B (2) C (3) D
(4) D (5) None of these (4) F (5) Cannot be determined
Ex.7. What is the profession of C ? Ex.13. How many people take more time to reach
(1) Terminal operator office than D ?
(2) Agriculture Officer (1) Four (2) Three (3) Two
(3) Economist (4) One (5) None
(4) Cannot be determined Sol.11-13. F > B > C > A > D > E
(5) None of these 60 > 50 > 40 > 30 > 20 > 10
Ex.8. For which bank does B work ? Sol.11.(3) Sol.12.(4) Sol.13.(1)
(1) M (2) S (3) L Sequential Puzzle
(4) Either M or S Ex.14-20. Study the following information to an-
(5) None of these swer the given questions :
Ex.9. What is the profession of the person who 6 lectures are scheduled in a week starting
works for Bank S ? from Monday and ending on Sunday of the
(1) Clerk same week. Computer Science is not on Tues-
(2) Agriculture Officer day or Saturday. Psychology is immediately
(3) Terminal Operator after Organisational Behaviour. Statistics is
(4) Forex Officer not on Friday and there is one day gap be-
(5) None of these tween Statistics and Research Methods. One
Ex.10. Which of the following combinations of person, day prior to the schedule of Economics there
profession and bank is correct ? is no lecture (as that day is the ‘off’ day and
(1) A-Forex Officer-M Monday is not the ‘off’ day.)
(2) D-Clerk-L Ex.14. Which of the following is the last lecture
(3) F - Agriculture Officer - Q scheduled?
(4) B - Agriculture Officer - S (1) Statistics (2) Research Methods
(5) None of these (3) Psychology (4) Cannot be determined
Sol.6-10. Bank Work (5) None of these
A S Forex Officer Ex.15. If Wednesday is the ‘off’ day, the code would
B M Agriculture Officer be 2-4, if Thursday was the ‘off’ day, the code
C N Economist would be 3-3. Taking into account the ‘off’
D L Terminal Operator day which of the following code is correct ?
E R IT Officer (1) 2-4 (2) 3-3 (3) 4-2
F Q Clerk (4) Cannot be determined
G P Research Analyst (5) None of these
Sol.6.(2) Sol.7.(3) Sol.8.(1) Ex.16. Which lecture is scheduled on Friday ?
Sol.9.(4) Sol.10.(5) (1) Economics
Comparison Puzzle (2) Psycology
Ex.11-13. Study the following information to answer (3) Computer Science
the given questions : (4) Cannot be determined
Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F areworking (5) None of these
in the same office take different time to reach Ex.17. How many lectures were scheduled between
office. All of them take time in the multiples of Economics and Psychology ?
ten in such a manner that the one who reaches (1) One (2) Two (3) Three
the office earliest reaches in 10 minutes and the (4) Cannot be determined
one who takes maximum time reaches office in (5) None of these
60 minutes. D takes more time than E but less Ex.18. Which day is Computer Science scheduled ?
time than A. A reaches in 30 minutes. B takes (1) Monday (2) Wednesday
less time than only F. (3) Thursday (4) Cannot be determined
Ex.11. How much time does C take to reach office ? (5) None of these
(1) 60 minutes (2) 50 minutes Ex.19. Which day is the ‘off’ day ?
(1) Tuesday (2) Wednesday (3) Friday (1) Mr.Ami (2) Mr.Balli (3) Ms.Fiza
(4) Cannot be determined (4) Ms.Diya (5) None of these
(5) None of these Ex.24. If Ms.Fiza and Mr.Balli are not in the same
Ex.20. If someone wants to attend only two lectures car, which of the following persons could be
out of Psychology, Research Methods and in the first car?
Computer Science but wants the two days to (1) Mr.Ami (2) Mr.Balli
be successive (one after the other) then which (3) Ms.Chinki (4) Ms.Fiza
lecture-combination may be selected ? (5) None of these
(1) Research Methods, Computer Science Ex.25. If the third car contains Mr.Balli and
(2) Psychology, Computer science Ms.Chinki, which of the following will be
(3) Psychology, Research Methods possible ?
(4) Any two of the three is possible (1) Mr.Ami in car C4
(5) With the condition of successive (2) Mr.Balli in car C4 or car C2
Sol.14-20.Monday - Organisational Behaviour (3) Ms.Chinki in car C2 or car C4
Tuesday - Psychology (4) Ms.Fiza in car C1 or car C4
Wednesday - Statistics (5) None of these
Thursday - Computer Science Sol.21-25. Cars Directors
Friday - Research Methods C1 Emi/Chinki/Fiza/Balli
Saturday - Off C2 Ami and Diya/Balli/Chinki/Fiza
Sunday - Economics C3 Ami and Diya/Balli/Chinki/Fiza
Sol.14.(5) Sol.15.(5) Sol.16.(5) C4 Emi/Chinki/Fiza/Balli
Sol.17.(3) Sol.18.(3) Sol.19.(5) Sol.21.(2) Sol.22.(4) Sol.23.(3)
Sol.20.(1) Sol.24.(5) Sol.25.(4)
Selection Based Puzzle Ex.26-30. Study the following information to an-
Ex.21-25.Read the following information carefully swer the given questions :
and answer the questions given below- (i) In a family of 6 persons, there are two
Six directors of a company Z - Mr. Ami, Mr. couples.
Balli, Ms. Chinki, Ms. Diya, Mr. Emi and Ms. (ii) The Lawyer is the head of the family and
Fiza are travelling in four cars C1,C2,C3 and has only two sons - Mukesh and Rakesh -
C4 to attend a seminar in Lucknow. One person both are Teachers.
is driving each car and there are not more than (iii) Mrs. Reena and her mother-in-law both
two persons in any one of the cars. These cars are Lawyers.
are running one after the other from first to (iv) Mukesh’s wife is a Doctor and they have a
fourth. Ms. Chinki and Ms. Fiza are travelling son, Ajay.
in different cars. The first and the fourth has Ex.26. Which of the following is definitely a couple ?
only one person in the car. Mr. Ami is driving (1) Lawyer-Teacher
the car and Ms. Diya is the traveller on that (2) Doctor-Lawyer
car. Mr.Emi is the only person in one of the (3) Teacher-Teacher
cars. (4) Cannot be determined
Ex.21. Which of the following persons could be (5) None of these
travelled in the same car as Ms.Chinki? Ex.27. What is the profession of Rakesh’s wife ?
(1) Mr.Ami (2) Mr.Balli (1) Teacher (2) Doctor
(3) Ms.Diya (4) Mr.Emi (3) Lawyer (4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these (5) None of these
Ex.22. If the third car contains Mr.Ami and Ms.Diya, Ex.28. How many male members are there in the
which of the following must be true? family ?
(1) Mr.Emi is in the first car (1) Two (2) Three
(2) Ms.Chinki is in the fourth car (3) Four (4) Cannot be determined
(3) Ms.Fiza is in the second car (5) None of these
(4) Mr.Balli is in the second car Ex.29. What is/was Ajay’s Grand mother occupation
(5) None of these ?
Ex.23. If Ms.Chinki and Mr.Balli are not in the same (1) Teacher (2) Lawyer
car, which of the following persons could be (3) Doctor (4) Cannot be determined
in the first car? (5) None of these
Ex.30. What is the profession of Ajay ? Ex.31. Which of the following groups represents the
(1) Teacher (2) Lawyer students of college Y ?
(3) Doctor (4) Cannot be determined (1) C,E,G (2) A, C, D (3) A, B, C
(5) None of these (4) D, B, C (5) None of these
Sol.26-30. Ex.32. Who amongst the following is in the profession
of Medicines ?
L a w ye r
A 7th + B 1 8 th
(1) E (2) G (3) A
(4) D (5) None of these
1 7 th
x y
Ex.33. Who amongst the following is a teacher ?

1 7 th 4 11 th
(1) A (2) D (3) E

R eena
(4) G (5) None of these
Ex.34. What is the profession of A ?
L a w ye r
(1) Teaching (2) Medicines
(3) Business (4) Fashion Designing
(5) None of these
Ex.35. Which of the following combination of person,
college and profession is definitely correct ?
Sol.26.(1) Sol.27.(3) Sol.28.(2) (1) E-X-Fashion Designing
Sol.29.(2) Sol.30.(4) (2) F-X-Engineering
(3) A-Y-Businessman
Miscellaneous Puzzle
(4) D-Z-Teaching
Ex.31-37. Study the following information carefully
(5) None of these
and answer the given questions.
Ex.36. Who amongst the following have studied in
Seven friends A, B, C, D, E, F and G studied
college Z ?
in colleges X, Y and Z and are currently in
(1) B,A (2) C, F (3) B, D, F
different professions namely, Medicines,
(4) A, D (5) D, F
Fashion designing, Engineering, Business,
Ex.37. What is the profession of F ?
Acting, Teaching and Architecture (not
(1) Engineering (2) Business
necessarily in the same order). At least two
(3) Medicines (4) Acting
and not more than three friends had studied in
(5) None of these
the same college.
Sol.31-37. A Y Fashion designing
C is an architect and studied in college Y. E
B Y Actor
is not a businessman. ‘Only G amongst the
C Y Architect
seven friends studied in college X along with
D Z Teacher
E. F is an engineer and did not study in college
E X Medicine
Y. B is an actor and did not study in the same
F Z Engineer
college as F. A did not study in college Z.
G X Businessman
Those who studied in college X are neither
Sol.31.(3) Sol.32.(1) Sol.33.(2)
Fashion Designers nor teachers. None of those
Sol.34.(4) Sol.35.(4) Sol.36.(5)
who studied in college Y is a teacher.
Sol.37.(1)
CHAPTER
8 advanceD puzzle
Q.1-5. Study the following information carefully and extreme end and E. P, who sits in the middle
answer the questions given below. of the row, is not an immediate neighbour of Q,
In a family of eight persons A, B, C, D, E, who is not from Netherland. T is at an extreme
F, G and H are sitting around a circular table end. E from paris, sits on the immediate right
facing the centre but not necessarily in the of the person from Australia and faces the
same order. Family has three generations, D’s immediate neighbour of Q. B is not sitting at the
father is sitting third to the left of his nephew. extreme left end. P is not from Africa. There is
B is the son of F, who is second to the right of only one person between C and D, who is from
her son. D is the father of G and two persons India. S from Kenya is an immediate neighbour
sits between G and E. D’s wife is opposite to of the person from netherland and does not face
E, whose brother B is the immediate neighbour the person from Canada. R, who is from Tokyo
of C’s son. B is the father of H, no male is is an immediate neighbour of the person from
adjacent to C. F is the sister of C, who is not Africa, who is facing the immediate neighbour
sitting second to the left of B. of the person from Paris. There are two persons
Q.1. What is the position of C with respect to his between the person from Austria and the person
daughter-in-law? from Canada. B is not from Austria. T is not
(1) second to the left (2) second to the right from America.
(3) immediate left (4) immediate right Q.6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
(5) third to the left way based on their sitting, which of the following
Q.2. How is E related to C? is different?
(1) Daughter (2) Niece (3) Son (1) B (2) Q (3) A
(4) Nephew (5) Data inadequate (4) D (5) T
Q.3. What is the position of C with respect to his Q.7. ‘India’ is related to ‘Austria’ in the same way
grand daughter? ‘Netherland’ is related to -
(1) immediate right (2) immediate left (1) America (2) Tokyo (3)Canada
(3) opposite (4) second to the right (4) Kenya (5) Africa
(5) second to the left Q.8. A belongs to which country?
Q.4. How many persons is/are between B and his (1) Kenya (2) Austria (3) Africa
uncle in clock-wise direction counting from B?
(4) America (5) Canada
(1) One (2) None (3) Two
Q.9. Who belongs to ‘Africa’ ?
(4) Three (5) Four
(1) B (2) Q (3) C
Q.5. How many children does F have ?
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) T (5) E
(4) Four (5) Zero Q.10. Who is sitting third to the right of D?
Q.6-10. Study the following information carefully (1) E (2) C (3) B
and answer the questions given below. (4) A (5) R
Ten persons are sitting in two parallel rows Q.11-15. Study the following information and answer
contining five person in each row. In row 1- the given questions:
A, B, C, D and E are sitting and all of them Seven friends P, Q, R, S, T, W and X stay in
are facing south. In row 2- P, Q, R, S and T three cities-Kolkata, Chennai and Mumbai.
are sitting and all of them are facing North. Three of them are females and rest are males. At
Each member sitting in a row faces another least two and not more than three of them stay in
member of the other row. Each of them belong a particular city. By professions they are Doctor,
to different countries- India, Australia, Canada, Dancer, Chemist, Engineer, Teacher, Artist and
Tokyo, Paris, Kenya, Austria, America, Africa Student (not necessarily in the same order).
and Netherland, but not necessarily in the There is no female in Kolkata. There is no
same order There are only two persons sitting male in Chennai. The artist stays in Kolkata.
between the person from India, who sits at an S is a student and stays in Kolkata. T is a
male engineer. The Dancer and Doctor stay in in the family is the lowest and second lowest.
Chennai. X is not a dancer. P stays in Kolkata. F is the uncle of G and belongs to Kolkata. D
W is a Chemist and stays in Mumbai. R stays has less salary than C whose age is 30 years.
in the same city as S and is not an Artist. The one whose salary is third highest belongs
Q.11. Where does Q stay? to Varanasi.
(1) Mumbai Q.16. Who earns highest salary in the family and
(2) Chennai posted in which city?
(3) Either Chennai or Mumbai (1) G - Chennai (2) H - Hyderabad
(4) Kolkata (3) E - Kolkata (4) H - Kanpur
(5) Either Kolkata or Chennai (5) A - Lucknow
Q.12. Who are the three females in the group? Q.17. How is G related to the one whose salary is
(1) W, X and P (2) R, W and X lowest in the family?
(1) Brother (2) Sister
(3) Q, W and X (4) R, W and Q
(3) Brother-in-law (4) Cousin
(5) None of these
(5) None of these
Q.13. Which of the following correctly identifies the
Q.18. Who among of them earns fifth highest salary
professions of the males?
in the family and what is the age that person?
(1) Artist, Teacher, Student, Engineer
(1) C - 27 (2) E - 29 (3) F - 35
(2) Artist, Teacher, Student, Dancer
(4) G - 30 (5) D - 35
(3) Artist, Doctor, Chemist, Engineer
Q.19. Who is the sister-in-law of D and earn less than
(4) Chemist, Teacher, Dancer, Engineer
how many person?
(5) None of these
(1) A - Six (2) B - Five (3) D - Five
Q.14. Which of the following is true as per-the facts
(4) F - Three (5) H - Four
provided?
Q.20. Who among of them posted in Chennai?
(1) W is a male Chemist and stays in Mumbai
(1) B (2) D (3) F
(2) R is a male Dancer and stays in Kolkata
(4) G (5) H
(3) T is a male Engineer and stays in Kolkata
Q.21-25. Study the following information carefully
(4) X is a female Teacher and stays in Chennai
and answer the questions given below:
(5) None is true
Eight members of a family Avni, Arti, Ruhi,
Q.15. Which of the following group of person lives
Avi, Rudra, Aditi, Ashu, and Ankit have their
in Mumbai?
birthday in the different months of the year.
(1) X, T (2) W, S (3) P, Q
Grandfather of Aditi celebrates his birthday
(4) T, W (5) P, X
in the month of August. Immediately above
Q.16-20. Study the following information carefully
Avi and immediately below Arti there are
and answer the questions given below:
vacant months (There is not the birthday of
The family of eight member A, B, C, D, E,
any member of the family in the month).
F, G and H have a different salary. Each of
Avi celebrates his birthday immediately
them has different age 25, 27, 29, 30, 32, 34,
before Aditi who is the daughter of Ankit.
35 and 37. Each of them posted in different
Immediately below Ankit and immediately
city Lucknow, Kanpur, Varanasi, New Delhi,
above Rudra who is the son of Avi there are
Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata and Hyderabad.
vacant months (There is not the birthday of any
There are three married couples in the family
member of the family in the month). Ashu who
and only two have a child. Every husband
is the husband of Arti celebrates his birthday
of the family is elder than their wife in age.
in one of the two consecutive months having
The sister-in-law of F earns more than her husband,
31 days. Ankit celebrates his birthday in the
but less than C and D. A is the brother of F who
month which is immediately after Aditi and
is the husband of D. A has not the lowest Salary.
is married to Avni. Ruhi is married to Avi
The salary of D’s husband is the fourth highest
who celebrates his birthday in the month of
and less than his daughter H who does not
April. There is a vacant month between Ashu
belong to Chennai. The salary of G is more
and Rudra (There is not the birthday of any
than his father and mother but not highest.
member of the family in the month). Rudra
D is the sister of C who is the husband of E.
who celebrates his birthday immediately
E earns less than C. A and his wife posted in
before Ruhi. Ruhi is the mother of Rudra and
Lucknow and Hyderabad respectively. The age
sister of Ankit. Arti has two children. There is
of G is 25 years and is the son of the person who
not the birthday of any member of the family
belongs to Mumbai. The person whose age is 35
in the February month.
years belongs to New Delhi. The age of children
Q.21. How Ankit is related to Aditi?
(1) Mother (2) Father (3) Sister (4) P (5) S
(4) Either (1) or (2) (5) Either (1) or (3) Q.27. Who amongst the following sit at extreme ends
Q.22. Who celebrate birthday in the month of of the line?
December? (1) The persons from class 2 and class 4
(1) Avni (2) Rudra (3) Arti (2) The persons from class 10 and C
(4) Ruhi (5) None of these (3) Q and A
Q.23. Arti celebrates her birthday in which of the (4) S and the person from class 7
following month?
(5) The person from class 6 and class 9
(1) January (2) March
Q.28. Which of the following statements is true
(3) December (4) Either (1) or (3)
regarding T?
(5) Either (1) or (2)
(1) T is an immediate left of the person from
Q.24. In each of the following month belongs to class 5
a group in a certain way find which of the (2) T is from class 9
following month does not belong to the group? (3) The person from class 1 faces T
(1) February (2) March (3) August (4) T sits at an extreme ends of the line
(4) September (5) July (5) None of the given options is true
Q.25. How Avi is related to Avni ? Q.29. B is related to class 3 in the same way as
(1) Brother-in-law (2) Sister-in-law S is related to class 1 based on the given
(3) Daughter-in-law (4) Son-in-law arrangement. To whom amongst the following
(5) Cannot be determined is C related to, following the same pattern?
Q.26-25. Study the following information carefully (1) Class 2 (2) Class 10 (3) Class 8
and answer the questions given below: (4) Class 4 (5) Class 5
Ten persons from different classes viz. 1, 2, 3, Q.30. Who amongst the following faces the person
4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 and 10 are sitting in two parallel from class 3?
rows containing five people each, in such a way (1) The person from class 6
that there is an equal distance between adjacent (2) T
persons. In row-1 P, Q, R, S and T are seated and (3) The person from class 8
all of them are facing south. In row-2 A, B, C, D (4) The person from class 5
and E are seated and all of them are facing north. (5) E
Therefore, in a given seating arrangement, each Q.31-35. Study the following information carefully
member seated in a row faces another member and answers the questions given below:
of the other row. (All the information given Six person P, Q, R, S, T and U live on eight
above does not necessarily mean represent the different floors such that ground floor is
order of seating as in the final arrangement) numbered as 1 and so on up to top floor numbered
The person from class 5 sits second to left of as 8. They all are from different states i.e., Orissa,
R. Neither R nor P sit at an extreme end of the Telangana, Uttarakhand, Assam, Karnataka and
line. Only two persons sit between the one who Punjab but not necessarily in the same order.
faces the person from class 5 and D. The person Q lives on the even numbered floor but not on
from class 1 sits second to the right of B. C sits the top floor. R is from Orissa. No one lives
second to the left of E. C is neither from class 1 between the person who is from Uttarakhand
nor sits at an extreme end of the line. P is third and Q. There are two floors present between R
to the left of the person from class 4. P is an and the person who is from Uttarakhand. There
immediate neighbour of the person from class are two vacant floors in the building. P is neither
2. The person from class 2 does not face the from Karnataka nor from Assam. No one lives
person from class 1 and faces the one who is between the person who is from Uttarakhand
third to the right of the person from class 7. The and P. T is from Uttarakhand. Q lives above
person from class 9 is an immediate neighbour T. No one lives between R and Q. Q is from
of the person from class 1. B does not face the Telangana. Only one person is living between
person from class 3. More than two people sit the person who is from Assam and R. U lives
between Q and S. The person from class 6 sits on an odd numbered floor. There are two floors
second to the right of the person from class 10. present between Q and the person who is from
Q.26. Four of the following five are alike in a certain Punjab. U lives above R.
way based on the given arrangement and so Q.31. Who lives on the top floor?
form a group. Which is the one that does not (1) U (2) R (3) P
belong to that group? (4) S (5) None of these
(1) T (2) A (3) B Q.32. Which of the following is true with respect to
U as per the given arrangement? Q.39. Who is sitting on the immediate left of the
(1) Only three persons live between U and T. person sitting opposite V?
(2) Only two persons live above U (1) A (2) C (3) D
(3) U lives on seventh floor (4) E (5) Vacant seat
(4) U lives on an even numbered floor Q.40. Which of the following is a correct match of
(5) None of these person with the colour he likes?
Q.33. Who is from Karnataka? (1) A - Blue (2) C - White (3) D - Brown
(1) R (2) Q (3) U (4) U - Cyan (5) X – Red
(4) S (5) None of these Q.41-45. Study the following information carefully
Q.34. Who lives on the floor immediately below Q? and answer the given question:
(1) P (2) S (3) U Eleven persons participating in a race but three
(4) T (5) None of these persons are absent at the time of race. A, B,
Q.35. Who lives on the floor immediately above R? C, D, W, X, Y, Z are participates and standing
(1) U (2) S (3) P in a straight line facing North, In which three
(4) T (5) None of these position are vacant due to absent persons. Each
Q.36-40. Study the following information carefully person holds different rank after the race, but
and answer the questions given below: not necessarily in the same order. C is third to
There are twelve seats in two parallel rows the right of Z and B sits second to the right of C.
having five people each. There is an equal C finished the race earlier than Z.
distance between adjacent persons. In row A who’s rank is 2nd is standing fourth from
1, A, B, C, D and E are facing south and in the right end of the line. Y holds 3rd rank
row 2, U, V, W, X and Y are facing north. in race. B is an immediate neighbour of
One seat is vacant in each row. Therefore, in A but not holds the rank of 1st and last.
the given seating arrangement, each member W and X are immediate neighbour of each-
seated in a row faces another member of other but both of them does not stands
the other row. All of them like different any of the extreme end of the line. Z and
colours like Black, White, Cyan, Indigo, C does not holds the rank 4th and 5th.
Pink, Beige, Blue, Brown, Red and Green. X rank is 7th and standing immediate right of
Y likes neither Brown nor Red. W and the person who’s rank is 5th. Y is an immediate
V are not immediate neighbours. D is neighbour of both D and one of the vacant place.
immediate neighbour of A and C. One of The vacant places are not neighbour of each-other.
the vacant seats is fourth to the right of E. The one who’s rank is last is third to the right
C does not like Black colour. There is only one seat of one of the vacant place.
between the persons who like Green and Cyan. Q.41. What is the rank of Z?
V either likes Black or Blue. The one who (1) 1st (2) 3rd (3) 4th
likes Brown is sitting fourth to the left of U. (4) 6th (5) 8th
B and E are not immediate neighbours. The Q.42. How many persons are seated between A and
one who likes Cyan is sitting diagonally the one who’s rank is 1st?
opposite to the person who likes Indigo. There (1) One (2) Two (3) Three
are only two persons sitting between those (4) Four (5) None of these
who like Pink and White. Either A or B Q.43. Which of the following represents the pairs of
likes Pink. D either likes Beige or Brown. person’s immediate neighbour of Vacant place?
The one who likes Red is sitting opposite A. (1) XB (2) ZB (3) BX
The person sitting opposite to the one who (4) BC (5) XY
likes White is also sitting immediately next Q.44. What is X’s position with respect to the one
to a vacant seat. who’s rank is 2nd?
Q.36. Who likes Green colour? (1) Immediate right (2) Second to the left
(1) A (2) C (3) E (3) Third to the right (4) Second to the right
(4) Y (5) X (5) None of these
Q.37. Who is sitting opposite C? Q.45. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
(1) U (2) V (3) W way based on their seating positions in the
(4) X (5) None of these above arrangement and so form a group. Which
Q.38. Who is sitting second to the right of the one is the one that does not belong to the group?
who likes Brown colour? (1) ZA (2) XC (3) CY
(1) V (2) W (3) U (4) DY (5) BA
(4) Y (5) None of these
EXPLANATION
Q.1-5. Brother/Sister A 7 Lucknow 34
C F–
+ Niece B 6 Hyderabad 32
Wife/Husband Brother C 3 Varanasi 30
A D+ B E D 5 New Delhi 35
– + +
E 8 Mumbai 29
F 4 Kolkata 37
G– H–
G 2 Chennai 25
A– H 1 Kanpur 27
G– F–
–
– + – + +
E C D F A B
C+ D+
+ –
G H
Q.16.(4) Q.17.(5) Q.18.(5) Q.19.(2) Q.20.(4)
H– B+
Q.21-25.
E+ Arti Ashu
Q.1.(2) Q.2.(4)
Avni Ankit Ruhi Avi
Q.3.(1) Q.4.(3)
Q.5.(2)
Q.6-10. Canada Paris Australia Austria India Aditi Rudra
Row 1: B E C A D
Number of Days Months Members of Family
Row 2: Q R P S T 31 January Arti
Africa Tokyo America Kenya Netherland 28/29 February
Q.6.(3) 31 March
Q.7.(4) 30 April Avi
Q.8.(2) 31 May Aditi
Q.9.(2)
30 June Ankit
Q.10.(1)
31 July
Q.11-15. Q, W and X are female members.
31 August Ashu
Person Profession City
30 September
P Artist Kolkata
31 October Rudra
Q Dancer Chennai
30 November Ruhi
R Teacher Kolkata
31 December Avni
S Student Kolkata
Q.21.(3) Q.22.(1) Q.23.(1) Q.24.(3)
T Engineer Mumbai
Q.25.(1)
W Chemist Mumbai
Q.26-30.
X Doctor Chennai
Q.11.(2) Q, X, W are female members.
Q.12.(3) Q, X, W are female members.
Q.13.(1) Q.14.(5) Q.15.(4)
Q.16-20.

Q.26.(5) Q.36-40.
Q.27.(1)
Q.28.(5)
Q.29.(5)
Q.30.(1)
Q.31-35.
8 S ASSAM
7 U KARNATAKA Q.36.(4) Q.37.(5) Q.38.(4) Q.39.(5)
6 R ORISSA Q.40.(4)
5 Q.41-45.
4 Q TELANGANA
3 T UTTARAKHAND
2
1 P PUNJAB

Q.31.(4)
Q.41.(4)
Q.32.(3)
Q.42.(1)
Q.33.(3)
Q.43.(4)
Q.34.(4)
Q.44.(5)
Q.35.(1)
Q.45.(4)
CHAPTER
9 DATA SUFFICIENCY
‘Data Sufficiency’ deals with the questions where we need (4) If statement I and II together are not sufficient
to check whether the given data is sufficient to answer to answer the question.
the question rather finding the complete solution. To (5) If statement I and II together are needed to
work quickly on data sufficiency one must have proper answer the question.
knowledge of topics like Blood Relation, Order and
Ranking, Direction, Sitting Arrangement etc. Understand Options with Example :
CHECK Q uestio n : H o w is M re late d to O ?
N O N E E D TO G E T
O N LY S U F FIC IE N C Y
TH E AN SW E R
O F D ATA
I. M is th e son of O (A ) II. M is the co usin o f N
Quick way : Options play a crucial role in Data Sufficiency. O nly I a lon e is sufficie nt
To solve the question- Treat all the statements individually. I. O is the co usin o f N (B ) II. M is the so n of O
EXAMPLES: O nly II alone is su fficien t

Ex.1-5. Following questions given below consist of a I. M is th e brothe r o f O (C ) II. N , M an d O are thre e bro th er
question followed by two statements labelled as I and II.
E ithe r I alo ne o r II a lon e
Give answer :
I. M is th e brothe r o f N (D ) II. N is th e brothe r o f O
(1) If statement I, alone is sufficient to answer
the question. B oth I a nd II tog ether
are n ot su fficien t.
(2) If statement II, alone is sufficient to asnwer I. M is th e brothe r o f O (E ) II. N is th e brothe r o f P
the question.
B oth I a nd II tog ether
(3) If statement I or II alone is sufficient to sufficient to a nsw e r.
answer the question.
Ex.1. Among Friends A, B, C, D and E each having a I. X is the mother of M, is the only sister of
different weight, Who is the heaviest? R. R is the son of Y.
I. D weights more than only two people E II. The mother of Y has only one grandson R
weights more than A but less than B. and only one child. R is not the son of X.
II. A weights more than C but less than E. E is Sol.(3) From statement (I) X is not the wife of Y. Due to
not heavier than B. X is the daughter of Y.
Sol.(5)

From I From II From statement (II)
_>_>D>_>_ E>A>C
B>E >A B>E
H ence position of heaviest H ence also position of heaviest M
person is not clear. person is not clear as no data
is provided for 'D '. Hence, from statement I or II alone are
sufficient to answer the question.
∴ When we join both these statement I and II,
we get the answer. Ex.5. In a six storey building (consisting of floors
numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6). The ground floor
B>E>D>A>C
is numbered 1, the floor above is 2 and so on
Ex.2. How is ‘stage’ coded in the given code language building houses lives different people viz. P,
? Q, R, S and T, each living on a different floor.
I. In the code language ‘stage is ready’ is coded On which floor does T lives ?
as ‘ne sa ta’ and ‘ready to go’ is coded as ‘ja I. Only S lives between the floors on which
ta la’. R and T live and fifth floor is vacant.
II. In the code language ‘stage it today’ is coded II. There are two floors between T’s floor and
as ‘mu sa ye’ and ‘it will today’ is coded as Q’s floor and Q is not first and sixth floor.
‘ru mu ye’. Sol.(5) From statement (I), the floor on which T lives
Sol.(2) From Statement I it is clear that alone it is not is not clear.
sufficient. From statement II it is clear as ‘it’ and
‘today’ is common. Hence, II alone is sufficient.
Ex.3. Amongst five friends seated in a straight line
facing North, Is B sitting at the extreme end ?
I. B, D are immediate neighbours of each other.
Similarly E, C are also immediate neighbours
From statement (II), the floor on which T lives
of each other. A sits exactly in the middle of
is not clear.
the line. D is not sitting at any end.
II. A who sits exactly in the middle of the line is
second to the left of C. B is not an immediate
neighbour of A.
Sol.(3) From statement I
A A
B
So, By merging statement I and II together, we
From statement II get the T’s floor.

E /D E /D
Hence, either (i) or (ii) are sufficient to the
answer.

Ex.4. Is X the wife of Y?
Hence, Both statement I and II together are
necessary to answer the question. ta sa’ in that code language
Ex.6-13.Each of the questions below consists of a III. ‘again go now or never’ is written as ‘na ho
question and three statements numbered I, ka sa tom’ in that code language
II and III given below it. You have to decide (1) Only I and III
whether the data provided in the statements are
(2) Only II and III
sufficient to answer the question.
(3) Only I & II
Ex.6. How many daughters does W have ?
(4) All I, II and III are required to answer the
I. B and D are sisters of M.
question
II. M’s father T is husband of W.
(5) None of these
III. Out of the three children which T has, only
one is a boy. Sol.(1)
(1) Only I and III Ex.9. Towards which direction is village J from
(2) All I, II and III are required to answer the village W?
question. I. Village R is to the west of Village W and
(3) Only II & III to the north of Village T.
(4) Question cannot be answered even with all II. Village Z is to the east of Village J and to
I, II and III the south of Village T.
(5) Only I and II III. Village M is to the north east of Village J
and north of Village Z.
Sol.(3) (1) Only III
T = W (2) Only II and III
F a th e r (3) All I, II and III are required to answer the
question
M B D
(+ ) (– ) (– ) (4) Question cannot be answered even with all
I, II and III
(–) = Female
(5) None of these
(+) = Male
Sol.(5) Only I and II
R W
Ex.7. Who among A. B, C, D, E and F each having
a different height, is the tallest?
I. B is taller than A but shorter than E. T
II. Only two of them are shorter than C.
III. D is taller than only F. J Z
(1) Only I and II
(2) Only I and III Ex.10. Q, R, S, T and U are sitting in a cricle. Are all
(3) Only II & III of them facing the centre?
(4) All I, II and are required to answer the I. Q is sitting second to the right of R. S is
question facing the centre and sitting second to the
(5) All I, II and III are not sufficient to answer left of R.
the question II. S and T are facing each other. T is sitting
Sol.(4) E>B>A second to the right of U, who is sitting
second to the left of Q.
D>F
III. U and T cannot sit adjacent to each other.
C>?>? (1) Only I (2) Only II
Ex.8. How is ‘go’ written in a code language ? (3) Only III (4) Only I and III
I. ‘now or never again’ is written as ‘tom ka (5) All I, II and III
na sa’ in that code language. Sol.(2)
II. ‘you come again now’ is written as ‘ja ka Ex.11. What is the date of birth of Rohit?

I. Riya, a friend of Rohit, remembers that III. T is heavier than S.
Rohit's date of birth is neither even nor (1) Only I (2) Only I and III
prime number.
(3) Only III (4) All I, II and III
II. Rashi correctly remembers that Rohit's
(5) None of these
date of birth is after 17th September but
before 22nd September. Sol.(5) Only I and II
III. Rohit's brother remembers that Rohit's Ex.13. If Ayana ranks 25th from the top in her class
birthday is after 20th September but before what is the rank from the bottom?
24th September. I. Nirvi is three ranks above Ayana.
(1) Only I and II (2) Only II and III II. Nirvi's rank is 22nd from the bottom and
(3) Only I and III (4) Any two out of 23rd from the top in the same class.
three (5) All I, II and III III. Nirvi is three ranks below Ayana in a class
Sol.(4) of 44 students.
Ex.12. Who among P, Q, R, S and T is the heaviest? (1) Either I or II (2) Either II or III
Each has a different weight? (3) Either I or II (4) All I, II and III
I. Q is lighter than P but heavier than S and (5) All I, II and III are not sufficient
T. Sol.(2) Either II or III are alone sufficient to the answer.
II. P is not the heaviest.
CHAPTER
10 SYLLOGISM
These questions are completely based upon the logic. If

we solve these questions with the help of venn diagram A
then we can get the conclusion easily. B
Remember that these venn diagrams are just a medium
to solve such questions. Some possible diagrams of statements
A question can have lots of diagrams which means we
can draw several figures by a statement but we have to (I) A B (II) A B
draw several easiest figure first because it will enable
us to solve the question in minimum time. Like we have Statement
many routes to go home but we always take the shortest Some A are B
possible route.
Statement Figure
We have four types of statement in which two are
positive and two are negative.
A B
Type of Statement
(i) A ll Some possible diagrams of statements
+ ve
(ii) S o m e
(iii) N o A A
-v e (I) B (II)
(iv ) S o m e N o t B
How to Draw the figures :

Statement B A= B
All A are B (III) A (IV)
Statement Figure Statement
No A are B.
Statement Figure
between subject & predicate.
A B ## One conclusion must be positive and another must
be negative.
In case of “No” there will not any other ## Either condition will not be follow between ‘All’
possible diagrams. type statement and ‘No’ type statement.
Statement
## Either conclusions can easily be identified if we
Some A are not B. focus specially upon those objects which are same.
Statement Figure
## Keep this thing in mind that if the relation between
X 2 objects is not clear then we can not come to any
A B conclusion and in case the relation between 2 objects
is clear then we can directly come to the conclusion
Some possible diagrams of statements without any problem.
B ## Either case can be applied only in indirect relations
(I) A B (II)
A where the relations between subject and predicate
x is not determined.
(III)
A (IV) A X B How to conclude :
Note: Conclusion will follow if it is present in all The trend shows that basically there are two
diagrams of the statement (statement figure kinds of conclusions. One requires definite
as well as possible figure). case as a conclusion and another requires
Key Factors case of possibility.
## In any case you change its figure and such change Quick trick
should not influence statements. 1. Every statement +ve Conclusion
## We have to draw the figure of the statement and on -ve Not follow.
the basis of these statements we have to determine 2. Every statement -ve Conclusion +ve Not
which conclusion follows and which does not follow. follow.
3. +ve relation Conclusion “some” Follow
Condition for either case 4. Relation of “No” Conclusion -ve Follow.
## Same subject and predicate in two different 5. Relation not defined (neither direct nor indirect)
conclusion are required Every conclusion Not follow.
## Relation must not be clear (according to statement)
Cases of Either
Some A/B are B/A Some A/B are B/A All A are B
No B/A is A/B Some B/A are not A/B Some A are not B
Statement Some A are B All A are B Some A are Not B No A is B
Conclusion
Some A are B √ √ © X
Some B are A √ √ © X
All A are B © √ X X
All B are A © © © X
Some A are not B © X √ √
Some B are not A © © © √
No A is B X X © √
No B is A X X © √
√ means - definitely right
X means - definitely wrong
© means - can't say (Not Sure) - If any conclusion is right as well as wrong
Note :
(i) If any conclusion is definitely right then it will follow.
(ii) If any conclusion is definitely wrong then it will not follow.
(iii) If any conclusion is can't say © then it will not follow but if it is written as possibility then it
will follow.

Ex.1. Statement : Some A are B. 1. Some A are C (©)
Some B are C. 2. Some A can be C (√)
A B C 3. All A are C (©)

4. All A can be C (√)
Conclusions:
5. Some A are not C (©)
1. Some A are C (©)
6. Some A not being C is possibility (√)
2. Some A can be C (√) 7. No A is C (©)
3. Some A are not C (©) 8. No A being C is a possibility (√)
4. Some A not being C is possibility (√) 9. Some A are not B (√)
5. No A is C (©) 10. Some A not being B is a possibility (×)
6. No A being C is a possibility (√) 11. No C is B (√)
7. All A are C (©) 12. No C being B is a possibility (×)
8. All A being C is a possibility (√) Ex.4. Statement : Some A are not B.
9. Some B are A (√) Some B are not C.
10. Some B can be A (×)
11. Some B are not A (©) A B C

12. Some B not being A is a possibility (√) Conclusions:
Ex.2. Statement : All A are B. 1. Some A are B (©)
All B are C. 2. Some A can be B (√)
3. All A are B (×)
4. All A can be B (×)
A
5. All B are A (©)
B
C 6. All B can be A (√)

7. Some B are not A (©)
Conclusions:
8. Some B not being A is a possibility (√)
1. Some A are C (√)
9. Some A can be C (√)
2. Some A can be C (×)
3. Some B are A (√) 11. Some A are not C (©)
4. Some B can be A (×) 12. All A can be C (√)
5. Some C are B (√) Ex.5. Statement : Some A are B.
6. Some C can be B (×) All B are C.
7. All C are B (©)
8. All C can be B (√) A B
9. Some B are not A (©) C

10. Some B not being A is a possibility (√)
Conclusions:
11. No B is A (×)
1. Some A are C (√)
12. No B being A is a possibility (×)
2. Some A can be C (×)
Ex.3. Statement : No A is B.
3. No A is C (×)
No B is C.
4. No A being C is a possibility (×)
A B C 5. Some A are not C (©)

6. Some A not being C is a possibility (√)
Conclusions:
7. All A are C (©) 12. Some C not being B is a possibility(√)
8. All A can be C (√) Ex.8. Statement : All A are B.
9. Some B are C (√) No A is C.
10. Some C are B (√)
B B
11. Some B are not C (×)
A C
12. Some B not being C is a possibility (×)
Ex.6. Statement : Some A are B.

No B is C.
Conclusions:
A B C 1. Some B are C (©)
2. Some B can be C (√)
Conclusions: 3. Some B are not C (√)
1. Some A are C (©) 4. Some B not being C is a possibility (×)
2. Some A can be C (√) 5. All B are C (×)
3. Some A are not C (√) 6. All B can be C (×)
4. Some A not being C is a possibility (×) 7. No B is C (©)
5. No A is C (©) 8. No B being C is a possibility (√)
6. No A being C is a possibility (√) 9. All C can be B (√)
7. All A are C (×) 10. Some C are not B (©)
8. All A can be C (×) 11. All C are B (©)
9. Some B are not C (√) 12. Some A are not C (√)
10. Some B not being C is a possibility (×) Ex.9. Statement : All A are B.
11. All B can be C (×) Some A are not C.
12. All B can never be C (√)
Ex.7. Statement : Some A are B. B B
Some B are not C. A
C

A B C
Conclusions:

1. Some B are not C (√)
Conclusions:
2. Some B not being C is a possibility (×)
3. Some B are C (©)
2. Some A can be C (√)
4. Some B can be C (√)
3. All A are C (©)
5. All B are C (×)
4. All A can be C (√)
6. All B can be C (×)
5. Some A are not C (©)
7. No B is C (©)
6. Some A being C is a possibility (√)
8. No B being C is a possibility (√)
7. No A is C (©)
9. All A are C (×)
8. No A being C is a possibility (√)
10. All A can be C (×)
9. All B are C (×)
11. Some C are not A (©)
10. All B can be C (×)
12. Some C not being A is a possibility (√)
11. Some C are not B (©)

Ex.10. Statement : No A is B. Ex.12. Statement : All A are B.
Some B are not C. No B is C.
Some C are not D.
B
A B C
A C D
Conclusions:

Conclusions:
2. Some A can be C (√) 1. Some A are D (©)
3. Some A are not C (©) 2. Some A can be D (√)
4. Some A not being C is a possibility (√) 3. All A are D (©)
5. All A are C (©) 4. All A can be D (√)
6. All A can be C (√) 5. Some B not being D is a possibility (√)
7. No A is C (©) 6. Some B are not D (©)
8. No A being C is a possibility (√) 7. Some A can be C (×)
8. Some A are not C (√)
9. Some A are not B (√)
9. All A are C (×)
10. All C can be B (√)
10. All A can be C (×)
11. All B can be C (×) 11. All C can be D (×)
12. Some C can together be B aswell as A (×) 12. All D can be C (√)
Ex.11. Statement : Some A are B. Ex.13. Statement : Some A are not B.
All B are C. Some B are C.
No C is D. All C are D.
C
A B C D
A B D

Conclusions:
Conclusions: 1. All B are D (©)
1. Some A are C (√) 2. All B can be D (√)
2. Some A can be C (×) 3. Some A are C (©)
3. Some A are not C (©) 4. Some A can be C (√)
4. Some A not being C is a possibility (√) 5. All A are C (©)
5. All A are C (©) 6. All A can be C (√)
6. All A can be C (√) 7. Some A are not C (©)
7. No A is C (×) 8. Some A not being C is a possibility (√)
8. No A being C is a possibility (×) 9. Some B are not C (©)
9. All B can be D (×) 10. Some B not being C is a possibility (√)
10. All B can never be D (√) 11. Some D are not C (©)
11. All D can be A (√) 12. Some D not being C is a possibility (√)
12. Some D can be A (√)

CHAPTER
MACHINE
11
INPUT
Ex.1. If step II of an input is ‘go su but he for game
Machine Input
free’, what would be the step VI ?
In this chapter you are asked to identify the process done
(1) go for hut free he game su
by a machine. These process are performed repeatedly
(2) for free go game su he but
as per a pre-fixed pattern and subsequently we have
(3) free ge for but game su he
different output in different steps. Let's take a simple
(4) he go su but game free for
example to understand it.
(5) None of these
Computer would be the best example, in computer when
Sol.(3)
we give any input, then it processes it and finally we
Step-II : go su but he for game free
get output. Similarly in Machine input, there is input,
5 3 1 2 7 4 6
then there are certain steps to simplify it and final step
6 5 7 1 4 3 2
is termed as 'output'.
Step VI : free go for but game su he
There are two types of question in this chapter.
Ex.2. If step IV of an input is ‘blue navy kit lime se
1. Shifting
get out’, which of the following would defi-
2. Arrangement
nitely be the input ?
Shifting Type: In shifting question are based on a
(1) navy get lime out kit se blue
particular pattern on interchanging position of elements.
(2) lime navy get kit se blue out
And the machine doesn't stop here but goes on performing
(3) lime blue navy kit get out se
its operation.
(4) kit blue navy se get out lime
In this type of question, we usually shift the given words/
(5) None of these
numbers, of the given input as per a fixed pattern.
Sol.(1)
EXAMPLES:
Step IV: blue navy kit lime se get out
Ex.1-3. Study the following information to answer
7 1 5 3 6 2 4
the given questions.
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
A word rearrangement machine rearranges the
Input : navy get lime out kit se blue
given an input line of words with the following
Ex.3. Input: but calm free are so not eat
particular rule in each step. The following
Which of the the following be the Illrd step for
is an illustration of an input and the steps or
this input ?
rearrangement.
(1) so free but calm eat are not
Input : over you pat me crow easy to
(2) but calm are free not so eat
Step I : pat over you crow easy to me
(3) are but calm free not eat so
Step II : crow pat over you to me easy
(4) but so free eat are not calm
Step III : over crow pat to me easy you
(5) None of these
Step IV : to over crow pat easy you me
Sol.(4)
and so on, ......
Input : but calm free are so not eat
As per the rule followed in the above steps, find
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
out in the given questions the appropriate step
For the sake of convenience, assign numbers
for the given point.
to each word of the input.
Input : 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Step III : 1 5 3 7 4 6 2
Step I : 3 1 2 5 6 7 4
but so free eat are not calm
Step II : 5 3 1 2 7 4 6
Ex.4-6. A word arrangement machine when rearrange
Step III : 1 5 3 7 4 6 2
a particular input it follows a particular rule.
Step IV : 7 1 5 3 6 2 4
The following is illustration of the input and
Step V : 5 7 1 6 2 4 3
the steps of arrangement
Step VI : 6 5 7 1 4 3 2
Input : sui me ato fe zen u no.
Step VII :7 6 5 4 3 2 1
Step I : sui ato zen no me fe u
Step VIII:4 7 6 5 2 1 3
Stop II : u fe me no zen ato sui StepIV: the world best you in are this
Step III : u me zen sui fe no ato Arranagement Type: In this type of questions, the
Step IV : ato no fe sui zon me u words or the numbers are arranged as per a fixed pattern.
Step V : ato fe zen u no sui me. This pattern can be an alphabetical order in case of
and so on ....... words, it can be an increasing or decreasing order in
Input : sui me ato fe zen u no case of numbers.
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 How to identify whether the given input is of shifting
Step I : 1 3 5 7 2 4 6 or arrangement?
Step II : 6 4 2 7 5 3 1 The basic difference between them are that the shifting
Step III : 6 2 5 1 4 7 3 goes on endlessly and at last it is written and so on and
Step IV : 3 7 4 1 5 2 6 in arrangement arranging ends as soon as the order
Step V : 3 4 5 6 7 1 2 intended is achieved I.e., arrangement type of questions
Step VI : 2 1 7 6 5 4 3 has last step.
Step VII : 2 7 5 3 1 6 4 Arrangement is of two types.
Step VIII : 4 6 1 3 5 7 2 1. Single - side - arrangement.
Step IX : 4 1 5 2 6 3 7 2. Double - side - arrangement.
Step X : 7 3 6 2 5 1 4 (a) Single - side - arrangement.
Step XI : 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 Ex.7. Input - Ram fell 26 35 In 62 23 well.
Xtep XII : 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 Step I - 62 Ram fell 26 35 In 23 well.
Ex.4. If input is “Say not you are only wise yet” Step II - 62 fell Ram 26 35 In 23 well.
then which Step would read as ”are Say only Step III - 62 fell 35 Ram 26 In 23 well.
not wise you yet’ ? Step IV- 62 fell 35 In Ram 26 23 well.
(1) III (2) XI Step V - 62 fell 35 In 26 Ram 23 well.
(3) IX (4) VII Step Vth is the final step of the Input .
(5) None of these As per the above arrangement solve the
Sol.(3) following questions carefully.
Input : say not you are only wise yet Input - Orange Banana 35 32 61 Axe Zoo18
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 How many steps are required to complete the
Step IX : are say only not wise you yet above arrangement ?
4 1 5 2 6 3 7 (1) V (2) VI
Ex.5. If input is “may son to cry if not hell” then (3) VII (4) VIII
which step will be “hell not if cry to son may” (5) None of these
? Sol.(2) VI
(1) X If we focus upon the last step of arrangement
(2) XII we find that numbers and words are arranged
(3) XI at alternate places. Numbers are arranged in
(4) Cannot determined descending order and words are arranged in
(5) None of these alphabetical order where number starts first as
Sol.(3) in step Ist and. when we focus on each step we
Input : may son to cry if not hell find that each element is arrange step by step.
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 Input - Orange Banana 35 32 61 Axe Zoo18
Step XI : hell not if cry to son may Step I- 61 Orange Banana 35 32 Axe Zoo18
7 6 5 4 3 2 1 Step II- 61 Axe Orange Banana 35 32 Zoo 18
Ex.6. If input is “You are the best in this world”, Step III- 61 Axe 35 Orange Banana 32 Zoo18
then Step IV is - Step IV- 61 Axe 35 Banana Orange 32 Zoo18
(1) the world best You in this are. Step IV - 61 Axe 35 Banana 32 Orange Zoo18
(2) the world best You in are this Step VI - 61 Axe 35 Banana 32 Orange 18 Zoo
(3) world the best in You are this Finally we focus that step VI is the last step of
(4) You are the best in this world. above arrangement. Remember is step No. IV
(5) None of these we found that the word Orrange arrange itself.
Sol.(2) In above cases we found that input
Input : you are the best in this world are arranged from the left side only.
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 Now a-days, the Exams are also giving
3 7 4 1 5 2 6 arrangements from both the sides. Let us try it.

(b) Double - side - arrangement. (a) Regarding Shifting :
From the above examples we have seen the 1. In questions on shifting "can't be determined" is
type of arrangement now let's see the type almost never the correct answer.
of logic as it can be alphabetical, numerical, 2. After some practice you should develop the
alpha-numerical etc. Let's understand it with ability to solve questions without needing a pen.
the below diagram. 3. Before anything else, make sure that the input
- output question is about shifting.
4. Be confident for your approach.
(b) Regarding Arrangement:
- based on vowel 1. In questions on arrangement when any step is
given and input is asked answer will be "cant
- based on consonant
be determined".
- based on increasing number
2. To identify the pattern in question prefer the
- based on decreasing number
last step.
- based on number of letters in given word
3. In this type of question when words all of
- based on odd number
sudden get transformed in number then the
- based on even number
numbers most of the time comes from the place
- based on alphabetical order
value of first or last letter of the word.
- based on reverse alphabetical order
4. In arrangement problems, the contents of an
- based on square of number
earlier step can never be determined with
- based on cube of number
certainly.
Some Tricks
CHAPTER
12 InEQuality
As a topic inequality is all about comparison between Types of Questions asked in various exams :-
two or more than two variables. Type-I→ Simple Inequality (Statement and Conclusion)
In this topic we have to compare between variables and Type-II→ Conditional (Statement Condition Based)
we have to conclude them. For comparison basically we Type-III→ Coded Inequality (Coded Statement and
use some symbols. Coded conclusion based).
Some Basic Symbols of Inequality Type -I → S imple Inequality Question : In such
> Greater→ A > B ⇒ A is greater than B. questions one or more than one statements will be given
< Less→ A , < and = these inequality symbols are difinite conclusion is right (follow).
symbols. Basics of Inequality :
Some Other Important Symbols > and < are single (definite) inequality symbols.
> either greater than or equal to→ A > B means A is > and < are double (possible) inequality symbols.
either greater than or equal to B. = is neither single nor double inequality symbols
< either less than or equal → A , < these symbols are possible symbols. concept is totally different so we have to study
separately.
Indirect Representation of Symbols
How to Conclude :-
⇒( ), A B means → A > B
Statement Possibility Conclusion
⇒( ), A B means → A B > C No possibility A>C
⇒( ), A B means → A > B
of statement
⇒( ), A B means → A B > C A>B>C →A>C From both or
⇒( ), A B means → A>B or AC→A > C getting A > C so Ex.2. Conclusions:
conclusion will be I. T < Q (True)
A > C II. T < Q (False)
A > B > C A>B>C→A > C Sol.(1) Only conclusion I is true because (>) sign exists
From both possibilities between Q to T.
We are getting Ex.3. Conclusions:
or A > C so conclusion I. P > T (50%)
A>B=C → A>C will be A > C II. P = T (50%)
Sol.(3) Either I or II
A > B > C A>B>C→A>C From first three
Note : In the above statement of inequality (>)
or possibilities we are
means either greater or equals to so we can't
getting A > C but say exact relation between P and Q in the above
A=B>C→ A>C from last one we are statement. Hence only complementry pair will
or getting A=C. exist between them.
A>B=C→ A>C So combination of Ex.4. Conclusions:
or these two A>C will I. T > X (False)
A=B=C→ A=C be conclusion. II. T > W (True)
How to Conclude : Sol.(2) I. In the above statement the relation between
Step-1. Check symbols are in same order or not. T and X is not defined so we can't say exact
relation because of opposite sign. Hence I is
Step-2. If symbols are in same order then check there false.
is only single inequality symbols between those
II. Only II is true
two elements we are comparing.
Ex.5. Conclusions:
(a) (i) If yes, then conclusion will have single
I. U > X (Can't say)
inequality symbol between them in order to
II. U < X (Can't say)
make conclusion definitely true (follow)
Sol.(3) Either I or II
(ii) If No, then there will have double inequality
Both conclusions I or II could be in either case.
symbol between in order to make conclusion
definitely true. (follow) Note : These two are complimentary pair of
each other will be either or in between them
(iii) If neither single nor double sign is present because there is three possibilities >, <, =
between them and only "equals to" is present between U and X in the above statement.
then the conslusion also must have "=" sign to
make it definitely true. Type-II
(b) If symbols are not in same order in the statement Ex.6-8. In this type question all symbols of inequality
then entities which are being compared will coded in symbol form.
always give "No relation" because of which only P$Q means P is greater than or equal to Q.
conclusion related to them will give can't say P@Q means P is less than or equal to Q.
(does not follow) as asnwer. P©Q means P is equal to Q.
P*Q means P is greater than Q.
TYPE-I
P#Q means P is less than Q.
Ex.1-8. In each of the following questions assuming the
Ex.6. Statement : A $ B, B * C, C © D
given statements to be true, find which of the
two conclusion I and II given below them is/ Conclusions : I. A * D II. B $ D
are definnitely true and give your answer- Sol.(1) Decode the symbols of statement and
(1) If only conclusion I is true. conclusion.
(2) If only conclusion II is true. Statement : A > B; B > C, C = D
(3) If either conclusion I or II is true. Conclusions :
(4) If neither conclusion I nor II is true. I. A > D (True)
(5) If both conclusions I and II are true. II. B > D (False)
Ex.1-5. Statement : Only I is true.
P>Q>R=S>T>U>V=W<X Ex.7. Statement : M @ N, O * N, P $ O
Ex.1. Conclusions : Conclusions : I. M @ P II. O $ M
I. P > U → (False) II. P > U → (True) Sol.(4) Decode symbols of statement as wellas
Sol.(2) (between P and U there is '>' symbol. So conclusion.
conclusion should have '>' in it) M < N, O > N, P > O
Arrange the statement in sequence. (?) in the given statement if P>U and R>V is
M<N<OQ>R=S?T>U>V
I. M (2) <
II. O > M (False)
Neither I nor II follows. (3) = (4) Either (1) or (3)
Ex.8. Statement : I @ J © K, N * M # L © K (5) None of these
Conclusions : I. I * N II. I @ N
Sol.(4)
Sol.(3) Decode the statement as well as conclusion then P >Q >R = S ?T >U > V
rearrange statements in sequence.
I < J = K, N > M < L = K In these kind of questions we have to consider
↓ conditions given in the statement as conclusion
I < J = K = L > M < N and in order to make them correct one has to
Conclusions : fill the blank with inequality symbols.
I. I > N (Can't say) So possibility for P > U → >, =
II. I < N (Can't say) but for
Either I or II follows. R > V possibility are → >, =, >
Type -III but commonly >, = make both of the conditions
Ex.9. What will come in the place of question mark are right so answer will be > or =
CHAPTER
DECISION MAKING
13
Q.1-10. Study the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow :
A Research Institute is recruiting a librarian to digitise its information resources among other duties.
Candidates must possess the following criteria. The candidate must ——
(I) be not less than 35 years and not exceed 40 years as on 01.11.2009.
(II) have a Bachelor’s Degree in Library and Information Science with 65 percent marks.
(III) have a Ph.D. in Library Science.
(IV) have post qualification experience of at least 4 year in a University Library.
However if the candidate fulfil the above mentioned criteria except -
(A) at (II) above but the candidate has a UGC NET certification with all the other above criteria fulfilled
he/she may be referred to the Dean.
(B) at (IV) above but all the eligibility criteria are met and the candidate has at least one year experience
in a research institute he/she may be offered contractual appointment for a year.
Based on the above criteria study carefully whether the following candidates are eligible for the
recruitment process and mark your answer as follows. You are not to assume anything other than the
information provided in each question. All cases are given to you as on 1.11.2009. Mark answer
(1) If he/she is to be shortlisted.
(2) If he/she is not to be shortlisted.
(3) If he/she should be referred to the Dean.
(4) If he/she may be offered contractual appointment if required.
(5) If the data provided is inadequate to take a decision.
Q.1. Anil Rath has a doctorate in Library Science from Karnataka University in 2003. Born on July 21,1979,
he graduated in Library and Information Science from Karnataka University where he was Assistant
Librarian for four years since 2005.
Q.2. Dr. Samir Bali has a Ph.D. in Library Science and has been with the Institute of Fundamental Research as
Assistant Librarian since October 2008. He graduated with a degree in Library and Information Science
in 1994 at the age of 22. He obtained 70 percent in his graduation.

Q.3. Vaishali Shetty has been a librarian at STS University since 2007 when she qualified in the UGC NET
examination. She has a degree in Library and Information Science with 60 percent. Her first job was as
junior librarian at TRP Institute of Development Research from October 2000 to December 2001.
Q.4. Vivek Jha has a Ph.D. in Library and Information Science. He graduated in Library and Information
Science in 1992 with 65 percent. He was born on 1.10.1974. Since July 2005, he has been working as
Deputy Librarian at a deemed University.
Q.5. A graduate in Library Science with 69 percent, Dr. M. Puri has been working at Ranchi University for 4
years as Deputy Librarian. She earned her doctorate while working for the Labour Research Institute for
5 years as Assistant Librarian. She is 38 years old as on the required date.
Q.6. Megha Vaidya has a graduate degree in Library Science from Punjab University where she has been
a librarian for the past 5 years. In 2002 she obtained her UGC NET qualification at the age of 29. She
obtained 72 percent in graduation.
Q.7. Anup Gupta is obtaining his Ph.D. from YCM University where he has been Junior Librarian since 2004.
He qualified in the UGC NET exam in June 2000. He has a degree in Library and Information Science
with 62 percent. His date of birth is 17.10.1973.
Q.8. Kirti Shukla obtained her doctorate and Bachelor’s degree from Patna University. She obtained 63
percent in graduation. She obtained her UGC NET qualification in 1998 when she was 26.
Q.9. Prakash Sinha has been a librarian for a government institution for three years. Prior to this he was a
University Librarian for 7 years after completing his Ph.D. in Library Science. He graduated in 1991
with 68 percent in Library Science. He is exactly 40 years of age on the specified date.
Q.10. Rohan Sachdev obtained his UGC NET qualification after his graduation in 1998 when he began
working. He has been Assistant Librarian for the past two years with a research institute. He obtained 65
percent in his graduation in Library Science. He earned his Ph.D. in Library Science in 2007. His date of
birth is 22.10.1974.
Q.11-13. Following are the conditions for selecting a faculty in the department of Economics for a university. The
candidate must -
(A) be a Post graduate in Economic with 60% marks.
(B) have Ph.D. degree.
(C) have teaching experience of at least 3 years.
(D) not be more than 35 years as on 1.1.2002
(E) have fluency in English and Hindi languages.
(F) have published at least five papers.
(G) In the case of a candidate not fulfilling the condition at (A) above but having P.G. degree with more
than 55% marks, the matter will be referred to the Registrar of the University.
(H) In the case of a candidate working in the same department for the last 5 years as Research Assistant,
the condition at (B) above may be waived but the case will have to be referred to the Chairman-
Academic Council, for comments.
(I) In the case of a candidate not fulfilling only the condition at (C) above the matter will be referred to
the Vice Chancellor.
(J) Incomplete application of the candidate will be rejected and he will not be selected even if he satisfies
all the other conditions.
Now make decision for each of the following cases on the basis of the information provided above—
Mark answer -
(1) If the candidate is not to be selected.
(2) If the candidate is to be selected.
(3) If the case is to be referred to the Chairman Academic Council.
(4) If the case is to be referred to the Registrar.
(5) If the case is to be referred to the Vice-Chancellor.
Q.11. Jayant is a Post graduate with 63% marks in Economic. He was 31 years old on 1-1-1999. He has 4 years
teaching experience and published 7 papers. He is fluent in Hindi and English.
Q.12. Shalini is a Post graduate with 64% marks in Economics and has obtained Ph. D. degree, her date of
birth is 1-6-1968. She is fluent in Hindi and English and published 6 papers. She has one year teaching
experience.
Q.13. Mahesh is a Post graduate with 70% marks in Economics and obtained Ph.D. degree. He was 30 years
old as on 1-11-2001. He has got 4 years teaching experience and is fluent in Hindi and English.
Q.14-15.Read the following information to answer the given questions.
Following are the conditions for offering dealership of Company XYZ Ltd. a consumer product company
for city 'M'. The candidate must-
(i) be a graduate with Science with 60% and above marks or more than 45% marks in case of other
disciplines.
(ii) not be more than 30 years as on 30th June 1998.
(iii) have at least 5 years of experience of marketing or sales of consumer products
(iv) deposit Rs 50,000/- in one installment.
(v) be a resident of city 'M' for minimum 8 years
(vi) produce character certificate from a gazetted officer.
However, in the case of candidate who fulfils all other except
(A) (iii) above but has degree or diploma in marketing or sales and 3 years of experience of marketing
or sales consumer products be referred to Deputy General Manager (D.G.M.)
(B) (iv) above but can pay in maximum 5 installments be referred to Assistant General Manager (A.G.M.)
(C) (v) above, but is resident of city 'M' for at least 5 years be referred to Joint General Manager (J.G.M.)
(D) (vi) above, but member of professional bodies in marketing or sales be referred to Additional General
Manager (Ad. G.M.)
Based on these criteria information provided below, make a decision in each case. You are not to assume
anything. If the data given is not adequate to take a decision. Mark your answer as 'data inadequate'. These
cases are given to you as on 1st July 1998.
Q.14. Samata Makhijia lives in city 'M' since her birth and celebrated her 18th birthday in 1988. She is
brilliant student and after graduating in Science with 72% marks, she did M.B.A. in Marketing
with 64% marks. She has been working as Assistant Marketing Manager for consumer products
for last 6 years. She can pay Rs. 50,000/- in one instalment. She is executive committee member
of city unit of professional body of marketing managers.
(1) Refer to Ad. G.M. (2) Eligible selected (3) Not eligible -
rejected
(4) Data inadequate (5) Refer to J.G.M.
Q.15. Rahul Upasani age 28 years, born and brought up in city 'M' is son of a businessman, having completed
his graduation in Arts in 1990 and then. Diploma in Marketing Management with 64% marks. He has
produced character certificate from gazetted officer. He has 4 years’ experience in marketing consumer
products and can pay the deposit in one instalment.
(1) Not eligible - rejected (2) Eligible - selected (3) Data inadequate
(4) Refer to D.G.M. (5) Refer to J.G.M.
Explanation
Q.1-10. I. (A)II III (B) IV Q.11-13.
Q.1.(5) – A B C D E F
Q.2.(4) ( ) Jayant √ − √ √ √ √
Shalini √ √ Ι √ √ √
Q.3.(5) – ( ) – ( )
Mahesh √ √ √ √ √ −
Q.4.(1)
Q.11.(1) Q.12.(5) Q.13.(1)
Q.5.(1)
Q.14-15 1 2 3 4 5 6
Q.6.(5) ( ) –
Q.14.(1) ( )
Q.7.(3) ( ) Q.15.(3) – ( )
Q.8.(5) ( ) –
Q.9.(1)
Q.10.(4) ( )

CHAPTER
STATEMENT AND
14
COURSE OF ACTION
A course of Action is a step or administrative decision A large number of people in ward X of the city
to be taken up for improvement or follow-up for further are diagnosed to be suffering from malaria.
action in regard to the problem, policy etc. on the basis Courses of Action:
of the information given in the statement.
I. The city municipal authority should take
Types of Questions immediate steps to carry out extensive
1. Problem and solution based Question: fumigation in ward X.
When the presented situation talks of a II. The people in the area should be advised to
problem and the suggested course of action take steps to avoid mosquito bites.
talk of a solution.
Sol.(5) As both the action are for the prevention and
The solution or course of action is practically elimination of mosquitoes. The action will reduce
possible. the problem.
A suggested course of actions can be said to Ex.2. Statement:
solve/reduce/minimize, the problem
On an average, about twenty people are
2. Fact and improvement based: When the run over by trains and die every day while
presented situations talks of a simple fact crossing the railway tracks through the level
(not a problem, just a situation) and the crossing.
suggested courses of action suggest ways of
Courses of Action:
improvement.
I. The railway authorities should be instructed
Note: A course of action if not possible in practical life
to close all the level crossings.
is not advisable or possible
II. Those who are found crossing the tracks,
• Water fall model to solve the types of questions.
when the gates are closed, should be fined
Think & Analyse The Problem heavily.
Sol.(2) Accidents can be prevented by barring people
from the crossing track. So, this action
suggests the improvement.
Find The Logical Positive Solution
Ex.3. Statement:
In spite of the principal’s repeated warnings, a
child was caught exploding crackers secretly in
Problem Minimized or Resolved the school.
Ex.1-5. In each of the following questions a statement Courses of Action:
is given followed by two Courses of Action. I. All the crackers should be taken away from
A Course of Action is taken for improvement, the child and he should be threatened not to
follow up etc. Read the statement carefully and do it again.
give answer -
II. The child should be severely punished for
(1) Only I follows his wrong act.
(2) Only II follows Sol.(2) Since the act has been repeated despite various
(3) Either I or II follows warnings, so course of action I would only be
(4) Neither I nor II follows another warning and would not help. Severe
punishment to set example for him and others
(5) Both I and II follow is inevitable. Thus, Course of action II shall
Ex.1. Statement: follow.
Ex.4. Statement: Ex.5. Statement:
The finance minister submits his resignation There has been a significant drop in the water
a month before the new budget is to be level of all the lakes supplying water to the
presented in the parliament. city.
Courses of Action: Courses of Action:
I. The resignation should be accepted and I. The water supply authority should impose a
another person should be appointed as the partial cut in supply to tackle the situation.
Finance Minister. II. The government should appeal to all the
II. The resignation should not be accepted. residents through mass media for minimal
Sol.(2) Clearly, an already working Finance Minister use of water.
shall know better all the plans and resources Sol.(5) The situation can be tackled by periodic cuts
of the government and he alone can present a in supply, and urging people to conserve
suitable budget so, course of action II follows. water. So, both course of Action follows.
CHAPTER
Statement AND
15
Assumption
“Assumption” means something which have been from the given facts. You have to consider
assumed, supposed or something taken for granted. the Statement and the following assumptions/
To deal with questions of assumption we need to think inferences and decide which of those is/are
about what has thought/happened before the statement implicit in the Statement.
is been said or done. (1) If only I is implicit.
Assumption V/S Implication (2) If only II is implicit.
An “Implication” allows us to think or draw conclusion (3) If either I or II is implicit.
even though it has not been specifically stated while (4) If neither I nor II is implicit.
‘Assumption’ is somthing that is accepted as true, or
(5) If both I and II are implicit.
certain to happen.
Ex.1. Statement: An advertisement in the
C onn ect newspaper- ‘Learn a foreign language course
M ust be
W ith to get a high paying job’.
Po sitive
Statem e nt Assumptions:
I. Those who learn foreign language get highly
paid jobs.
A ssu m p tio n II. Only a foreign language can get someone
a high paying job.
Sol.(1) As ‘foreign language’ directly connects to
Th ink ‘high pay’ therefore.
Log ically P resupposing Assumption I is implicit and in assumption II
‘only’ is written which makes the sense negative.
Ex.2. Statement: The govt. has recently advised
Ex.1-2. In each question below is given a Statement all the public sector banks to reduce rate of
followed by two assumptions/inferences interest on home loans upto Rs. 25 lakhs.
numbered I and II. An assumption is something
supposed or taken for granted and an inference Assumptions:
is something which can be directly inferred I. The public sector banks may reduce the
interest on all home loans upto Rs. 25 lakhs. (1) People may “Ignore the appeal and continue
II. People may take undue advantage of the using water as per their consideration.”
govt.’s decision. (2) Govt. may be able to tap those who do not
Sol.(1) As “govt. advised PSU to reduce rate of respond to the appeal.
interest” this could only be said if we assume (3) Govt. may be able to put in place alternate
that PSU Banks will seek to government’s source of water in the event of a crisis
advice while in assumption II this will be done situation.
after the accomplishment of the statement. (4) Large number of people may positively
Hence, assumption (I) is implicit. respond to the govt.’s appeal and help tide
Ex.3. Read the passage carefully and answer the over the crisis.
question given below. (5) Only poor are going to suffer from this
The govt. has appealed to all citizens to use shortage of water supply.
potable water judiciously as there is an acute Sol.(4) Since, Govt. is forecasting the scarcity of
shortage in supply. Excessive use may lead to water in future and appealing to all citizens.
huge scarcity in future months. ‘Appealing’ word shows request from the
Which of the following assumptions is people and a belief that people will take it
implicit in the above statement? in a positive way. Hence, Assumption (4) is
implicit.
CHAPTER
CAUSE and
16
EFFECT
“Cause-Effect” relationship is a relationship in which 1. The fact in the first statement is the effect of that
one event (the cause) makes another event happen (the mentioned in the second statement ie, the second
effect). one cause can have several effects. statement expresses the cause that leads to the
When one event causes another to happen. condition mentioned in the first.
2. The contents of the first statement from the
The “cause” is “why” it happens.
direct cause of the result discussed in the second
the ‘’effect” is “what” happens. statement.
Keywords for cause and effect. 3. Both the statements express generalised results
that may not be backup by any specific cause but
K eyw ords may influence certain other factors.
4. Both the statements are independent and may
be explained as effects of different independent
causes.
5. The effects in both the given statements may be
caused by a third unmentioned event which may
CAUSE AND EFFECT be called the common cause of the given effects.
Ex.1-5. In each question given below two statement
(A) and (B). These statements may be either
independent cause or may be effects of independent
causes or a common cause. One of these statements
may be the effect of the other statement.
Read, both the statements and decide which of
the following answer choice correctly depicts the
relationship between these two statements.
Mark answer (1) If event (A) is the cause and event
Five Possibilities for Cause and Effect
(B) is its effect.
Mark answer (2) If event (B) is the cause and event (2) A large number of people have
(A) is its effect. developed spine related injuries after
Mark answer (3) If both the event (A) and (B) are regularly commuting long distances by
independent cause. road within the city.
(3) The municipal corporation has been
Mark answer (4) If both the event (A) and (B) are
careful in choosing the contractors for
effect of independent causes.
repairing roads in the past.
Mark answer (5) If both the event (A) and (B) are
(4) People always complain about potholed
effects of some common causes.
roads during the monsoon months.
Ex.1. (A) The average day temperature of the city
(5) None of these
has increased by about 2 degrees in the
current year over the average of past ten Sol.(2) As the cause states that “condition of the roads has
years. already deteriorated” hence from the phrases we
can select the valid effect.
(B) More people living in rural areas of the
state have started migrating to the urban (1) ___ “had repaired” _____ X
areas in comparison with the earlier (2) ___ “spine injuries occured” __ √
year. (3) ___ “Careful in the past” _____ X
Sol.(4) As clearly we can see there is no connection (4) ___ “People complain” _____ X
between the two statements. Hence, both are
Ex.5. It has been reported in recent years that a very
effects of independent cause .
large number of seats in the engineering colleges
Ex.2. (A) Most of the shopkeepers in the locality in the country remain vacant at the end of the
closed their shops for the second admission session.
continuous day.
Which of the following may be the probable
(B) Two groups of people living in the effect of the above cause?
locality have been fighting with each (1) There has been a considerable decrease
other with bricks and stones forcing in hiring of engineering graduates due to
people to stay indoors. economic slowdown in the recent years.
Sol.(2) As from statement (A) shopkeepers closed (2) Students have always preferred to
their shop. The reason of “why” is explained complete graduation in three years time
in statement (B). Hence, (B) is the cause and instead of four years for engineering.
(A) is the effect.
(3) The govt. has recently decided to provide
Ex.3. (A) Majority of the first year students of the post qualification professional training to
engineering college failed in Mathematics all engineering graduates at its own cost.
in the semester examination.
(4) There has always been a very poor
(B) The college authority terminated,the success rate among the engineering
contract of the professor who taught students.
mathematics to the first year students.
(5) None of these
Sol.(1) As from statement (A) and (B) it is clearly
Sol.(3) As the effect states “vacant seats in engineering
stated that because of failure of students in
college” Hence, for probable cause we can
maths subject college authority terminated the
select the cause.
contract of professor.
(1) “economic slowdown” _____ X
Ex.4. The condition of the roads in the city has
deteriorated considerably during the first two (2) “Three years time instead of four years”
months of monsoon and most of the roads _____ X
have developed big pot holes. (3) “Govt. providing professional training”
Which of the following can be a possible _____ √
effect of the above cause ?
(4) “Poor Success Rate” _____ X
(1) The municipal corporation had repaired
all the roads in the city before onset of
monsoon with good quality material.
CHAPTER
Statement
17
and argument
An Argument is designed to either support or defend 3. Superfluous : If any argument is next to
a statement argument generates only after the accom- impossible then it is taken as superfluous.
plishment of the statement. In making decisions about important questions,
Statement it is desirable to be able to distinguish between
Argument
‘strong’ arguments and ‘weak’ arguments.
‘Strong’ arguments are those which are both
Strong Weak important and directly related to the question.
Simple Superfluous
‘Weak’ arguments are those which are of minor
Universal Analyzed Experienced Ambiguous
Information importance and also may not be directly related
to the question or may be related to a trivial
Cases of Strong Argument
aspect of the question.
1. uNIVERSAL tRUTH: If any argument is Ex.1-5. Each question below is followed by three
universally accepted that cannot be denied and arguments numbered (I), (II) and (III). You
it has link with the statement then it will be a have to decide which of the arguments
universal truth. is a ‘strong’argument and which is a
EXAMPLE : Light travels faster than sound. ‘weak’argument.
The argument is universal and it will be generally (1) Only I and II are strong.
accepted. (2) Only II is strong.
2. Analyzed Truth : The decision taken by (3) Only II and III are strong.
our government, Supreme Court, constitutional (4) All I, II and III are strong.
body, United Nations or any Supreme authority (5) None of these
is always welcomed and is deemed as an Ex.1. Statement : Should the govt. roll back all the
analyzed truth. subsidies on the petrol, diesel and cooking gas?
EXAMPLE : “Aadhar Card is mandatory for Arguments :
LPG Connection” - said by government I. Yes, this will largely help the oil compa-
3. Experience Based : If any argument is nies to sell their products at competitive
said on the basis of experience then it will be price.
accepted. II. No, the general public cannot afford the
EXAMPLE : All bank branches in rural areas original prices of these products.
should be computerized. III. Yes, govt. needs to stop subsidizing these
Cases of Weak Argument products and channelise the money for
developmental projects.
1. Ambiguous : The argument which creates
Sol.(1) First and second arguments are strong because
doubt or confusion is taken as ambiguous
govt. provides subsidies on that products which
argument.
real cost is high and the products which are
EXAMPLE : One should eat, drink freely important for daily routine. Hence, the original
because tomorrow one has to die. cost will be more costly for the public due to
2. Simple information : If any argument the roll back of subsidies on that products and
shows that the sentence is immitating/copying companies will start selling the products at
anything then it can not be accepted. different prices according to their quality.
EXAMPLE : Sachin should take retirement from In the other statement nothing is given about
cricket because most of the cricketers at his age development planning.
prefer to retire. Ex.2. Statement: Should the govt. takeover all the
So, it will be a weak argument because it shows small scale industries and provide them special
the immitation/copy of another sports persons. assistance?

Arguments: (2) With the ever increasing cost of basic
I. Yes, this should be done if the govt. wants materials such as cement and steel, the
to control the unemployment. profit of the builders has gone down by
II. No, govt. does not have expertise to handle 48% this year.
such industries. (3) The builders have earned huge profit in
III. Yes, In this way employment and more a governmental scheme for building low
production can be generated. cost housing societies.
Sol.(5) (4) In a report published by a national daily,
the margin of profit earned by a builder per
Ex.3. Statement : Should the institutes of higher
square foot is as much as eighty percent of
learnings in India like IlTs and IIMs be made
its cost price.
totally free from govt. control ?
(5) The builders have to necessarily abide
Arguments :
by the decrease of the government which
I. Yes, such institutes in the developed countries controls the prices of the real estate.
are run by non-govt agencies.
Sol.(2) As builders refuses to bring down the prices
II. No, govt. needs to regulate functioning of and we need to find the argument that supports
these institutes for national interest. (strengthen) this author statement. Prices are
III. No, these institutes are not capable to take directly related to the prices of building material
policy decisions for smooth functioning. hence, (2) will strengthen the argument given
Sol.(2) by the builders.
Ex.4. Statement : Should the parliament elections in Ex.6. The ministry of sports has been advised by
India be held on the gap of two years throughout a committee to take the highest award in the
the country? field of sports back from two players who were
Arguments : allegedly involved in match fixing.
I. Yes, this is the only way to control the Which of the following statements would
corruption. weaken the argument put forward by the
II. Yes, this will provide a proper ruling committee to the sports ministry ?
system in the country. (1) A good conduct in the past and a lack of
III. No, some other countries hold elections evidence against the players make the case
after two years. against them very weak.
Sol.(5) In argument I, the “ only” word is used, so the (2) The ministry of sports has never declined the
argument I is weak because it is not the only recommendations made by the committee
way to control the corruption. earlier.
Present time, the parliament elections in India (3) Taking the award back from the players
held on the gap of five years. So we cannot sure would set a good example to other players
to give proper ruling system to the country in for avoiding such actions in the future.
two years. Hence, argument II is weak. (4) There have been past cases where the
Argument III is also weak because there is award had to be taken back from the
comparison from the other countries and we players owing to “some misconduct later
can’t compare our country to other countries on.
because all countries have different constitution. (5) The committee is constituted of some of
Ex.5-6. Read the following statements carefully and the most respected and esteemed members
answer the questions.. from the field of sports and politics.
Ex.5. Real estate builders have refused to bring down the Sol.(1) In this statement its the matter of pride to take
property prices as proposed by the government this back highest award from player and we need
year. to find argument that would make the argument
weak. As lack of evidence and good conduct in
Which of the following arguments would
the past will definitely weaken the argument.
strengthen the stance taken by the builders ?
Hence, (1) will weaken the argument.
(1) Very few people ventured into buying
properties this year owing to exorbitant
prices set by the builders.

CHAPTER
Drawing
18 Inference
Inference is a conclusion drawn on the basis of THINK LOGICALLY & OBSERVE
knowledge of facts available. In questions on
INFERENCES, a paragraph is followed by few READ ALL INFERENCES & THINK
THINK LOGICALLY & OBSERVE
statements. On the basis of the information given in the
passage, we have to check the truthfulness or falsity of
USE MWTHOD
READ ALL INFERENCES OF ELIMINATION & WORK ON ALL
& THINK
the given statement:
Each statement can be put into one of the five categories.
1. Definitely true USE MWTHOD READ THE STATEMENT
OF ELIMINATION & CONCENTRATE
& WORK ON ALL
2. Probably true
3. Probably false CONNECT &
READ THE STATEMENT THE BEST OPTION WITH STATEMENT & DRAW BEST CONCLUSION
CONCENTRATE
4. Definitely false
5. Data inadequate
Example Based on Latest Pattern
CONNECT THE
Directions: In each question below is given a passage Ex.1. Statement:
BEST OPTION WITH STATEMENT“We& must change
DRAW BEST our brand name
CONCLUSION
followed by some inferences. You have to examine such that it sounds similar to ‘Z’ toys in order to
each inference separately in the context of the passage make higher profits”- A worker at ‘XYZ’ toys.
and decide upon the degree of truth or falsity the Which of the following statement can be
inference. inferred from the worker’s statement?
(1) Definitely true (100% True) (1) ‘Z’ toys have a considerably good holding
(2) Probably true (51% to 99% True) in the market of toys.
(3) Data inadequate (No Relation) (2) ‘XYZ’ is a fairly new brand launched
(4) Probably false (51% to 99% False) recently in the market.
(5) Definitely false (100% False) (3) Most other toy companies in the market
EXAMPLE resemble the name ‘Z’
India is a free nation, but the poverty still remains. (4) ‘XYZ’ toys have been making losses at
Poverty is an old phenomenon and this cannot be present.
removed over night. India remained subjugated (5) Brand name is the only factor behind
for several hundred years and the foreigners had ‘XYZ’
impoverished the once glorious nation that supplied Inference: Since ‘XYZ’ company is having
textiles and other goods to the countries of Asia, strong hold on the market they does not want
Africa, Europe and even America but now India is their position to be degraded.
much industrialized and the nation may soon recover Sol.(1) ‘XYZ’ company having considerably good
from the shock of reign domination that existed once holding in the market of toys.
our country. Ex.2. Statement: Hybrid cars are good for the
Inference environment, but they may not perform as
India is a great country, which is trying to remove well as cars that run only on gasoline. The
poverty. Toyota price gets great gas mileage and has
Keywords to look upon:- ‘still remains’, ‘existed low emissions, making it a good ‘Green”
once in our country’ option. However, many people think that it is
The fact is quite clear from the passage but it is not unattractive. The prices also cannot accelerate
directly given in it. Hence, it is probably correct. as quickly as other models and cannot hold as
Tips to solve: To solve inference question, one need many passengers as larger gas fueled SUVs.
to increase its analyzing power and practical thinking Although they save money on fuel, hybrid cars
about the question. cost more up front than gas fueled cars. A new
Waterfall Approach to solve such question hybrid car can cost almost $ 3500 more than
the same car configured to run just on gasoline.
Which of the following can you infer from the
passage? not definitely false in the light of the
(1) Hybrid cars are more dangerous than passage.
other options. (5) If the inference is definitely false i.e. it
(2) Toyota is making a lot of money from the cannot possibly be drawn from the facts
prices. given or it contradicts the given facts.
(3) Cars that use gasoline are going to destroy More than a decade of erosion in budgetary
the environment. support from the Union Government, has
(4) Hybrid cars may not be the best choice seriously affected. Indian Railways’ capacity
for everyone. to finance its plan expenditures. The situation
(5) Hybrid cars are not environment friendly. has come to a pass where the railways must
Sol.(4) Could be inferred from the statement. If a now think of innovative ways to get longer
person had a large family was short on money mileage from its investments. Significantly the
or needed a car that could accelerate quickly, resource erunch has had grievous impact on the
then a hybrid might not be the best choice for railways. As a result, it will not be in a position
them. to acquire necessary equipments and this will
Ex.3-7. Below is given a passage followed by several seriously affect the railways capacity to serve
inferences which can be drawn from the facts the needs of the economy in future.
stated in the passage. You have to examine Ex.3. Railways has so far believed in traditional ways
each inference separately in the context of the of generating income.
passage and decide upon its, degree of truth and Ex.4. Government has shifted its priority from
falsity. railways to other areas.
Mark answer- Ex.5. The Union Government has reduced drastically
(1) If the inference is definitely true i.e. it the budgetary support to railways during the
properly follows from the statements of last decade.
facts given. Ex.6. The fiscal position of railways in the earlier plan
(2) If the inference is probably true though
period was better than the current plan period.
not definitely true in the light of the facts
Ex.7. During the current plan period the railways will
given.
not be able to expand its network
(3) If the data are inadequate i.e. from the
Sol.3-7.
facts given you cannot say whether the
Sol.3.(2) Sol.4.(3)
inference is likely to be true or false.
Sol.5.(1) Sol.6.(3)
(4) If the inference is probably false though
Sol.7.(2)
CHAPTER
19 COMBINED LOGICAL
Q.1-3. Read the following statements and answer the questions given below :
Statement :The union cabinet approved a proposal for amending the child labour (prohibition and
regulation) Act, 1986 to ban employment of children aged up to 14 in any form of industry.
The questions are based on the information given above and give answers based on the sentences labeled
(A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) as given bleow.
(A) It will be an offence to employ such children not only in factories or industries but also in homes
or forms, If their labour is meant to serve any commercial interest.
(B) Amendment would benefit the children who have been working in various industries now and they
can concentrate an education.
(C) The Government decision is in line with the convention of the international labour organisation
which prohibits any form of child labour until the age of 14.
(D) The cabinet approved another amendment to define children aged 14-18 as ‘adolescents’ and prohibit
their employement mines. explosives industries chemical and paint industries and other hazardous
establishment.

(E) The ministry of labour is likely to introduce the amendment bill in parliament soon.
Q.1. Which of the following can be inferred from the given information ? (An inference is something that is
not directly stated but can be inferred from the given information)
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) B and E (5) C and D
Q.2. Which of the following will be the effect if the Government passes the amendment bill ?
(1) B (2) A (3) C (4) D (5) E
Q.3. Which among the following is an inspiration of the government to introduce the bill?
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E
Q.4-6. Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow.
Ruling governments in the west are being punished by the voters for ever rising unemployment rates.
Their parliament is abuzz with campaigns marked by criticism of India as an outsourcing hub. India is
seen by many in the west as a land of call centres and back offices with cheap labour that costs people in
the west, their jobs.
Q.4. Which of the following statements would weaken the argument given in the passage ?
(1) Out sourced jobs do not require highly skilled and qualified employees.
(2) Nearly 34% of the unemployed people would secure jobs in the west if outsourced jobs were in
sourced by their organizations.
(3) After suffering heavy losses in the elections the governments in the west are expected to change
their decision on outsourcing to India.
(4) Outsourcing, a dynamic, two-way relationship has created jobs and growth in India as well
as the west.
(5) Although outsourcing to India allowed many companies in west to focus on their core
operations, they heavily compromised the quality and the standards of their back office jobs.
Q.5. Which of the following can be a possible repercussion of the opposition to outsourcing in the west ?
(1) Jobs which are currently outsourced to India would be transferred to an other country which in all
probability would be China.
(2) Call centres and back office employees in India would expect a salary at par with their western
counterparts.
(3) In-sourcing of jobs by the west would render thousands of Indians unemployed,
(4) If in-sourced in the west itself, the companies would not be able to employ professionals and experts
of same quality as available in India.
(5) The western companies which earlier outsourced to India would benefit financially as offices would
not have to be set overseas.
Q.6. Which of the following can be inferred ? (An inference is something which is not directly stated but can
be inferred from the given facts)
(1) Unemployment in India is not as severe a problem as that in the west.
(2) Employees working in the back offices and call centres in the west earn much more than their
counterparts in India.
(3) Developing countries such as China and India do not outsource their back office jobs at all to other
countries
(4) Countries which do not outsource jobs do not face the problem of unemployment
(5) One ol the main reasons for high unemployment rate in India is its clan of call centres and back
offices which undertake outsourced work from the west
Q.7-10. Read the following information and five statements given below it carefully and answer the questions
which follow
Exodus from rural areas to the urban hubs in search of job opportunities has now declined to nearly
twenty-six percent of what if was at the turn of 21st century.
(A) Since the last decade, the rural economy has transformed itself into a bankable, profit making and
commercially viable venture
(B) Job opportunities differ in urban and rural areas
(C) The load on infrastructure and resources in the urban areas which had remained unmanageable for
a long time has been eased a little since the last decade.
(D) This trend of reverse migration which .was seen only in developed countries till now has entered
the scenes of developing nations as well

(E) According a recent report more than eighty percent of the professionals having roots in rural areas
prefer to work in urban cities rather than their home villages.
Q.7. Which of the statements numbered (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) mentioned above represents an effect of the
given information most appropriately ?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) Either D or
E
Q.8. Which of the statements numbered (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) mentioned above represents a cause of the
given information most appropriately ?
(1) E & A (2) D (3) C (4) B (5)Noneofthese
Q.9. Which of the statements numbered (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) mentioned above represents an assumption
most appropriately ? (An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted)
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) Both A and C (5) D
Q.10. Which of the statements numbered (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) mentioned above would weaken/contradict
the facts presented in the paragraph ?
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E
Q.11-13. Read the following paragraph and answer the questions which follow:
It is true that the green revolution has succeeded in transforming the Indian economy from a situation of
severe food shortage into one where the country has not only become self-reliant in food production but
has also been able to generate a sizable surplus for export. However, the high doses of chemical fertilizers
and pesticides, which have been used under this ‘conventional’ farming technology (along with ‘high
yielding varieties of seeds’ and irrigation) are now reversing the trend and causing severe environmental
and health hazards, including the contamination of ground water.
Q.11. Which of the following statements would strengthen the author’s argument ?
(1) India faced severe food shortages before the inception of green revolution.
(2) Organic farming i.e. farming without the use of chemical fertilizers makes the food products too
expensive at retail level.
(3) Many farmers have reported that the soil in their fields became infertile within five years of switching
over to chemical fertilizers.
(4) Farmers not relying on the hybrid and high yielding variety of seeds as propagated by green revolution
do not make as much profit as the one using methods of green revolution.
(5) High yielding varieties of seeds as propagated by green revolution do not require much water for
irrigation purposes and are also resistant to pest attacks.
Q.12. Which of the following can be inferred ? (An inference is something which is not directly stated but can
be inferred from the given facts.)
(1) Many countries have banned use of chemical fertilizers
(2) Green revolution failed miserably to do any good to India’s needs.
(3) The negative effects of techniques of green revolution were not anticipated at its inception
(4) India will never face food shortage again
(5) The main focus of green revolution was to help international fertilizer manufacturers sell their
products in India.
Q.13. Which of the following statements represents a possible Effect of the conventional Green Revolution
techniques of farming if it continues in the days to come ?
(1) India would never face severe food shortage again in the future
(2) Export of food products would increase manifold
(3) Only ground water would be used for irrigation purpose
(4) Cases of chemical poisoning would increase substantially
(5) Farmers not following methods of Green Revolution would face severe health hazards
Q.14-17. Read the given statements carefully and answer the questions which follow.
Q.14. After the government announced a compensatory policy for farmers in return for the acquisition of their
land, the farmers demanded a written proof of the policy.
Which of the following could possibly be a CAUSE for demanding the written proof ?
(1) The farmers were unable to contest the inadequate compensation for their land in earlier such
policies.
(2) The compensation promised in the policy was grossly inadequate.

(3) The farmers were unwilling to surrender their lands to the government.
(4) The farmers demand a certain percentage of share out of the revenue generated by the government
of their lands.
(5) The only option to enforce the government officials to frame a compensatory policy for the farmers
was to demand a proof.
Q.15. The number of cases concerning a non-contagious chemical poisoning is on the rise among local villagers.
Which of the following could possibly be a CAUSE of the statement given above ?
(1) The government has ordered an immediate enquiry into the matter.
(2) Unless timely treatment is provided to the patients, the poisoning can prove to be fatal.
(3) Many factories surrounding the village do not dispose off their wastes appropriately.
(4) The only hospital in the area is not equipped to treat chemical poisoning related ailments.
(5) A study done a couple of years ago had reported that a large number of farmers had stopped using
chemical fertilizers owing to their ill-effects on health.
Q.16. In a governmental initiative which started a couple of years ago, school teachers of a particular State were
engaged in teaching the illiterate every evening after the regular school hours. Which of the following
can be an EFFECT of the statement given above ?
(1) A report given to the State government a couple of years ago stated a high percentage of illiterate
population as compared to some other States.
(2) Many teachers were, motivated to join the scheme started by the government as the remuneration
provided to them was attractive.
(3) Lack of accessibility to schools and extreme poverty were major causes of illiteracy in the State.
(4) Evening classes help individuals working as daily wagers attend classes after work.
(5) The literacy rate in the State has improved significantly this year.
Q.17. Small grocery shop owners have gone on a day’s strike in order to protest against the entry of a foreign
retail store chain in the city.
Which of the following statements can be an EFFECT of the statemeSnt given above ?
(1) The small grocery shop owners perceive the big retail giants as sharks, trying to dominate the
available market space.
(2) Foreign investment in retail has shown a tremendous growth in India since a couple of years.
(3) There have been several countries in which retail chain giants have totally wiped out small scale
grocery shops.
(4) The government agreed to take all political steps required to safeguard the interests of small scale
retailers.
(5) A recent survey indicated that a large number of people prefer to buy their daily grocery items from
the nearby grocery stores rather than big retail chain stores.
Explanation
Q.1.(4) Q.2.(2) A Q.3.(3) Q.10.(1) Q.11.(1) Q.12.(3)
Q.4.(4) Q.5.(3) Q.6.(2) Q.13.(4) Q.14.(1) Q.15.(3)
Q.7.(2) Q.8.(1) Q.9.(2) Q.16.(5) Q.17.(4)

CHAPTER
statement and
20 conclusion
Conclusion means a fact that can be truly inferred electroplating of metals. These units generate
from the contents of a given sentence or passage. The highly toxic substances. Such industries are
questions in this section thus consist of a statement or a concentrated in the walled city.
set of statements, followed by certain inferences based Conclusions:
on the facts contained in the given statements. The I. Electroplating industries must be shut
candidate is required to analyse the given statements, down.
understand their direct/indirect implications and then II. In the walled city there is greater
decide which of the given conclusions follows logically pollution.
and for sure, from the given statements. (1) Only I follows
Key Points to Remember (2) Only II follows
If statement is formed with two or more statements then (3) Both I and II follow
there should not be mutual contradiction in sentence. (4) Neither I nor II follows
Read carefully and try to find key words. (5) Either I or II follows
Conclusion should not go against establish fact and Sol.(2) Only conclusion II follows. Electroplating
prevalling notions of truth. industries are polluting and these are
If definite words like all, always, at least, only, exactly concentrated in the walled city. Therefore,
and etc. are used then conclusion will be invalid. there is greater pollution in the walled city.
If conclusion is provided with the stated example then Ex.3. Statement:
conclusion will be invalid. This course is so designed that only few
Examples children can learn the topics by themselves.
Direction: (1-10.) Conclusions:
Statements are given followed by two conclusions I I. Learning the topics of this course by all
and II. You have to consider the statement to be true the children is desirable.
even if they seem to be at variance from commonly II. Some learners find it difficult to learn the
known facts. You have to decide which of the given topics of this course in the absence of a
conclusions, if any follow from the given statements. teacher.
Indicate your answer. (1) Only I follows
Ex.1. Statement: (2) Only II follows
Philanthropes with their human compassion (3) Both I and II follow
and zeal to help the needy have contributed
(4) Neither I nor II follows
to human welfare in every society.
(5) Either I or II follows
Conclusions:
Sol.(2) The use of term ‘all’ in first conclusion makes
I. Rich persons are philanthropes.
it invalid. Clearly, the second conclusion
II. Poor people cannot act as philanthropes. follows.
(1) Only I follows. Ex.4. Statement:
(2) Both I and II follow. A car had driven off the road and hit a tree.
(3) Neither I nor II follows. The driver was efficient enough. The driver
(4) Only II follows. was efficient enough. The road was not good.
(5) Either I or II follows. The driver drove the car for last fifteen years.
Sol.(3) Neither conclusion I nor II follows because Conclusions:
any person can be philanthrope whether he I. The accident occurred due to bad
is rich or poor. condition of road.
Ex.2. Statement: II. There was a mechanical fault in the car.
The most polluting units are those engaged in (1) Only conclusion II follows
(2) Both the conclusions follow. Ex.8. Statement:
(3) None of the conclusion follows. Tension is detrimental to physical and mental
(4) Only conclusion I follows health.
(5) Either I or II follows. Conclusions:
Sol.(2) Clearly both the conclusions can be drawn. It I. To be healthy one should be free from
is clearly mentioned that road was not good tension.
and the driver drove the car off the road even II. Mental health depends upon the tension
if he was efficient. So, there may be some experiences.
mechanical fault in the car. (1) Only conclusion I follows
Ex.5. Statement: (2) Only conclusion II follows
Physical exercise is necessary for good health. (3) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
Conclusions: (4) Both conclusions I and II follow
I. John plays Tennis at age of seventy. (5) Either I or II follows
II. Men with irregular habits have to go Sol.(4) According to the statement both the
hospital. conclusions will follow.
(1) Only I follows Ex.9. Statement:
(2) Only II follows Private firm workers are hard-working.
(3) Neither I nor II follows Conclusions:
(4) Both I and II follow I. Some hard-working persons are private
(5) Either I or II follows firm workers.
Sol.(1) Only I follows II. Government employees are not hard
Ex.6. Statement: working.
A friend in need is a friend indeed. (1) Only conclusion I follows
Conclusions: (2) Only conclusion II follows
I. All are friends in good times. (3) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
II. Enemies in bad times are not friends. (4) Both conclusions I and II follow
(1) Neither I nor II follows (5) Either I or II follows
(2) Only I follows Sol.(1) Only conclusion I follows. It has been said that
(3) Only II follows private firm workers are hardworking. It does
(4) Both I and II follow not mean that government employees are not
(5) Either I or II follows hard-working.
Sol.(1) A friend who offers help in time of need is a Ex.10. Statement:
true friend. The use of term ‘All’ in conclusion The best evidence of India’s glorious past is the
I does not express the inherent meaning of the growing popularity of Ayurvedic medicines in the
statement and also II conclusion is not valid. west.
Therefore, neither conclusion I nor II follows. Conclusions:
Ex.7. Statement: I. Ayurvedic medicines are not popular in
Most Indians are aware that they have a great India.
heritage, but few would include science in it. II. Allopathic medicines are not popular in
Conclusions: India.
I. Many Indians consider sciences have (1) Only conclusion I follows
made Indian heritage great. (2) Only conclusion II follows
II. Many Indians are not aware that India (3) Both conclusions I and II follow
has a great scientific heritage. (4) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
(1) Only conclusion I follows (5) Either I or II follows
(2) Only conclusion II follows Sol.(4) It is mentioned in the statement that best
(3) Both conclusions I and II follow evidence of India’s glorious past is the
(4) Neither conclusion I nor II follows growing popularity of Ayurvedic medicines
(5) Either I or II follows in India. It implies that ayurvedic were
originated in India and propagated to the
Sol.(3) According to the statement both the
other countries.
conclusions follow.
TEST OF General Awareness
This test intends to measure candidates’ awareness of the events happening in the world around. In brief, this test
intends to measure the candidates’ sensitivity to and awareness of the environment. The questions in this test are
mainly based on current events of national/international importance, the political turmoils in the world, social and
cultural events, events of common public interest, sports, scientific inventions and the like.
To score reasonably good marks in this test, it is necessary to regularly read newspapers in detail, listen to T.V.,
Radio news and carefully enlist major news items. While preparing for this test, emphasis may be given not only
on the superficial news, but on critically understanding and analysing the implications of the news. Also the reading
sphere should be so wide as to encompass all types of diverse news items and information.
INDIAN Banking INDUSTRY

Historical Background
India’s first bank was bank of Hindustan, which was setup in 1770. The first bank of limited liability managed by
Indians was Oudh Commercial Bank founded in 1881. Punjab National Bank was established in 1894 .
Swadeshi movement, which began in 1906, encouraged the formation of a number of commercial banks. Banking
crisis during 1913 -1917 and failure of 588 banks in various States during the decade ended 1949 underlined the
need for regulating and controlling commercial banks.
The Banking Companies Act was passed in February1949, which was subsequently amended to read as Banking
Regulation Act, 1949.This Act provided the legal framework for regulation of the banking system by RBI. The largest
bank - Imperial Bank of India - was taken over by the RBI in 1955 and rechristened as State Bank of India, followed
by inclusion of its 7 Associate Banks in1959.
With a view to bring commercial banks into the mainstream of economic development with definite social obligations
and objectives, the Government issued an ordinance on 19 July 1969 acquiring ownership and control of 14 major
banks in the country. Six more commercial banks were nationalised from 15 April 1980.
Meaning of Bank
Bank is a lawful organisation, which accepts deposits that can be withdrawn on demand. It also lends money to
individuals and business houses that need it.
Role of Banking
Banks provide funds for business as well as personal needs of individuals. They play a significant role in the
economy of a nation. Let us know about the role of banking.
 It encourages savings habit amongst people and thereby makes funds available for productive use.
 It acts as an intermediary between people having surplus money and those requiring money for various
business activities.
 It facilitates business transactions through receipts and payments by cheques instead of currency.
 It provides loans and advances to businessmen for short term and long-term purposes.
 It also facilitates import-export transactions.
 It helps in national development by providing credit to farmers, small-scale industries and self-employed
people as well as to large business houses which lead to balanced economic development in the country.
 It helps in raising the standard of living of people in general by providing loans for purchase of consumer
durable goods, houses, automobiles, etc.
Types of Banks
There are various types of banks which operate in our country to meet the financial requirements of different
categories of people engaged in agriculture, business, profession, etc. On the basis of functions, the banking
institutions in India may be divided into the following types:
1. Central Bank (RBI, in India)
2. Commercial Banks
(i) Public Sector Banks
(ii) Private Sector Banks
(iii) Foreign Banks
3. Development Banks (IFCI, SFCs)
4. Co-operative Banks
(i) Primary Credit Societies
(ii) Central Co-operative Banks
(iii) State Co-operative Banks
5. Specialised Banks (EXIM Bank, SIDBI, NABARD)
Central Bank
A bank which is entrusted with the functions of guiding and regulating the banking system of a country is known as
its Central bank. Such a bank does not deal with the general public. It acts essentially as Government’s banker,

maintain deposit accounts of all other banks and advances money to other banks, when needed. The Central Bank
provides guidance to other banks whenever they face any problem. It is therefore known as the banker’s bank. The
Reserve Bank of India is the central bank of our country. The Central Bank maintains record of Government revenue
and expenditure under various heads. It also advises the Government on monetary and credit policies and decides
on the interest rates for bank deposits and bank loans. In addition, foreign exchange rates are also determined by
the central bank. Another important function of the Central Bank is the issuance of currency notes, regulating their
circulation in the country by different methods. No other bank than the Central Bank can issue currency.
Commercial Banks
Commercial Banks are banking institutions that accept deposits and grant short-term loans and advances to their
customers. In addition to giving short-term loans, commercial banks also give medium-term and long-term loan to
business enterprises. Now-a-days some of the commercial banks are also providing housing loan on a long-term basis
to individuals. There are also many other functions of commercial banks, which are discussed later in this lesson.
Types of Commercial banks
Commercial banks are of three types i.e., Public sector banks, Private sector banks and Foreign banks.
 Public Sector Banks:
These are banks where majority stake is held by the Government of India or Reserve Bank of India. Examples of
public sector banks are: State Bank of India, Corporation Bank, Bank of Baroda.etc.
 Private Sectors Banks:
In case of private sector banks majority of share capital of the bank is held by private individuals. These banks are
registered as companies with limited liability. For example: The ICICI Bank, Axis Bank, Federal Bank etc.
 Foreign Banks:
These banks are registered and have their headquarters in a foreign country but operate their branches in our
country. Some of the foreign banks operating in our country are Hong Kong and Shanghai Banking Corporation
(HSBC), Citibank, American Express Bank, Standard & Chartered Bank, Grindlay’s Bank, etc. The number of foreign
banks operating in our country has increased since the financial sector reforms of 1991.
 Development Banks :
Business often requires medium and long-term capital for purchase of machinery and equipment, for using latest
technology, or for expansion and modernization. Such financial assistance is provided by Development Banks. They
also undertake other development measures like subscribing to the shares and debentures issued by companies,
in case of under subscription of the issue by the public. Industrial Finance Corporation of India (IFCI) and State
Financial Corporations (SFCs) are examples of development banks in India.
 Co-operative Banks :
People who come together to jointly serve their common interest often form a co-operative society under the Co-
operative Societies Act. When a co-operative society engages itself in banking business it is called a Co-operative
Bank. The society has to obtain a licence from the Reserve Bank of India before starting banking business. Any
co-operative bank as a society has to function under the overall supervision of the Registrar, Co-operative Societies
of the State. As regards banking business, the society must follow the guidelines set issued by the ReserveBank
of India.
Types of Co-operative Banks
There are three types of co-operative banks operating in our country. They are primary credit societies, central
co-operative banks and state co-operative banks. These banks are organized at three levels, village or town level,
district level and state level.
i. Primary Credit Societies: These are formed at the village or town level with borrower and non-borrower
members residing in one locality. The operations of each society are restricted to a small area so that the members
know each other and are able to watch over the activities of all members to prevent frauds.
ii. Central Co-operative Banks: These banks operate at the district level having some of the primary credit
societies belonging to the same district as their members. These banks provide loans to their members (i.e., primary
credit societies) and function as a link between the primary credit societies and state co-operative banks.
i. State Co-operative Banks: These are the apex (highest level) co-operative banks in all the states of the
country. They mobilise funds and help in its proper channelisation among various sectors. The money reaches
the individual borrowers from the state co-operative banks through the central co-operative banks and the primary
credit societies.
 Specialised Banks : There are some banks, which cater to the requirements and provide overall support for
setting up business in specific areas of activity. EXIM Bank, SIDBI and NABARD are examples of such banks. They
engage themselves in some specific area or activity and thus, are called specialised banks and are Development
Financial Institutions. Let us know about them.
Export Import Bank of India (EXIM Bank)
Exim bank was established in the year 1982. If you want to set up a business for exporting products abroad or
importing products from foreign countries for sale in our country, EXIM bank can provide you the required support
and assistance. The bank grants loans to exporters and importers and also provides information about the

international market. It gives guidance about the opportunities for export or import, the risks involved in it and the
competition to be faced, etc.
Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI): SIDBI was established in the year 1990. If you
want to establish a small-scale business unit or industry, loan on easy terms can be available through SIDBI. It
also finances modernisation of small-scale industrial units, use of new technology and market activities. The aim
and focus of SIDBI is to promote, finance and develop small-scale industries.
National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
INTRODUCTION
NABARD is set up as an apex Development Bank with a mandate for facilitating credit flow for promotion and
development of agriculture, small-scale industries, cottage and village industries, handicrafts and other rural
crafts. It also has the mandate to support all other allied economic activities in rural areas, promote integrated and
sustainable rural development and secure prosperity of rural areas. In discharging its role as a facilitator for rural
prosperity NABARD is entrusted with Providing refinance to lending institutions in rural areas Bringing about or
promoting institutional development and Evaluating, monitoring and inspecting the client banks Besides this pivotal
role, NABARD also:
Acts as a coordinator in the operations of rural credit institutions
Extends assistance to the government, the Reserve Bank of India and other organizations in matters relating to
rural development
Offers training and research facilities for banks, cooperatives and organizations working in the field of rural
development
Helps the state governments in reaching their targets of providing assistance to eligible institutions in agriculture
and rural development
Acts as regulator for cooperative banks and RRBs
Some of the milestones in NABARD’s activities are:
Mission : Promoting sustainable and equitable agriculture and rural development through effective credit support,
related services, institution building and other innovative initiatives.
In pursuing this mission, NABARD focuses its activities on:
Credit functions, involving preparation of potential-linked credit plans annually for all districts of the country for
identification of credit potential, monitoring the flow of ground level rural credit, issuing policy and operational
guidelines to rural financing institutions and providing credit facilities to eligible institutions under various programmes.
Development functions, concerning reinforcement of the credit functions and making credit more productive

Supervisory functions, ensuring the proper functioning of cooperative banks and regional rural banks
Objectives
NABARD was established in terms of the Preamble to the Act, “for providing credit for the promotion of agriculture,
small scale industries, cottage and village industries, handicrafts and other rural crafts and ther allied economic
activities in rural areas with a view to promoting IRDP and securing prosperity of rural areas and for matters
connected therewith in incidental thereto”.
The main objectives of the NABARD as stated in the statement of objectives while placing the bill before the Lok
Sabha were categorized as under :
The National Bank will be an apex organisation in respect of all matters relating to policy, planning operational
aspects in the field of credit for promotion of Agriculture, Small Scale Industries, Cottage and Village Industries,
Handicrafts and other rural crafts and other allied economic activities in rural areas. The Bank will serve as a
refinancing institution for institutional credit such as long-term, short-term for the promotion of activities in the rural
areas. The Bank will also provide direct lending to any institution as may approved by the Central Government. The
Bank will have organic links with the Reserve Bank and maintain a close link with in Major Activities. Preparing of
Potential Linked Credit Plans for identification of exploitable potentials under agriculture and other activities available
for development through bank credit.
Refinancing banks for extending loans for investment and production purpose in rural areas.
Providing loans to State Government/Non Government Organizations (NGOs)/Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs)
for developing rural infrastructure.
Supporting credit innovations of Non Government Organizations (NGOs) and other non-formal agencies.
Extending formal banking services to the unreached rural poor by evolving a supplementary credit delivery strategy
in a cost effective manner by promoting Self Help Groups (SHGs)
Promoting participatory watershed development for enhancing productivity and profitability of rainfed agriculture
in a sustainable manner.
On-site inspection of cooperative banks and Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) and iff-site surveillance over health of
cooperatives andRRBs.
The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development Act and Preamble,1981
RBI & MonetAry Policy
The Reserve Bank of India was established on April 1, 1935 in accordance with the provisions of the Reserve Bank
of India Act, 1934.
The Central Office of the Reserve Bank was initially established in Calcutta but was permanently moved to Mumbai
in 1937. The Central Office is where the Governor sits and where policies are formulated. Though originally privately
owned, since nationalisation in 1949, the Reserve Bank is fully owned by the Government of India.
Main objective of establishment
1. To maintain the internal and external value of rupee.
2. To creat credit and monetary policy.
3. Development of commercial bank.
4. Organisation and development of money market.
5. Monetary transaction with foreight country.
Function of reserve Bank :
1. General banking work.
2. Development of enforcement work.
1. General and Central banking work
(a) Issue Currency Note (Section 22)
(b) Governments Bank
(c) Banker of all bank
(d) Regulator of foreign exchange
(e) Regulator and controller of banking system.
(f) To faciliate foreight exchange.
(g) To faciliate agricultural credit
(h) Collection and publishing of statistics.
(i) Credit control
Credit Control by Reserve Bank of India
 Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
The share of net demand and time liabilities that banks must maintain as cash balance with the Reserve Bank.
CRR is 3%
 Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)
Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) is a term used in the regulation of banking in India. It is the amount which a bank has
to maintain in the form of cash, gold or approved securities balance in current account with other commercial bank.
The quantum is specified as some percentage of the total demand and time liabilities of a bank. This percentage

is fixed by the Reserve Bank of India. Presently the SLR is 18.00%.
The 18.00% is the minimum SLR (the statutory requirements to park their money in government bonds)limit the
RBI can fix at present.
The objectives of SLR are-
1) to restrict the expansion of bank credit
2) to augment the investment of the banks in Government securities and
3) to ensure solvency of banks.
A reduction of SLR rates looks eminent to support the credit growth in india
 Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF)
Consists of daily infusion or absorption of liquidity on a repurchase basis, through repo (liquidity injection) and
reverse repo (liquidity absorption) auction operations, using government securities as collateral.
 Open Market Operations (OMO)
Outright sales/purchases of government securities, in addition to LAF, as a tool to determine the level of liquidity
over the medium term.
 Market Stabilisation Scheme (MSS)
This instrument for monetary management was introduced in 2004. Liquidity of a more enduring nature arising from
large capital flows is absorbed through sale of short-dated government securities and treasury bills. The mobilised
cash is held in a separate government account with the Reserve Bank.
 Repo/Reverse Repo Rate
These rates under the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) determine the corridor for short-term money market interest
rates. In turn, this is expected to trigger movement in other segments of the financial market and the real economy.
Bank Rate
It is the rate at which the Reserve Bank is ready to buy or rediscount bills of exchange or other commercial papers.
It also signals the medium-term stance of monetary policy.
Base Rate (BR)
It is the minimum rate of interest that a bank is allowed to charge from its customers. Unless mandated by the
government, RBI rule stipulates that no bank can offer loans at a rate lower than BR to any of its customers.
It is effective from, July 1, 2010. However, all existing loans, including home loans and car loans, will continue to
be at the current rate. Only the new loans taken on or after July 1 and old loans being renewed after this date will
be linked to BR.
Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR)
 All rupee loans sanctioned and credit limits from 1 April 2016 will be priced with MCLR which will be the
internal benchmark
 The MCLR will be a tenor linked internal benchmark.
 Actual lending rates will be determined by adding components of spread to the MCLR
 Bank will review and publish their MCLR of different maturities every month on a pre-announced date
 Banks may specify interest dates on their floating rate loans. They will have the option to offer loans with
reset dates linked either to the date of sanction of the loan/credit limits or to the date of review of MCLR
 The periodicity of reset shall be one year or lower
 The MCLR prevailing on the day the loan is sanctioned will be applicable till the next reset date, irrespective
of the changes in the benchmark during the interim period
 Existing loans and credit limits linked to the base rate may continue till repayment or renewal, as the case
may be. Existing borrowers will also have the option to move to the MCLR linked loan at mutually acceptable
terms
 Banks will continue to review and publish base rate as hitherto
MCLR will comprise :
 Marginal cost of funds
 Negative carry on account of CRR
 Operating costs
 Tenor premium
Marginal cost of funds
 Marginal cost of funds will comprise of Marginal cost of borrowings and return on net worth
Negative carry on account of CRR
 Negative carry on the mandatory CRR which arises due to return on CRR balances being nil
Required CRR*(marginal cost)/(1-CRR)
Operating costs
 All operating costs associated with providing the loan product including cost of raising funds will be included
under this.
Tenor premium
 The cost arise from loan commitments with longer tenor

Bank shall publish the internal benchmark for different maturities
 Overnight MCLR
 One-month MCLR
 Three month MCLR
 Six month MCLR
 One year MCLR
Term Repo under the Liquidity Adjustment Facility-Operational Guidelines
Term Repo under the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) for 14 days and 7 days tenors will be introduced for banks
(scheduled commercial banks other than RRBs) in addition to the existing daily LAF (repo and reverse repo) and MSF.
Term repo auctions will be conducted on CBS (E-KUBER) platform through electronic bidding as is done in the
case of OMO auctions.
The total amount of liquidity injected through term repos would be limited to 0.25 per cent of NDTL of the banking
system.
While the 14 day term repo of tenor would be conducted every reporting Friday, the 7 day term repo would be
conducted on every non-reporting Friday.
On the day prior to the auction, RBI will announce the amount to be auctioned under term repo along with its tenor.
The minimum bid amount for the auction would be Rupees one crore and multiples thereof. The allotment would
be in multiples of Rupees one crore. Term repo auctions would be conducted on Fridays between 2.30 PM - 3.00
PM. In case Friday falls on a holiday, the auction would take place on the preceding working day at Mumbai.
Know Your Customer : The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has advised banks to follow ‘KYC guidelines’, wherein
certain personal information of the account-opening prospect or the customer is obtained. The objective of doing
so is to enable the Bank to have positive identification of its customers. This is also in the interest of customers
to safeguard their hard earned money.
The KYC guidelines of RBI mandate banks to collect three proofs from their customers. They are-
 Photograph
 Proof of identity
 Proof of address
What is KYC?
Know Your Customer - KYC enables banks to know/ understand their customers and their financial dealings to be
able to serve them better
Who is a customer of the Bank?
For the purpose of KYC Policy, a Customer is defined as:
 A person or entity that maintains an account and/or has a business relationship with the Bank;
 One on whose behalf the account is maintained (i.e. the beneficial owner);
 Beneficiaries of transactions conducted by professional intermediaries, such as Stock Brokers, Chartered
Accountants, Solicitors, etc. as permitted under the law, and
 Any person or entity connected with a financial transaction, which can pose significant reputation or other
risks to the Bank, say, a wire transfer or issue of a high value demand draft as a single transaction
Basel III
The Reserve Bank released, guidelines outlining proposed implementation of Basel III capital regulation in India.
These guidelines are in response to the comprehensive reform package entitled “Basel III: A global regulatory
framework for more resilient banks and banking systems” of the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision (BCBS)
issued in December 2010.
The major highlights of the draft guidelines are:
Minimum Capital Requirements
 Common Equity Tier 1 (CET1) capital must be at least 5.5% of risk-weighted assets (RWAs);
 Tier 1 capital must be at least 7% of RWAs; and
 Total capital must be at least 9% of RWAs.
Capital Conservation Buffer
 The capital conservation buffer in the form of Common Equity of 2.5% of RWAs. A such minimum Capital
Adequacy ratio for banks will be 11.5% after full application of the capital conservation buffer by 31 March
2018.
Transitional Arrangements
 It is proposed that the implementation period of minimum capital requirements and deductions from Common
Equity will begin from January 1, 2013 and be fully implemented as on March 31, 2019.
 Capital conservation buffer requirement is proposed to be implemented between March 31, 2014 and March
31, 2019.
 The implementation schedule indicated above will be finalized taking into account the feedback received on
these guidelines.
 Instruments which no longer qualify as regulatory capital instruments will be phased-out during the period
beginning from January 1, 2013 to March 31, 2022.
Enhancing Risk Coverage
 For OTC derivatives, in addition to the capital charge for counterparty default risk under Current Exposure
Method, banks will be required to compute an additional credit value adjustments (CVA) risk capital charge.
Leverage Ratio
 The parallel run for the leverage ratio will be from January 1, 2013 to January 1, 2018, during which banks
would be expected to strive to operate at a minimum Tier 1 leverage ratio of 5%. The leverage ratio requirement
will be finalized taking into account the final proposal of the Basel Committee.
Money Market IN INDIA
The money market is the market in which short term funds are borrowed and lent. The lending money market
institutions are -
 Government of India and other sovereign bodies
 Banks and Development Financial Institutions
 PSUs [Public Sector Undertakings]
 Private sector organizations
 The Government /Quasi government owned non-corporate entities.
Large numbers of instruments that are traded in the money market are issued by Government of India, State
governments and other statutory bodies. Instruments that are issued by the Development Financial Institutions
[DFI] and banks carry the highest credit ratings amongst non-government issuers mainly due to their connection
with the Indian Government.
Instruments of Money Market
 Call Money - Call or notice money is an amount borrowed or lent on demand for a very short period. If the
period is greater than one day and up to 14 days it is called Notice money; otherwise the amount is known as Call
money. No collateral security is needed to cover these transactions.
The call market enables the banks and institutions to even out their day-to-day deficits and surpluses of money.
Co-operative banks, commercial banks and primary dealers are allowed to borrow and lend in this market for
adjusting their cash reserve requirements.
This is a completely inter-bank market. Interest rates are market determined. In view of the short tenure of these
transactions, both borrowers and lenders are required to have current accounts with Reserve Bank of India.
 Treasury Bills - These are the lowest risk category instruments for the short term. RBI issues treasury bills
[T-bills] at a prefixed day and for a fixed amount. There are 3 types of treasury bills.
-91-day T-bill: maturity is in 91 days, it is auctioned on every Wednesday of every week and the notified amount
for auction is Rs. 10000 crores.
-182-day T-bill: maturity is in 182 days, it is auctioned on every alternate Wednesday, which is not a reporting week
and the notified amount for auction is Rs. 6000 crores.
-364-day T-bill: maturity is 364 days, it is auctioned on every alternate Wednesday which is a reporting week and
the notified amount for the auction is Rs. 1000 crores.
 Certificates of Deposits - After treasury bills, the next lowest risk category investment option is Certificate
of Deposit (CD) issued by banks and Financial Institutions (FI). Allowed in 1989, CDs were one of RBI’s measures
to deregulate the cost of funds for banks and FIs. A CD is a negotiable promissory note, secure and short term, of
up to a year, in nature.
A CD is issued at a discount to the face value, the discount rate being negotiated between the issuer and the
investor. Although RBI allows CDs up to one-year maturity, the maturity most quoted in the market is for 90 days.
 Commercial Papers - Commercial papers [CPs] are negotiable short-term unsecured promissory notes with fixed
maturities, issued by well-rated organizations. These are generally sold on discount basis. Organizations can issue
CPs either directly or through banks or merchant banks [called as dealers]. These instruments are normally issued
in the multiples of five crores for 7days to 364 days.
Capital Market in India
A capital market is a market for securities (debt or equity), where business enterprises (companies) and governments
can raise long-term funds. It is defined as a market in which money is provided for periods longer than a year,as
the raising of short-term funds takes place on other markets (e.g., the money market). The capital market includes
the stock market (equity securities) and the bond market (debt).
The capital market has 3 components - the equity market, the debt market, and the derivative market. It consists
of all those connected with issuing and trading in equity shares and also medium and long term debt instruments,
namely, bonds and debentures. It is well accepted that tenures less than one year are considered as short term;
while tenures more than one year and up to three years may be taken as medium term while more than three years
can be considered as long term.
Both equity and debt market have 2 segments - the primary market dealing with new issues of equity and debt
instruments and the secondary market which facilitates trading in equity and debt instruments thereby imparting
liquidity to the instruments and making it possible for people with different liquidity preferences to participate in
the market.
Derivatives Market
The derivatives market is the financial market for derivatives, financial instruments like futures contracts or options,
which are derived from other forms of assets.
The market can be divided into two, that for exchange-traded derivatives and that for over-the-counter derivatives.
The legal nature of these products is very different as well as the way they are traded, though many market
participants are active in both.
Derivatives
Derivative is a product whose value is derived from the value of one or more basic variables, called underlying. The

underlying asset can be equity, index, foreign exchange (Forex), commodity or any other asset.
Types of derivatives
Various types of derivatives relating to shares are:
Forwards
This is a customized contract between two entities, where settlement takes place on a specific date in the future
at today’s pre-agreed price.
Futures
It is an agreement between two parties to buy or sell an asset at a certain time in the future at a certain price.
Options
An option is a contract which gives the right, but not an obligation, to buy or sell the underlying at a stated date
and a stated price.
Swap
A swap is a derivative in which counterparties exchange cash flows of one party’s financial instrument for those of
the other party’s financial instrument. The benefits in question depend on the type of financial instruments involved.
Rights Issue
A rights issue is basically when a company offers existing shareholders a right to purchase additional shares of
the company at a given price, which is at a discount to the prevailing market price of the stock, to make the offer
enticing for the shareholder and to ensure that the rights offer is fully subscribed to.
Preference Shares
Preference shares are those shares which are given preference as regards to payment of dividend and repayment
of capital. Preference shareholders are given preference over equity shareholders as in the case of winding up of
the company, their capital is paid back first and then the equity shareholders are paid. Preference shareholders
cannot exercise their voting rights on all the matters. They can vote only on the matters affecting their own interest.
Debentures
A debenture is a document which either creates a debt or acknowledges it. Debenture issued by a company is in
the form of a certificate acknowledging indebtedness. The debentures are issued under the Company’s Common
Seal. Debentures are one of a series issued to a number of lenders. The date of repayment is specified in the
debentures. Debentures are issued against a charge on the assets of the Company. Debentures holders have no
right to vote at the meetings of the companies.
Inflation
DEFINITION
Inflation is defined as a sustained increase in the general level of prices for goods and services. It is measured as an
annual percentage increase. As inflation rises, every rupee you own buys a smaller percentage of a good or service.
The value of a rupee does not stay constant when there is inflation. The value of a rupee is observed in terms of
purchasing power, which is the real, tangible goods that money can buy. When inflation goes up, there is a decline
in the purchasing power of money. For example, if the inflation rate is 2% annually, then theoretically a Re 1 pack of
gum will cost Rs 1.02 in a year. After inflation, your money can’t buy the same amount of goods it could beforehand.
STAGES OF INFLATION:
Depending on the characteristics and the intensity of inflation, there are several stages, namely.
Creeping inflation
Trotting inflation (Walking And Running Inflation)
Galloping inflation
· Hyper inflation
CAUSES OF INFLATION
Demand-pull inflation occurs when the consumers, businesses or the governments’ demand for goods and services
exceed the supply; therefore the cost of the item rises, unless supply is perfectly elastic. Because we do not live in
a perfect market supply is some what inelastic and the supply of goods and services can only be increased if the
factors of production are increased.
The increase in demand is created from in increase in other areas, such as the supply of money, the increase of
wages which would then give rise in disposable income, and once the consumers have more disposal income
this would lead to aggregate spending. As a result of the aggregate spending there would also be an increase in
demand for exports and possible hoarding and profiteering from producers. The excessive demand, the prices of
final goods and services would be forced to increase and this increase gives rise to inflation. High levels of inflation
distort economic performance, making it mandatory to identify the causing factors.
Cost-push inflation is caused by an increase in production costs. It is generally caused by an increase in wages
or an increase in the profit margins of the entrepreneurs.
When wages are increased, this causes the business owner to in turn increase the price of final goods and services
which would be passed onto the consumers and the same consumers are also the employees. As a result of the
increase in prices for final goods and services the employees realise that their income is insufficient to meet their
standard of living because the basic cost of living has increased.
While money growth is considered to be a principal long-term determinant of inflation, non-monetary sources, such
as an increase in commodity prices, have played a key role in triggering inflation in the past four decades. Inflation
has become a major concern worldwide in 2008, with global prices rises in oil, food, steel and other commodities
being the culprit.

RBI Grade-B
TEST-I : General Awareness
Q-1 “Pure Banking Nothing Else” is a tagline of which Bank?
01. ICICI Bank 02. UTI Bank 03. SBI Bank 04. HDFC Bank 05. None of these
Q-2 Pooram is a festival celebrated in which state?
01. Arunachal Pradesh 02. Andhra Pradesh 03. Kerala
04. Bihar 05. None of these
Q-3 Balance of Payment includes-
01. Debts 02. Visible Trade 03. Invisible Trade 04. All of these 05. None of the above
Q-4 Which of the following is a popular women’s empowerment programme in India?
01. Asha 02. Swabhiman 03. Mid-day Meal Scheme
04. Bharat Nirman 05. Self Help Group
Q-5 Banks in our country normally publicise that additional interest rates will be allowed on retail domestic term
deposits of _________
01. Minors 02. Married women 03. Senior citizens 04. Govt. Employees 05. Rural Residents
Q-6 Betla national park is situated in which state?
01. Jharkhand 02. Jammu and Kashmir 03. HimachalPradesh
04. Haryana 05. Uttar Pradesh
Q-7 Whenever RBI does some open market operation transactions, actually it wishes to regulate which of the following?
01. Inflation 02. ATMs 03. Borrowing powers of the banks
04. Flow of foreign direct investments 05. None of the above
Q-8 Brass gets discoloured in air because of the presence of which of the following gases in air?
01. Oxygen 02. Hydrogen sulphide 03. Carbon dioxide 04. Nitrogen 05. Ammonia
Q-9 Deficit financing means that the government has borrowed money from the-
01. Revenue Department 02. World Bank 03. RBI
04. IMF 05. None of above
Q-10 Which cups/Trophies is associated with the game of Football?
01. Scindia Gold Cup 02. Ranji Trophy 03. Davis Cup
04. Wimbledon Cup 05. Fifa Cup
Q-11 When is World Youth Skills Day celebrated?
01. 15 July 02. 11 August 03. 21 August 04. 15 September 05. 21 November
Q-12 Disinvestment means-
01. To reduce the government share in the private sector.
02. To reduce government share in the FDI.
03. To reduce government share in Market.
04. To reduce the government share in the public sector.
05. All of these

Q-13 Economic planning is an important feature of _____
01. Mixed Economy 02. Socialist Economy 03. Dual Economy
04. Capitalist Economy 05. Both 3 and 1
Q-14 What is the full form of SECC?
01. Socio Economic Class Survey 02. Socio Economic Caste Service
03. Social Earning Class Survey 04. Socio Economic Caste Census
05. None of these
Q-15 What is the upper limit of RTGS transactions?
01. Rs. 1 Lakh 02. Rs. 2 Lakh 03. Rs. 5 Lakh 04. Rs. 50 Lakh 05. There is no upper limit
Q-16 Exchange markets and over the counter markets are the types of which market?
01. Floating market 02. Riskier market 03. Secondary market
04. Primary market 05. Gilt edge Market
Q-17 What is the Capital of Hungary?
01. Bujumbura 02. Bangui 03. Kinshasa 04. Budapest 05. Banjul
Q-18 What is the currency of Kyrgyzstan?
01. Som 02. Lev 03. Euro 04. Tala 05. Dinar
Q-19 Fresh evaluation of every item of expenditure from the very beginning of each financial year is called
01. Fresh Budgeting 02. Deficit Budgeting 03. Performance Budgeting
04. Zero-based Budgeting 05. None of these
Q-20 When was the India Post Payments Bank incorporated?
01. 17 August, 2016 02. 01 July, 2016 03. 01 April, 2016
04. 07 January, 2016 05. 10 December, 2016
Q-21 In which of the following year USD has become the intervention currency for INR?
01. 1992 02. 1993 03. 1995 04. 1999 05. 2000
Q-22 Parliament enjoys the exclusive right to legislate on the subject contained in -
01. The Union list 02. The Concurrent list 03. The State list
04. Both 1 and 2 05. None of these
Q-23 In which year, Indian Coinage system started using decimal system?
01. April 1955 02. April 1956 03. April 1957 04. April 1958 05. April 1959
Q-24 India is a Union of States comprising 28 states and how many union territories?
01. 6 02. 7 03. 8 04. 9 05. 10
Q-25 Julian Assange is the founder of _____.
01. Facebook 02. Orkut 03. WikiLeaks 04. Google 05. None of these
Q-26 What does MDR stands for?
01. Margin Discount Rate 02. Mobile Discount Rate 03. Maximum Discount Rate
04. Minimum Discount Rate 05. Merchant Discount Rate
Q-27 What is an FPO (Follow on Public Offering)?
01. It is issue of shares by company for the 1st time
02. It is issue of shares by the company subsequent to IPO

03. It is issue of Commercial Paper by the company
04. All of the above
05. None of these
Q-28 Lance Armstrong is related to which sport?
01. Cricket 02. Hockey 03. Baseball 04. Badminton 05. Cycling
Q-29 What is an Open Market Operation?
01. It is release of funds by RBI in Open Market
02. It is standby facility to banks by RBI for infusion of liquidity
03. It is buying or selling of government bonds in the open market by Central Bank to inject or suck liquidity
from the system
04. All of the above
05. None of these
Q-30 Mixed Economy refers to an economy where there is ______.
01. Privatization and Liberalization 02. Existence of Capitalism
03. The existence of both public and private sectors 04. Liberalization and Globalization
05. None of these
Q-31 The economy of India is _____.
01. Underdeveloped economy 02. Developing Mixed Economy 03. Developed Economy
04. All of these 05. None of these
Q-32 The first attempt to calculate National Income of India was made by .................. in 1867 -68.
01. Gopal Krishna Gokhale 02. Justice Ranade 03. DadaBhaiNaoroji
04. P.C. Mahalanobis 05. None of these
Q-33 Nagarjuna Sagar Srisailam tiger reserve is in which state?
01. Arunachal Pradesh 02. Andhra Pradesh 03. Kerala
04. Karnataka 05. None of these
Q-34 The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) has amended which of the following act recently?
01. IBBI (Insolvency Resolution Process for HUF) Regulations, 2016
02. IBBI (Insolvency Resolution Process for Individual Person) Regulations, 2016
03. IBBI (Insolvency Resolution Process for Corporate Persons) Regulations, 2016
04. IBBI (Insolvency Resolution Process for Company) Regulations, 2016
05. None of these
Q-35 Parker Solar Probe is also known as:-
01. Parker Human’s mission 02. Parker solar mission 03. Humanity’s first mission
04. Humanity’s solar probe mission 05. None of these
Q-36 The reserve held by commercial bank in form of cash with RBI is known as?
01. Cash reserve 02. Deposit reserve 03. Excess reserve 04. Momentary reserve 05. Monetary reserve
Q-37 The term ‘Birdie’ is used in which of the following game?
01. Polo 02. Golf 03. Squash 04. Kabaddi 05. None of these
Q-38 The value of national output produced by residents of a country, whether located at home or overseas, after
depreciation and excluding the influence of taxes and subsidies, is known as:
01. GDP at market prices 02. GNP at market prices 03. NNP at factor cost
04. GNP at factor cost 05. GDP at factor cost
Q-39 The Yarlung Zangbo River, in India, is known as …………..
01. Ganga 02. Indus 03. Brahmaputra 04. Mahanadi 05. Narmada
Q-40 Which Ministry has released a booklet titled "Special Relations with Sikhs of PM Modi and His Government"?
01. Ministry of Culture 02. Ministry of Education
03. Ministry of Information and Broadcasting 04. Ministry of Law
05. None of the above
Q-41 Recently how much GST collected in November 2020?
01. 1.04 lakh 02. 2.05 lakh 03. 1.25 lakh 04. 1.50 lakh 05. None of the above
Q-42 Recently according to OECD, what is the projected GDP forecast of India for 2020-21?
01. -5 02. -9.90% 03. -10% 04. -18.60% 05. -12.20%
Q-43 How many GST registrations has been cancelled in October and November?
01. 1.50 lakh 02. 1.60 lakh 03. 1.63 lakh 04. 2.75 lakh 05. 3. 85 lakh
Q-44 Recently how has been addressed the 26th "National Annual Conference of Sahodaya School Complexes"?
01. Narendra Modi 02. Amit Shah 03. Ramesh Pokhriyal ‘Nishank’
04. Ravi Shankar Prasad 05. None of the above
Q-45 Who among the following become the first Indian to stand on the podium in an FIA Formula 2 Race?
01. Jehan Daruvala 02. Pawan Negi 03. Bajaran Punia 04. M C. Marry Com 05. None of the above
Q-46 Recently which of the following police station chosen as best performing Police Station in country?
01. AWPS-Suramangalam (Salem, Tamil Nadu) 02. Kharsang (Changlang, Arunachal Pradesh)
03. Jhilmili (Surajpur, Chhattisgarh) 04. Sanguem (South Goa, Goa)
05. Nongpok Sekmai (Thoubal, Manipur)
Q-47 Recently MoHFW has developed which mobile app for COVID-19 vaccination delivery?
01. Coronakavach 02. Mahakavach 03. AarogyaSetu 04. Corona watch 05. Co-Win
Q-48 Recently which of the following organisation launched “Honey Mission Earns First Income for Migrant Workers”?
01. Khadi and Village Industries Commission 02. National Commission for Schedule Tribe
03. FICCI 04. Ministry of Social Justice
Q-49 Recently Indian navy has finalized SMASH 2000 Anti-Drone systems with which country?
01. Russia 02. Germany 03. Israel 04. France 05. USA
Q-50 Recently which of the following becomes first country in world to approved coronavirus vaccine?
01. India 02. Japan 03. Russia 04. USA 05. Britain
Q-51 Recently Central Government has initiated how many Khelo India small centres to boost sports in India?
01. 2000 02. 1300 03. 1600 04. 900 05. 1000
Q-52 Recently which bank collaborated with "PNB MetLife India Insurance Company Limited" to launch "Pradhan
Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana"?
01. Axis Bank 02. HDFC Bank 03. Paytm Payments Bank
04. Airtel Payments Bank 05. Post Payments Bank
Q-53 Recently who inaugurated 1st SCO Young Scientist Conclave?
01. Dr S.K Varshney 02. Dr. Harsh Vardhan 03. Dr. Sathish Reddy
04. Narendra Modi 05. Rajnath Singh
Q-54 Recently which short film has been selected as India's official entry to the 93rd Academy Awards?
01. Tanaji 02. Shameless 03. Sound proof 04. Natkhat 05. None of the above
Q-55 Which state has launched a one-time power bill settlement scheme 2020?
01. Goa 02. Kerala 03. Punjab 04. Bihar 05. Jharkhand
Q-56 Recently which of the following place “HunarHaat” to be organised by Union Ministry of Minority Affairs?
01. Rampur 02. Lucknow 03. Varanasi 04. Bhopal 05. A and B both
Q-57 Recently which bank sign $50 million loan to boost West Bengal’s digital platforms for public finance reforms?
01. World Bank 02. Asian Development Bank 03. New Development Bank
04. European Bank 05. US Federal Bank
Q-58 ___________NABARD sign MoU to work together to synergize the activities in the interest of agriculture and
allied sectors for bringing better value to the stakeholders.
01. APEDA 02. EPFO 03. SBI 04. ADB 05. None of the above
Q-59 Recently which of the following launched “Aadi Mahotsav” 2020?
01. Ramesh Chand Meena 02. Arjun Munda 03. Thawar Chandra Gehlot
04. Yogi Aditya Nath 05. None of the above
Q-60 Which Bollywood star has been appointed as the brand ambassador of Dabur Chyawanprash by Dabur India
Limited?
01. Akshay Kumar 02. Salman Khan 03. Shahrukh Khan 04. Sunny Deol 05.AmitabhBachchan
Q-61 Recently who has been appointed as the new global CEO of Bata Shoe Organization?
01. Sandeep Bakshi 02. Rajeev Gopalakrishnan 03.AshwaniWindlass
04. Sandeep Kataria 05. Danish Kumar Khara
Q-62 The RTGS system of transaction has made available round the clock, with effect from which day?
01. 10-Dec-20 02. 15-Dec-20 03. 14-Dec-20 04. 12-Dec-20 05. 11-Dec-20
Q-63 Recently from which of the following bank has asked to stop new digital business launches?
01. Yes Bank 02. Axis Bank 03. Kotak Mahendra Bank
04. HDFC 05. None of the above
Q-64 Boko Haram is the rebel group of which country?
01. Myanmar 02. China 03. Yemen 04. Nigeria 05. Syria
Q-65 Recently which of the following city “Dev Deepawali Mahotsav” is organised in Uttar Pradesh?
01. Prayagraj 02. Varanasi 03. Lucknow 04. Kanpur 05. Mathura
Q-66 Which organisation had launched the 'High Burden to High Impact' (HBHI) initiative?
01. WTO 02. WHO 03. IMF 04. ADB 05. ICMR
Q-67 Recently which of the following word named as “Word of the Year 2020” in Cambridge Dictionary?
01. Samvidhan 02. Quarantine 03. Corona 04. Lockdown 05. None of the above
Q-68 Recently the Cabinet has approved Universal Service Obligation Fund Scheme for providing Mobile Coverage
in which state?
01. Punjab 02. Arunachal Pradesh 03. Madhya Pradesh
04. Goa 05. West Bengal
Q-69 Recently which ministry organised “Green Charcoal Hackathan”?
01. Ministry of Mines
02. Ministry of Power and New & Renewable Energy
03. Ministry of Environment forest and climate change
04. Ministry of Jalshakti
Q-70 Recently the meeting of Counter Narcotics working group was held between which countries?
01. China-Bhutan 02. India-Bangladesh 03. Iran-Iraq 04. India-USA 05. None of above
Q-71 PM SVANidhi is related to which?
01. Related to Insurance of Doctor 02. Related to farmers 03. Related to fisherman
04. Related to street venders 05. None of above
Q-72 Recently who has launched SMARTs program to strengthen investor education as a part of World Investor week
2020?
01. Ravi Shankar Prasad 02. P.K. Mishra 03. Ajay Tyagi
04. Rajeev Kumar 05. Rajiv Gauba
Q-73 Recently who has been nominated as TIME’s first ever "Kid of the Year" 2020 at the age of 15?
01. Gitanjali Rao 02. Malala Yousafzai 03. Greta Thunberg 04. Suman Rao 05. None of the above
Q-74 Recently Veteran footballer Paolo Rossi passed away, he belong to which country.
01. Hong Kong 02. Germany 03. Brazil 04. Italy 05. France
Q-75 Who has been appointed as the ambassador of the BAFTA Breakthrough initiative in India?
01. Anupam Kher 02. Sonu Nigam 03. AR Rahman 04. Deepa Mehta 05. Bhanu Athaiya
Q-76 Recently which become India’s first 100 Octane patrol?
01. XP 125 02. XP 100 03. XP 87 04. XP 88 05. XP 89
Q-77 Recently who were named Time magazine's 2020 "Person of the Year"?
01. Joe Biden and Kamala Harris 02. Angela Merkel and Kamala Harris
03. Sundar Pichai and Narendra Modi 04. Xi Jinping and Donald Trump
05. Tsai Ing-wen and Kamala Harris
Q-78 Recently which of the following organisation organised "India International Science Festival"-2020?
01. Council of Scientific and Industrial Research 02. Indian Council for Medical Research
03. Ministry of Home affairs 04. Economic and Social Council
05. United Nations Environment Programme
Q-79 Recently in which of the following city the "Suryadhar Lake" has been inaugurated?
01. Chennai 02. Dehradun 03. Shimla 04. Chandigarh 05. Lucknow
Q-80 Recently which state has got its first eco-bridge for small animals?
01. Bihar 02. Tripura 03. Uttarakhand 04. Punjab 05. Goa
TEST-II : Quantitative Aptitude
Q-1 Find the value of quantities and state the correct relationship-
Quantity I- Total cost of two article is 1680, if first is sells at 12% profit and second is sells at 16% loss then
there are no profit or no loss. Find the difference of their cost.
Quantity II -A dishonest shopkeeper said that he sells articles at cost price but he use 100g less weight on per
kg. If he sells article of Rs. 2700 of cost price then find % of profit ?
(1) Quantity I > Quantity II (2) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
(3) Quantity II > Quantity I (4) Quantity II ≥ Quantity I
(5) Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
Quantity I- A man can row at a speed of 12.5 km/h in still water. He goes to a certain point in upstream and back
to the starting point in a river flowing at the rate of 2.5 km/h. Find average speed of man for the total journey?
Quantity II- Find Speed of a cyclist while he cycling in a circular ground of radius 10.5 kilometer, if he takes 3
hour to complete one full round of the ground?
Quantity I- Raju spent 80% of his income. If his income increases by 40% then he will increase his saving by
25%. In that condition how many more percent is his new spent than old spent?
Quantity II- In an examination a student got 36% marks but he failed by 32 marks. In the same examination
another student got 48% marks that is 64 marks more than passing marks. Find passing mark percentage?
Quantity I- A sum of Rs. 13500 is distributed in two part and first part deposited in a bank at the rate of 6%
per annum for 5 years while second part deposited in the bank at the rate of 8% per annum for 3 years. If simple
interest obtained on both the parts are same then find the difference of money between these two part?
Quantity II- If any amount borrowed at the rate of x p.c.p.a. for 3 years and the same amount borrowed at the
rate of (x+3) p.c.p.a. for same time then the difference between their simple interest is Rs.135 , find the sum of
money?
Quantity I- Roshanee distributed Rs.2523 to her son Gopal and Golu at the rate of 5% per annum on compound interest
for 3 years and 5 years respectively. If Gopal and Golu got equal amount then find the sum of money of Gopal?

Quantity II- Find amount on sum of Rs. 960 at the rate of % per annum for years while interest
compounded yearly?
Q.6-10. Read the following information carefully to answer the questions asked-
Electronic Bazar is situated in Gomti Nagar Lucknow which sells only four items i.e. TV, Fridge, Washing
Machine and AC. Related data for the month of May 2019 are given below.
It sold 56 TV sets whose selling price is 24750 Rs. and profit is 6750 Rs. Cost price of Fridge and AC were 6000
Rs. and 14000 Rs. respectively more than cost price of TV set. Profit percent Fridge and AC were 12.5% and
40% respectively. Showroom sold total 125 articles in which 25 were Fridge and 32 were Washing Machine.
Selling price of Fridge was 27000 Rs.On selling washing machine at Rs 18125 he got a profit of 25%.
Q-6 Find the profit earned by showroom on selling washing machines.
(1) 124000 (2) 112000 (3) 116000 (4) 122000 (5) None of these
Q-7 Find the profit percent of showroom on fridge.
(1) 16.67% (2) 20% (3) 15% (4) 25% (5) None of these
Q-8 Profit on sale of AC is approximately _____ percent of cost price of TV.
(1) 57% (2) 64% (3) 84% (4) 71% (5) 77%
Q-9 Find the ratio of cost price of Washing Machine and selling price of AC.
(1) 141:433 (2) 141:448 (3) 145:448 (4) 145:433 (5) None of these
Q-10 Find the average selling price of 4 TV, 6 Washing Machine and 5 AC. (nearest value)
(1) 24950 (2) 26440 (3) 28780 (4) 29210 (5) 31080
Q.11-15. Read the following table carefully and answer the questions given below.
Number of passed students in board examination in different years, ratio of boys and girls among them and
percentage of boys and girls passed in first division
Q-11 What is the total number of girls who passed in first division ?
(1) 470 (2) 475 (3) 478 (4) 473 (5) 487
Q-12 What is the respective ratio of number of boys and girls who passed in first division in school D ?
(1) 10 : 9 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 11 : 9 (4) 3 : 4 (5) 10 : 19

Q-13 The number of passed girls is what percent of the number of passed boys in school C ?
(1) 82 % (2) 87.5% (3) 85.2% (4) 84% (5) 86.5%
Q-14 What is the difference between the number of boys and girls passed in first division in school E ?
(1) 36 (2) 34 (3) 30 (4) 32 (5) 38
Q-15 The number of boys passed in first division in school C is what percent more than the number of boys passed in
first division in school F ?
(1) 22 % (2) 45% (3) 33% (4) 28% (5) 40%
Q-16 What approximate value will come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?

(1) 28 (2) 30 (3) 32 (4) 35 (5) 17
1/7 of 2803 + 129.8% of 770.4 = 14×?
(1) 92 (2) 97 (3) 100 (4) 103 (5) 107
of 29.89% of 403 + 1/3 of 21.03% of 1998 = ?
(1) 191 (2) 201 (3) 194 (4) 209 (5) 215
1/5 (√143+√170 ) + 1/6 (√122+√168 ) = ?
(1) 11 (2) 9 (3) 4 (4) 13 (5) 18

(1) 8 (2) 10 (3) 12 (4) 14 (5) 16
Q-21 From a container, 6 liters milk was drawn out and was replaced by water. Again 6 liters of mixture was drawn
out and was replaced by the water. Thus the quantity of milk and water in the container after these two operations
is 8 : 10. The quantity of mixture is:
(1) 8 liter (2) 10 liter (3) 12 liter (4) 15 liter (5) 18 liter
Q-22 In an examination, the number of successful students was 4 times the number of unsuccessful students. If there
were 35 less students and the number of unsuccessful students were 9 more, then the ratio of their number would
have been 2 : 1. Find the total number of students.
(1) 120 (2) 124 (3) 135 (4) 145 (5) 155
Q-23 In a box, there are 10 black, 13 white and 12 red balls. One ball is picked up randomly. What is the probability
that it is neither white nor red?
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
Q-24 A dishonest shopkeeper professes to sell cloth at the cost price but he uses faulty metre rod. The metre rod measures
90 cm only. Find his gain percent.(approx)
(1) 11.11% (2) 11.09% (3) 9.11% (4) 9.09% (5) 10%
Q-25 On a journey across Delhi, a taxi averages 30 km/hr for 60% of the distance, 20 km/hr for 20% of it and 10 km/
hr for the remainder.The average speed for the whole journey (in km/hr) is :
(1) 25 (2) 20 (3) 27.5
(4) 22.5 (5) Can not be determined
Q-26 Dimensions of a park are 24 m×16 m. A path of width 0.5 m is to be formed outside this park. Find the total cost
incurred if the contractor harges 195 Rs/m2 and also a GST of 18% will be applicable on whole bill.
(1) 9834.5 Rs (2) 8522.25 Rs (3) 9434.1 Rs (4) 7852.2 Rs (5) None of these
Q-27 Brother A and B had some saving in the ratio 4:5. They decided to buy a gift for their sister, sharing the cost in
the ratio 3:4, after they bought, A saves two-third of his amount while B is left with Rs. 145. Then the value of
the gift is?
(1) 136 Rs. (2) 150 Rs. (3) 169 Rs. (4) 175 Rs. (5) None of these
Q-28 A man purchased 35 kg. of rice at the rate of Rs. 9.50 per kg and 30 kg. of riced at the rate of Rs. 10.50 per
kg. He mixed the two approximately at what price per kg should he sell the mixture to make 35% profit in the
transaction?
(1) 12.75 (2) 13.25 (3) 13.5 (4) 13.75 (5) None of these
Q-29 6 coins are tossed simultaneously. Find the probality of getting exactly four tails.
(1) 1/8 (2) 1/4 (3) 15/64 (4) 7/32 (5) None of these
Q-30 A man can row 8 km/h in still water. If the river is running at 2 km/h, it takes 4 hrs more upstream than to go
downstream for the same distance. Then the distance is given by-
(1) 55 km. (2) 68 km. (3) 60 km. (4) 64 km. (5) 65 km.

TEST-III : English Language
Q-1-5. In the question, a sentence is given with a phrasal verb written in bold, Read the sentence carefully and
decide if the phrasal verb is correctly mentioned as per the context of the sentence, If it is not used correctly,
choose the correct one from the alternatives suggested below. In case of being correctly used, choose ‘No
correction required’ as your answer.
Q-1 Although tobacco ads are prohibited companies get around the ban by sponsoring music shows.
(1) Get across (2) Get along (3) Get at (4) Get away (5) No correction required.
Q-2 In spite of the firing 300 demonstrators succeeded in reaching the border at Chakoti, where Mr. Khan eventually
agreed to call off the march.
(1) Call at (2) Call away (3) Call for (4) Call out (5) No correction required.
Q-3 The Government buildings along the Embankment drop away behind us, and here I am in another world, another
life.
(1) Drop around (2) Drop in (3) Drop back (4) Drop off (5) No correction required.
Q-4 No country has a monopoly on bravery; great deeds of heroism are liable to break down in the most unexpected
places.
(1) breakaway (2) break out (3) break into (4) break up (5) No correction required.
Q-5 The transition back to work is easier, however, if individuals have worked previously and have skills to fall back.
(1) Fall back (2) Fall back on (3) Fall behind (4) Fall down (5) No correction required.
Q-6-10. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. If the given sentence is correct as it is, mark
the answer as ‘No error’.
Q.6. The Maharashtra and Union governments have sought (A)/to defend the arrest and prosecution, contending that
the case (B) /is based on incrimination evidence seized during the probe (C)/and has nothing to do with the ideol-
ogy or the political views of those under investigation.(D)/ No error (E)
(1) A (2) C (3) B (4) E (5) D
Q-7 The decoration of the new office block (A)/ including the furniture and curtains (B) are most pleasing and it suits
the (C)ambient of the place (D)/No Error (E)
(1) A & D (2) B & C (3) E (4) C & D (5) D
Q-8 The plan to bring all liquid affluent discharge from textile units (A)/ and tanneries to zero has to be pursued vig-
orously, giving industries (B)/ the assistance to help them choose the best technologies(C)/ against the recovery
of wastewater for reuse. (D)/ No Error (E)
(1) A (2) B & A (3) C (4) A & D (5) E
Q-9 Learning the arts and crafts don’t just foster the (A) /creative development of a child, but also assists in advancing
and refining his (B) /or her core skills, which in fact went towards (C) /boosting academic achievement as well.
(D) / No error (E)
(1) D & B (2) B (3) A & B (4) E (5) C & A
Q-10 The pieces of evidence which were present at the (A) /court against the allegations of prosecution (B)/are the
fleet of liars(C)/ turned the case towards them (D)/No error (E)
(1) A & C (2) B & D (3) C (4) E (5) D
Q-11-15. Choose the correct word for the following sentences given below-:
Q.11. i. It’s been less than three months since Bansal’s shocking ___________ from Flipkart, the e-commerce giant
he founded over a decade ago.
ii. The news reported the __________ of the dictator.
iii. Did she manipulate the ________ of White House travel office personnel so her pals could get the job?
(1) Ouster (2) Retention (3) Elimination (4) Inclusion (5) Both 2 & 3

Q-12 i. This is the __________ post-independence plot by the state against its own citizens.
ii. The man who has not hesitated to betray us both, will not hesitate to misrepresent us in the _______way, if
he can do it in the future.
iii. That workhouse has the ___________ compound I ever tasted.
(1) Nauseating (2) Noble (3) Vilest (4) Desirous (5) Soothing
Q-13 i. The new medical treatment ____________the need for surgery.
ii. The use of equipment ___________ the problem of laborers in the factory.
iii. This interpretation ___________ a problem that cannot be resolved on the views of the employers.
(1) Obliterates (2) Obviates (3) Undermines (4) Botches (5) Ponders
Q-14 i. The dangers inherent in granting _____________ power to the legislature were perhaps best brought out in
a lecture delivered by a professor.
ii. Allowing the dictator’s power to go________________ is dangerous and someone needs to put it in check
iii. A large segment of mankind turns to _____________ nature as a last refuge from encroaching technology.
(1) Fettered (2) Restrained (3) Untrammeled (4) Confined (5) Entrenched
Q-15 i. In fact, teeth whitening may not work for some people at all, depending on whether the source of the dullness
is external or ______.
ii. It does require a fairly perceptive and finely discriminating eye to judge intelligently the _________ qualities
of any work of art.
iii. One of the main problems has been and remains the classification of these algebras as ________ algebraic
and topological objects.
(1) Impending (2) Intrinsic (3) Interpretation (4) Constraint (5) Construal
Q.16-25. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed
in bold to help you locate them while answering some questions.
Climate change caused by humans is real and it is happening now. Only a high degree of international co-
operation can adequately address this global problem. The recently released report of the Intergovernmental
Panel on Climate Change has reconfirmed the basic facts: Greenhouse gases, primarily carbon dioxide emitted
from burning fossil fuels like coal and oil, as well as other gases emitted as a result of human activity, such
as methane, black carbon (a major component of soot), and hydrofluorocarbons, or “HFCs,” are responsible
for an unprecedented rate of warming of the planet. This warming is already causing severe disruptions and
harm to communities. Left unabated, climate change will cause increased droughts, rising seas, and a host of
other problems.
India is the United States’ biggest partner in the developing world on cooperative ventures to address climate
change. The U.S. and India are collaborating on a wide range of climate change issues. For example, our National
Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration and the Indian Ministry of Earth Sciences are working together to en-
hance capacity for monsoon prediction on a monthly basis for different States in India. This programme delivers
quantifiable improvements in forecasting extreme events, therefore improving India’s resilience to extreme and
variable events wrought by climate change, such as flood and drought years, and active and dry spells of mon-
soons. We are also working jointly to protect India’s forests, which store carbon dioxide while providing great
value to local populations and ecosystems. Beyond the critically important goal of improving our understanding
of how the climate works, and putting in place preparedness systems to minimize harm, the United States and
India are drawing on the creativity and forward thinking of our best scientists, engineers and policymakers to
reduce carbon pollution while building a low-carbon future that promotes economic growth. In the United States
we have already greatly reduced our emissions from transportation, and, as part of President Obama’s Climate
Action Plan, we will reduce carbon pollution from power plants and further reduce energy waste in appliances
and buildings. India is also taking important steps such as ambitious measures to improve energy efficiency

and expand renewable energy, including one of the world’s largest national targets for solar power. There is no
doubt that the transition away from fossil fuels and other greenhouse gases requires an upfront investment and
hard work. The United States is committed to this effort domestically and to partnering with countries with more
urgent development needs to make this transition.
Q-16 Which of the following would be the repercussions of climate change if it is not checked?
(A) The rising level of the sea (B) Increasing cases of drought
(C) Dry spells of monsoon (D) Floods
(1) Only A (2) Only C (3) Only A and B (4) Only B and D (5) All of the above
Q-17 Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage?
(1) Carbon dioxide emanates from burning fossil fuels like coal and oil
(2) The problem of climate change can be addressed without international cooperation.
(3) President Obama’s Climate Action Plan aims to reduce carbon pollution from power plants.
(4) India and the U.S are working together to protect India’s forests.
(5) All except (2)
Q-18 In which of the following is India partnering with the United States?
(1) To find out which other nations are involved in causing pollution to the environment.
(2) To achieve excellence in technological advancement.
(3) Joint ventures to deal with the problems of climate change
(4) In determining the loss caused by environment degradation
(5) Not mentioned in the passage.
Q-19 Why is it important to preserve India’s forests?
(1) The forests provide green cover and do not pose a threat to the environment.
(2) Forests are a great source of obtaining wood which is used for various purposes and has great economic value.
(3) Forest cover helps regulated rainfall activities thereby aiding agricultural activities.
(4) They absorb carbon dioxide and provide value to the ecosystem and the local population
(5) Not mentioned in the passage
Q-20 To achieve which of the following purposes, have scientists, engineers and policymakers have come together in
India?
(1) To find ways to reduce carbon pollution which would eventually lead to economic growth.
(2) To devise the best policy which could have increased farm production.
(3) To make efforts to bring about a social change
(4) To conduct research in order to get to the causes of carbon pollution and its effects.
(5) All of the above
Q-21 How would enhancing capacity for monsoon prediction on a monthly basis for different States in India be
helpful?
(1) India might seek help from other nations to lend a helping hand in dealing with the calamity.
(2) India would remain prepared for the extreme events caused by climate change.
(3) India can make policies to empower citizens economically and socially so that they may face hard times
without worrying.
(4) The states in India would be able to put forward their demands for economic assistance in order to carry out
their regular activities.
(5) The capacity cannot be enhanced.
Q-22 Choose the word most SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold, as used in the passage.
Upfront
(1) Small (2) Indirect (3) Recurring (4) Advance (5) Priority

Q-23 Choose the word most SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold, as used in the passage.
Resilience
(1) Compliance (2) Flexibility (3) Leap (4) Volatility (5) Adapt
Q-24 Choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the
passage.
Emitted
(1) Examined (2) Transmitted (3) Let out (4) Radiated (5) Absorbed
Q-25 Choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the
passage.
Unprecedented
(1) Unusual (2) Marvelous (3) New (4) Normal (5) Notable
Q.26-30. The sentences (A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H) given in the question are the divided parts of a paragraph. In
order to make a coherent paragraph, rearrange the sentences except B & D and G (highlighted) as these
are correctly fixed at the second, fourth and the seventh place respectively.
A. stands at the head of a wide approach.
B. sculptor, artist and the Lincoln Memorial Commission,
C. with the expenditure of more than $2,000,000, has brought to
D. completion the splendid Lincoln Memorial at Washington which will be dedicated soon.
E. is visible from a distance.
F. Ten years of the combined effort of architect,
G. Within the portico the great statue of Lincoln, by Daniel Chester French,
H. This Memorial, a truly splendid achievement of modern art,
Q-26 Which of these would be the first sentences after rearranging the given sentences?
(1) A (2) C (3) E (4) F (5) H
Q-27 Which of these would be the third statement after rearranging the given statements?
(1) A (2) C (3) E (4) F (5) H
Q-28 Which of these would be the fifth statement after rearranging the given statements?
(1) A (2) C (3) E (4) F (5) H
39
Q-29 Which of these would be the sixth statement after rearranging the given statements?

×13= (1) A (2) C (3) E (4) F
Q-30 Which of these would be the eighth statement after rearranging the given statements?
(5) H
40
(1) A (2) C (3) E (4) F (5) H

TEST-IV : Reasoning
Q. 1-5. Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
A number arrangement machine when given an input line of numbers rearranges them following a particular rule.
The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

Step IV is the last Step of the arrangement of the above input. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find
out in each of the following questions the appropriate steps for the given input, Input for the questions given
below-

Q-1 What is the first two elements from the right in step 1?
(1) 2,4 (2) 1,3 (3) 1,6 (4) 1,5 (5) None of these
Q-2 What is the first two elements from the left in step 2?
(1) 1,3 (2) 1,4 (3) 1,5 (4) 1,6 (5) None of these
Q-3 What is the last step of the above arrangement?
(1) 3 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 4 (5) 5
Q-4 What are the middle two numbers of step 1?
(1) 2,4 (2) 1,2 (3) 1,3 (4) 1,6 (5) None of these
Q-5 What is the first element from the left in step 3?
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 4 (4) 5 (5) None of these
Q.6-10. Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
In the question two rows are given and to find out the resultant of a particular row you need to follow the follow-
ing steps.
Step 1: if an odd number is followed by an odd number then the resultant will be the remainder obtained by
dividing the larger number with the smaller number.
Step 2: if an even number is followed by an even number then the resultant comes by multiplication of both the
numbers.
Step 3: if an even number is followed by an odd number then the resultant will be the addition of two numbers.
Step 4: if an odd number is followed by an odd prime number then the resultant will be the difference of both
the numbers.
Step 5: if an odd number is followed by a number divisible by 4 then the resultant comes by addition of both the
numbers.
Step 6: if an odd number is followed by an even number not divisible by 4 then the resultant will be the quotient
obtained by dividing the larger number with the smaller number.

Q-6 8 15 4 4
5 16 7 13
Find the sum of the resultant of two rows?
(1) 65 (2) 66 (3) 76 (4) 86 (5) None of these
Q-7 16 X 24 13
3 21 7 40
If X is the resultant of second row, then find the resultant of first row?
(1) 47 (2) 57 (3) 74 (4) 89 (5) None of these
Q-8 7 42 8 51
17 7 26 2
Find the difference of the resultant of second row and first row?
(1) 436 (2) 524 (3) 421 (4) 443 (5) None of these
Q-9 7 12 3 11
6 14 5 7
Find the resultant of both the rows and the highest number will be the answer?
(1) 27 (2) 56 (3) 72 (4) 82 (5) 32
Q-10 27 9 11 16
19 X 9 29
If X is the resultant of the first row, then find the resultant of the second row?
(1) 22 (2) 23 (3) 21 (4) 12 (5) None of these
Point T is 2 km to the south of point P. Point N is 8 km to the north of point G. Point S is 15 km to the north of
point M. Point P is 8 km to the west of point M.
Point A is 10 km to the south of point R which is 4 km to the east of point N. Point T is 4 km to the east of point
A.
Q-11 Find the shortest distance between S and P?
(1) 16km (2) 17km (3) 12km (4) 18km (5) None of these
Q-12 If a person after taking 2 turns reaches to point M from point G via point A, then what is the distance that he
covered?
(1) 20 km (2) 22 km (3) 24 km (4) 21 km (5) None of these
Q-13 What is the distance between R and Y?
(1) 14km (2) 12km (3) 15km (4) 16km (5) Cannot be determined
Q-14 What is the total distance between point N and point P?
(1) 22 km (2) 20 km (3) 18 km (4) 24 km (5) None of these
Q-15 Point P is in which direction with respect to point S?
(1) South (2) North (3) North-east (4) South-east (5) South-west
Ten people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J stay in a building (floors numbered 1 to 10). They all like different
seasons either summer or winter. The number of people who liked summer season and winter season is the same.
All of them belong to different countries viz United States, Indonesia, Australia, Ethiopia, Uganda, Bangladesh,
Netherlands, Japan, India and England but not necessarily in the same order. Each of them also studies different
natural disasters Blizzard, Droughts, Volcanic eruptions, Heat waves, Hailstorms, Cold waves, Thunderstorms,
Tornadoes, Tsunami and Floods but not necessarily in the same order.
There is one floor between the floors on which C, who lives in Australia and B stay. G, who studied about
Thunderstorms, stays on the floor immediately above D’s floor, who lives in India. Neither H, J nor D studied

Hailstorm. J does not study about Blizzard and lives in Bangladesh. The one who belongs to Uganda stays on the
fourth floor but does not like summers. There are two floors between the floors on which the people who belong
to Ethiopia and Indonesia stay. A stays on the second floor and belongs to Japan. There are three floors between
the floor on which J, who likes summers and B stay, who do not belong to India and study about Drought. The
person who belongs to Australia and The United States likes the same season. H likes winter season and lives
on an even numbered floor which is below the floor on which I stays, who studied about Volcanic Eruptions. J
studied about Tornadoes and E liked summer season. The one who belongs to India stays on the third floor and
does not like the summer season. The one who belongs to The United States lives immediately above the one
who belongs to Indonesia. The one who belongs to the Netherlands stays on the topmost floor and studied about
Heat Waves. The person who belongs to Ethiopia and Indonesia likes the same season. I belong to Indonesia and
likes summer season and lives on an even numbered floor. F studied about Blizzard and does not like summer
season but D studied about Floods and C liked winter season. The person who belongs to England does not live
below the person who belongs to Bangladesh. H does not study about Tsunami. E lived on the topmost floor just
above F. A studied about Tsunami and liked summer season.
Q-16 In which country does H live?
(1) Netherland (2) Indonesia (3) Ethiopia (4) England (5) None of these
Q-17 How many people live between A and C?
(1) Four (2) Three (3) Two
(4) Can’t be determined (5) None of these
Q-18 Who among the following lived on the 6th floor?
(1) A (2) D (3) H (4) F (5) None of these
Q-19 Who is staying 4 floors above from Bangladesh?
(1) The one who is from England (2) Both options (01) and (03)
(3) The one who studied about cold waves (4) Can’t be determined
(5) None of these
Q-20 Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so from a group. Which one does not belongs to that
group?
(1) J (2) The one who is from India (3) G
(4) The one who studies about Hailstorms (5) F
Q.21-25. Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
I, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, A, J, K and L are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four
corners of the square while two people sit in the each of the four sides. The one who sits at the four corners
faces the centre of the table while those who sit in the middle of the sides face outside. Each one of them likes a
different game viz. Hockey, Football, Cricket, Polo, Tennis, Badminton, Golf, Basketball, Baseball, Volleyball,
Snooker and Handball. None of the information given is necessarily in the same order.
L is an immediate neighbour of A and J. C sits third to the left of the one who likes Handball. The one who likes
Handball faces outside. Only two people sit between C and H. The one who likes Hockey sits to the immediate
right of H. The one who likes Tennis sits third to left G. G is neither an immediate neighbour of H nor C. G does
not like the Handball. The one who likes Tennis is not an immediate neighbour of C. H does not like Handball.
Only two people sit between I and the one who likes Tennis. A and J likes Basketball and Snooker respectively.
E likes Golf. The one who likes Football is an immediate neighbour of E. K likes Volleyball and sitting in front
of the one who likes Baseball. D sits to the immediate left of the one who likes Badminton. G and I does not like
Badminton. The one who likes Polo is an immediate neighbour of F. A is not an immediate neighbour of the one
who likes Football.


Q-21. Who amongst the following sits between F and C?
(1) A (2) The one who likes Football
(3) The one who likes Cricket (4) J
(5) I
Q-22 Which of the following is true regarding B?
(1) B is one of the immediate neighbours of D
(2) The one who likes Handball is an immediate neighbour of B
(3) B sits second to left of H
(4) B likes Cricket
(5) B is an immediate neighbour of the one who likes Hockey
Q-23 What is the position of the one who likes Badminton with respect to G?
(1) Second to the left (2) Third to the right (3) Fourth to the left
(4) Second to the right (5) Third to the left
Q-24 Who among the following sits opposite the one who likes Hockey?
(1) The one who likes Football (2) D (3) I
(4) The one who likes Handball (5) The one who likes Polo
Q-25 Who amongst the following represent the immediate neighbours of the one who likes Tennis?
(1) B, F (2) C, E (3) B, E (4) D, F (5) K, H
Q.26-30. Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Seven people P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting in a straight line with equal distance between each other, but not
necessarily in the same order. Some of them are facing north and some are facing south. Each of them born in
different months (January to July) and in different years (1991 to 1997) and each likes different colours i.e. Red,
Pink, Yellow, Blue, Brown, Green and White. They all belong to different cities viz. Lucknow, Agra, Kolkata,
Aligarh, Mumbai, Varanasi and Delhi but not necessarily in the same order.
Persons who sit at the extreme end neither like Yellow nor Red. Only two people are sitting to the left of V
who was born in July 1993. The one who born in the year 1995 is not the neighbour of Q. There are five people
between those who belong to cities Agra and Kolkata. There are only three persons between those who belong
to cities Agra and Varanasi. Only two people sit between V and Q. P sits second to the left of Q who was born
in the month of 29 days. The immediate neighbours of P face opposite directions (i.e. if one of the neighbours
faces south then the other faces north and vice versa). Only one person sits between P and R. U sits third to the
left of R who does not belong to city Lucknow and neither born in 1992 nor 1995 year but this is clear he born in
March. S is not an immediate neighbour of Q and neither born in 1995 nor in 1997 but born in the month of 31
days. Both the immediate neighbours of R face the same direction (i.e. if one neighbour faces south then the other
neighbour also faces south and if one neighbour faces north then the other neighbour also faces north). P faces
the same direction as R and not born in the month of 31 days. T faces north and born in the June month of leap
year. Q sits on the immediate left of T. The person who likes blue faces south direction and only one person can
sit to the immediate right of him. Two persons sit between the persons who like Yellow and Red Respectively.
The person who likes Yellow sits between the person who likes Blue and Brown. Neither S nor T likes Pink.
The person who likes Red sits to the immediate left of the person who likes White. The person who belongs to
Varanasi does not born in the years 1993 and 1997. There are only two people between those who belong to cities
Kolkata and Mumbai. The person who belongs to Aligarh is to the immediate left of that person who belongs to
Delhi. The person who born in January 1994 is the neighbour of the person who belongs to city Delhi. The one
who likes red colour born in 1992.
Q-26 Who among the following likes brown colour and he belongs to which city?
(1) P, Mumbai (2) R, Varanasi (3) U, Lucknow (4) T, Kolkata (5) S, Delhi

Q-27 Who among the following sits second from the left end of the row and he was born in which month and year?
(1) V, July 1997 (2) P, April 1995 (3) U, February 1991 (4) T, June 1996 (5) R, March 1997
Q-28 Which of the following pairs represents the immediate neighbours of Q?
(1) U and the one who likes white colour. (2) P and the one who likes pink colour.
(3) P and the one who belongs to city Delhi. (4) T and the one who belongs to city Agra.
(5) V and the one who was born in year 1997.
Q-29 Which of the following pairs represents the people sitting at the two extreme ends of the line?
(1) QR (2) PV (3) TU (4) SQ (5) ST
Q-30 Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which one of the following does not
belong to the group?
(1) S – Green – Agra- January- 1991 (2) V- Yellow- Aligarh- July- 1993
(3) Q – Red – Lucknow – June-1996 (4) R – Blue – Delhi – February - 1997
(5) P - Brown – Varanasi – April- 1995
Q-31 Each question below is followed by a statement and two arguments I and II. You have to decide which of
the following arguments is a strong argument and which is a weak argument. In making decisions about
important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between strong arguments and weak arguments
so for as they relate to the question. Strong arguments are those which are both important and directly
related to the question. Weak arguments are those which are of minor importance and also may not be
directly related to the question or may be related to a trivial aspect of the question.
Statement: Election commission of India should make it mandatory for a candidate who is participating in
general elections to have a minimum educational qualification else he/she cannot enroll his name for elections.
I. Yes, it will allow only educated persons to enter into government.
II. No, a candidate selected by the citizen of India need not to be of a certain educational qualification since he
is people’s choice.
III. Yes, a person with no educational qualification cannot become a successful leader.
(1) If only argument I and II are strong. (2) If only argument I and III are strong.
(3) If only argument II and III are strong. (4) If only argument II is strong.
(5) None of these.
Q-32-35. Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You
have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the
statements and Give answer:
(1) If statement I alone is sufficient but statement II alone is not sufficient.
(2) If statement II alone is sufficient but statement I alone is not sufficient.
(3) If each statement alone (either I or II) is sufficient.
(4) If even statement I and II together are not sufficient.
(5) If both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
Q.32. Is E immediate neighbour of A?
(I) There are six people A, B, C, D, E and F sitting around a circular table facing the centre. A is sitting opposite
to C. D is sitting between B and C. E and F are immediate neighbours of each other. B is in the anticlockwise
direction from A. F is immediate left of A.
(II) There are six people A, E, F, J, M and X sitting around a circular table facing the centre. A is sitting opposite
to X. J is sitting between M and X. M is sitting immediate right of A. F is sitting immediate right of X.
Q-33 There are six persons S, T, U, V, W and X who live in Lucknow and go to office daily by metro. They depart at
different metro stations. Who among the following depart at Munshipulia metro station?
(I) T and V depart at Singar nagar and I.T. College metro station respectively.

(II) W depart at Transport nagar but U does not depart at Hazratganj metro station. S departs at Krishna nagar
metro station.
Q-34 Point T is in which direction with respect to point A?
(I) Point T is in north of Point X. Point X is in east of Point V. Point V is in north of Point Z which is west of
Point A.
(II) Point A is west of Point X. Point X is in west of Point T which is north of Point Z. Point Z is in east of Point
V which is south of Point X.
Q-35 Is W the brother of S?
(I) F is the brother of H, who is the father of A.
(II) A is the brother of S, who is the only sister of W.
Q-36 In each of the following questions, a statement is given along with two assumptions. An assumption is something
supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and its given assumptions and decide which
of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement: This examination system is something that reminds us of the beginnings of the modern education
system in India. The school-leaving examination was designed in the latter half of the 19th century as a way to
determine who can be selected for further education, which was very scarce at that time, and also for lower-level
jobs in offices. It was basically a means of elimination. And it has remained that way up to now. The Grade 10
exam, for instance, fails a large number of children and stops them from going any further. This is a kind of
structural arrangement in a system in which secondary education is not very widespread and higher secondary
education is even less so. Opportunities for further education at the undergraduate level or various kinds of tech-
nical education are also relatively scarce.
Assumptions:(I) Bagging a rank among lakhs of students is accepted widely as a mark of excellence.(II) It is in
the exam that all children no matter what their background is, or whether they study in a posh school or a poor
school face the same test of three hours.
(1) If only assumption I is implicit. (2) If only assumption II is implicit.
(3) If neither I nor II are implicit. (4) If both I and II are implicit.
(5) If either I or II are implicit
Q-37-38. Each question below is followed by a statement and two arguments I and II. You have to decide which of
(5) None of these.
Q.37. Statement: People must save 40% of their income in order to have a secure future.
I. No, secure future is not dependent on the savings only. Other factors are also responsible for securing future.
II.No, excessive saving will not ensure a secure future.
III. Yes, saving 40% of their income will surely give them a support in the future.
Q-38 Statement: Due to increasing road traffic, illegal parking, pollution, road jams government should come up with
a policy of only 1 four wheeler per family?
I. Yes, it will limit the number of vehicles on the road.
II. No, it will bring huge loss to 4 wheeler automobile industry.
III.No, it will be unfair for those families in which more than one member requires four wheeler for sure.

Q-39 Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You
have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the
statements and Give answer:
Is S maternal uncle of M?(I) D is the daughter of G and sister of S. T is married to S. M is the brother of N. S
has only one daughter.(II) S is the father of N and is married to T. G is the father of M. D has only one daughter
and she is married to G.
(1) If statement I alone is sufficient but statement II alone is not sufficient.
(2) If statement II alone is sufficient but statement I alone is not sufficient.
(3) If each statement alone (either I or II) is sufficient.
(4) If even statement I and II together are not sufficient.
(5) If both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
Statement: Consider these developments in the State. On April 4, over a month-and-a-half after the Pulwama
attack (in February), an announcement was made that the National Highway between Baramulla and Udhampur
would be closed to civilian traffic for two days a week to facilitate convoy movements. It did not get the attention
it deserved in the national media, but many security planners were aghast.The highway is a lifeline for the local
population, with many lateral roads and passes through more than two-and-a-half districts. The armed forces are
so heavily deployed and the necessity for supplies and replenishments so constant that they use the roads more
than two days in a week. If the ban now stands lifted, it was because it is untenable.
Assumptions:(I) 75% of the polling took place and there was not a single incident of violence in Jammu and
Kashmir.(II)The ban on movement over the highway terrified the security planners who used to constantly deploy
armed forces.
Statement: Young youths who are coming up with innovative start-up ideas must be provided with funding im-
mediately by the government?
I. No, funding should be provided after their future revenue model analysis only.
II. No, all ideas are not feasible even though they are innovative, hence funding should be provided after a
thorough feasibility analysis only.
III. Yes, it will support new ventures and will promote entrepreneurship.
(5) None of these.

Statement: Giving all children aged three and above the right to an education can become a reality only if the
state is willing to live up to its promise of devoting more financial resources. An expenditure of 6% of GDP on
education could have transformed the sector, given the large wealth generated since economic liberalisation. But
far less is spent for instance, 2.7% in 2017-18. The lost years have cost millions a brighter future, but the draft
NEP provides an opportunity to make amends.
Assumptions:(I) Governments will have to fill teacher vacancies and ensure that the training of recruits is aligned
to scientific, child-oriented teaching methods.(II) The Centre has to guarantee that in its totality, the Right to
Education will encompass all schools bar those catering to minorities. This is necessary to achieve its moral goal
of bringing quality schooling to all in the 6-14 age group; adding the early childhood section, now under the
Ministry of Women and Child Development, will then be meaningful.
(5) If either I or II are implicit.
Statement: Lots of cases of illegal slaughter and cruelty on animals are reported in the last few years. Should
Government take a step to ban non vegetarian food in the country to stop these?
I. Yes, it will ultimately stop illegal slaughter.
II. No, banning non-veg food will be a violation of basic human rights.
III. Yes, these activities are a result of non-vegetarian food consumption.
(5) None of these.
Statement: It was heartening, therefore, to see a chapter devoted to “Foundational Literacy and Numeracy” in
the draft National Education Policy, 2019. The focus it places in the early years is welcome, and the continuity it
recommends between the pre-primary and primary years is necessary. Likewise, its emphasis on mother tongue-
based education and oral language development are critical. However, the analysis presented on why children fail
to learn to read and write largely points to factors surrounding the teaching and learning process — the health and
nutritional status of children, high student-teacher ratios, and so on. While each of these factors is undoubtedly
important, they do not address with sufficient clarity curricular, pedagogical and teacher education-related issues
that plague the teaching and learning of early literacy in many Indian classrooms.
Assumptions:(I) Many children in elementary classrooms across India cannot read and write proficiently, as
demonstrated on an annual basis by the Annual Status of Education Reports(ASER). This affects other school-
based learning, as well as functioning in societies and economies that prize literacy.
(II) The analysis presented on children did not understand as to where were the learning process was lagging
behind.

Statement: Prime Minister Narendra Modi, President Xi Jinping on Thursday agreed to expedite the dialogue
on the India-China boundary issue for securing a “fair” solution. “President Xi Jinping very warmly confirmed
his readiness to visit India this year. He said that he looked forward to discussing all issues from a strategic and
long-term perspective and that both sides should begin intensive preparations for the visit,”
Assumptions:(I) Chinese President is expected to visit India later this year for a summit with Mr. Modi.
(II) The two leaders discussed the status of the bilateral relationship since the Wuhan summit of April 2018,
which came in the backdrop of tension following the 73-day Doklam standoff.
In a certain code,
TROY TRAY TRUMBLE TARZAN is coded as 6O* 6A* 14L@ 8A$
UGLY UMBRELLA UNICORN ULTRA is coded as 12L* 14L% 18R@ 7R#
VOID VEST VAST VARIOUS is coded as 16I* 10S* 6S* 20U@
WEB WORST WORLD WAR is coded as 9E+ 7S# 9L# 4A+
Q-46 What will be the code for VOLUMINOUS according to the above coding pattern?
(1) 21U^ (2) 21U& (3) 22U!
(4) 22U+ (5) Either option 01 or 02
Q-47 What will be the code for TRUST according to the given pattern?
(1) 9S* (2) 8S# (3) 9S# (4) 9S@ (5) None of these
Q-48 What will be the code for VAST?
(1) 10S* (2) 16I* (3) 6S* (4) 20U@ (5) None of these
Q-49 What will be the code for WORST?
(1) 9E+ (2) 7S# (3) 9L# (4) 4A+ (5) None of these
Q-50 What will be the code for UNICORN?
(1) 14L% (2) 18R@ (3) 12L* (4) 7R# (5) None of these
Statement: Yoga, the ayurvedic remedy for every illness whether tension or cancer. Adults and children are get-
ting slothfully busy with Tech devices; seeing the present condition the day to day manoeuvre, yoga is incumbent.
It is a meticulous pursuit that gives an active life from passive life; dynamic life from static life. Alternatively,
chemicals are balefully upshot the physical strength, for that time being it can provide relief to the body but not
worthy at all. Medicines are also important as yoga’s effect is very time taking and some health problems need
instant recovery. For the long term, yoga is highly effective and can’t be replaced. Not a day to be referred a yoga
day but it should be practised regularly.
(A) Yoga, the universal medicine for all the remedies, gets control over the body and mind which makes the
individual’s activities more worthy and healthy.
(B) Untrained instructions can adversely affect the body and trained instructor is hard to find.
(C) Mental relaxation is very important for concentration, that can only be obtained by practising yoga.
(D) Natural cure is better than artificial medication.
(E) Schools and colleges should make yoga mandatory in their curriculum which will make today's generation
regular to it and safe from further illness.

Q-51 Which of the following will be the course of action for the above statement?
(1) A (2) C or A (3) D and A (4) Only E (5) None of these
Q-52 Which of the following will be the weak argument of the above Statement?
(1) B or C (2) Only C (3) A and B (4) Only E (5) None of these
Q-53 Which of the following will be inferred from the above statement?
(1) C and A (2) E or B (3) Only D (4) Only B (5) None of these
Q-54 Which of the following will be the assumption for the above statement?
(1) Only D (2) A and C (3) C and B (4) Only E (5) None of these
Q-55 Which of the following will be the strong argument of the above statement?
(1) D or A (2) Only E (3) Only B (4) C and B (5) None of these
In the following questions, the symbols +, @, & and * are used with the following meaning as illustrated below.
‘F + O’ means ‘Some F are O’.
‘F & O’ means ‘All F are O’.
‘F * O’ means ‘No F is O’.
‘F @ O’ means ‘Some F being O is a possibility’.
You have to be consider the given statement to be true then you have to analyse which of the following conclu-
sion is definitely true.
Q-56 Statement:
1*2&3+7*8&9
Conclusion:
(1) 9 + 7 (2) 2 @ 7 (3) 2 + 1 (4) 8 + 3 (5) 9 * 7
Q-57 Statement:
P&Q&R+S*T+U
Conclusion:
(1) S + T (2) S + P (3) S + Q (4) Q @ S (5) R @ Q
Q-58 Statement:
A*B&C*D+E+F
Conclusion:
(1) B @ D (2) A @ C (3) D @ E (4) D & E (5) F @ E
Q-59 Statement:
2&4+6*8+7*9
Conclusion:
(1) 2 + 6 (2) 8 & 4 (3) 9 @ 6 (4) 7 @ 8 (5) 8 @ 6
Q-60 Statement:
1*2&3+7*8&9
Conclusion:
(1) 9 + 3 (2) 2 @ 3 (3) 2 + 7 (4) 8 + 9 (5) 9 * 1

RBI Grade-B/Explanation/ General Awareness
Q-1.(3) "Pure Banking Nothing else" is the tagline of State Q-18.(1) Kyrgyzstan-Som, Bulgaria-Lev, Austria-Euro,
Bank of India. Samoan-Tala
Q-2.(3) Pooram pronounced is an annual festival, which Q-19.(4) Fresh evaluation of every item of expenditure from
is celebrated in temples dedicated to goddesses the very beginning of each financial year is called
Durga or Kali held especially in Valluvanadu area "Zero-based Budgeting".
and other adjoining parts of north-central Kerala Q-20.(1) The India Post Payments Bank was incorporated
(Present Palakkad, Thrissur and Malappuram on August 17, 2016 under Companies Act, 2013
districts) after the summer harvest. as a public limited company with 100 per cent
Q-3.(4) The balance of payments is the record of all Government of India equity under Department of
international trade and financial transactions made Posts.
by a country's residents. Q-21.(1) Before 1992, pound sterling was used as
Q-4.(1) ASHA is related to women empowerment While intermediate currency.
Swabhiman is related to Financial Inclusion. Q-22.(1) Parliament enjoys the exclusive right to legislate
Mid-Day meal Scheme is to attract the children's on the subjects contained in - The Union List.
to School. Bharat Nirman is for Rural and urban Q-23.(3) Prior to April 1957, there was 64 rupees for 1 rupee
infrastructure development. and only after this change, the value of 1 rupee was
Q-5.(3) Banks give additional rate of interest to Senior 100 Paisa.
Citizens. Q-24.(3) India is a Union of States comprising 28 states and
Q-6.(1) Betla national park is situated in Jharkhand. 8 union territories
Q-7.(1) Whenever RBI does some open market operation Q-25.(3) Julian Assange is the founder of WikiLeaks
transactions, it wishes to regulate Inflation. Q-26.(5) MDR stands for Merchant Discount Rate.
Q-8.(2) Brass gets discoloured in air because of the Q-27.(2) A Follow-On public offering is an issuance of
presence of Hydrogen sulphide. stock subsequent to the company's Initial Public
Q-9.(3) Deficit financing means that the government has Offering.
borrowed money from the RBI. Q-28.(5) Lance Armstrong is an American former
Q-10.(5) For other options: - Scindia Gold Cup: - Polo, Ranji professional road racing cyclist.
Trophy: - Cricket, Davis Cup: - Lawn Tennis, Q-29.(3) OMOs are the market operations conducted by the
Wimbledon: - Lawn Tennis Reserve Bank of India by way of sale/ purchase of
Q-11.(1) In December 2014, the United Nations General Government bond with an objective to adjust the
liquidity conditions in the market.
Assembly adopted a resolution declaring 15th July
Q-30.(3) An economic system combining private and state
as World Youth Skills Day.
enterprise is known as Mixed Economy.
Q-12.(4)
Q-31.(2) The economy of India is a developing mixed
Q-13.(2) A socialist economy is a fully planned economy.
economy.
Planning may be centralized or decentralized. All
Q-32.(3) The first attempt to calculate National Income of
the basic decisions for the control and regulation
India was made by Dada Bhai Naoroji in 1867 -68.
of the economy are taken by the government.
Q-33.(2) Nagarjuna Sagar Srisailam tiger reserve is located
Q-14.(4) Socio Economic Caste Census (SECC)
in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
Q-15.(5) The acronym "RTGS" refers to Real Time Gross
Q-34.(3) The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of
Settlement. The minimum amount to be remitted
India (IBBI) on February 6, 2018 amended
through RTGS is Rs.2 lakhs. There is no upper
the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India
ceiling for RTGS transactions.
(Insolvency Resolution Process for Corporate
Q-16.(3) Exchange markets and over the counter markets Persons) Regulations, 2016.
are Secondary market. Q-35.(3) Parker Solar Probe is also known as Humanity’s
Q-17.(4) Budapest first mission.
Q-36.(1) The reserve held by commercial bank in form of that are capable of bringing down high-speed
cash with RBI is known as Cash reserve. enemy drones. The delivery of the SMASH 2000
Q-37.(2) The term ‘Birdie’ is used in the game of Golf. fire control systems is expected to begin early next
Q-38.(3) The value of national output produced by residents year.
of a country, whether located at home or overseas, Q-50.(5) Britain has become the first country in the world to
after depreciation and excluding the influence of approve the Pfizer-BioNTech coronavirus vaccine.
taxes and subsidies, is known as NNP at factor cost. Q-51.(5) Recently Government has started 1000 Khelo
Q-39.(3) The Yarlung Zangbo River, in India, is known as India small centres to encourage sports culture in
Brahmaputra. country.
Q-40.(3) On the occasion of the birth anniversary of Shri Q-52.(5) India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) has collaborated
Guru Nanak Dev ji, a book titled "Special Relations with "PNB MetLife India Insurance Company
with Sikhs of PM Modi and his Government" was Limited" to launch "Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti
released. It is produced by the Bureau of Outreach Bima Yojana".
Communication under the Ministry of Information Q-53.(2) Dr. Harsh Vardhan inaugurate 1st SCO Young
and Broadcasting. Scientist Conclave to 'Innovate, Patent, Produce
Q-41.(1) According to Ministry of Finance, the gross Goods & Prosper' to lead our countries towards faster
and Services Tax (GST) collection for November development.
stood at Rs 1.04 lakh crore. Q-54.(2) Shameless, a short film written and directed by
Q-42.(2) In its latest economic outlook report, the Keith Gomes, will compete in the Live-Action
Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Short Film category at the 93rd Academy Awards.
Development (OECD) has marginally raised its Q-55.(1) Goa Govt Launches One-Time Power Bill
GDP forecast for India to a contraction of 9.9% Settlement Scheme 2020.
in 2020-21 from its earlier projection of -10.2% Q-56.(5) “HunarHaat” to be organised at Rampur and
in September 2020. Lucknow (UP) by Union Ministry of Minority
Q-43.(3) Goods and service tax (GST) field formations have Affairs.
cancelled 1, 63,042 registrations in October and Q-57.(2) ADB, India sign $50 million loan to boost West
November due to non-filing of GSTR-3B returns Bengal’s digital platforms for public finance
for more than six months. reforms.
Q-44.(3) Union Minister of Education Shri Ramesh Pokhriyal Q-58.(1) APEDA and NABARD sign MoU to work
‘Nishank’ addressed the 26th "National Annual together to synergize the activities in the interest
Conference of Sahodaya School Complexes" as of agriculture and allied sectors for bringing better
the Chief Guest via video conferencing. value to the stakeholders.
Q-45.(1) The Red Bull Racing Junior Jehan Daruvala is Q-59.(2) The 10-day-long “Aadi Mahotsav” 2020, a festival
the first Indian to stand on the podium in an FIA of tribes has been launched by Union Minister for
Formula 2 Race. Tribal Affairs Arjun Munda in a virtual format.
Q-46.(5) Manipur's Nongpok Sekmai police station chosen Q-60.(1) Dabur India Limited has appointed Bollywood
as best performing Police Station in country. star Akshay Kumar as brand ambassador of Dabur
Q-47.(5) MoHFW has developed Co-WIN mobile app Chyawanprash. Its campus has also been started
for COVID-19 vaccination delivery, its digital with Akshay. Dabur Chief Executive Officer Mohit
platform includes a free downloadable mobile Malhotra said that in the current era more immunity
application which can help record vaccine data. is needed. At the same time, Akshay is a symbol
Q-48.(1) “Honey Mission Earns First Income for Migrant of health and fitness. In view of this, Akshay has
Workers” initiated by Khadi and Village Industries been made the brand ambassador.
Commission (KVIC) in wake of the Covid-19 Q-61.(4) Footwear major Bata Shoe Organization has
pandemic. appointed Sandeep Kataria as the new global Chief
Q-49.(3) The Indian Navy has finalised a contract for Executive Officer (CEO) on 30 November 2020.
procurement of a batch of Israeli weapon systems Sandeep Kataria is the first Indian to be appointed
to the global role of Bata (Headquarter-Lausanne, Atmanirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) Scheme
Switzerland). since June 1, 2020, with an objective to provide
Q-62.(3) India is one of the few countries to operate the affordable working capital loan up to ₹10,000 to
system 24x7. "Accordingly, RTGS 24x7x365 Street Vendors for facilitating resumption of their
has launched with effect from 00:30 hours on livelihoods adversely affected by the COVID-19
December 14, 2020," the central bank said in a pandemic.
statement. Q-72.(3) SEBI chief Ajay Tyagi launched the Securities
Q-63.(4) The Reserve Bank of India has asked country’s Market Trainers (SMARTs) program, a new
largest private bank, HDFC, to stop new digital initiative to enhance investor education and
business launches and avoid adding new Credit awareness.
Card customers after repeated reports by its Q-73.(1) Gitanjali Rao has been selected from a field of more
customers facing multiple cases of technical than 5,000 nominees as TIME’s first ever "Kid of
glitches. the Year" 2020.
Q-64.(5) Boko Haram's increasing radicalisation led to the Q-74.(4) Paolo Rossi, Italy's top-scorer in the 1982 World
suppression operation by the Nigerian military Cup-winning campaign passed away at the age of
forces. 64 years on December 10, 2020.
Q-65.(2) Prime Minister Narendra Modi attended 'Dev Q-75.(3) Oscar and Grammy-winning Indian composer
Deepawali Mahotsav' in UP's Varanasi on AR Rahman has been roped in as ambassador
November 30. He was accompanied by Uttar of the BAFTA Breakthrough initiative in India.
Pradesh Chief Minister Yogi Adityanath. In 2020, BAFTA will identify and support up to
Laser light show was also organized during the five exceptional talents working in film, games or
celebrations. The holy city is illuminated with television in India.
earthen lamps to celebrate Dev Deepawali. Q-76.(2) Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL) has
Q-66.(2) WHO had initiated the High Burden to High launched the country's first-ever 100 Octane petrol
Impact (HBHI) initiative in 11 high malaria burden called XP100, specifically for premium cars and
countries, including India. Implementation of motorcycles.
“High Burden to High Impact (HBHI)” initiative Q-77.(1) US President-elect Joe Biden and Vice President-
had started in four states i.e. West Bengal and elect Kamala Harris were named Time magazine's
Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh in 2020 "Person of the Year" on Thursday for their
July, 2019. election victory over Donald Trump.
Q-67.(2) Cambridge Dictionary has named 'quarantine' as Q-78.(1) "India International Science Festival" (IISF) 2020
Word of the Year 2020. is going to be organized during 22-25 December
Q-68.(2) The Cabinet also approved Universal Service 2020 on virtual platform. This is the largest science
Obligation Fund Scheme for providing mobile festival on virtual platform. The central theme
coverage in Arunachal Pradesh and two districts of this year’s IISF is “Science for self-reliance
of Assam under the Comprehensive Telecom India and Global Welfare”. Various Institutes of
Development Plan for North Eastern Region. CSIR hold Curtain Raiser Ceremonies for India
Q-69.(2) Power and New & Renewable Energy Minister R K International Science Festival-2020
Singh launched the "Green Charcoal Hackathon", Q-79.(2) Uttarakhand Chief Minister Trivendra Singh Rawat
that deliberating on technology to convert farm inaugurated the "Suryadhar Lake" at Doiwala in
residue into green charcoal. Dehradun on 29 November 2020.
Q-70.(4) India and the US have agreed to enhance their Q-80.(3) In an attempt to save reptiles and small animals
collaboration on counter narcotics regulation and from vehicular accidents while crossing the road,
law enforcement and identified areas for joint the Ramnagar Forest Division of Uttarakhand
action and coordination on this "important" issue. has constructed the state's first eco-bridge across
Q-71.(4) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) Kaladhungi-Nainital highway.
is implemented Prime Minister Street Vendors
RBI Grade-B/Explanation/ Quantitative Aptitude
Q-1.(3) Quantity I- Let cp of first article is x then second Q-5.(3) Quantity I- let money of Gopal is x then money
be 1680-x of Golu be 2523-x
Here, profit =loss => then ,
=>X=960 then cost price of second be 1680
960=720

Their defference =960-720 = Rs. 240
Quantity II- -Profit = =300
then % of 300 =
Quantity II- amount
Q-2.(3) Average Speed =
=
U = (12.5+2.5) = 15 ; D = (12.5 – 2.5) = 10
Q.6-10.
Avg. Speed = = 12 kmph

II: Speed = = 22 km/h

hence II > I
Q-3.(1) Quantity I- let income is 100x, then he spent
80x and save 20x Q-6.(3) Required answer=32×3625=116000
New income will be 140x, now he save 20x+25% Q-7.(5) Required answer
of 20x=25x, now he spent 140x-25x=115x
=
He spent 115x-80x=35x more.
Q-8.(4) Required answer=
Then required percentage = = 43.75%
Quantity II- passing number of first student Q-9.(3) Required answer=14500:44800=145:448
=passing number of second student Q-10.(3) Required answer
36%+32 =48%-64 => 12% = 96 =>100%=800 =
mark total. Q-11.(5) No. of girls = 72 + 74 + 77 + 126 + 54 + 84
Then passing percentage = 487
= 36% + Q-12.(1) Ratio = 140 : 126
Q-4.(5) Quantity I- let first part is x then second part be = 10 : 9
13500-x
Si on first part= si on second part Q-13.(2) Required percent
= 87.5%
= Q-14.(5) Difference = 92 - 54
= 38
Then required difference = 1500
Quantity II- difference on si for same amount Q-15.(3) Percentage increase
= 33% (Approx)
and for same time = = 135 Q-16.(1) 15 + 13 = 28
= 135=> p = 1500 ? 28
Q-17.(3) 400 + 1000 = 14×?
? 100 =
Q-18.(2) 15% × 400 + 7% × 2000 =? total cost=
60 + 140 = 200
? 201 Q-27.(5)
Q-19.(2) 1/5 (12+13) + 1/6 (11+13) = 5 + 4
?≈9
Q-20.(3) 1.2 + 9 + 1.8 = 12
? = 12
Q-21.(5) 18 liter
Q-22.(5) Let the number of unsuccessful student = x
Then number of successful student = 4x
So, total number of student = 5x
According to Question-
{(5 x – 35) – (x + 9)} : (x +9) = 2 : 1
x = 31 Q-28.(3) Cost price of 65 kg of mixture
so, total number of student = 5 x = 5 x 31 = 155 = 35×9.50+30×10.50
Q-23.(1) Required Probability = = 332.5+315
Q-24.(1) = Rs. 647.5
Required answer
=
Q-29.(3)

Q-30.(3) Let the distance be x.
Q-25.(2) let the distance be 100
?
2x = 120 => x = 60 km.

Q-26.(3) area of path
RBI Grade-B/Explanation/ English Language
Q-1.(5) Get around = to become known. Drop around: Visit someone, often without mak-
Get across = to communicate. ing an arrangement
Get along = to have a good / friendly relationship Drop back: Move towards the back of a group
with someone. Drop off: Take something or someone to a place
Get at = to reach, to access to something. and leave it or them there.
Get away = to go away from someone or something Q-4.(2) break out: To start suddenly
Q-2.(5) Call off: To cancel breakaway: To separate from a crowd
Other options: break down: To go out of order, cease to function
Call at: Stop somewhere briefly (ship, train, etc.) break into: To enter by force
Call away: Ask someone to leave a place. . break up: To come to an end (marriage, relation-
Call for: Go somewhere to get someone. ship)
Call out : Shout something Q-5.(2) FALL BACK ON = have recourse to when in dif-
Q-3.(5) Drop away: Become smaller, get worse. ficulty.
FALL BACK = retreat Q-18.(3) Joint ventures to deal with the problems of climate
FALL BEHIND = to not meet obligations on time change.
FALL DOWN = fall to the ground or floor Q-19.(4) They absorb carbon dioxide and provide value to
FALL IN = collapse the ecosystem and the local population
Q-6.(2) Incriminating evidence should be used. Q-20.(1) To find ways to reduce carbon pollution which
Q-7.(4) In part C: 'Is most pleasing' should be used and In would eventually lead to economic growth.
part D: ‘ambience’ at the place of ‘ambient’ Q-21.(2) India would remain prepared for the extreme events
Q-8.(4) ‘effluent’ should be used in place of ‘affluent’ and caused by climate change.
‘for’ at the place of ‘against’ Q-22.(4) Upfront (adj.)- (of a payment) made in advance.
Q-9.(5) ‘does not’ at the place don’t and ‘goes’ in place of For other options:
‘went’ as the sentence refers to the present time. Recur (v)- occur again periodically or repeatedly.
Q-10.(1) Were presented and Pack of liars should be used. Q-23.(2) Flexibility
Q-11.(1) Ouster (n) - ejection from a property, especially For other options:
wrongful ejection; deprivation of an inheritance. Compliance (n)- obedience
Q-12.(3) Vilest (adj.) – extremely unpleasant Leap (n)- jump
Nauseating (adj.) – disgusting Adapt (v)- adjust
Q-13.(2) obviate (v) - remove (a need or difficulty) Q-24.(5) Absorbed
Obliterate (v) – destroy For other options:
Botche (v) – mismanage Transmitted (v)- passed from one person to another
Undermine (v) – weaken Let out (phr v)- cause something to go out
Q-14.(3) untrammeled (adj.) – uncontrolled Radiated (v)- gave a shining effect
Fettered (adj.) – restricted Q-25.(4) For other options:
Entrenched (v) – established Marvelous (Adj.)- astonishing
Q-15.(2) Intrinsic (adj.) – Innate, inherent, inseparable from Q-26.(4) The correct sequence is: FBCDHAGE.
the thing itself, essential. Q-27.(2) The correct sequence is: FBCDHAGE.
construal (n) - perceive, comprehend, and interpret Q-28.(5) The correct sequence is: FBCDHAGE.
Impending (v) – upcoming Q-29.(1) The correct sequence is: FBCDHAGE.
Q-16.(5) All of the above Q-30.(3) The correct sequence is: FBCDHAGE.
Q-17.(5) All except (2)
RBI Grade-B/Explanation/ Reasoning

Q. 1-5. Q.3.(3)
Q.4.(5)
Q.5.(3)
Q.6-10.
I. (Odd no.) (odd no.) =larger no. divide by smaller
no. (the remainder is the resultant)
II. (Even no.) (even no.) = multiply both the no.’s
III. (Even no.) (odd no.) = add both numbers.
IV. (Odd no.) (odd prime no.)= subtract the numbers.
V. (Odd no.) (a no. divisible by 4) = addition of both the no.’s
VI. (Odd no.) (even no. not divisible by 4) = larger no. divide
by smaller no. (quotient is the resultant)
Q.1.(4) Q.6.(5)
Q.2.(2) Q.7.(3)
Q.8.(3) Q.23.(3)
Q.9.(4) Q.24.(4)
Q.10.(4) Q.25.(5)
Q.11-15. Q.26-30.
Q.26.(1)
Q.11.(2) Q.27.(5)
Q.12.(1) Q.28.(1)
Q.13.(5) Q.29.(5)
Q.14.(2) Q.30.(2)
Q.15.(5) Q-31.(4) I and III are not strong. Only II is strong.
Q.16-20. Q-32.(3)

Q-33.(5)
Q.16.(4)
Q.17.(1)
Q.18.(3) Q-34.(2)
Q.19.(5)
Q.20.(3)
Q.21-25.

Q-35.(4)
Q-36.(3)
Q-37.(1) Only I and II are strong.
Q-38.(5) All I, II, III are strong hence option (5) is correct.
Q.21.(5) Q-39.(4)
Q.22.(4) Q-40.(2)

Q-41.(1) Although, innovative ideas must be supported Q-48.(3)
by the government to boost the startup culture Q-49.(2)
but funding should be provided after analysis of Q.50.(2)
future revenue and scalability of that project else Q-51.(4)
the funding may go waste. Hence only I and II Q-52.(2)
are strong. Q-53.(3)
Q-42.(3) Q-54.(1)
Q-43.(4) Only II is strong. Q-55.(3)
Q-44.(2) Q.56-60.
Q-45.(1) Q.56.(2)
Q.46-50.
Q-57.(4)
Q-58.(2)

The second last letter of the word is written in
the middle.
The symbols are coded on the behalf of the Q-59.(3)
number of letters in the word:
3 letters = +
4 letters = *
5 letters = # Q-60.(4)
6 letters = $
7 letters = @
8 letters = %
Q.46.(5)
Q-47.(2)

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Note : (a+b)3 = a3 +b3 + 3ab (a+b)

If a number has 0, 1, 4, 5, 6 or 9 at its unit place

Cube & Cube Root

The word ‘VBODMAS’ represents the order of Ex.

Introduction: Percentage is a fraction whose denominator Ex. If x is 80% of y, what percent of x is y?

VI. If the price of a commodity increases by R%,

1. Population after n years = P 1 +

4 Profit and Loss

Selling Price = 100 + x = 100 + 10 = 110 Then CP of 12 articles = Rs. 12

Sol. Part sold at 24% profit Now required answer

CHAPTER Simple &

Ex. Find C.I. on Rs. 16000 at the rate 5% p.c.p.a. for 6 % ra te o f in te re st

Ex. Find C.I. on Rs. 10,000 at the rate of interest 6% 11060

C.I. = MGH 100 JK

is 50. Find the Principal.

Hence principal = 5000

2 using (I) and (II)

Ex. The difference between S.I. & C.I. on a certain

If there are average is also known as mean observation 137+x=144 , x = 144-137

9 +1 But new average is 20.

B :C =8:9 (ii) Fourth Proportion: If a : b :: c : d, then d is

Ex. P, Q and R started a business each investing Rs. ratio.

11 TIME AND WORK

FG 1 IJ th Time for completion by them

time i.e. Important Formulas

1111 Note : Here B : C is not required, this is given to

Sol. Let the distance of destination be D km S 1S 2 ( d 1 + d 2 )

Relative Speed = s1+s2 1 1 20

Ds = Bs + Cs Sol. Speed of man in still water

Ex. If the speed of the boatman in still water is 10 d o w n stre a m sp e e d - u p stre a m sp e e d

equal real solution. II. y 2 – (8 ) = 0

Ex. Find the value of 5c2.

Probability of any event(E) =

3 Note : Sum Ways No. of results

(1) To solve D.I., first we learn some useful topic; 15

Total number of tickets sold in Delhi Explanation : Q.1-3.

Total production of Company X from 2011 to

(1) 920 (2) 960 (3) 1120 x = 960

D 150 350 10 Ratio = (24 + 24) : (25 + 40)= 48 : 65

Pentagon 5 5. Each exterior angle of regular polygon

S. NO. Name Figure Nomenclature Area Perimeter

9. Parallelogram a and b are side adjacent

a a- length of each side of

14. Circle r → radius of the circle 2πr (called as cir-

16. Quadrant r → radius 1/4 πr2 1 25

π(R2 – r2) (outer) →2πR

(l+b+2w) 2w (inner) →2 (l+b)

S. NO. Name Figure Nomenclature Volume Curved/ Total

3. Right circular h r→ radius of πr2h 2πrh 2πr(h+r)

4 inner = 4πr2 4π[R2 + r2]

This chapter is based on series of numbers, letters or A C F J (O )

Symbol’s used for Relation Representation Y is Brother of X

X Types Of Questions Asked In Various

X Simple Blood Relation Puzzle

Required distance = (4 + 3 + 1) Feet = 8 feet.