Community Nutrition

Q1.Deficiency of which vitamin is associated with Neural Tube Defects?

a) Vitamin B3.
b) Vitamin B6.
c) Vitamin B9.
d) Vitamin B12.

Q2.What percentage of milk fat is present in standardized milk?

a) 3.50%
b) 3.75%
c) 4.25%
d) 4.50%

Q3. A deficiency of iodine may lead to which of these?

a) Endemic goiter.
b) Hypothyroidism.
c) Cretinism.
d) All of the above.

Q4. What is the scientific term for a disease that causes dizziness?

a) Diabetes.
b) Stroke.
c) Vertigo.
d) None of the above.

Q5. Products that contain live microorganisms in sufficient numbers to promote intestinal
microbial balance?

a) Antibiotics.
b) Probiotics.
c) Prebiotics.
d) Digestive enzyme.

Q6. Milk is a poor source of?

a) Calcium.
b) Protein.
 c) Carbohydrate.
d) Vitamin C.

Q7.Tocopherol is used in foods as?

a) Acidity regulator.
b) Stabilizer.
c) Antioxidant.
d) Emulsifier.

Q8. What is the major protein of muscle fiber of meat?

a) Myosin.
b) Leucine.
c) Albumin.
d) Globulin.

Q9. Most common polysaccharide added to food is?

a) Water.
b) Salt.
c) Glucose.
d) Starch.

Q10. Colostrum is very good as it is rich in?

a) Protein and carbohydrate.

b) Proteins and antibodies.
c) Minerals and vitamins.
d) All of the above.

Q11. Pernicious anemia is caused by deficiency of?

a) Iron.
b) Folic acid.
c) Vitamin B12.
d) Vitamin A.

Q12. Chemical name for vitamin B3?

a) Niacin.
b) Cyanocobalamin.
c) Carotene.
d) Methionine.
Q13. Full form of ALA is?

a) Alpha linolenic acid.

b) Alpha linoleic acid.
c) Alpha long -chain acid.
d) None of the above.

Q14. What is the full form of PUFA?

a) Poly unsaturated fatty acids.

b) Poly Unhealthy Fatty Acids.
c) Poly unused fats and acids.
d) None of the above.

Q15. Thiamine deficiency leads to which disease?

a) Rickets.
b) Jaundice.
c) Beriberi.
d) Scurvy.

Q16. To overcome the deficiency of nutrients from a synthetic source is called?

a) Fermentation.
b) Supplementation.
c) Fortification.
d) None of above.

Q17. Kwashiorkor is caused by deficiency of?

a) Vitamin K.
b) Proteins.
c) Calcium.
d) Fats.

Q18. Fiber is important to facilitate which function in the body?

a) Provides energy.
b) Absorb nutrients.
c) Bowel movements.
d) Maintain electrolyte balance.

Q19. Deficiency of Vitamin A leads to?

a) Obesity.
 b) High Blood Pressure.
c) Night Blindness.
d) High Cholesterol.

Q20. Which one is a water soluble Vitamin?

a) Vitamin A.
b) Vitamin C.
c) Vitamin E.
d) Vitamin D.

Q21. Vitamin B9 is commonly known as?

a) Thiamine.
b) Riboflavin.
c) Folic acid.
d) Ascorbic acid.

Q22. 1 gm of fat gives how many kcalories?

a) 8.
b) 9.
c) 10.
d) 11.

Q23. Vitamin necessary for blood coagulation is?

a) Vitamin A.
b) Vitamin C.
c) Vitamin E.
d) Vitamin K.

Q24. Which dangerous bacteria may be present in raw eggs?

a) Bacillus.
b) Salmonella.
c) Streptococcus.
d) Lactobacillus.

Q25. Which of these food- borne illnesses is not caused by bacteria?

a) Cholera.
b) Typhoid.
c) Botulism.
d) Hepatitis A.
Q26. Which group of bacteria if detected in food indicate that the food has been contaminated by
faeces?

a) Bifidobacter.
b) Staphylococcus.
c) Coliforms.
d) Lactobacillus.

Q27. Which of these is not a disease caused by bacteria?

a) Amoebiasis.
b) Typhoid.
c) Shigellosis.
d) Cholera.

Q28. Which of these substances, naturally present in plant foods, inhibits the uptake of iodine by
the thyroid gland?

a) Phytate.
b) Oxalate.
c) Goitrogen.
d) Tannin.

Q29.Salt is iodized to prevent?

a) Marasmus.
b) Goitre.
c) Pellagra.
d) Anaemia.

Q30. What type of fats is unhealthy?

a) Polyunsaturated.
b) Polysaccharide.
c) Saturated and trans fat.
d) Monosaturated.

Q31. Which of the following is not an artificial sweetener?

a) Saccharin.
b) Aspartame.
c) Sugar.
d) Neotame.
Q32. Which of the following describes fat soluble vitamins?

a) They include thiamin, vitamin A and vitamin K.

b) They cannot be stored to any great extent and so must be consumed daily.
c) Toxic levels can be reached by consuming citrus fruits and vegetables.
d) They can be stored in the liver and fatty tissues and can build up toxic
concentrations.

Q33. Night blindness and susceptibility to infection are the result of a deficiency of which
vitamin?

a) Niacin.
b) Vitamin C.
c) Vitamin K.
d) Vitamin A.

Q34. Good sources of vitamin D are:

a) Eggs, fortified milk and sunlight.

b) Citrus fruits, sweet potatoes and spinach.
c) Green leafy vegetables, cabbage and liver.
d) Breast milk, polyunsaturated plant oils and citrus fruits.

Q35. Good sources of folate are:

a) Citrus fruits, dairy products and eggs.

b) Liver, legumes and green leafy vegetables.
c) Dark green vegetables, corn and cabbage.
d) Potatoes, broccoli, and whole wheat bread.

Q36. Which vitamin is present only in foods of animal origin:

a) Riboflavin.
b) Vitamin B12
c) Pantothenic acid.
d) The inactive form of vitamin A.

Q37. Which of the following nutrients is an antioxidant that protects water soluble substances
from oxidizing agents:

a) Beta carotene.
 b) Vitamin C.
c) Thiamin.
d) Vitamin D.

Q38. Eating foods containing vitamin C at the same meal can increase the absorption of which
mineral?

a) Iron.
b) Magnesium.
c) Calcium.
d) Folate.

Q39. Two situations in which a person may experience fluid and electrolyte imbalances are:

a) Vomiting and burns.

b) Diarrhea and cuts.
c) Broken bones and fever.
d) Heavy sweating and excessive carbohydrate intake.

Q40. Three good food sources of calcium are:

a) Milk, sardines and broccoli.

b) Spinach, yogurt and sardines.
c) Cottage cheese, spinach and tofu.
d) Swiss chard, mustard greens and broccoli.

Q41. Foods high in iron and that help prevent or treat anemia include:

a) Green peas and cheese.

b) Dairy foods and fresh fruits.
c) Homemade breads and most fresh vegetables.
d) Meat and tomato chilli and dark green leafy vegetables.

Q42 A deficiency of ---------------is one of the world’s most common preventable causes of
mental retardation.

a) Zinc.
b) Selenium.
c) Iodine.
d) Magnesium.

Q43. The most important single predictor of an infants future health and survival is:

a) The infants birthweight.

b) The infants iron status at birth.
 c) The mothers weight at delivery.
d) The mothers prepregnancy weight.

Q44. A mothers prepregnancy nutrition important to a healthy pregnancy because it determines

the development of:

a) Adequate maternal iron stores.

b) The largest baby possible.
c) An adequate fat supply for the mother.
d) Healthy support tissues --- the placenta, amniotic sac, umbilical cord, and uterus.

Q45. Two vitamins needed in large amounts during pregnancy for rapid cell proliferation are:

a) Vitamin B12 and iron.

b) Calcium and vitamin B6.
c) Folate and vitamin B12.
d) Copper and zinc.

Q46. For a woman who is at the appropriate weight for height and is carrying a single fetus, the
recommended weight gain during pregnancy is:

a) 40-60 pounds.
b) 10-20 pounds.
c) 25-35 pounds.
d) 20-40 pounds.

Q47. Rewards of physical activity during pregnancy may include:

a) Weight loss.
b) Reduced stress, easier labor and faster recovery from childbirth.
c) Relief from morning sickness.
d) Decreased incidence of pica.

Q48. A womans need for --------------- is greater during lactation than during pregnancy.

a) Vitamin D.
b) Calcium.
c) Energy.
d) Folate.

Q49. Breast milk is recommended for the first 12 months of life because it offers complete
nurtrition and -------------- to the infant.

a) Fluoride.
b) Fructose.
 c) Immunological protection.
d) Pica.

Q50. An adequate substitute for breast milk during the first year is:

a) Low fat cows milk.

b) Apple juice.
c) Water.
d) Iron fortified infant formula.

Q51. Indications of readiness for solid foods include:

a) The infant cries a lot.

b) The infant is not sleeping through the night.
c) The infant can sit with support and can control head movements.
d) The infant is two months old.

Q52. During the first year of life, the most important step to undertake to encourage healthy
eating is to:

a) Give food as a reward or for comfort.

b) Give sweets as a reward for eating vegetables.
c) Introduce a variety of nutritious foods in an inviting way.
d) All of the above.

Q53. Children who are hungry may be irritable or apathetic because:

a) They need vitamin D.

b) They have had too many sweets.
c) Their blood glucose is low.
d) Their blood glucose is high.

Q54. Two infant feeding practices that may improve the iron status of older children are:

a) Feeding solids at an early age and giving iron fortified milk.

b) Giving iron supplements and increasing milk intake.
c) Feeding infants liver and starches.
d) Breastfeeding and iron fortified formulas.

Q55. Allergic reactions to foods are most often caused by:

a) Eggs, peanuts or milk.

b) Corn, rice or meats.
c) Seafood, dark greens or lactose.
d) Red meats, milk or MSG.
Q56. Children who watch a lot of television are likely to become obese because:

a) Their parents are obese.

b) They eat the foods most advertised on television.
c) They spend less time being physically active.
d) Both b and c.

Q57. When introducing new foods to children:

a) Offer one new food at the end of the meal.

b) Offer many choices to encourage variety.
c) Offer one new food at the beginning of the meal.
d) Reward children as they try new foods.

Q58. During the growth spurt of adolescence:

a) Similarities in body composition between males and females become apparent.

b) Females gain more weight than males.
c) Differences in body composition between males and females become apparent.
d) Males gain more fat, propotionately than females.

Q59. Two nutrients that are lacking in teens diets are:

a) Vitamin A and riboflavin.

b) Iron and calcium.
c) Protein and thiamin.
d) Zinc and fat.

Q60. Smoking increases the need for:

a) Vitamin E.
b) Vitamin C.
c) Folate.
d) Iron.

Q61.Deficiency of vitamin A in children causes:

a) Goitre.
b) Poor cognitive development.
c) Poor bone growth.
d) Increased risk of mortality.

Q62.Which of the following could lead to iodine deficiency?

 a) Low intake of fruits and vegetables.
b) Intake only of locally grown food in central Africa.
c) Insufficient caloric intake.
d) Inadequate sunlight exposure.

Q63.Deficiencies of which of the following nutrients can lead to anemia?

a) Iodine and vitamin C.

b) Copper and iron.
c) Zinc and protein.
d) Vitamin D and zinc.
Q64.Which of the following has not at one point in the past few decades been considered as a
cause of the edema of kwashiorkor?

a) Altered composition of intestinal bacteria.

b) Low intake of antioxidant nutrients.
c) Sudden weaning from the breast.
d) Iron deficiency.
Q65.The UNICEF model of the causes of malnutrition identifies several levels of causes:
immediate, underlying and basic. Which of the following is not one of the underlying causes in
the UNICEF model?

a) Insufficient rainfall for agriculture

b) Inadequate access to food
c) Inadequate care for mothers and children
d) Insufficient health services and unhealthy environment
Q66.The World Health Organization recommends zinc supplements for which groups of people?

a) Pregnant and lactating women

b) Children with severe malnutrition or diarrhoea
c) All children in low income areas with high prevalence of stunting
d) Elderly people with low incomes
Q67.Vitamin D deficiency can often be found as a single nutrient deficiency, that is, in an
otherwise well-nourished person. The main reason this can happen is because:

a) Foods containing large amounts of vitamin D are eaten by both poor and wealthy people
according to various cultural reasons.
b) The content of vitamin D in foods depends on the soil in which the food was grown so is
not related to wealth or age.
 c) Most vitamin D in the body does not come from food so access to food is not an
important determinant of vitamin D status.
d) Diets containing sufficient other nutrients to promote growth can increase the
requirement of vitamin D so that it becomes limiting.
Q68.Which of the following is not a reason for increased risk of vitamin or mineral deficiencies
among older people in high income countries?

a) Low income so decreased ability to purchase nutrient-rich foods.

b) Decreased mobility and little time spend outdoors in the sunshine.
c) Decreased intrinsic factor in the stomach.
d) High nutrient requirements for tissue turnover.
Q69.Diagnosis of iron deficiency can be complicated by concurrent infection since many
markers of iron status are altered by infection. Which of the following combinations of iron
status markers is likely to be found in a person with both iron deficiency and a severe infection?

a) Low haemoglobin, high ferritin, high serum transferrin receptors, high hepcidin.
b) Low haemoglobin, low ferritin, high serum transferrin receptors, low hepcidin.
c) Low haemoglobin, low ferritin, normal serum transferrin receptors, high hepcidin.
d) Low haemoglobin, low ferritin, low serum transferrin receptors, high hepcidin.
Q70. Which of the following best defines fortified foods?
a) Foods that contain man-made nutrients.
a) High fiber foods.
b) Foods naturally high in a certain nutrient.
c) Foods to which extra nutrients have been added.
d) All of the above describe fortified foods.
Q71.What was the original purpose of food fortification?
a) To decrease the occurrence of nutrient deficiencies.
b) To make food easier to digest.
c) To lower cholesterol.
d) To increase absorption of nutrients in the digestive tract.
Q72. Staple foods, such as cereal grains and rice might get fortified with this nutrient to prevent
visual impairment?
a) Vitamin D
b) Folic acid.
c) Vitamin A.
d) Iron.
Q73. Why is dietary fibre considered to be an active nonnutrient?
a) It has antiinflammatory properties but is not stored as fat.
b) It is broken down in the body to provide energy.
c) It acts to stop low density lipoproteins breaking apart.
d) It is not absorbed but is beneficial to the digestive system.
Q74.Which of the following is an active nonnutrient?
a) Fat.
b) Fibre.
c) Protein.
d) Sugar.
Q75. A diet high in cholesterol is most likely to lead to disease in which organ of the body?
a) Heart
b) Kidney
c) Liver
d) Pancreas
Q76. Which health issue is supported by Coeliac Australia?
a) Diabetes.
b) Colon Cancer.
c) Gluten Intolerance.
d) Lactose Intolerance.
Q77. Kim’s diet consists primarily of meat and dairy products.
From which disorder related to undernutrition is Kim most likely to suffer?
a) Anemia.
b) Constipation.
c) Hypertension.
d) Osteoporosis.
Q78. In the manufacture of bread, what must be added to wheat flour under Australian mandator
y fortification standards?
a) Folic acid and iron.
b) Iodine and thiamine.
c) Vitamin D and calcium.
d) Thiamine and folic acid.
. Q79.Which active nonnutrient is a common component of yoghurt?
 a) Fibre.
b) Probiotics.
c) Antioxidants.
d) Phytochemicals.
Q80. Hypoglycaemia is associated with which of the following conditions?
a) Obesity.
b) Diabetes.
c) Food Allergies.
d) Cardiovascular Disease.
Q81. Which of the following best illustrates a government initiative designed to promote
nutritional health?
a) Subsidies for personal trainers.
b) Funding of workplace dieticians.
c) The Australian Dietary Guidelines.
d) The National Heart Foundation. ‘
. Q82. Which of the following is a functional food?
a) Soy and linseed biscuits.
b) Seedless watermelon.
c) Air popped popcorn.
d) Low fat milk.
. Q83.What food combinations would assist a person with a vegan diet to meet their protein need
s?
a) Baked beans on wholegrain toast.
b) Poached eggs, spinach on rye bread.
c) Orange juice and green leafy vegetables eaten at the same meal.
d) Meal replacement protein powder in milk.
Q84. Which of the following is an example of a nutritionally modified food?
a) Low fat milk.
b) Organic yoghurt.
c) Parmesan cheese.
d) Chocolate flavoured milk.
Q85.  Which of the following is the primary benefit of consuming food products rich in probiotic
s?
a) Reduced fatigue.
b) Improved memory.
 c) Increased gut flora.
d) Improved cardiovascular health.
Q86. Consuming foods with a low glycaemic index is useful in the management of which conditi
on?
a) Diabetes.
b) Osteoporosis.
c) Hypertension.
d) Coronary Heart Disease.
Q87. Bread, which has been fortified with vitamins and minerals, is classified as which type of
food?
a) Organic.
b) Genetically modified.
c) Functional.
d) Specialised.
 Q88.A baby is called low birth weight if he /she measures less than:
a) 2.5 kg.
b) 1.5 kg.
c) 3.5 kg.
d) 2.2 kg.
Q89. The very important variable for assessing nutrition of under 5 children is/are:
a) Weight.
b) Height.
c) Age.
d) All of the above.
Q90. Most common diarrheal agent for infant is:
a) Rhino virus.
b) Rota virus.
c) Enterovirus.
d) E.coli.
Q91. Constant presence of disease in an area during a period of time is:
a) Endemic.
b) Epidemic.
c) Sporadic.
d) Pandemic.
Q92. A baby is called exclusively breast feed if he/she is breast fed for:
a) 2-3 months.
b) 3-4 months.
c) 3-5 months.
d) 7-8 months.
Q93. MDG stands for:
a) Medical Development Group.
b) Millennium Development Goals.
c) Master Development Goals.
d) Management development goal.
Q94. In any programme target refers to:
a) Set of activities.
b) Objective of programme.
c) Degree of achievement.
d) Evaluation to be done.
Q95. Which of the following factors have led to the recent momentum to speeding up the rate of
eliminating malnutrition?

a) Millennium Development Goals.

b) Focus on the first 1000 days.
c) Data on effective interventions.
d) All of the options listed are correct.

Q96. Causes of malnutrition can be classified as immediate, underlying and root causes. Which
of the following would be in the underlying class?

a) Low wages.
b) Unclean drinking water.
c) Sedentary life style.
d) All of the options listed are correct.

Q97. Indirect or nutrition sensitive interventions include:

a) Vitamin D supplements.
b) Increasing crop yields.
c) Improving weaning foods.
d) Iron fortification.
Q98. In which of the following regions of the world have both the number and prevalence of
undernourishment declined over the last quarter century?

a) Asia.
b) Africa.
c) Oceania.
d) Europe.

Q99. Which group of the global population is most affected by anemia?

a) Preschool children.
b) Pregnant women.
c) Non pregnant women.
d) Men.
Q100. Which of the following are highly prevalent global nutrition problems?

a) Vitamin A deficiency.
b) Undernutrition.
c) Obesity.
d) All of the options listed.

Q101. In what ways can governments promote good nutrition?

a) Surveys to monitor nutrition.

b) Publishing dietary guidelines.
c) Legislating against false claims.
d) All of the options listed are correct.

Q102. A community nutritionist needs to collect data on food intake from

clients. Which of the following would he use to obtain an estimate of typical
food intakes of a small number of people?

a) Food diary.
b) Food frequency questionnaire.
c) 24- hour recall.
d) Usual intake record.
Q103. Studies that are an effective way to find out what people are thinking
and how they feel include:

Community needs assessment.

Q104. Kelly has been trying to lose weight recently since she found out that
her BMI is 32.4. Measures like this, also known as:

a) Anthropometric measurements.
b) Biochemical indices.
c) Dietary intakes.
d) 24 hr recall.

Q105. In dietetics practice, the person responsible for planning,

implementing, and evaluating a specific health promotion program is a:

a) Community nutritionist.
b) Pharmacist.
c) Dietitian.
d) Physician.

Q106. When developing nutrition education, a community nutritionist need

to know the definition of a :

a) Community.
b) Program.
c) Needs.
d) Evaluation.

 Q107. Andrew was hired to provide nutrition education to individuals

participating in the WIC Program and other groups in his community. He
decided to use one of the effective strategies for pregnant and lactating
women. The nutrition intervention strategy(ies) that have been effective in
increasing nutrition knowledge in this population include the following
except:
 A personalized approach.
Nutrition counseling.
Incentives for participation.
Prenatal exposure to information about the benefits of breastfeeding.
Q108. Jacob is soon to be enrolled in high school. What nutrition-related
concern(s) should his parents be aware of during his adolescent years?
a) Eating habits are not static.
b) Eating more meals and snacks away from home.
c) Skipping meals.
d) All of the above.

Q109. Paul's family is all overweight. The children, who are in the 6th and
11th grade, have followed in their parents footsteps. They watch too much
television, about 3 to 4 hours a day. It is likely that these children will:
 Consume more fruits and vegetables
Consume salty snacks and soda
Consume food high in sugar
Consume high-fat, high-kcalorie snacks
B, C, and D

Q110.Some eating behaviors of toddlers is/are:

Learn to feed themselves during the second year of life
Manage to use a cup with some spilling
Pick up food with their fingers
All of the above
None of the above

Q111. Primary cause(s) of Protein Energy Malnutrition (PEM) may be due

to:
Biological factors
Sociological factors
Ecological factors
All of the above
Q112. Some criteria for anorexia nervosa is/are:
Intense fear of gaining weight
Amenorrhea, if the individual is a postmenarchal female
Having a body mass index less that 17.5 kg/m2 in adults
All of the above

Q113.Steph had to measure children's body fat in gym class today. She
noticed that the boy's results were very different from that of girls. Boys tend
to add more ________ during the adolescent rapid-growth period.
Lean tissue
Fat and lean tissue
Fat tissue
None of the above

Q114. Adolescents may use food to establish individuality and to express

their identity. Children living in poor families are more likely to follow a diet
that is/are:
Low in vitamins A, D, and E
Low in folate, B6
Low in iron and zinc
Low in thiamin and magnesium
All of the above

Q115.A 15-year-old girl needs:

10 mg of iron daily
20 mg of iron daily
15 mg of iron daily
All of the above

Q116. The National School Breakfast Program was established in:

1945
1975
1954
 1958

Q117. Children under the age of 5 are not at risk for undernutrition because
their energy need is high.

Q118. Parents' nutritional knowledge is important in the prevention of

overweight and obesity in their children.

Q119.Research studies show that adolescents who diet are more likely to
have good body image, and indulge in fasting, vomiting, taking diet pills,
and binge eating.

Q120. Common nutrition problems for children and adolescents with special
health care needs may include altered energy and nutrient needs.

Q121. The Head Start Program is a comprehensive child health development

program for children between the ages of 3 and 5.

Q122. The National Youth Sports Program is a federal program designed to

assist low-income children ages 10 to 16.

Q123.Rose recently had a stillborn; the death of her infant will be part of:
 The Infant Mortality Death Certificate
 The Infant Mortality Rate data
 The Children Mortality Rate data
 All of the above
Q124. Brenda's plan was to lose weight, but she found out that she is
pregnant so she postponed her plan about losing weight. This action will
reduce the incidence of:
Prenatal ketosis
Diabetes
Malnutrition
All of the above

Q125. An acceptable weight gain for a pregnant women who is underweight

would be:
20–25 pounds
25–30 pounds
30–32 pounds
35–45 pounds
28–40 pounds

Q126. A condition of high blood glucose level during pregnancy is called:

Hyperemesis gravidarum
Placenta previa
Gestational diabetes
A and B

Q127. The calcium requirement increases to approximately ______ during

pregnancy for a 14–18-year-old woman.
1,500 mg
800 mg
900 mg
1,300 mg
2,000 mg

Q128. The correct sequence for the three distinctive stages of fetal
development is:
Differentiation, implantation, growth
Implantation, mitosis, growth
 Implantation, differentiation, growth
Differentiation, translocation, deposition
Ovarian, embryonic, fetal

Q129. Inadequate, absent, or delayed prenatal care may cause:

Nutritional deficiencies in the fetus
Low-birthweight baby
A and B
None of the above

Q130. According to current growth charts, an infant doubles his/her

birthweight at about _____ months of age, and triples birthweight at about
________ months.
Four to 6 months and 12 months
Ten months and 12 months
Six months and 10 months
Ten months and 11 months

Q131. Dana has always breastfed her children because that's what her mother
practiced, but she did not know the advantages of breastfeeding. The
advantage(s) of breastfeeding is (are):
It lowers the risk of ovarian cancer
Results in more optimal blood glucose profiles
Helps regulate maternal weight or fat loss
All of the above

Q132. What is the recommended first solid food to offer an infant?

Iron-fortified rice cereal
Orange juice
Honey
Strained vegetables

Q133. Sally gave birth to her baby girl, JoAnn, about a year ago. Sally
became pregnant with her second child 3 months after JoAnn was born. A
high number of pregnancies in a short period of time can create any risk for :

Q134. An overweight woman pregnant with a single baby should gain

between:

a) 15 and 25 pounds.
b) 22 and 30 pounds.
c) 30 pounds.
d) 10 pounds.

Q.135.  Pica is:

a) Excessive eating of ice.

b) Eating of rice.
c) Excessive eating of milk.
d) Polyphagia.

Q.136. In order to reduce the risk of neural tube defect, women of

childbearing age need to consume ----------------------of folic acid from
fortified foods, supplements, or both, in addition to folate contained in a
varied diet.

100
 Q.137.Pregnant women are at high risk for food-borne illness so it is not
acceptable that they consume:

a) Unpasteurized juices and milk products.

b) Fresh fruits.
c) Home made foods.
d) Tea.

Q138. The recommended amount of protein for infants from birth to 6

months is about:

2.2g/kg body weight.

Q139. In order for a PKU mother to have a successful pregnancy, it is

important that:
She avoid dairy products
She be vaccinated
She follows a low-phenylalanine (amino acid) diet
She consume a high-protein diet

Q140. Common to both acute and chronic malnutrition is

a) Weight for age

b) Weight for height
c) Height for age
d) BMI

 Q141. The symptoms of scurvy include:

a) slow healing of wounds
b) joint and muscle pain
c) bleeding gums and dry skin
d) all of above

Q142. The iron is a component of myoglobin in:

a) white blood cells
b) muscle cells
c) ligament cells
d) red blood cells

Q143. The gland which uses iodine for normal growth and functioning of the body is:
a) pancreas
b) thyroid gland
c) prostrate glands
d) pituitary glands

Q144.The disease 'Osteomalacia' means:

a) vanishing of bone marrow

b) softening of bones
c) infections of bones
d) hardening of bones
 
Q145. The incorporation or conversion of simple food into complex materials constituting the
body is called:

a) absorption
b) digestion
c) assimilation
d) dissimilation

Q146. The iron is a component of myoglobin in:

a) white blood cells
b) muscle cells
 c) ligament cells
d) red blood cells

Q147. The gland which uses iodine for normal growth and functioning of the body is:

a) pancreas
b) thyroid gland
c) prostrate glands
d) pituitary glands

Q148. The disease 'Osteomalacia' means:

a) vanishing of bone marrow

b) softening of bones
c) infections of bones
d) hardening of bones

Q149. The incorporation or conversion of simple food into complex materials constituting the
body is called:
a) absorption
b) digestion
c) assimilation
d) dissimilation

Q150. The iron is a component of myoglobin in

a) white blood cells
b) muscle cells
c) ligament cells
d) red blood cells

Q151.The gland which uses iodine for normal growth and functioning of the body is:
a) pancreas
b) thyroid gland
c) prostrate glands
d) pituitary glands.

Q152. The disease 'Osteomalacia' means:

 a) vanishing of bone marrow
b) softening of bones
c) infections of bones
d) hardening of bones

Q153. Administration of oral polio vaccine to the children is a measure of:

a) Health promotion.
b) Specific protection.
c) Treatment.
d) Rehabilitation.

Q154.  Which of the following constitutes specific protection?

a) Immunization
b) Avoidance of allergens
c) Healthy environment
d) Chemoprophylaxis

Q155.Which of the following is tertiary level of prevention?

a) Health promotion
b) Specific protection
c) Early diagnosis and treatment
d) Disability limitation

Q156. False about primary prevention is:

a) Early diagnosis and treatment.

b) Environmental sanitation.
c) Vaccination.
d) Health promotion.

Q157. A substance which destroys or inhibits the growth of microorganisms is known as:

a) Disinfectant
b) Detergent
c) Deodorant
d) Antiseptic

Q158. The most effective method for sterilization of dressing materials is:
 a. Sun light
b. Hot air
c. Radiation
d. Autoclave

7-Tocopherol is an example of:

(A) Anticaking agent

(B) Flavouring agent

(C) Antioxidant

(D) None of these

0-Frozen storage is generally operated at temperature of:

(A) -0°C

(B) -18°C

(C) -50°C

(D) -60°C

Which of the following is untrue?

a) Many Vitamin Bs like Vitamin B6 are affected by heating
b) Vitamin C is lost in almost all food processing steps
c) Vitamin C degradation decreases by enzymes and also metals like Cu and Fe
d) Vitamin A is stable in absence of oxygen

Alisha challenged her friends that one special vitamin would not be affected when she boils
milk. Which vitamin is it?
a) Vitamin C
b) Vitamin D
c) Vitamin B
d) None of the mentioned

 Hazards affecting food are _____

a) Chemical, Biological, Physical
b) Additives, Colour
c) Pollutants
d) All of the mentioned