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Answers & Solutions: NEET (UG) - 2019
Answers & Solutions: NEET (UG) - 2019
S2
ESURYA
Time : 3 hrs.
Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 720
for
NEET (UG) - 2019
Important Instructions :
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carries
4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one
mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
2. Use Blue / Black Ball point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.
3. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
4. On completion of the test, the candidate must handover the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator before leaving
the Room / Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
6. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the
Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test
Booklet/Answer Sheet.
7. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admission Card to the Invigilator.
8. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
10. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their conduct
in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of this
examination.
11. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
12. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet / Answer Sheet in
the Attendance Sheet.
1. From evolutionary point of view, retention of 4. Due to increasing air-borne allergens and
the female gametophyte with developing pollutants, many people in urban areas are
young embryo on the parent sporophyte for suffering from respiratory disorder causing
wheezing due to
some time, is first observed in
(1) proliferation of fibrous tissues and
(1) Pteridophytes
damage of the alveolar walls
(2) Gymnosperms (2) reduction in the secretion of surfactants
(3) Liverworts by pneumocytes.
The entry of sperm into the ovum induces S o l . Earth Summit (Rio Summit)-1992, called upon
all nations to take appropriate measures for
completion of the meiotic division of the
conservation of biodiversity and sustainable
secondary oocyte.
utilisation of its benefits
Entry of sperm causes breakdown of
metaphase promoting factor (MPF) and turns 6. Match the hominids with their correct brain
size :
on anaphase promoting complex (APC).
(a) Homo habilis (i) 900 cc
3. DNA precipitation out of a mixture of (b) Homo neanderthalensis (ii) 1350 cc
biomolecules can be achieved by treatment
(c) Homo erectus (iii) 650-800 cc
with
(d) Homo sapiens (iv) 1400 cc
(1) Methanol at room temperature
Select the correct option.
(2) Chilled chloroform
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) Isopropanol (1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) Chilled ethanol (2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
Answer ( 4 ) (3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
S o l . During the isolation of desired gene, chilled (4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
ethanol is used for the precipitation of DNA. Answer ( 1 )
S o l . The correct match of hominids and their brain 10. Which of the following ecological pyramids is
sizes are : generally inverted?
Homo habilis — 650-800 cc (1) Pyramid of biomass in a forest
Homo neanderthalensis — 1400 cc (2) Pyramid of biomass in a sea
Homo erectus — 900 cc (3) Pyramid of numbers in grassland
Homo sapiens — 1350 cc
(4) Pyramid of energy
7. How does steroid hormone influence the Answer ( 2 )
cellular activities?
S o l . In an aquatic ecosystem, the pyramid of
(1) Activating cyclic AMP located on the cell biomass is generally inverted.
membrane
(2) Using aquaporin channels as second TC = Large fishes
messenger
SC = Small fishes
(3) Changing the permeability of the cell PC = Zooplanktons
membrane PP = Phytoplanktons
(4) Binding to DNA and forming a gene-
hormone complex
11. Which of the following pair of organelles does
Answer ( 4 ) not contain DNA?
S o l . Steroid hormones directly enter into the cell
(1) Lysosomes and Vacuoles
and bind with intracellular receptors in
nucleus to form hormone receptor complex. (2) Nuclear envelope and Mitochondria
Hormone receptor complex interacts with the (3) Mitochondria and Lysosomes
genome
(4) Chloroplast and Vacuoles
8. Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to :
Answer ( 1 )
(1) DNA polymorphism
S o l . Lysosomes and Vacuoles do not have DNA.
(2) Novel DNA sequences
(3) Genes expressed as RNA 12. Select the correct sequence for transport of
sperm cells in male reproductive system.
(4) Polypeptide expression
(1) Seminiferous tubules Vasa efferentia
Answer ( 3 )
Epididymis Inguinal canal Urethra
S o l . Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) are DNA
sequences (genes) that are expressed as (2) Testis Epididymis Vasa efferentia
mRNA for protein synthesis. These are used in Vas deferens Ejaculatory duct
human Genome Project. Inguinal canal Urethra Urethral
meatus
9. It takes very long time for pineapple plants to
produce flowers. Which combination of (3) Testis Epididymis Vasa efferentia
hormones can be applied to artificially induce Rete testis Inguinal canal Urethra
flowering in pineapple plants throughout the (4) Seminiferous tubules Rete testis
year to increase yield? Vasa efferentia Epididymis Vas
(1) Gibberellin and Abscisic acid deferens Ejaculatory duct Urethra
(2) Cytokinin and Abscisic acid Urethral meatus
(3) Auxin and Ethylene Answer ( 4 )
(4) Gibberellin and Cytokinin S o l . The correct sequence for transport of sperm
Answer ( 3 ) cells in male reproductive system is
Seminiferous tubules Rete testis Vasa
S o l . Plant hormone auxin induces flowering in
pineapple. Ethylene also helps in efferentia Epididymis Vas deferens
synchronization of flowering and fruit set up Ejaculatory duct Urethra Urethral
in pineapple. meatus
13. Match the following hormones with the 16. Cells in G0 phase :
respective disease
(1) suspend the cell cycle
(a) Insulin (i) Addison's disease
(2) terminate the cell cycle
(b) Thyroxin (ii) Diabetes insipidus
(3) exit the cell cycle
(c) Corticoids (iii) Acromegaly
(d) Growth Hormone (iv) Goitre (4) enter the cell cycle
2(C51H98O6) + 145O2 102CO2 + 98H2O 24. Identify the cells whose secretion protects the
lining of gastro-intestinal tract from various
Tripalmitin + Energy enzymes.
102 CO2 (1) Oxyntic Cells (2) Duodenal Cells
RQ 0.7
145 O2 (3) Chief Cells (4) Goblet Cells
Answer ( 4 )
21. Which of the following statements is
incorrect? S o l . Goblet cells secrete mucus and bicarbonates
present in the gastric juice which plays an
(1) Infective constituent in viruses is the
important role in lubrication and protection of
protein coat.
the mucosal epithelium from excoriation by
(2) Prions consist of abnormally folded the highly concentrated HCl.
proteins. 25. What is the site of perception of photoperiod
(3) Viroids lack a protein coat. necessary for induction of flowering in
plants?
(4) Viruses are obligate parasites.
(1) Shoot apex (2) Leaves
Answer ( 1 )
(3) Lateral buds (4) Pulvinus
S o l . Infective constituent in viruses is either DNA
or RNA, not protein. Answer ( 2 )
S o l . During flowering, photoperiodic stimulus is 29. Which of these following methods is the most
perceived by leaves of plants. suitable for disposal of nuclear waste?
(1) Dump the waste within rocks under deep
26. What would be the heart rate of a person if
ocean
the cardiac output is 5 L, blood volume in the
(2) Bury the waste within rocks deep below
ventricles at the end of diastole is 100 mL and
the Earth's surface
at the end of ventricular systole is 50 mL?
(3) Shoot the waste into space
(1) 100 beats per minute (4) Bury the waste under Antarctic ice-cover
(2) 125 beats per minute Answer ( 2 )
(3) 50 beats per minute S o l . Storage of nuclear waste should be done in
suitably shielded containers and buried within
(4) 75 beats per minute rocks deep below the earth's surface (500 m
Answer ( 1 ) deep)
30. Which of the following statements is
S o l . Cardiac output = stroke volume × Heart rate
incorrect?
Cardiac output = 5L or 5000 ml (1) Conidia are produced exogenously and
Blood volume in ventricles at the end of ascospores endogenously.
diastole = 100 ml (2) Yeasts have filamentous bodies with long
thread-like hyphae.
Blood volume in ventricles at the end of
(3) Morels and truffles are edible delicacies.
systole = 50 ml
(4) Claviceps is a source of many alkaloids
Stroke volume = 100 – 50 and LSD.
= 50 ml. Answer ( 2 )
So, S o l . Yeast is an unicellular sac fungus. It lacks
filamentous structure or hyphae.
5000 ml = 50 ml × Heart rate 31. Which one of the following equipments is
So, Heart rate = 100 beats per minute. essentially required for growing microbes on
a large scale, for industrial production of
27. Tidal Volume and Expiratory Reserve Volume
enzymes?
of an athlete is 500 mL and 1000 mL,
(1) Industrial oven (2) Bioreactor
respectively. What will be his Expiratory
(3) BOD incubator (4) Sludge digester
Capacity if the Residual Volume is 1200 mL?
Answer ( 2 )
(1) 2200 mL (2) 2700 mL
S o l . To produce enzyme in large quantity
(3) 1500 mL (4) 1700 mL equipment required are bioreactors. Large
scale production involves use of
Answer ( 3 )
bioreactors.
S o l . Tidal Volume = 500 ml 32. Match the following organisms with the
Expiratory Reserve Volume = 1000 ml products they produce
(a) Lactobacillus (i) Cheese
Expiratory Capacity = TV + ERV
(b) Saccharomyces (ii) Curd
= 500 + 1000 cerevisiae
= 1500 ml (c) Aspergillus niger (iii) Citric Acid
28. Placentation in which ovules develop on the (d) Acetobacter aceti (iv) Bread
inner wall of the ovary or in peripheral part, is (v) Acetic Acid
Select the correct option.
(1) Parietal (2) Free central
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) Basal (4) Axile
(1) (iii) (iv) (v) (i)
Answer ( 1 ) (2) (ii) (i) (iii) (v)
S o l . In parietal placentation the ovules develop on (3) (ii) (iv) (v) (iii)
the inner wall of ovary or in peripheral part. (4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (v)
eg. Mustard, Argemone etc. Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Microbes are used in production of several S o l . Growth rings are formed by the seasonal
household and industrial products – activity of cambium. In plants of temperate
Lactobacillus – Production of curd regions, cambium is more active in spring and
less active in autumn seasons. In temperate
Saccharomyces cerevisiae – Bread making
regions climatic conditions are not uniform
Aspergillus niger – Citric acid production throughout the year. However in tropics
Acetobacter aceti – Acetic acid climatic conditions are uniform throughout
33. Select the incorrect statement. the year.
(1) Inbreeding selects harmful recessive 36. Which of the following is true for Golden
genes that reduce fertility and productivity rice?
(4) Inbreeding is essential to evolve purelines (3) It is Vitamin A enriched, with a gene from
in any animal. daffodil
(2) Annual rings are not prominent in trees of (3) Ovary develops into fruit
temperate region. (4) Zygote develops into embryo
(3) Annual ring is a combination of spring Answer ( 2 )
wood and autumn wood produced in a S o l . Following are the post-fertilisation changes.
year
• Ovule Seed
(4) Differential activity of cambium causes
light and dark bands of tissue - early and • Ovary Fruit
late wood respectively. • Zygote Embryo
Answer ( 2 ) • Central cell Endosperm
39. Which of the following is the most important S o l . True segmentation is present in Annelida,
cause for animals and plants being driven to Arthropoda and Chordata. They also have
extinction? organ system level of organisation, bilateral
(1) Economic exploitation symmetry and are true coelomates
(2) Alien species invasion 42. Which of the following factors is responsible
(3) Habitat loss and fragmentation for the formation of concentrated urine?
(2) Water, mineral salts, some organic (3) Trichoderma (4) Chlorella
nitrogen and hormones Answer ( 3 )
(3) Water only S o l . Fungus Trichoderma is a biological control
agent being developed for use in the
(4) Water and mineral salts only treatment of plant diseases.
Answer ( 2 ) 49. Which of the following glucose transporters is
S o l . Xylem is associated with tanslocation of insulin-dependent?
mainly water, mineral salts, some organic (1) GLUT III (2) GLUT IV
nitrogen and hormones. (3) GLUT I (4) GLUT II
45. What is the direction of movement of sugars Answer ( 2 )
in phloem? S o l . GLUT-IV is insulin dependent and is
(1) Downward responsible for majority of glucose transport
into muscle and adipose cells in anabolic
(2) Bi-directional
conditions. Whereas GLUT-I is insulin
(3) Non-multidirectional independent and is widely distributed in
(4) Upward different tissues.
50. Purines found both in DNA and RNA are
Answer ( 2 )
(1) Guanine and cytosine
S o l . The direction of movement of sugar in phloem
(2) Cytosine and thymine
is bi-directional as it depends on source-sink
relationship which is variable in plants. (3) Adenine and thymine
(4) Adenine and guanine
46. The correct sequence of phases of cell cycle
is Answer ( 4 )
(4) p-arm and q-arm respectively (2) There are seven pairs of vertebrosternal,
three pairs of vertebrochondral and two
Answer ( 4 ) pairs of vertebral ribs.
S o l . Sub metacentric chromosome is (3) 8th , 9 th and 10 th pairs of ribs articulate
Heterobrachial. directly with the sternum.
Short arm designated as 'p' arm (4) 11th and 12th pairs of ribs are connected to
the sternum with the help of hyaline
(p = petite i.e. short)
cartilage.
Long arm designated as 'q' arm Answer ( 2 )
Sol. • Vertebrosternal ribs are true ribs, dorsally S o l . In mitochondria, enzymes for electron
they are attached to the thoracic vertebrae transport are present in the inner membrane.
and ventrally connected to the sternum 55. Variations caused by mutation, as proposed by
with the help of hyaline cartilage. First Hugo de Vries are
seven pairs of ribs are called true ribs.
(1) small and directional
• 8 th , 9 th and 10 th pairs of ribs do not
articulate directly with the sternum but (2) small and directionless
join the seventh ribs with the help of (3) random and directional
hyaline cartilage. These are (4) random and directionless
vertebrochondral or false ribs.
Answer ( 4 )
• Last 2 pairs (11 & 12) of ribs are not
S o l . According to Hugo de Vries, mutations are
connected ventrally and are therefore,
random and directionless.
called floating ribs.
Devries believed mutation caused speciation
• Only first seven pairs of ribs are ventrally
and hence called saltation (single step large
connected to the sternum.
mutation).
53. A gene locus has two alleles A, a. If the
frequency of dominant allele A is 0.4, then 56. Following statements describe the
what will be the frequency of homozygous characteristics of the enzyme Restriction
dominant, heterozygous and homozygous Endonuclease. Identify the incorrect
recessive individuals in the population? statement.
(1) 0.16(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.36(aa) (1) The enzyme cuts the sugar-phosphate
backbone at specific sites on each strand.
(2) 0.16(AA); 0.36(Aa); 0.48(aa)
(2) The enzyme recognizes a specific
(3) 0.36(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.16(aa)
palindromic nucleotide sequence in the
(4) 0.16(AA); 0.24(Aa); 0.36(aa) DNA.
Answer ( 1 ) (3) The enzyme cuts DNA molecule at
S o l . Frequency of dominant allele (say p) = 0.4 identified position within the DNA.
Frequency of recessive allele (say q) (4) The enzyme binds DNA at specific sites
= 1 – 0.4 = 0.6 and cuts only one of the two strands.
1 1 1 2 p
Equivalent focal length in air S o l . rH
F1 f f f eB
When glycerin is filled inside, glycerin lens p
behaves like a diverging lens of focal length (–f) r
2eB
1 1 1 1
p
F2 f f f rH
eB
1 r p
f 2eB
F1 1 rH 2
F2 2 r 1
95. Body A of mass 4m moving with speed u 97. In the circuits shown below, the readings of
collides with another body B of mass 2m, at voltmeters and the ammeters will be
rest. The collision is head on and elastic in
nature. After the collision the fraction of 10 i1
energy lost by the colliding body A is :
4 5
(1) (2) V1 A1
9 9
1 8
(3) (4)
9 9
Answer ( 4 )
10 V
S o l . Fractional loss of KE of ccolliding body
Circuit 1
KE 4 m1m2
10 i2
KE m m 2
1 2
4 4m 2m 10
4m 2m 2 V2 A2
32m2 8
2
36m 9
96. The speed of a swimmer in still water is
10 V
20 m/s. The speed of river water is 10 m/s and
is flowing due east. If he is standing on the Circuit 2
south bank and wishes to cross the river along
(1) V1 = V2 and i1 = i2 (2) V2 > V1 and i1 > i2
the shortest path the angle at which he should
make his strokes w.r.t. north is given by : (3) V2 > V1 and i1 = i2 (4) V1 = V2 and i1 > i2
(1) 60° west (2) 45° west
Answer ( 1 )
(3) 30° west (4) 0°
S o l . For ideal voltmeter, resistance is infinite and
Answer ( 3 ) for the ideal ammeter, resistance is zero.
S o l . VSR 20 m/s 10
V1 i1 10 10 10 volt
VRG 10 m/s 10
N 10
V RG V2 i2 10 10 10 volt
10
V SG V1 = V2
W E
V SR
10 V
i1 i2 1 A
10
S 98. A 800 turn coil of effective area 0.05 m2 is kept
VSG VSR VRG perpendicular to a magnetic field 5 × 10–5 T. When
the plane of the coil is rotated by 90° around
VRG any of its coplanar axis in 0.1 s, the emf
sin
VSR induced in the coil will be:
(1) 2 × 10–3 V (2) 0.02 V
10
sin (3) 2 V (4) 0.2 V
20
Answer ( 2 )
1 S o l . Magnetic field B = 5 × 10–5 T
sin
2
Number of turns in coil N = 800
= 30° west Area of coil A = 0.05 m2
Time taken to rotate t = 0.1 s 101. The displacement of a particle executing
Initial angle 1 = 0° simple harmonic motion is given by
Final angle 2 = 90° y = A0 + Asint + Bcost
Change in magnetic flux Then the amplitude of its oscillation is given
= NBAcos90° – BAcos0° by :
= – NBA (1) A20 (A B)2
= – 800 × 5 × 10–5 × 0.05
(2) A + B
=–2× 10–3 weber
(3) A0 A2 B2
()2 103 Wb
e– 0.02 V
t 0.1 s (4) A 2 B2
99. At a point A on the earth’s surface the angle Answer ( 4 )
of dip, = +25°. At a point B on the earth’s
surface the angle of dip, = –25°. We can Sol. B
A 2 B 2
interpret that:
(1) A is located in the northern hemisphere
and B is located in the southern
hemisphere. A
+ = 16%
+ +
r 105. A force F = 20 + 10 y acts on a particle in y-
+ + direction where F is in newton and y in meter.
+ + Work done by this force to move the particle
+ from y = 0 to y = 1 m is
E (1) 25 J (2) 20 J
(3) 30 J (4) 5 J
1
E0 Answer ( 1 )
r2
S o l . Work done by variable force is
Ein = 0
r
O R yf
q
W Fdy
E0 · dS en0 yi
Here, yi = 0, yf = 1 m
Here, qen = Q (∵ qen Q)
1 1
10y2
Q W (20 10y)dy 20y = 25 J
E0 4 r 2 0
2 0
0
106. In which of the following processes, heat is
1
E0 neither absorbed nor released by a system?
r2
(1) Isobaric (2) Isochoric
104. In an experiment, the percentage of error (3) Isothermal (4) Adiabatic
occurred in the measurement of physical
quantities A, B, C and D are 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% Answer ( 4 )
respectively. Then the maximum percentage of S o l . In adiabatic process, there is no exchange of
1
heat.
A2B 2
error in the measurement X, where X 1
, 107. In which of the following devices, the eddy
C 3D3 current effect is not used?
will be
(1) Electromagnet
(1) – 10% (2) 10% (2) Electric heater
3 (3) Induction furnace
(3) % (4) 16%
13 (4) Magnetic braking in train
Answer ( 4 ) Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Electric heater does not involve Eddy 110. Two parallel infinite line charges with linear
currents. It uses Joule's heating effect. charge densities + C/m and – C/m are
placed at a distance of 2R in free space. What
108. The unit of thermal conductivity is : is the electric field mid-way between the two
(1) W m K–1 (2) W m–1 K–1 line charges?
ˆ ˆ
= i i
2 0R 2 0R
Acceleration due to gravity at a depth d from
surface of earth
= î N / C
0R
d
g g 1 ...(1)
R 111. A mass m is attached to a thin wire and
whirled in a vertical circle. The wire is most
Where g = acceleration due to gravity at
likely to break when:
earth's surface
(1) the mass is at the lowest point
Multiplying by mass 'm' on both sides of (1)
(2) inclined at an angle of 60° from vertical
d R
mg mg 1 d
R 2 (3) the mass is at the highest point
1 1 0
a = 2 mm2
This is out put of NAND gate. Rate of flow liquid
Q au a 2gh Sol.
6 2
2 10 m 2 10 2 m/s
= 2 × 2 × 3.14 × 10–6 m3/s d
0 i
B ...(ii)
u 2 R
60° Maximum at surface
g sin60° Outside (d > R)
0 i
B
u 2 d
30°
1
g sin30° or B (Hyperbolic)
d
u2 117. A soap bubble, having radius of 1 mm, is blown
(Stopping distance) x1
2gsin60 from a detergent solution having a surface
tension of 2.5 × 10–2 N/m. The pressure inside
u2 the bubble equals at a point Z 0 below the
(Stopping distance) x2
2gsin30 free surface of water in a container. Taking
g = 10 m/s2, density of water = 103 kg/m3, the
x1 sin30 1 2 value of Z0 is :
1: 3
x2 sin60 2 3 (1) 1 cm (2) 0.5 cm
116. A cylindrical conductor of radius R is carrying (3) 100 cm (4) 10 cm
a constant current. The plot of the magnitude Answer ( 1 )
of the magnetic field. B with the distance d
from the centre of the conductor, is correctly 4T
S o l . Excess pressure = , Gauge pressure
represented by the figure : R
= gZ0
B B
4T
(1) (2) P0 P0 gZ0
R
R d R d 4T
Z0
B B R g
(3) (4) 4 2.5 102
Z0 m
R d R d 103 1000 10
Answer ( 1 ) Z0 = 1 cm
118. The work done to raise a mass m from the
surface of the earth to a height h, which is
Sol. rB
equal to the radius of the earth, is:
1 3 rA
(1) mgR (2) mgR
2 2
Answer ( 1 )
TA = TB = T
Sol.
2
M R A
TA
h=R
2
B
Initial potential energy at earths surface is TB
GMm
Ui
R A TB T
1
B TA T
Final potential energy at height h = R
121. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 20 F
GMm is being charged by a voltage source whose
Uf
2R potential is changing at the rate of 3 V/s. The
conduction current through the connecting
As work done = Change in PE wires, and the displacement current through
the plates of the capacitor, would be,
W = Uf – Ui respectively.
(3) Zero, 60 A
119. Which of the following acts as a circuit
protecting device? (4) 60 A, 60 A
(1) Switch (2) Fuse Answer ( 4 )
Answer ( 2 ) = 20 × 10–6 F
(3) rA : rB (4) vA : vB = 60 A
3t
(1) y(t) 3cos , where y in m
2
t
(2) y(t) 3cos , where y in m
2
(3) y(t) = –3 cos2t, where y in m E
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1
t
(4) y(t) 4 sin , where y in m (3) 4 : 9 (4) 9 : 4
2
Answer ( 2 ) Answer ( 4 )
S o l . At t = 0, y displacement is maximum, so S o l . (i) All bulbs are glowing
equation will be cosine function. R R
y R R
Pt=0
R R
T=4s
x
E
R R 2R
Req
3 3 3
T=4s E2 3E2
i
Power (P) ...(1)
Req 2R
2 2
rad/s
T 4 2 (ii) Two from section A and one from section
y = a cost B are glowing.
R
R
y 3cos t
2
R
123. For a p-type semiconductor, which of the
following statements is true ?
(1) Holes are the majority carriers and
E
pentavalent atoms are the dopants.
R 3R
(2) Electrons are the majority carriers and Req R
pentavalent atoms are the dopants. 2 2
(3) Electrons are the majority carriers and 2E2
Power (Pf ) ...(2)
trivalent atoms are the dopants. 3R
(4) Holes are the majority carriers and
Pi 3E 2 3R
trivalent atoms are the dopants. 9:4
Answer ( 4 )
Pf 2R 2E 2
125. Increase in temperature of a gas filled in a S o l . Red has the longest wavelength among the
container would lead to : given options.
(1) Decrease in its pressure 129. In total internal reflection when the angle of
(2) Decrease in intermolecular distance incidence is equal to the critical angle for the
pair of media in contact, what will be angle of
(3) Increase in its mass
refraction?
(4) Increase in its kinetic energy
(1) Equal to angle of incidence
Answer ( 4 )
(2) 90°
S o l . Increase in temperature would lead to the
increase in kinetic energy of gas (assuming (3) 180°
F (4) 0°
far as to be ideal) as U nRT
2 Answer ( 2 )
126. In a double slit experiment, when light of
wavelength 400 nm was used, the angular Sol.
width of the first minima formed on a screen
placed 1 m away, was found to be 0.2°. What 90°
will be the angular width of the first minima, if
the entire experimental apparatus is immersed
iC
in water? (water = 4/3)
(1) 0.05° (2) 0.1°
(3) 0.266° (4) 0.15°
At i = i c , refracted ray grazes with the
Answer (4) surface.
So angle of refraction is 90°.
S o l . In air angular fringe width 0
D
130. A disc of radius 2 m and mass 100 kg rolls on
Angular fringe width in water a horizontal floor. Its centre of mass has speed
of 20 cm/s. How much work is needed to stop
w 0 it?
D
(1) 2 J (2) 1 J
0.2 (3) 3 J (4) 30 kJ
= 0.15°
4
3 Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Work required = change in kinetic energy
127. The total energy of an electron in an atom in
an orbit is –3.4 eV. Its kinetic and potential Final KE = 0
energies are, respectively:
1 1 3
(1) 3.4 eV, –6.8 eV (2) 3.4 eV, 3.4 eV Initial KE = mv2 I2 mv2
2 2 4
(3) –3.4 eV, –3.4 eV (4) –3.4 eV, –6.8 eV
Answer ( 1 ) 3
100 (20 102 )2 3 J
S o l . In Bohr's model of H atom 4
|KE| = 3 J
U
K.E. TE
2 131. When a block of mass M is suspended by a long
wire of length L, the length of the wire
K.E. = 3.4 eV
becomes (L + l). The elastic potential energy
U = –6.8 eV stored in the extended wire is :
128. Which colour of the light has the longest
wavelength? 1 1
(1) Mgl (2) MgL
2 2
(1) Green (2) Violet
(3) Red (4) Blue (3) Mgl (4) MgL
Answer ( 3 ) Answer ( 1 )
Sol. If 25% of charge of A transferred to B then
L Q 3Q Q 3Q
qA Q and q B Q
4 4 4 4
qA qB
l r
kqA qB
F1
Mg r2
1
U (work done by gravity) 2
2 3Q
k
U
1
Mgl F1 42
2 r
132. A solid cylinder of mass 2 kg and radius 4 cm
is rotating about its axis at the rate of 3 rpm. 9 kQ
F1
The torque required to stop after 2 16 r 2
revolutions is
(1) 12 × 10–4 N m (2) 2 × 106 N m 9F
F1
16
(3) 2 × 10–6 N m (4) 2 × 10–3 N m
Answer ( 3 ) 134. Pick the wrong answer in the context with
rainbow.
S o l . Work energy theorem.
(1) An observer can see a rainbow when his
1 2
W I(f i2 ) = 2 revolution front is towards the sun
2
= 2 × 2 = 42 rad (2) Rainbow is a combined effect of dispersion
2 refraction and reflection of sunlight
Wi 3 rad / s
60 (3) When the light rays undergo two internal
1 1
– mr 2 (02 i2 ) reflections in a water drop, a secondary
2 2 rainbow is formed
2 (4) The order of colours is reversed in the
1 1 2
2 (4 10 2 ) 3 secondary rainbow
– 2 2 60
4 2 Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Rainbow can't be observed when observer
2 106 N m faces towards sun.
133. Two point charges A and B, having charges +Q 135. A copper rod of 88 cm and an aluminium rod of
and –Q respectively, are placed at certain unknown length have their increase
distance apart and force acting between them in length independent of increase in
is F. If 25% charge of A is transferred to B, then temperature. The length of aluminium rod is :
force between the charges becomes : (Cu = 1.7 × 10–5 K–1 and Al = 2.2 × 10–5 K–1)
16F 4F (1) 88 cm (2) 68 cm
(1) (2)
9 3
(3) 6.8 cm (4) 113.9 cm
9F
(3) F (4) Answer ( 2 )
16
Answer ( 4 ) S o l . CuLCu AlL Al
A B
S o l . +Q –Q 1.7 × 10–5 × 88 cm = 2.2 × 10–5 × LAl
r
kQ 2 1.7 88
F LAl 68 cm
r 2 2.2
139. Which of the following is incorrect statement?
(1) Sublimation of solid to gas (1) GeX4 (X = F, Cl, Br, I) is more stable than
GeX2
(2) 2H(g) H2(g)
(2) SnF4 is ionic in nature
(3) Evaporation of water
(3) PbF4 is covalent in nature
(4) Expansion of a gas at constant
(4) SiCl4 is easily hydrolysed
temperature
Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . PbF4 and SnF4 are ionic in nature.
Sol. • H2 O v , S 0
H2 O 140. Under isothermal condition, a gas at 300 K
expands from 0.1 L to 0.25 L against a
• Expansion of gas at constant constant external pressure of 2 bar. The work
temperature, S > 0 done by the gas is
• Sublimation of solid to gas, S > 0 (Given that 1 L bar = 100 J)
(1) 25 J (2) 30 J
• 2H(g)
H2(g), S < 0 (∵ ng < 0)
(3) –30 J (4) 5 kJ
137. For the chemical reaction
Answer ( 3 )
138. Which of the following diatomic molecular S o l . Due to involvement of lone pair of electrons in
species has only bonds according to resonance in phenol, it will have positive
Molecular Orbital Theory? charge (partial), hence incoming proton will
not be able to attack easily.
(1) C2 (2) Be2
142. Which of the following is an amphoteric
(3) O2 (4) N2
hydroxide?
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . MO configuration C2 is: (1) Mg(OH)2 (2) Be(OH)2
2 2
1s2, *1s2, 2s2, *2s2, 2p x 2p y (3) Sr(OH)2 (4) Ca(OH)2
Answer ( 2 ) Cl
..
143. The correct structure of tribromooctaoxide is
–
O O O
–
O O O
–
.. + –
(1) O – Br – Br – Br = O (2) O = Br – Br – Br – O – Cl
.. + AlCl4
..
– – Electrophile
O O O O O
– O
Cl H
O O O O O O
–
(3) O = Br – Br – Br = O (4) O = Br – Br – Br – O Cl+
+
–
O O O – O (i) etc
O O
Answer ( 3 )
Cl Cl
S o l . The correct structure is H
O O O +
O = Br – Br – Br = O (ii)
O O O
Tribromooctaoxide 146. Match the following :
144. The biodegradable polymer is: (a) Pure nitrogen (i) Chlorine
(1) Nylon-6 (2) Buna-S (b) Haber process (ii) Sulphuric acid
(3) Nylon-6,6 (4) Nylon-2-Nylon 6
(c) Contact process (iii) Ammonia
Answer ( 4 )
(d) Deacon’s process (iv) Sodium azide or
S o l . Nylon-2-Nylon 6
Barium azide
145. Among the following, the reaction that
Which of the following is the correct option?
proceeds through an electrophilic
substitution, is: (a) (b) (c) (d)
CI CI (1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
UV light
(1) + Cl2 CI CI (3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
CI
Answer ( 2 )
CI
S o l . (a) Pure nitrogen : Sodium azide or
heat Barium azide
(2) CH 2OH + HCl
(b) Haber process : Ammonia
CH 2Cl + H 2O (c) Contact process : Sulphuric acid
(d) Deacon’s process : Chlorine
(4) + Cl2
AlCl 3
CI + HCl
(2) 13 bonds and no bonds
(3) 10 bonds and 3 bonds
Answer ( 4 ) (4) 8 bonds and 5 bonds
150. If the rate constant for a first order reaction
is k, the time (t) required for the completion
H H
of 99% of the reaction is given by:
C – C
S o l . H – C – C = C – H
(1) t = 4.606/k (2) t = 2.303/k
H H
(3) t = 0.693/k (4) t = 6.909/k
Number of bonds = 10
Answer ( 1 )
and number of bonds = 3
S o l . First order rate constant is given as,
148. Enzymes that utilize ATP in phosphate transfer
require an alkaline earth metal (M) as the 2.303 [A ]
k log 0
cofactor. M is : t [A]t
(1) Ca (2) Sr 99% completed reaction,
(3) Be (4) Mg 2.303 100
k log
Answer ( 4 ) t 1
S o l . All enzymes that utilize ATP in phosphate 2.303
log102
transfer require magnesium(Mg) as the t
co-factor. 2.303
k 2log10
149. Identify the incorrect statement related to t
PCl5 from the following: 2.303 4.606
t 2
(1) Axial P–Cl bonds are longer than k k
equatorial P–Cl bonds 4.606
t
(2) PCl5 molecule is non-reactive k
151. The most suitable reagent for the following
(3) Three equatorial P–Cl bonds make an
conversion, is :
angle of 120° with each other
H3 C CH3
(4) Two axial P–Cl bonds make an angle of
H 3C C C CH3
180° with each other H H
cis-2-butene
Answer ( 2 )
(1) Zn/HCl (2) Hg2+/H+, H2O
Axial bond
Cl (3) Na/liquid NH3 (4) H2, Pd/C, quinoline
240 pm
Cl 90°
P Cl Equatorial bond Answer ( 4 )
Sol. 120°
Cl 202 pm H3C CH3
Cl H2, Pd/C,
S o l . H3C C C CH3 C C
quinoline
(1) True H H
cis-2-butene
Axial bond : 240 pm
152. The manganate and permanganate ions are
Equatorial bond : 202 pm tetrahedral, due to :
(2) False (1) The -bonding involves overlap of
p-orbitals of oxygen with p-orbitals of
Due to longer and hence weaker axial manganese
bonds, PCl5 is a reactive molecule.
(2) The -bonding involves overlap of
(3) True d-orbitals of oxygen with d-orbitals of
manganese
Cl
(3) The -bonding involves overlap of
(4) True P 180° p-orbitals of oxygen with d-orbitals of
manganese
Cl (4) There is no -bonding
Answer ( 3 ) Thus Ksp = [Ca2+][OH–]2
O 105 5 2
= (10 )
S o l . • Manganate (MnO42–) : Mn O 2
–
O – = 0.5 × 10–15
O
155. For an ideal solution, the correct option is :
-bonds are of d–p type
(1) mix H = 0 at constant T and P
O
(2) mix G = 0 at constant T and P
• Permanganate (MnO4–) : Mn O (3) mix S = 0 at constant T and P
O
(4) mix V 0 at constant T and P
–
O
-bonds are of d–p type Answer ( 1 )
153. For a cell involving one electron E°cell = 0.59 V S o l . For ideal solution,
at 298 K, the equilibrium constant for the cell mixH = 0
reaction is :
mixS > 0
2.303 RT mixG < 0
Given that 0.059 V at T = 298 K
F
mixV = 0
(1) 1.0 × 1010 156. A gas at 350 K and 15 bar has molar volume
(2) 1.0 × 1030 20 percent smaller than that for an ideal gas
under the same conditions. The correct
(3) 1.0 × 102 option about the gas and its compressibility
(4) 1.0 × 105 factor (Z) is :
Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne 162. The number of moles of hydrogen molecules
159. Which mixture of the solutions will lead to the required to produce 20 moles of ammonia
formation of negatively charged colloidal through Haber's process is :
[Agl]l– sol ?
(1) 30 (2) 40
(1) 50 mL of 2 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 1.5 M KI
(2) 50 mL of 0.1 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 0.1 M KI (3) 10 (4) 20
(3) 50 mL of 1 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 1.5 M KI Answer ( 1 )
(4) 50 mL of 1 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 2 M KI
S o l . Haber's process
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Generally charge present on the colloid is due N2 (g) 3H2 (g) 2NH3 (g)
to adsorption of common ion from dispersion
medium. Millimole of KI is maximum in 20 moles need to be produced
option (2) (50 × 2 = 100) so act as solvent and
2 moles of NH3 3 moles of H2
anion I– is adsorbed by the colloid AgI formed
3 20
Hence 20 moles of NH3 30 moles of H2
2
Answer ( 1 )
18 (3) [SiF6]2–
=
4 (4) [GeCl6]2–
9 Answer ( 2 )
=
2
S o l . • Due to presence of d-orbital in Si, Ge and
• So formula of compound will be Sn they form species like SiF62–, [GeCl6]2–,
[Sn(OH)6]2–
C 9 A6 C9 A12
2 • SiCl 62– does not exist because six large
chloride ions cannot be accommodated
C9A12 C3A4
around Si4+ due to limitation of its size.
165. The non-essential amino acid among the
following is: 168. Match the Xenon compounds in Column-I
with its structure in Column-II and assign the
(1) Alanine (2) Lysine correct code:
(3) Valine (4) Leucine Column-I Column-II
Answer ( 1 ) (a) XeF4 (i) Pyramidal
S o l . Alanine (b) XeF6 (ii) Square planar
166. An alkene "A" on reaction with O3 and Zn–H2O (c) XeOF4 (iii) Distorted octahedral
gives propanone and ethanal in equimolar (d) XeO3 (iv) Square pyramidal
ratio. Addition of HCl to alkene "A" gives "B"
Code:
as the major product. The structure of
product "B" is: (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
CH3 CH3
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(1) H3C–CH2–C–CH3 (2) H3C–CH–CH
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Cl Cl CH3
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
CH3 CH2Cl Answer ( 4 )
(3) Cl–CH2–CH2–CH (4) H3 C–CH2 –CH–CH3
F F
CH3 S o l . (a) XeF4 : Xe Square planar
F F
Answer ( 1 )
F 171. The structure of intermediate A in the
following reaction, is
F F
Distorted CH3
(b) XeF6 : Xe CH OH
octahedral CH3 O
F F O2 H
+
A + H3C CH3
H2 O
F
CH3 CH2 – O – O – H
F F
Square O – O – CH HC
(c) XeOF4 : Xe CH3
F F pyramidal CH3
O (1) (2)
CH3 CH3
Xe O CH
(d) XeO3 : Pyramidal O – CH H3C – C – O – O – H
O 3
O
169. Among the following, the one that is not a (3) (4)
green house gas is Answer ( 4 )
(1) Ozone (2) Sulphur dioxide CH3
CH3
(3) Nitrous oxide (4) Methane CH H3C – C – O – O – H
CH3
Answer ( 2 ) O2 H
+
Sol.
S o l . Fact H 2O
Neutral solution
Energy
In (3) CH3COOH NaOH CH3COONa H2O
Spherical t2g Before 25 mL 50 mL
2+ field 0
Fe × 0.1 M × 0.1M
t 62g e0g In the presence of
–
= 2.5 mmol = 5 mmol
6CN strong field After 0 2.5 mmol 2.5 mmol
ii
174. Conjugate base for Br onsted acids H2O and
This is basic solution due to NaOH.
HF are :
This is not basic buffer.
(1) OH– and F–, respectively
(4)
(2) H3O+ and H2F+, respectively CH3COOH NaOH CH3COONa H2O
(3) OH– and H2F+, respectively Before 100 mL 100 mL
0
× 0.1 M × 0.1 M
(4) H3O+ and F–, respectively
10 mmol 10mmol
Answer ( 1 ) After 0 0 10 mmol
–
OH Conjugate base Hydrolysis of salt takes place.
S o l . H2O
+ This is not basic buffer.
H3O Conjugate acid
HF on loss of H + ion becomes F – is the 176. 4d, 5p, 5f and 6p orbitals are arranged in the
conjugate base of HF order of decreasing energy. The correct
option is
Example :
– + (1) 6p > 5f > 4d > 5p
HF + H2O F + H3O
Acid Base Conjugate Conjugate (2) 5f > 6p > 4d > 5p
base acid
(3) 5f > 6p > 5p > 4d
175. Which will make basic buffer?
(4) 6p > 5f > 5p > 4d
(1) 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 200 mL of 0.1 M
NH4OH Answer ( 3 )
NH2 NH2
(4) Clark's method
O
COOH Answer ( 4 )
(3) (4) NH
S o l . Clark's method is used to remove temporary
CONH 2
O hardness of water, in which bicarbonates of
Answer ( 4 ) calcium and magnesium are reacted with
– + slaked lime Ca(OH)2
COOH COO NH4
Sol. + NH3 Ca(HCO3)2 + Ca(OH)2 2CaCO3 + 2H2O
– +
COOH COO NH 4
Mg(HCO3)2 + 2Ca(OH)2 2CaCO3 + Mg(OH)2
– 2H2O
+ 2H2O
CONH 2
180. Which one is malachite from the following?