QT Test

DIRECTION DES OPERATIONS AERIENNES
QUESTIONS
1- Have a look at the FMA. Why are ALT and G/S on the same line but in different colors ?
a- ALT is in active mode and G/S is in armed mode.
b- ALT is in armed mode and G/S is in active mode.
c- ALT and G/S are in armed mode but ALT has a

constraint.
d- ALT and G/S are in armed mode but G/S has a

constraint.
2- According to this display:
a- The active leg is defined from BENIP to

GURDO.
b- The TO WPT is TRO.
c- The active leg is defined by the FROM

WPT TRO and the TO WPT BENIP.
d- The TO WPT is GURDO.
3- Have a look at the FMA. The functions displayed in green on the first line are ...
a- All in armed mode as indicated by the

GREEN color.
b- All in active mode as they are on the

first line and GREEN.
c- Either in armed or active mode

depending on the FMGC settings.
d- The titles of the columns with ALT, G/S

and LOC as the active modes.
TEST A330-200 Page 1

4- ATC cleared you to FL 150. The PF set the new altitude on the FCU. What will happen if he pulls the ALT
selection knob?
a- The aircraft will stop the climb at FL 60,

pass the constraint and then continue
to climb to FL 150.
b- The aircraft will disregard the constraint

and climb to FL 150.
c- As soon as the aircraft passes FL 60, the

target altitude on the PFD will change to
FL 150 and the aircraft continues to climb.
d- The aircraft will level off at FL 60, the PF

has to pull the ALT selection knob a
second time to climb to FL 150.
5- The Flight Management part of the FMGEC includes the following elements :
a- Navigation, flight planning and A/THR commands.
b- Performance optimization, A/THR and AP commands.
c- Navigation, flight planning, performance optimization and flight predictions.
6- This aircraft is following a track of 140.
True
False

7- You are in cruise at FL 330. According to this FCU configuration, you can say that :
a- The SPD pb has been pushed and the speed is selected.

b- The HDG is selected by the pilot.
c- The SPD and HDG pbs have been pushed.
d- The SPD pb has been pulled and the speed is selected.
8- According to this FMA :
a- FD1 is not engaged.
b- FD1 has failed.
c- FD1 has been replaced by FD2.
9- ACARS STBY is displayed on the E/WD. What does this memo message mean?
a- The ATSU is faulty.
b- A communication init. parameter is missing.
c- VDR 3 is in voice mode.
d- ATSU is trying to recover air/ground communications

10- What is the purpose of the scan mask?
a- It is a list of service provider frequencies scanned

by VDR 3 and SATCOM.
b- VDR 3 will randomly scan this list in order to

establish data communication.
c- It is the ordered list of airline service providers

scanned by VDR 3 only.
d- It is just a memory reference for pilots.
11- Which MCDU key has to be selected in order to react at the memo message?
a- AOC MENU LSK.
b- COMM MENU LSK.
c- ATC COMM key.
d- MCDU MENU key.

12- What is the status of the communication means?
a- We are outside the VHF coverage zone, ATSU

automatically switches to SATCOM to maintain
communication.
b- VDR 3 data part is faulty. SATCOM now assumes the

air/ground communication.
c- The VDR 3 is no longer able to communicate in data

mode, crew has to switch to another VHF frequency.
d- Data communication is lost.
13- In which mode are we?
a- VOICE mode.
b- DATA mode.

14- What is the meaning of these screens?
a- Full connection with the ATC has been performed

and KZAK: NOTIFIED is the positive feedback.
b- Amber boxes mean that the ATC CENTER name is

missing.
c- You have just notified the ATC of your datalink capacity.
d- As NO ACTIVE ATC is displayed, there is

something wrong in the communication parameters.
15- What is KZAK Control telling you?
a- There is a problem. ATC datalink is down.

You need to monitor NADI Control on the
HF.
b- KZAK Control is simply informing you that an

automatic switching to the next ATC center will
occur.
c- You are exiting an ATC datalink coverage

area. You have to use your HF.
d- You have to perform a manual notification

operation to the next ATC center.

16- ATC DATALINK STBY is displayed on the E/WD. What does this memo message mean?
a- The ATSU is faulty.
b- A communication init. parameter is missing.
c- VDR 3 is in voice mode.
d- ATSU is trying to recover air/ground

communications
17- In which conditions are we?
a- We are able to carry on and send ATC datalink messages.
b- All datalink capability are lost, ATC and AOC.
c- We have simply lost the current message on the DCDU.
d- Only ATC datalink communication is lost.

18- What is the purpose of the scan mask?
a- It is a list of service provider frequencies scanned by VDR 3 and SATCOM.
b- VDR 3 will randomly scan this list in order to establish data communication.
c- It is the ordered list of airline service providers scanned by VDR 3 only.
d- It is just a memory reference for pilots.
19- You deployed the cabin masks. What is their effective time of use, once activated?
a- 10 to 12 minutes.
b- 33 to 35 minutes.
c- 15 to 22 minutes.
d- 60 minutes.
20- What is the function of the N/100% supply selector?
a- The 100% position provides the maximum pressure, N

provides the normal pressure.
b- The N position provides an air/oxygen mixture, 100%

delivers pure oxygen.
c- N position cuts the oxygen supply, 100% position enables

normal oxygen supply.
d- The N/100% selector is to be used during the preflight

check to check the oxygen supply to the mask.

21- To perform the emergency oxygen pressure check, you must press and hold the PRESS TO TEST AND
RESET lever and the emergency knob simultaneously. Which is the correct indication that you will see while
performing this test?
a b
c d
22- Which ECAM indication would you see?
a b c

23- Which indication confirms the deployment of the masks?
24- The temperature of each aircraft zone is optimized by means of ...?
a- A HOT AIR valve.
b- A ZONE control valve.
c- A PACK FLOW valve.
d- A TRIM AIR valve.
25- With a low passenger load the PACK FLOW controller can be set to LO. What is the advantage of this?
a- With a low passenger load the cabin will

become too hot. LO setting allows a lower
temperature in the cabin.
b- LO setting reduces the bleed air demand

and therefore saves fuel.
c- LO setting reduces the bleed air demand

and therefore increases the noise level in
the cabin.
d- LO setting must be set when flying at

low cruising altitudes, there is no
advantage to be gained.

26- Under what conditions should the PACK FLOW controller be set to HI?
a- With a full passenger load in hot conditions

HI setting will increase the airflow to help
reduce the cabin temperature.
b- With a low passenger load HI setting will

increase the airflow to help reduce the
cabin temperature.
c- In cold conditions HI setting will increase

the airflow to help increase the cabin
temperature.
d- When flying at high altitude HI setting is

needed to provide the extra airflow
demanded.
27- The PACK FLOW controller is set to NORM and yet the ECAM display shows PACK FLOW to be high.
How is this possible?
a- As the engines are not running the PACK

FLOW indicators are at the position they
were selected to at the last shut down.
b- As no bleed air is flowing the PACK FLOW

valves are spring loaded to the fully open
position.
c- HI flow is automatically selected regardless

of PACK FLOW selector position because
air is only being supplied by the APU.
d- With cold outside air conditions the PACK

FLOW is automatically increased to help
increase the cabin temperature.
28- How the F/CTL page appears on the flight deck during the flight control checks?
a- Automatically as soon as the nose wheel steering handle is

moved.
b- Automatically as soon as the side stick is moved.
c- The pilot has to press the F/CTL pb on the ECP.

29- What will happen when the speed approaches 200 kts?
a- There will be an automatic flap retraction and the speed

will continue to increase.
b- There will be an automatic slat retraction and the speed

will continue to increase.
c- The autopilot will increase the pitch to prevent the flap

limiting speed from being exceeded.
d- The A/THR will reduce power to prevent the flap limiting

speed from being exceeded.
30- With the autopilot engaged, which statement is correct?
a- The SPEED BRAKE lever is isolated. Speed is

controlled using the managed speed.
b- The SPEED BRAKEs are not affected by the autopilot and

function as normal throughout their range.
c- The SPEED BRAKE lever is restricted at the half position.
d- The maximum SPEED BRAKE deflection is approximately

half even with the lever moved fully back.
31- Which indications do you expect, if one side stick is deflected fully forward?
a b c d

32- According to these indications, which flight control law is active?
a- Normal Law.
b- Alternate Law.
c- Direct Law.
d- Mechanical Back Up.
33- In normal law, what is the maximum bank angle you can reach with the side stick fully deflected?
a- There is no bank angle limitation.
b- 33º
c- 67 º
d- 80 º
34- According to the indications shown on this PFD ...
a- The High Angle Of Attack protection is active.
b- The Alpha Floor protection is active.
c- The Load Factor Limitation is active.
d- No protection is active.

35- Let’s assume the FO presses his take over pb for more than 40 secs and then releases it.
Which statement is correct?
40 sec
a- Both side sticks are active.
b- The Capt’s side stick is de-activated

unless he presses his take over pb.
c- The Capt’s side stick is active as long as

the FO’s side stick is in neutral position.
d- The Capt is unable to re-activate his

side stick for the rest of the flight.
CAPT FO
36- If both pilots deflect simultaneously their side sticks fully back ...
a- No inputs are sent to the flight control computers unless one pilot presses the take over pb on his stick.
b- The “pitch up” order is equal to a single stick deflection.
c- The “pitch up” order is 1.5 times higher than with only one stick deflected.
d- The “pitch up” order is twice as high as with only one stick deflected.
37- In AUTO, how is the cabin differential pressure normally controlled?
a- By the SAFETY valve.
b- By the INLET valves.
c- By the EXTRACT valve.
d- By the OUTFLOW valves.

38- As you can see, cabin pressure control is manual. You want to descend from FL 350 to FL 310.
What is your target CABIN ALT?
a- 0 ft.
b- 4700 ft.
c- 5300 ft.
d- 6500 ft.
39- By moving the MAN V/S CTL to this position ...
a- The cabin altitude is raised by opening

the outflow valve.
b- The cabin altitude is lowered by opening

the outflow valve.
c- The cabin altitude is raised by closing

the outflow valve.
d- The cabin altitude is lowered by closing

the outflow valve.
40- Having manually set the LDG ELEV, how is the cabin altitude controlled?
a- It is only controllable manually through

the MAN V/S CTL.
b- It is still controlled automatically through

the outflow valves.
c- It is still controlled normally through the

safety valve.
d- It is only controllable manually through

the LDG ELEV selector.

41- How is the safety valve controlled?
a- It is controlled with the MAN V/S CTL.
b- It is controlled with the MODE SEL pb.
c- It is controlled with the DITCHING pb.
d- It is fully automatic and cannot be

controlled manually.
42- According to these panel settings, which lights are actually ON?
a- STROBE, BEACON, NAV, T.O. LAND and

RWY TURN OFF lights.
b- BEACON, NAV, TAXI, T.O. and LAND

lights.
c- BEACON, T.O., LAND and RWY TURN OFF

lights.
d- STROBE, BEACON, NAV and LAND

lights.
43- What happens to the various cabin lights in the event of excessive cabin altitude?
a- The NO SMOKING, FASTEN SEATBELT,

RETURN TO SEAT and EXIT signs come
on automatically only if the switches are in
the AUTO position.
b- The NO SMOKING, FASTEN SEATBELT,

on automatically only if the EMER EXIT
switch is armed.
c- The NO SMOKING, FASTEN SEATBELT,

on automatically only if the landing gear is
down.
d- The NO SMOKING, FASTEN SEATBELT,

on automatically regardless of the position
of the switches.

44- During your walk-round, you notice that this light is unserviceable.
What do you call it in the tech log entry?
a- A RWY TURNOFF light.
b- A LANDING light.
c- A TAXI and TAKEOFF light.
d- A TAKEOFF light.
45- Why do you still have the APU AVAIL indications?
a- The APU has shut down but the AIR INLET FLAP
is not fully closed yet.
b- The APU will run for 2 minutes to cool down

because you have been using the APU bleed.
c- The APU is still running because it always needs a

2 min cool down period after the APU MASTER SW
has been switched off.
d- The APU is still running. You have to push the

START SW to initiate the shut down sequence.
46- After the engines have been switched off, you realize that there is no external power available.
Can you still interrupt the APU shut down sequence?
a- No, I have to wait until the APU AIR INLET FLAP

is fully closed and then start the APU again.
b- Yes, I just have to push the APU MASTER SW back

to ON.
c- Yes, I just have to push the APU START switch to

ON.
d- No, I have to wait until the AVAIL indications

disappear and then start the APU again.

47- Which ECAM APU page corresponds to these indications on the overhead panel?
a b
c d
48- Which of the following statements is correct?
a- APU auto shutdown can only occur on the ground.
b- The APU can only be shut down from the cockpit.
c- The APU will only shut down automatically if a fire

is detected.
d- If the APU EMER SHUT DOWN pb is pushed on the

REFUEL/DEFUEL panel, an emergency shutdown will
occur.
49- According to the ECAM APU page indications:
a- The APU is available. It is providing bleed air and

electrical power.
b- The APU is available. It is providing electrical

power only.
c- The APU is available. It is providing bleed air only.
d- The APU is available. It is not providing electrical

power or bleed air.

50- If you have an APU FIRE, which statement is correct?
a- In the air, an APU EMER shut down will occur and

the APU fire bottle will be discharged automatically.
b- On the ground, you have to perform the ECAM

actions to shut down the APU from the cockpit.
c- On the ground, an APU AUTO shut down will

occur but you have to discharge the APU fire bottle
manually.
d- On the ground, an APU EMER shut down will

occur and the APU fire bottle will be discharged
automatically.
51- How can the ILS1 FAULT be restored from being a CANCELLED CAUTION?
a- By resetting the appropriate circuit breaker.
b- By pressing and holding any CLR pb for

more than 3 seconds.
c- By pressing the EMER CANC pb for

d- By pressing and holding the RCL pb for

52- How did the PNF cancel the caution for NAV ILS1 FAULT and display the CANCELLED CAUTION?
a- By pressing the EMER CANC pb.
b- By pressing the CLR pb.
c- By pressing the STS pb.
d- By pressing the ALL pb.

53- In case of a double FWC failure, MASTER CAUTION light, MASTER WARNING light, aural
warnings and ECAM cautions and warnings are lost.
TRUE
FALSE
54- Both ECAM screens have failed. Is it possible to get E/WD indications?
a- Yes, the E/WD is automatically transferred

to one of the NDs.
b- No the EWD is lost until the aircraft can be

repaired.
c- Yes, to get E/WD information, it must be

manually transferred to one of the NDs.
d- Yes, E/WD information is automatically

transferred to the F/O’s PFD in the event of
an ECAM warning.
55- The upper ECAM DU has failed and you want to check the DOOR/ OXY page.
How can you display it?
a- You have to press and hold the DOOR/OXY pb on

the ECP.
b- You have to move the ECAM DMC selector to

position 1.
c- You have to press and hold the RCL pb on the ECP.
d- It is not possible to see the DOOR/OXY page with

this failure.

56- On the ground, after having shut down all engines, you observe a pulsing STS message.
What does it mean?
a- It is an indication that at least one system requires

crew attention.
b- It is an indication that the aircraft has not been shut

down correctly.
c- It is a reminder that the status page holds a

maintenance message.
57- On the bottom of the STATUS page, what does the green arrow mean?
a- It is a reminder to land as soon as possible.
b- It indicates that there is a system page behind.
c- It means that there is more information to be seen.
58- Please indicate ND 2.
a b c d e

59- The message REFUEL IN PROCESS appears in the MEMO. What does it mean?
a- The aircraft systems are ready to start refueling.
b- The refueling control panel door is not closed.
c- Fuel is being supplied to the aircraft.
d- A reminder to turn the fuel pumps off whilst

refueling is in progress.
60- With reference to the indication for the stand-by engine feed pump, which statement is correct?
a- The stand-by pump has been switched OFF.
b- The stand-by pump is faulty.
c- This is the normal indication of the stand-by pump

with the two main fuel pumps running.
61- What does the center tank transfer valves indication mean?
a- Normal transfer (auto).
b- Abnormal transfer.
c- No transfer.
d- Manual transfer.
62- What does the amber engine LP valve mean?
a- The LP valve is closed.
b- The LP valve is in transit.
c- The LP valve is open.
d- The LP valve is faulty.

63- You are in descent below FL245 and the landing gear is still up, what would you expect the ECAM
FUEL page to look like?
a b c
64- If all left inner pumps fail, which statement is true?
a- Fuel in the left wing is no longer useable.
b- It will no longer be possible to supply fuel to ENG 1.
c- Fuel in the left wing is available through gravity

feeding.
d- The failure will not be accompanied by a Master

Caution or a chime.
6 / 18

65- With reference to the outer tank fuel transfer, which statement is correct?
a- Fuel is transferred from the outer to the inner tanks

using the wing tank pumps.
b- Fuel is only transferred from the inner to the outer

tanks if there is fuel in the trim tank.
c- The MEMO “TRIM TK XFR“ appears when fuel is

being transferred from the outer tank.
d- The outer to inner tanks transfer is performed by

gravity.
66- According to the ECAM FUEL page which statement is true?
a- Only the main tank fuel pumps have been selected

on.
b- All of the pumps are on, only the APU is provided

with fuel.
c- All of the pumps are on, they are providing both

engines and the APU with fuel.
d- Only the main tank fuel pumps have been

selected on. Only the APU is provided with fuel.

67- Can the fuel in the center tank now be used?
a- The fuel will be automatically transferred

when the quantity in either inner tank drops
below 17T.
b- All of the center tank fuel is now unusable.
c- The fuel must be manually transferred when the

fuel quantity in either inner tank drops below 17T.
d- The fuel can only be transferred if one of the center

pumps becomes serviceable.
68- Why are the FOB and CTR TANK fuel quantity indications boxed amber?
a- The fuel of the CTR tank is partially unusable.
b- The fuel temperature has exceeded a limit.
c- There is a discrepancy between fuel measured

and the fuel entered on the MCDU.
d- The trim tank feed is faulty and the CG

exceeds the target value.

69- If you get the following indications the APU FIRE TEST is successful.
TRUE
FALSE
70- It is the first flight of the day. Before performing the APU fire test, you have to check that...
a- The APU FIRE pb is in and guarded and

the AGENT light is illuminated.
b- The APU FIRE pb is in and guarded and

the APU is running.
c- The red disk APU fire overpressure

indicator is not visible on the outside
of the aircraft.
d- The APU FIRE pb is in and guarded

and the AGENT pb is extinguished.
71- With reference to the engine fire system, which statement is correct?
a- Both engines have a single fire

protection loop.
b- Each engine is equipped with two

fire bottles.
c- Each engine has a single fire bottle which

is also connected to the other engine.
d- Engine Fire warnings are only shown

on the FIRE panel.

72- According to these indications ...
a- One fire detection loop has failed.

Fire detection for both engines is not available.
b- One fire detection loop has failed.

Fire detection for both engines is still available.
c- One fire detection loop of engine 1 has failed.

Fire detection for engine 1 is inoperative.
d- Both fire detection loops of engine 1 have failed.

Fire detection for engine 1 is inoperative.
73- You are about to perform a test of the ENG FIRE system. What indications do you expect to see on the
FIRE panel?
You are about to perform a test of the ENG FIRE

system. What indications do you expect to see
on the FIRE panel?
a b
c d
74- You have an engine fire. Having pressed the AGENT 1 pb, you immediately get an amber DISCH light,
what does this mean?
a- The fire bottle has depressurized.
b- There is a fault with AGENT 1.
c- The squibs are armed.
d- AGENT 1 has failed to discharge.

75- With reference to cargo compartment fire extinguishing, which statement is true?
a- There are two fire bottles, one for the

FWD compartment and one for the AFT.
b- There are two fire bottles, both will be

discharged instantaneously into the
appropriate compartment.
c- When the DISCH PB is pressed both

fire bottles are discharged into both
compartments.
d- When the AGENT pb is pressed both fire

bottles will be discharged into the
appropriate compartment.
76- Immediately after having pressed the FWD AGENT DISCH pb, what indications would you
expect on the cargo smoke panel.
a b
c d
77- If the oxygen masks fail to deploy automatically how else can they be deployed?
a- They can be deployed by the flight

attendants using the CIDS panel.
b- They can be deployed by pressing the

MASK MAN ON pb on the Overhead Panel.
c- They cannot be deployed if the automatic

system fails.
d- They can be deployed by pressing the

PASSENGER SYS ON pb on the
Overhead Panel.

78- You want to open the cabin door, whilst lifting the control handle, the white light
illuminates. What does this mean?
a- There is residual pressure in the cabin.
b- The ramp is not correctly positioned.
c- Somebody is trying to open the door from outside.
d- The slide is still armed.
79- In the cabin one of the flight attendants has pressed the PRIO CAPT button to make an Emergency
Call. What indications will you get on the flight deck?
a- Three long buzzers and a red EVAC light. 3

b- Three long buzzers and a steady amber
EMER call light.
c- Three long buzzers, flashing EMER CALL

and ACP ATT lights.
d- Flashing EMER CALL, EMER ON and

EVAC lights.
80- In the cabin, on the handset keyboard, which button will the cabin crew press to make a
normal call to the flight deck?
a- INTPH.
b- PRIO CAPT.
c- CAPT.
d- PURS.

81- Due to MCDU NAV accuracy downgrade, the MEMO TERR STBY appears on the EWD. What
functions of the EGPWS have been lost?
a- The enhanced TERRAIN AWARENESS and

display functions have been lost, basic GPWS remains
active.
b- The terrain display only has been lost, all functions

of the EGPWS are still active.
c- All functions of the GPWS have been lost.
d- The TERRAIN caution envelope is lost but the

TERRAIN warning envelope will still be triggered if
the area is penetrated.
82- IR alignment has counted down, but IRS ALIGN 1 MN remains on the EWD. Why is this?
a- It is an indication that there is a disagreement

between the IRs and the alignment must be restarted.
b- It is an indication that alignment has stopped as the

present position data has not been entered.
c- It is an indication that the alignment is complete

and must be acknowledged.
d- This is the normal indication during the last

minute.
3- During your preliminary checks you set the ADIRS to align. Why the ON BAT light comes on?
a- It is a reminder that the alignment is carried out
using battery power.
b- It comes on for a few seconds to test the battery

circuit.
c- It is a reminder that it is necessary to turn on the

aircraft batteries.
d- It is an indication that there is a fault with

the battery circuit.

84- An ILS approach is selected. Please indicate the displays with information about ILS 1.
a- PFD 1 and ND 1.
b- PFD 2 and ND 2.
c- PFD 1 and ND 2.
d- PFD 2 and ND 1.
85- With the WX RADAR set to zero tilt, which is the correct beam projection?
A C
B D

86- With the WX Radar switched on, why is there a TERR AHEAD indication on the ND?
a- It is an EGPWS indication that there is terrain ahead

and is a prompt to switch from WX RADAR to TERR
ON ND.
b- It is an EGPWS indication that there is terrain ahead

but the WX RADAR display has suppressed the TERR
ON ND display.
c- It is an EGPWS indication that there is terrain ahead.
The WX RADAR has been suppressed by the TERR ON
ND display.
d- As it is in amber, it is an indication that the

EGPWS terrain mode has failed.
87- During a turnaround, you notice that there is a residual groundspeed on both NDs. How do you correct
this?
a- As the engines have been shut down, it is necessary
to carry out a full re-alignment of the ADIRS.
b- As the indications are on ND1 and ND2, it is

necessary to carry out a rapid re-align of ADIRS 1 and
2 only.
c- There is no corrective action possible until the

aircraft is completely shut down.
d- It is possible to carry out a rapid re-alignment by

turning all three ADIRS off momentarily.
12 / 19

88- You are at the start of a descent and, as the power changes, green N1 command arcs are displayed showing
the new thrust demanded. When does this happen?
a- Whenever the thrust levers are moved out of the

CLIMB position.
b- Whenever there is a power change with auto thrust

engaged.
c- Whenever there is a power change with the

autopilot engaged.
d- Whenever there is a power change in manual

thrust.
89- After landing you select REVERSE and the following indications appear. What does it mean?
a- The reversers are faulty and must be de-selected.
b- This is the normal indication when the reversers are

fully deployed.
c- The reversers are stuck.
d- This is the normal indication whilst the reversers

are unlocked.
90- A few seconds after selecting reverse, the amber REV indication changes to green. What does this mean?
a- The reversers have been re-stowed.
b- The reverse thrust selection has been acknowledged.
c- The reversers are unlocked.
d- The reversers are now fully deployed.

91- During engine start the amber FAULT light on the ENG panel illuminates. This indicates...
a- That there is a failure in the automatic start
b- That there is a failure of the ENG MODE
c- That there is a failure in the engine fire

extinguishing system.
d- That there is a failure of the ENG MASTER switch.
92- What is the meaning of the CHK EWD amber indication?
a- It is an indication that the EPR is out of the normal

range.
b- It is an indication of a discrepancy between EPR of

ENG1 and ENG2.
c- It is an indication of a discrepancy between the EPR

shown on the ECAM and the real value.
d- It is an indication of a discrepancy between the

EPR limit shown on the dials and the EPR rating limit
shown digitally.
93- With the AUDIO SWITCHING knob in the CAPT 3 position, the captain uses his acoustic equipment on
ACP 3.
True
False
94- In case of RMP 1 failure, VHF 1 is lost.
True
False

95- What does the white SEL light mean?

RMP 1
a- It is an indication of a SELCAL.
b- It is an indication that the VHF used on

RMP 2 is not the standard one.
c- It is an indication that somebody is

transmitting on VHF 2.
RMP 2
d- It is an indication that the VHF used on
RMP 1 is not the standard one.
96- According to the HYD page what is pressurizing the GREEN system?
a- The electric pump.
b- The RAT.
c- One engine driven pump.
d- Two engine driven pumps.
97- You have not started the engines but the cargo door is being operated. Which HYD page is correct?
a b c

98- You have just arrived at the aircraft and called up the HYD page.
What should the hydraulic quantity indicator look like?
a b c
99- The electric hydraulic pumps are able to replace the engine driven pumps to fully pressurize the hydraulic
system.
TRUE
FALSE
100- What is the correct statement above the RAT function?
a- The RAT is able to pressurize the GREEN or the

YELLOW systems.
b- The RAT will be automatically deployed in the
event of low pressure in the GREEN system.
c- The RAT can be manually deployed by pressing the
RAT MAN ON pb.
d- The RAT can be stowed by the crew whilst they are

airborne.

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DIRECTION DES OPERATIONS AERIENNES

a- ALT is in active mode and G/S is in armed mode.

b- ALT is in armed mode and G/S is in active mode.

c- ALT and G/S are in armed mode but ALT has a

d- ALT and G/S are in armed mode but G/S has a

2- According to this display:

a- The active leg is defined from BENIP to

b- The TO WPT is TRO.

c- The active leg is defined by the FROM

d- The TO WPT is GURDO.

a- All in armed mode as indicated by the

b- All in active mode as they are on the

c- Either in armed or active mode

d- The titles of the columns with ALT, G/S

TEST A330-200 Page 1

a- The aircraft will stop the climb at FL 60,

b- The aircraft will disregard the constraint

c- As soon as the aircraft passes FL 60, the

d- The aircraft will level off at FL 60, the PF

a- Navigation, flight planning and A/THR commands.

b- Performance optimization, A/THR and AP commands.

c- Navigation, flight planning, performance optimization and flight predictions.

6- This aircraft is following a track of 140.

TEST A330-200 Page 2

a- The SPD pb has been pushed and the speed is selected.

8- According to this FMA :

a- FD1 is not engaged.

b- FD1 has failed.

c- FD1 has been replaced by FD2.

a- The ATSU is faulty.

b- A communication init. parameter is missing.

c- VDR 3 is in voice mode.

d- ATSU is trying to recover air/ground communications

TEST A330-200 Page 3

10- What is the purpose of the scan mask?

a- It is a list of service provider frequencies scanned

b- VDR 3 will randomly scan this list in order to

c- It is the ordered list of airline service providers

d- It is just a memory reference for pilots.

b- COMM MENU LSK.

c- ATC COMM key.

d- MCDU MENU key.

TEST A330-200 Page 4

12- What is the status of the communication means?

a- We are outside the VHF coverage zone, ATSU

b- VDR 3 data part is faulty. SATCOM now assumes the

c- The VDR 3 is no longer able to communicate in data

d- Data communication is lost.

13- In which mode are we?

TEST A330-200 Page 5

14- What is the meaning of these screens?

a- Full connection with the ATC has been performed

b- Amber boxes mean that the ATC CENTER name is

c- You have just notified the ATC of your datalink capacity.

d- As NO ACTIVE ATC is displayed, there is

15- What is KZAK Control telling you?

a- There is a problem. ATC datalink is down.

b- KZAK Control is simply informing you that an

c- You are exiting an ATC datalink coverage

d- You have to perform a manual notification

TEST A330-200 Page 6

a- The ATSU is faulty.