1 Pharmacology BMS2

Q1. Pharmacokinetics is:

a) The study of biological and therapeutic effects of drugs
b) The study of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drugs
c) The study of mechanisms of drug action
d) The study of methods of new drug development

Q2. What does “pharmacokinetics” include?

a) Complications of drug therapy
b) Drug biotransformation in the organism
c) Influence of drugs on metabolism processes
d) Influence of drugs on genes

Q3. What does pharmacokinetics include?

a) Pharmacological effects of drugs

b) Unwanted effects of drug
c) Chemical structure of a medical agent
d)Distribution of drugs in the organism

Q4. What does “pharmacokinetics” include?

a) Localization of drug action
b) Mechanisms of drug action
c) Excretion of substances
d) interaction of substances

Q5. The main mechanism of most drugs absorption in GI tract is:

a) Active transport (carrier-mediated diffusion)
b) Fittration (aqueous diffusion)
c) Endocytosis and exocytosis
d) Passive diffusion (lipid diffusion)

Q6. What kind of substances can't permeate membranes by passive diffusion?

a) Lipid-soluble
b) Non-ionized substances
c) Hydrophobic substances 1 2 3 4 5 6
d) Hydrophilic substances
2 Pharmacology BMS2

Q7. A hydrophilic medicinal agent has the following property:

a) Low ability to penetrate through the cell membrane lipids
b) Penetrate through membranes by means of endocytosis
c) Easy permeation through the blood-brain barrier
d) High reabsorption in renal tubules

Q8. What is implied by «active transport»?

a) Transport of drugs trough a membrane by means of diffusion
b) Transport without energy consumption
c) Engulf of drug by a cell membrane with a new vesicie formation
d) Transport against concentration gradient

Q9. What does the term “bioavailability” mean?

a) Plasma protein binding degree of substance
b) Permeability through the brain-blood barrier
c) Fraction of an uncharged drug reaching the systemic circulation following
any route administration
d) Amount of a substance in urine relative to the initial doze

Q10. The reasons determing bioavailability are:

a) Rheological parameters of blood
b) Amount of a substance obtained orally and quantity of intakes
c) Extent of absorption and hepatic first-pass effect
d) Glomerular fiitration rate

Q11.Pick out the appropriate alimentary route of administration when passage

of drugs through liver is minimized:
a) Oral
b) Transdermal
c) Rectal
d) intraduodenal 7 8 9 10 11
3 Pharmacology BMS2

Q12.Which route of drug administration is most likely to lead to the first-pass

effect?
a) Sublingual b) Oral
C) Intravenous d) intramuscular

? Q13.What is acharacteristic of the oral route

a) Fast onset of effect wW

b) Absorption depends on Gi tract secretion and motor function
c) A drug reaches the blood passing the liver 3
d)The sterilization of medicinal forms is obligatory

Q14. Tick the feature of the sublingual route:

a) Pretty fast absorption
b) A drug is exposed to gastric secretion
c) A drug is exposed more prominent liver metabolism
d) A drug can be administrated in a variety of doses

Q15.Pick out the parenteral route of medicinal agent administration:

a) Rectal b) Oral
c) Sublingual d) Inhalation

Q16.Parenteral administration:
a) Cannot be used with unconsciousness patients
b) Generally resuits in a less accurate dosage than oral administration
c) Usually produces a more rapid response than oral administration
d) Is too slow for emergency use

Q17.What is characteristic of the intramuscular route of drug administration?

a) Only water solutions can be injected
b) Oily solutions can be injected

c) Opportunity of hypertonic solution injections

d) The action develops slower, than at oral administration
12 13 14 15 16 17
4 Pharmacology BMS2

Q18. Intravenous injections are more suitable for oily solutions:

a) True b) False

Q19. Correct statements listing characteristics of a particular route of drug

administration include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) intravenous administration provides a rapid response
b) Intramuscular administration requires a sterile technique
c) Inhalation provides slow access to the general circulation
d) Subcutaneous administration may cause local irritation

Q20. Most of drugs are distributed homogeneously.

a) True b) False

Q21. Biological barriers include all except:

a) Renal tubules
b) Cell membranes
c) Capillary walis
d) Placenta

Q22.What is the reason of complicated penetration of some drugs through

brain-blood barrier?
a) High lipid solubility of a drug
b) Meningitis
c) Absence of pores in the brain capillary endothelium

d) High endocytosis degree in a brain capillary

Q23.The volume of distribution (Vd) relates:

a) Single to a daily dose of an administrated drug
b) An administrated dose to a body weight
c) An uncharged drug reaching the systemic circulation
d) The amount of a drug in the body to the concentration of a drug in plasma

Q24.For the calculation of the volume of distribution (Vd) one must take into
account:
a) Concentration of a substance in plasma
b) Concentration of substance in urine
18 19 20 21 22 23 24
c) Therapeutical width of drug action
d) A daily dose of drug
5 Pharmacology BMS2

Q25.A smaii amount of the volume of distribution is common for lipophylic

substances easy penetrating through barriers and widely distributing in plasma,
interstitial and cell fluids:

a) True b) False

Q26.The term “biotransformation” includes the following:

a) Accumulation of substances in a fat tissue
b) Binding of substances with plasma proteins
c) Accumulation of substances in a tissue
d) Process of physicochemical and biochemical alteration of a drug in the body

Q27.Biotransformation of the drugs is to render them:

a) Less lonized
b) More pharmacologically active
c) More lipid soluble
d) Less lipid soluble

Q28.Tick the drug type for which microsomal oxidation is the most prominent:
a) Lipid soluble
b) Water soluble
c) Low molecular weight
d) High molecular weight

Q29.Pick out the right statement:

a) Microsomal oxidation always results in inactivation of a compound
b) Microsomal oxidation results in a decrease of compound toxicity
c) Microsomal oxidation results in an increase of ionization and water solubility
of a drug
d) Microsomal oxidation results in an increase of lipid solubitity of a drug thus
its excretion from the organism is facilitated

Q30.Stimulation of liver microsomal enzymes can:

a) Require the dose increase of some drugs
b) Require the dose decrease of some drugs
25 26 27 28 29 30
c) Prolong the duration of the action of a drug
d) intensify the unwanted reaction of a drug
6 Pharmacology BMS2

Q31.Metabolic transformation (phase 1) is:

a) Acetylation and methylation of substances
b) Transformation of substances due to oxidation, reduction or hydrolysis
c) Glucuronide formation
d) Binding to plasma proteins

Q32.Biotransformation of a medicinal substance results in:

a) Faster urinary excretion
b) Slower urinary excretion
c) Easier distribution in organism
d) Higher binding to membranes

Q33.Conjugation is:
a) Process of drug reduction by special enzymes
b) Process of drug oxidation by special oxidases
c) Coupling of a drug with an endogenous substrate
d) Solubilization in fipids

Q34.Which of the following processes proceeds in the second phase of

biotransformation?
a) Acetylation
b) Reduction
c) Oxidation
d) Hydrolysis

Q35.Conjugation of a drug includes the following EXCEPT:

a) Glucoronidation
b) Sulfate formation
c) Hydrolysis
d) Methylation

Q36.Metabolic transformation and conjugation usually results in an increase of

a substance biological activity:
a) True
31 32 33 34 35 36
b) False
7 Pharmacology BMS2

Q37.In case of liver disorders accompanied by a deciine in microsomal enzyme

activity the duration of action of some drugs
is:
a) Decreased
b) Enlarged
c) Remained unchanged
d) Changed insignificantly

Q38.Half life (t 1%) is the time required to:

a) Change the amount of a drug in plasma by half during elimination
b) Metabolize a half of an introduced drug into the active metabolite
c) Absorb a half of an introduced drug
d) Bind a half of an introduced drug to plasma proteins

Q39.Half life (t “%2) doesn't depend on:

a) Biotransformation
b) Time of drug absorption
c) Concentration of a drug in plasma
d) Rate of drug elimination

Q40.Elimination rate constant (Kum) is defined by the following parameter:

a) Rate of absorption
b) Maximal concentration of a substance in plasma
c) Highest single dose
d) Half life (t 4)
Q41. Pharmacodynamics involves the study of following EXCEPT:
a) Biological and therapeutic effects of drugs
b) Absorption and distribution of drugs
c) Mechanisms of drug action d) Drug interactions
Q42. Pharmacodynamics involves the study of following?
a) Mechanisms of drug action
37 38 39 40 41 42
b) Biotransformation of drugs in the organism
c) Distribution of drugs in the organism
d) Excretion of drug from the organism
8 Pharmacology BMS2

Q43. Pharmacodynamics involves the following?

a) Information about main mechanisms of drug absorption
b) Information about unwanted effects
c) Information about biological barriers
d) Information about excretion of a drug from the organism
Q44. Pick out the answer which is the most appropriate to the term "receptor"
a) All types of ion channels modulated by a drug
b) Enzymes of oxidizing-reducing reactions activated by a drug
c) Active macromolecular components of a cell or an organism which a drug
molecule has to combine with in
order to elicit its specific effect
d) Carriers activated by a drug
Q45. What does "affinity" mean?
a) A measure of how tightly a drug binds to plasma proteins
b) A measure of how tightly a drug binds to a receptor
c) A measure of inhibiting potency of a drug
d) A measure of bioavailability of a drug
Q46. Target proteins which a drug molecule binds are:
a) Only receptors b) Only ion channels
c) Only carriers d) All of the above
Q47. An agonist is a substance that:
a) Interacts with the receptor without producing any effect
b) Interacts with the receptor and initiates changes in cell function, producing
various effects 43 44 45 46 47
c) Increases concentration of another substance to produce
effect
d) Interacts with plasma proteins and doesn't produce any effect
9 Pharmacology BMS2

Q48. If an agonist can produce maximal effects and has high efficacy it's called:
a) Partial agonist b) Antagonist
c) Agonist-antagonist d) Full agonist
Q49. If an agonist can produce submaximal effects and has moderate efficacy
it's called:
a) Partial agonist b) Antagonist
c) Agonist-antagonist d) Full agonist
Q50. An antagonist is a substance that:
a) Binds to the receptors and initiates changes in cell function, producing
maximal effect
b) Binds to the receptors and initiates changes in cell function, producing
submaximal effect
c) Interacts with plasma proteins and doesn't produce any effect
d) Binds to the receptors without directly altering their functions
Q51. A competitive antagonist is a substance that:
a) Interacts with receptors and produces submaximal effect
b) Binds to the same receptor site and progressively inhibits the agonist
response
c) Binds to the nonspecific sites of tissue
d) Binds to one receptor subtype as an agonist and to another as an antagonist

Q52. The substance binding to one receptor subtype as an agonist and to

another as an antagonist is called:
a) Competitive antagonist b) Irreversible antagonist
48 49 50 51 52
c) Agonist-antagonist d) Partial agonist
10 Pharmacology BMS2

Q53. Irreversible interaction of an antagonist with a receptor is due to:

a) Ionic bonds b) Hydrogen bonds
c) Covalent bonds d) All of the above

Q54. Mechanisms of transmembrane signalling are the following EXCEPT:

a) Transmembrane receptors that bind and stimulate a protein tyrosine kinase
b) Gene replacement by the introduction of a therapeutic gene to correct a
genetic effect
c) Ligand-gated ion channels that can be induced to open or close by binding a
ligand
d) Transmembrane receptor protein that stimulates a GTP-binding signal
transducer protein (G-protein) which in tum
generates an intracellular second messenger
Q55. Tick the second messenger of G-protein-coupled (metabotropic) receptor:
a) Adenylyl cyclase b) Sodium ions
c) Phospholipase C d) cAMP
Q56. Tick the substance which changes the activity of an effector element but
doesn't belong to second messengers:
a) cAMP b) cGMP
c) G—protein d) Calcium ions
Q57. The increase of second messengers' (cAMP, cGMP, Ca etc.) concentration
leads to:
a) Inhibition of intracellular protein kinases and protein phosphorylation
b) Protein kinases activation and protein phosphorylation
c) Blocking of interaction between a receptor and an effector
d) Antagonism with endogenous ligands 53 54 55 56 57
11 Pharmacology BMS2

Q58. Tick the substances whose mechanisms are based on interaction with ion
channels
a) Sodium channel blockers b) Calcium channel blockers
c) Potassium channels activators d) All of the above
Q59. A1 of the following statements about efficacy and potency are true
EXCEPT:
a) Efficacy is usually a more important clinical consideration than potency
b) Efficacy is the maximum effect of a drug
c) Potency is a comparative measure, refers to the different doses of two drugs
that are needed to produce the same effect
d) The EDSO is a measure of drug's efficacy
Q60. Give the definition for a therapeutical dose:
a) The amount of a substance to produce the minimal biological effect
b) The amount of a substance to produce effects hazardous for an organism
c) The amount of a substance to produce the required effect in most patients
d) The amount of a substance to accelerate an increase of concentration of
medicine in an organism
Q61. Pick out the correct definition of a toxic dose:
a) The amount of substance to produce the minimal biological effect
b) The amount of substance to produce effects hazardous for an organism
c) The amount of substance to produce the necessary effect in most of patients
d) The amount of substance to fast creation of high concentration of medicine in
an organism
Q62. Which effect may lead to toxic reactions when a drug is taken
continuously or repeatedly?
a) Refractoriness b) Cumulative effect 58 59 60 61 62
c) Tolerance d) Tachyphylaxis
12 Pharmacology BMS2

Q63. What term is used to describe a more gradual decrease in responsiveness

to a drug, taking days or weeks to develop?
a) Refractoriness b) Cumulative effect
c) Tolerance d) Tachyphylaxis
Q64. Characteristic unwanted reaction which isn't related to a dose or to a
pharmacodynamic property of a drug is called:
a) Idiosyncrasy b) Hypersensitivity
c) Tolerance d) Teratogenic action
Q65. Idiosyncratic reaction of a drug is:
a) A type of hypersensitivity reaction
b) A type of drug antagonism
c) Unpredictable, inherent, qualitatively abnormal reaction to a drug
d) Quantitatively exaggerated response
Q66. Drug resistance is a term used to describe the loss of effectiveness of
antimicrobial antitumor drugs. This consideration is:
a) True b) False
Q67. Tolerance and drug resistance can be a consequence of:
a) Drug dependence
b) Increased metabolic degradation
c) Depressed renal drug excretion
d) Activation of a drug after hepatic first-pass
Q68. Tolerance and drug resistance can be a consequence of:
a) Change in receptors, loss of them or exhaustion of mediators
b) Increased receptor sensitivity 63 64 65 66 67 68
c) Decreased metabolic degradation
d) Decreased renal tubular secretion
13 Pharmacology BMS2

Q69. Tolerance develops because of:

a) Diminished absorption b) Rapid excretion of a drug
c) Both of the above d) None of the above
Q70. Dependence is often associated with tolerance to a drug, a physical
abstinence syndrome, and psychological dependence (craving). This
consideration is:
a) True b) False
Q71. The situation when failure to continue administering the drug results in
serious psychological and somatic disturbances is
called?
a) Tachyphylaxis b) Sensitibilization
c) Abstinence syndrome d) Idiosyncrasy
Q72. What is the type of drug-to-drug interaction which is connected with
processes of absorption, biotransformation, distribution and excretion?
a) Pharmacodynamic interaction b) Physical and chemical interaction
c) Pharmaceutical interaction d) Pharmacokinetic interaction
Q73. What is the type of drug-to-drug interaction which is the result of
interaction at receptor, cell. enzyme or organ level?
a) Pharmacodynamic interaction b) Physical and chemical interaction
c) Pharmaceutical interaction d) Pharmacokinetic interaction
Q74. What phenomenon can occur in case of using a combination of drugs?
a) Tolerance b) Tachyphylaxis
c) Accumulation d) Synergism
Q75. If two drugs with the same effect, taken together, produce an effed that is
equal in magnitude to the sum of the effects of the drugs given individually, it is
called as:
a) Antagonism b) Potentiation 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
c) Additive effect d) None of the above
14 Pharmacology BMS2

Q76. What does the term "potentiation" mean?

a) Cumulative ability of a drug b) Hypersensitivity to a drug
c) Fast tolerance developing
d) Intensive increase of drug effects due to their combination
Q77. The types of antagonism are:
a) Summarized b) Potentiated
c) Additive d) Competitive
Q78. The term "chemical antagonism- means that:
a) two drugs combine with one another to form an inactive compound
b) two drugs combine with one another to form a more active compound
c) two drugs combine with one another to form a more water soluble compound
d) two drugs combine with one another to form a more fat soluble compound
Q79. A teratogenic action is:
a) Toxic action on the liver
b) Negative action on the fetus causing fetal malformation
c) Toxic action on blood system
d) Toxic action on kidneys

Q80. If the total amount of a drug present in the body at a given moment is 2.0
g and its plasma concentration is 25µg/ml its volume of distribution is:
A. 100L B. 80L
C. 60L D. 50L
Q81. The following attribute of a drug tends to reduce its volume of distribution
A. High lipid solubility
B. Low ionization at physiological PH values
C. High plasma protein binding
76 77 78 79 80 81
D. High tissue binding
15 Pharmacology BMS2

Q82. If a drug is eliminated by first order kinetics:

A. A constant amount of the drug will be eliminated per unit time
B. Its clearance value will remain constant
C. Its elimination half-life will increase with dose
D. It will be completely eliminated from the body in 2 half-life period

Q83. When the same dose of a drug is repeated at half-life intervals, the steady-
state (plateau) plasma drug concentration is reached after:
A. 2-3 half-lives B. 4-5 half-lives
C. 6-7 half-lives D. 8-10 half-lives
Q84. Which of the following is a G protein coupled receptor:
A. Muscarinic cholinergic receptor
B. Nicotinic cholinergic receptor
C. Glucocorticoid receptor
D. Insulin receptor
Q85. Down regulation of receptors can occur as a consequence of:
A. Continuous use of agonists
B. Continuous use of antagonists
C. Chronic use of CNS depressants
D. Denervation
Q86. The antagonism between adrenaline and histamine is called physiological
antagonism because:
A. Both are-physiologically present in the body
B. They act on receptors
C. Both affect many physiological processes
D. They have opposite physiological effects
Q87. A drug which does not produce any action by itself but decreases the slope
of the log dose-response curve and suppresses the maximal response to another
drug is a:
82 83 84 85 86 87
A. Physiological antagonist
B. Competitive antagonist
C. Noncompetitive antagonist
D. Partial agonist
16 Pharmacology BMS2

Q88. Alkalization of urine by giving bicarbonate is used to treat patients

presenting with phenobarbital (weak acid) overdose. Which of the following
best describes the rationale for alkalization of urine in this setting?
A. To reduce tubular reabsorption of phenobarbital.
B. To decrease ionization of phenobarbital.
C. To increase glomerular filtration or phenobarbital
D. To decrease proximal tubular secretion.
E. To increase tubular reabsorption of phenobarbital.

Q89. A drug with a half-life of 10 hours is administered by continuous

intravenous infusion. Which of the following best approximates the time for the
drug to reach steady state?
A. 10 hours. B. 20 hours.
C. 33 hours. D. 50 hours.
Q90. Pharmacokinetics is:
A. The study of biological and therapeutic effects of drugs
B. The study of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of
drugs
C. The study of mechanisms of drug action
D. The study of methods of new drug development
Q91.The volume of distribution (Vd) relates:
A.
Single to a daily dose of an administrated drug
B.
An administrated dose to a body weight
C.
An uncharged drug reaching the systemic circulation
D.
The amount of a drug in the body to the concentration of a drug in
plasma
Q92. For the calculation of the volume distribution (Vd) one must take into
account:
A. Concentration o fa substance in plasma
B. Concentration of a substance in urine
C. Therapeutic width of drug action 88 89 90 91 92
D. A daily dose of drug
17 Pharmacology BMS2

Q93. Half-life (t ½) is the time required to:

A. Change the amount of a drug in plasma by half during elimination
B. Metabolize a half of an introduced drug into the active metabolite
C. Absorb a half of an Introduced drug
D. Bind a half of an introduced drug to plasma proteins
E.
Q94. Pharmacodynamics involves the study of the following EXCEPT:
A. Biological and therapeutic effects of drugs
B. Absorption and distribution of drugs
C. Mechanisms of drug action
D. Drug interactions

Q95.What does “affinity” mean?

A. A measure of how tightly a drug binds to plasma proteins
B. A measure of how tightly a drug binds to a receptor
C. A measure of inhibiting potency of a drug
D. A measure of bioavailability of a drug

Q96.An agonist is a substance that:

A. Interacts with the receptor without producing any effect
B. Interacts with the receptor and initiates changes in cell function,
producing various effects
C. Increases concentration of another substance to produce effect
D. Interacts with plasma proteins and doesn't produce any effect

Q97. A competitive antagonist is a substance that:

A. Interacts with receptors and produces submaximal effect
B. Binds to the same receptor site and progressively inhibits the agonist
response
C. Binds to the nonspecific sites of tissue
D. Binds to one receptor subtype as an agonist and to another as an
antagonist
93 94 95 96 97
18 Pharmacology BMS2

Answers

1 B 26 D 51 B 76 D
2 B 27 D 52 C 77 D
3 D 28 A 53 C 78 A
4 C 29 C 54 B 79 B
5 D 30 A 55 D 80 B
6 D 31 B 56 C 81 C
7 A 32 A 57 B 82 A
8 D 33 C 58 D 83 B
9 C 34 A 59 D 84 A
10 C 35 C 60 C 85 A
11 C 36 B 61 B 86 D
12 B 37 B 62 B 87 C
13 B 38 A 63 C 88 A
14 A 39 B 64 B 89 D
15 D 40 D 65 C 90 B
16 C 41 B 66 A 91 D
17 B 42 A 67 B 92 A
18 B 43 B 68 A 93 A
19 C 44 C 69 D 94 B
20 B 45 B 70 A 95 B
21 A 46 D 71 C 96 B
22 C 47 B 72 D 97 B
23 D 48 D 73 A
24 A 49 A 74 D
25 B 50 D 75 C

Prepared by the Pharmacology team, Khloud Mohammed, Rawan Waleed,

Mai Ayman, Ahmed Ramy, Ahmed Abd El Aziz, under the supervision of the
scientific committee student Union.