1. What is missing in the autopilot loop?

a) Autopilot
b) Flight Management System
c) FBW system
d) FBL system

2. Which of the following is not one of the functions performed by the FMS?
a) Automatic navigation and guidance including ‘4D’ navigation
b) Management of aircraft systems
c) Efficient management of fuel
d) Housekeeping management

3. What does the outer loop of an autopilot do?

a) Generate commands to the inner flight control loop
b) Access the flight control surfaces to control the pitch and roll of the aircraft
c) Access the flight control surfaces to control the altitude and heading of the aircraft
d) Generate commands for the pilot to follow

4. Which of the following is the fundamental control of a common autopilot mode?

a) Altitude control
b) Pitch, roll and yaw control
c) Engine control
d) Automated landing

5. An altitude control loop does not depend on _______

a) Aircraft pitch angle
b) Angle of attack
c) Forward velocity
d) Density of air

6. What is the reason for choosing height error gain in such a way that the frequency of
height loop is below the bandwidth of the pitch attitude loop?
a) Efficient flight
b) Better Range
c) Stable and damped response
d) Better climb rate
7. What is in for a heading control system?
a) Rate of change of heading
b) Bank angle
c) Side slip angle
d) Required rudder deflection

8. Which of the following is the correct transfer function for?

!"#
a) (!"#)# &
!"#
b) !"(!"#)# &
𝟏"𝑺
c)𝟏±(𝟏"𝑺)𝑺𝟐
!"#
d) !+(!",.,)&

9. What is ILS?
a) Instrument landing system
b) Indian Levitation System
c) Indian Landing system
d) International Levitation system

10. Which one of the following can provide a reliable and accurate approach path guidance in
category II visibility conditions?
a) ILS
b) MLS
c) SBAS
d) VHF

11. What are the two main components of an ILS on the ground?
a) Horizontal alignment transmitter and vertical alignment transmitter
b) Localizer transmitter and glide slope transmitter
c) Center line transmitter and glide slope transmitter
d) Center line transmitter and approach slope transmitter

12. What is the frequency used by the localizer transmitter?

a) VHF
b) UHF
c) MF
d) LF
13. What is the frequency used by the glide slope transmitter?
a) VHF
b) UHF
c) MF
d) LF

14. The use of autopilot for landing using ILS does not depend on _______
a) Visibility category
b) ILS ground installation standard
c) Runway lighting installation
d) Weight of the aircraft

15. Under what category does zero visibility conditions come?

a) Category I
b) Category II
c) Category III
d) Category IV

16. What is DH?

a) Distance Height
b) Direct Height
c) Decision Height
d) Direction height

17. What is the frequency of marker beacon transmission?

a) 100 MHz
b) 75 MHz
c) 1 GHz
d) 1000 MHz

18. MLS has a wide selection of channels to avoid interference with nearby airports
a) True
b) False

19. At what height is the auto flare initiated?

a) 100 ft
b) 50 ft
c) 25 ft
d) 10 ft

20. What type of controller is used in an auto flare control?

a) Proportional plus derivative
b) Proportional plus integral
c) Proportional plus integral plus derivative
d) Proportional only
21. What is the velocity at the start of flare maneuver if the approach speed is 130 knots?
a) 2.91 m/s
b) 3 m/s
c) 3.56 m/s
d) 10 m/s
Hint: vertical velocity at the start of flare = approach speed*glide slope angles
- Convert knots to m/s
- Take glide slope angle as 2.5 degree (sine)

22. What is the position accuracy that can be achieved by satellite guidance systems?
a) 10 m
b) 5 m
c) 0.5 m
d) 1 m

23. What is the beam error in localizer for aircraft CG displacement of 5m at a range of
1,500m?
a) 0.0033 RAD
b) 3.3 RAD
c) 0 RAD
d) 5 RAD
Hint: Y = displacement / range

24. The guidance sensitivity decreases as the range decreases

a) True
b) False

25. When does an ILS localizer coupling loop become unstable?

a) Aircraft range is infinity
b) Aircraft range is close to zero
c) When too many aircraft are present
d) When no aircraft is present

26. What is missing in the localizer coupling loop?

a) Flight computer
b) ILS Localizer receiver
c) ILS glide path receiver
d) ILS Localizer transmitter

27. Which one of the following is not a basic parameter used to define visibility category?
a) Decision height
b) Minimum vertical visibility
c) Runway length
d) Runway visual range
28. Which of the following is not one of the operational limits and autopilot requirement for a
category IIIc visibility condition?
a) Runway guidance required to taxi point
b) Fully automatic landing system with flare
c) Probability of catastrophic failure of less than 10−7 per hour required
d) Decision height of 5m

29. How is altitude measured when the aircraft is about to land?

a) Pitot static port
b) Pitot stagnation port
c) Radio altimeters
d) Inertial navigation systems

30. Why is flare maneuver executed during landing phase?

a) To align with the runway
b) To reduce airspeed and rate of descent
c) To stabilize the aircraft during crosswinds
d) To conserve fuel

31. Why is the kick off drift maneuver executed?

a) To align with the runway
b) To reduce airspeed and rate of descent
c) To stabilize the aircraft during crosswinds
d) To conserve fuel

32. What is HREF in the control law used for auto flare?
a) Height when flare is initiated
b) Height where flare should be initiated
c) Maximum height where flare can be initiated
d) Small negative height

33. The final approach path in a satellite landing guidance can be curved
a) True
b) False

34. What controls the efficient functioning of an engine?

a) Autopilot
b) FMS
c) FBW
d) FADEC

35. The response of a jet engine thrust to the throttle angle is instantaneous.
a) True
b) False

36. Which one of the following is not a function of the FMS?

a) Flight guidance and control of flight path
b) Monitor and regulate speed of the aircraft
c) Automatically switch between different types of communication
d) Automatic control of engine thrust
37. What does the following figure represent?

a) Flight Management System

b) Flight Data System
c) Total autopilot system
d) Flight Management Computer

38. The number of independent FMS in a typical commercial aircraft is?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 5
d) 7

39. Which of the following is not a way cockpit-flight crew interfaces in the FMS?
a) Primary Flight Display
b) MultiFunction Display
c) Keyboard and Cursor Control Unit
d) Target Detection and Locking System

40. What type of cockpit flight crew interface is used to enter or modify the data on the
MFD?
a) Keyboard and Cursor Control Unit
b) Control stick
c) Control Switches
d) Control levers

41. What control does the EFIS Control Panel provide?

a) Control over graphical and textual FMS data
b) Control over flight plan
c) Control over flight performance
d) Navigation through FMS pages
42. What is the number of Flight Management Computers used in a typical commercial
aircraft?
a) 2
b) 1
c) 4
d) 3

43. What operating mode of the FMS does the figure show?

a) Double mode
b) Independent mode
c) Single mode
d) Redundancy mode

44. Both FMS 1 & 2 get information from only one FMC in the case of ______
a) Independent mode
b) Loss of one FMC
c) Single mode
d) Double mode

45. The standby FMC performs calculations even when both the FMC are fully functional.
a) True
b) False

46. What filter is used by the FMS to estimate the position of the aircraft from various
sensors?
a) Kalman filter
b) Position error filter
c) GPS filter
d) Gyro and accelerometer filter
47. What is the output for the following system?

a) Aircraft position
b) All the fight data
c) Gyro and accelerometer values
d) Warning signals for wrong navigation

48. Which one of the following is not a navigation mode used by FMS for computing
position of the aircraft?
a) Inertial (IRS) – GPS
b) Inertial (IRS) – DME/DME
c) Inertial (IRS) – VOR/DME
d) GPS only

49. Navigational functions are no longer available if the INS shuts down in an FMS.
a) True
b) False

50. What is the interval for updating data in the navigation database?
a) 1 hour
b) 1 month
c) 24 hours
d) 28 days

51. Which one of the following is not a factor for calculating speed breaches by the FMS?
a) Aircraft weight
b) CG position
c) Wind and temperature models
d) Position of the aircraft

52. What is the number of components of the vector that describes the translational motion of
the vehicle?
a) 6
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1
53. What is the process called when the state vector is calculated on board the vehicle?
a) Navigation
b) Guidance
c) Surveillance
d) Position location

54. Which type of navigation measure the state vector without regard to the path travelled by
the vehicle in the past?
a) Dead reckoning
b) Positioning
c) Direct reckoning
d) AHRS

55. Which one of the following does not fall under the positioning system?
a) Radio systems
b) Celestial systems
c) AHRS
d) Mapping navigation systems

56. Dead reckoning systems must be re-initialized as errors accumulate.

a) True
b) False

57. Which of the following navigational systems is most stealthy?

a) Secondary surveillance radar
b) VOR
c) Celestial navigation
d) SONAR

58. How is the velocity of an aircraft measured by passive radio systems?

a) Doppler shift
b) Velocity data is transmitted by the aircraft and received by the station
c) Secondary surveillance method
d) Satellite mapping

59. Any type of dead reckoning system is independent of radio waves.

a) True
b) False

60. What is the speed at which the takeoff is aborted when there is an engine failure?
a) Decision speed
b) Stall speed
c) Rotational speed
d) Takeoff speed

61. The distance the aircraft has to cover in the ground to achieve takeoff speed is called?
a) Ground roll
b) Take off distance
c) Runway length
d) Airborne distance
62. The distance the aircraft climbs to clear an obstacle of particular height during takeoff is
called as?
a) Ground roll
b) Take off distance
c) Runway length
d) Airborne distance

63. What is the takeoff clearance height for a military aircraft?

a) 50ft
b) 35ft
c) 20ft
d) 100ft

64. The velocity at which yawing motion can be produced by rudder deflection while the
aircraft is on the ground is called _______
a) Ground roll speed
b) Ground control speed
c) Minimum control speed on the ground
d) Control speed

65. Departure and approach are subphases of what?

a) Landing phase
b) Takeoff phase
c) Terminal phase
d) Surface phase

66. The height at which approach is aborted when the runway is not in sight is called as?
a) Decision height
b) Approach altitude
c) Clearance altitude
d) Landing altitude

67. A non-precision approach has electronic guidance in only in the horizontal direction.
a) True
b) False

68. What instrument is used to measure the aircraft’s altitude during the approach phase?
a) Pressure altimeter
b) Radio altimeter
c) Sound altimeter
d) Infrared altimeter

69. Which of the following conditions does not lead to missed approaches?
a) Poor visibility
b) Excess fuel
c) Alignment with runway
d) Traffic
70. The navigation equations are used by the on-board computer to calculate position velocity
and altitude.
a) True
b) False

71. Which one of the following is not an input utilized by the aircraft navigation system?
a) Sonar
b) Radio aids
c) Dead reckoning data
d) Celestial measurements

72. What is the angle between the normal to the reference ellipsoid and the equatorial plane at
a point called?
a) Geodetic angle
b) Correction factor
c) Geodetic latitude
d) Earth angle

73. Which of the following is false with respect to Earth centered inertial coordinate system?
a) Accuracy is 10-5/hr
b) Newton’s laws are not valid
c) Angular coordinates of stars are conventionally tabulated in ECI
d) Used in mechanizing inertial navigators

74. Which coordinate system is used in satellite based radio navigation?

a) Earth centered, Earth fixed
b) Earth centered inertial
c) Geodetic spherical coordinates
d) Geodetic wander azimuth

75. Geocentric spherical coordinates are used for short range dead reckoning navigation.
a) True
b) False

76. What is the technique of calculating position from measurements of velocity called?
a) Dead reckoning
b) Doppler radar
c) Secondary surveillance
d) Celestial navigation

77. The angle of arrival, relative to the airframe, of a radio signal from an external transmitter
is called _________
a) Bearing
b) Heading
c) Phase
d) Approach angle
78. ________ related ranging errors to the dispersion in measured position?
a) GEOP
b) GDCP
c) GDOP
d) APEG

79. What is TDOP?

a) Time Dilution of pseudorange
b) Time Dilution of position
c) Time Dilution of pressure
d) Time Distortion of position

80. Received radio energy is a function of the area of the receiving antenna.
a) True
b) False

81. The ratio of terminating impedance to the power density of the incident wave is called as?
a) Maximum effective aperture
b) Maximum allowable power
c) Directivity
d) Gain

82. The factor by which a receiver fails to reach the theoretical internal noise limit is known
as ________
a) Noise factor
b) Noise
c) Coefficient of noise
d) Noise figure

83. What is the maximum limit on the frequency that can be used for ground wave
communication?
a) 6MHz
b) 2MHz
c) 5MHz
d) 3MHz

84. What type of polarization is used for ground waves?

a) Vertical polarization
b) Right circular polarization
c) Horizontal polarization
d) Left circular polarization

85. Why can we not use sky waves for navigation?

a) Low power
b) More noise
c) Unpredictable path
d) Not economical
86. Ground waves are not adversely affected by which of the following factors?
a) Conductivity of earth
b) Dielectric of earth
c) Lightning strikes
d) Day/night changes

87. The propagation velocity is not constant in ground waves.

a) True
b) False

88. The effect of signal simultaneously taking different paths to reach the receiver is called as
_______
a) Multipath effects
b) Differential path effects
c) Propagation noise
d) Atmospheric distortion

89. ______ is the error in determining position relative to an earth referenced coordinate
system?
a) Absolute error
b) Repeatable error
c) Relative error
d) Differential error

90. The method in which the user’s receiver and the reference station are assumed not to be
synchronized in time is called as _______
a) Redundancy method
b) Pseudoranging
c) Integrity method
d) Differential method

91. Which type of direction finders takes bearings on airborne transmitters and advice the
aircraft of its bearing from the ground station?
a) Ground based
b) Airborne direction finders
c) Homing adapters
d) Homing beacon

92. Which of the following is not true with respect to airborne direction finder?
a) They are also called homing adapters
b) Uses the simplest of systems
c) Very low error
d) Take bearings on the ground transmitter

93. Which of the following type of direction finder has a system that rotates the loop, using a
servo system until a null is found?
a) Fixed loop
b) Rotatable loop
c) Rotating loop
d) Fixed, crossed loop
94. Which of the following is not true with respect to loop antennas?
a) Horizontal polarization is assumed
b) Resonance is achieved by a variable capacitor
c) The horizontal antenna pattern is a figure of eight
d) The currents are equal in amplitude and phase when the antenna is 90° with the transmitted
signal

95. What can be added to reduce signal ambiguity in a loop antenna?

a) Low noise amplifier
b) Amplifiers
c) Sense antenna
d) Increase the antenna size

96. What is used to combine the output of the two fixed loop antenna that are placed at right
angles to each other?
a) Oscilloscope
b) Spectrum analyzer
c) Mixer
d) Goniometer

97. The area of reduced signal strength in a non directional beacon is called as ______
a) Cone of silence
b) Zero reception zone
c) Zone of silence
d) Non radio zone

98. Which of the following is not an advantage of NDB?

a) Inexpensive
b) Omnidirectional
c) Accuracy depends on airborne equipment
d) No mountain and night effect

99. What frequency does the marker beacon use for fixes along the airways?
a) 50MHz
b) 25MHz
c) 500MHz
d) 75MHz

100. Which of the following can be used to reinforce the upward beam in a marker beacon?
a) Reflector
b) Amplifier
c) Counterpoise
d) Vertical polarization

101. What is the frequency of rotation of the directional beam in a VOR?

a) 20rps
b) 15rps
c) 30rps
d) 50rps
102. Which of the following generates the same field pattern as a vertical dipole antenna?
a) Yagi antenna
b) Helix antenna
c) Alford loop
d) Microstrip antenna

103. What is the time gap between each pulse in an interrogation pulse pair for a DME?
a) 12µsec
b) 5µsec
c) 15µsec
d) 10µsec

104. Why are pulse pairs used in DME instead of single pulses?
a) Reduce interference
b) Better range
c) Reduced noise
d) Redundancy

105. What is the frequency in which the DME transmits?

a) 50Mhz above or below the received frequency
b) 20Mhz above the received frequency
c) 40Mhz below the received frequency
d) 63Mhz above or below the received frequency

106. Hyperbolic navigational systems are called so because of their hyperbolic lines of
position.
a) True
b) False

107. Which one of the following is not a hyperbolic radio system?

a) Loran-C
b) Omega
c) Chayka
d) VOR

108. What does Omega and Decca have in common?

a) Both measure the phase difference
b) Both measure the time difference
c) Both measure the power difference
d) Both operate in the same frequency range

109. Loran-C is a line of sight navigational system.

a) True
b) False
110. Which of the following is not true with respect to Loran-C?
a) Loran stands for Long range navigation
b) Uses ground waves
c) Uses pulse techniques
d) Subjected to site errors

111. What is the minimum number of transmitter stations required for a Loran system?
a) 3
b) 2
c) 1
d) 5

112. Which technique, in Loran, allows the use of single transmitter station in two chains?
a) Blinking
b) Blanking
c) Pulsing
d) Continuous wave transmission

113. What is the pulse frequency used in Loran?

a) 120MHz
b) 150MHz
c) 100kHz
d) 1000MHz

114. _____ is defined as the portion of pules after 65µsec?

a) Pulse trailing edge
b) Final pulse
c) Decay zone
d) Null

115. The short term propagation effects caused by local weather changes are called as
______________
a) Seasonal
b) Temporal
c) Diurnal
d) Noise

116. What is the process of ensuring that the receiver works on ground waves?
a) PGTR identification
b) ECD
c) HCG
d) TOPCO

117. Which of the following is not a function of the monitoring facility in Omega systems?
a) Monitor performance
b) Acts as relays
c) Provide data to phase synchronize the stations
d) Detect solar terrestrial events
118. Which of the following is false with respect to Omega systems?
a) Four common transmitted signal frequencies
b) One unique frequency for each station
c) 0.2 sec separation between each of eight transmissions
d) Constant length transmission periods

119. Which of the following techniques reduces the diurnal variation but does little effect on
the phase behaviour of signal of equal path length over different environments?
a) Composite Omega
b) Propagation corrections
c) PPC
d) Subtracting the signal phases at two of the frequencies

120. What is the region in which Omega signals are confined according to VLF wave guide
model known as?
a) Earth-Atmosphere wave guide
b) Sea-Ionosphere wave guide
c) Earth-Sea wave guide
d) Earth-Ionosphere wave guide

121. What is the region in which Omega signals are confined according to VLF wave guide
model known as?
a) Earth-Atmosphere wave guide
b) Sea-Ionosphere wave guide
c) Earth-Sea wave guide
d) Earth-Ionosphere wave guide

122. What is used to indicate that a baseline is not usable?

a) Blank
b) Blink
c) Pulse
d) Continuous wave

123. Which mode of Loran-C requires a minimum of 3 transmitters with iterative

computation to obtain a fix?
a) Hyperbolic mode
b) Rho-Rho-Rho
c) Rho-Rho-Theta
d) Rho-Theta-Zulu

124. Which of the following is false about Direct ranging in Loran-C?

a) Uses Rho-Rho mode
b) Requires minimum 2 stations
c) Cost efficient
d) High stable user frequency standard
125. Which of the following advantages does the differential Loran-C provide?
a) Stable user frequency
b) No seasonal errors
c) Cost efficient
d) Very high range of 500miles

126. Which of the following methods breaks the signal into finite segments to find the ASF?
a) Millington’s method
b) Bill’s method
c) Differential method
d) Table look up process

127. What is the number of systems used for redundancy in a transmitting station?
a) 2
b) 1
c) 5
d) 3

128. Which of the following derives all the signals needed by the transmitter from the timer?
a) PATCO
b) ECD
c) HCG
d) TOPCO

129. In Omega system, a given frequency is transmitted by only one station at any given
time.
a) True
b) False

130. HCGs are the power generators of the Loran-C transmitter stations.
a) True
b) False

131. What is the use of notch filters in Loran-C receivers?

a) Reduce interference from other frequencies
b) Reduce interference from other stations
c) Reduce interference from sky waves
d) Reduce atmospheric noise

132. What type of transmission is used in Omega system?

a) Amplitude modulated wave
b) Continuous wave
c) Phase modulated wave
d) Frequency modulated wave

133. Which of the following type is not used in an Omega system?

a) Grounded tower
b) Insulated tower
c) Hanging tower
d) Valley span
134. _____ acts as a coarse tuning device for the antenna?
a) Loop
b) Helix
c) Amplifiers
d) Filters

135. What type of transmitter is used in a Decca system?

a) Frequency synthesizer
b) Local oscillator
c) Crystal controlled
d) Digital

136. What is the approximate range of Chayka system?

a) 200mi
b) 100mi
c) 300mi
d) 1000mi

137. Which of the following is the most fundamental for satellite navigation?
a) Power source in satellite
b) Position and acceleration of satellite
c) Distance from the Earth
d) Total number of satellites in the sky

138. What is the line connecting the intersection of the orbital plane with the Earth’s
equatorial plane called?
a) Critical point
b) Intersection plane
c) Line of nodes
d) Differential line

139. When the satellite crosses the equatorial plane from the southerly latitude to the
northerly, the point is called descending node.
a) True
b) False

140. What is the number of independent constants required to specify the nominal orbit?
a) 6
b) 5
c) 2
d) 7

141. The line connecting the perigee and apogee is called as?
a Differential line
b) Line of apsides
c) Line of maximum reception
d) Overhead line
142. Which of the following is not one of the perturbations that make the satellite to vary
from its elliptical path?
a) Solar activity
b) Asymmetrical components of Earth’s gravitational field
c) Air drag
d) Motion of a passing comet

143. The clocks are important in satellite navigation as they are potential sources of error.
a) True
b) False

144. Differential GPS corrects for satellite errors.

a) True
b) False

145. How does troposphere affect the satellite signals?

a) Reduces velocity
b) Reflects the signals
c) Refracts the signal
d) Bit inversion occurs

146. Which of the following makes the existence of ionosphere possible?

a) Rotation of the Earth
b) Ultraviolet radiation from sun
c) Solar flares
d) Radiation from distant stars

147. Satellite signals are refracted by the ionosphere.

a) True
b) False

148. What happens to the satellite signals as the density of the ionosphere is high?
a) Velocity increases
b) Velocity decreases
c) Signal strength increases
d) Frequency reduces

149. What is the increase in velocity of the signal by the ionosphere termed as?
a) Differential velocity
b) Velocity advance
c) Phase advance
d) Signal advance

150. TEC in the ionosphere is a function of solar radiation.

a) True
b) False
151. Which of the following is true with respect to ionospheric scintillation effects?
a) It causes signal fading
b) Occurs at the equatorial and polar regions
c) Occurs mostly at day
d) Occurs when high solar activity is present

152. The refractivity of the troposphere is not a function of ________

a) Frequency
b) Temperature
c) Pressure
d) Partial pressure of water vapour

153. Which of the following is false with respect to GPS?

a) Active system
b) All weather system
c) Continuous system
d) Space based system

154. What is the approximate time taken by the GPS for one complete orbit?
a) 11 minutes
b) 45 minutes
c) 5 hours
d) 12 hours

155. What is the reason for sending two transmissions in the same band?
a) Redundancy
b) Ionosphere refraction corrections
c) Multiplexing
d) Reducing traffic

156. Which of the following position services provided by the GPS require crypto keys?
a) Precise position service
b) Standard position service
c) Ultimate position service
d) Doppler position service

157. The intentional degradation of GPS signal in specific areas is called ________
a) Selective degradation
b) Selective availability
c) Distributed GPD
d) Signal jamming

158. Only L2 signal carries the encrypted precise code.

a) True
b) False
159. What is the number of GPS satellites used?
a) 54
b) 12
c) 5
d) 24

160. What type of antenna is used in GPS systems?

a) Yagi antenna
b) Helical array antenna
c) Loop antenna
d) Parabolic antenna

161. Which of the following is the latest block of GPS satellites?

a) I
b) IA
c) II
d) IIF

162. What type of modulation is used in L1 Signal of the GPS?

a) Amplitude modulation
b) Phase modulation
c) Frequency shift keying
d) Binary phase shift keying

163. How are GLONASS satellites differentiated from each other?

a) FDMA
b) CDMA
c) TDM
d) WDM

164. What type of antenna is used in GLONASS satellites?

a) Helical
b) Beam antenna
c) Parabolic antenna
d) Loop antenna

165. What is the spectral separation between each satellite L1 signal in the GLONASS?
a) 50kHz
b) 2MHz
c) 1240MHz
d) 562.5kHz

166. What are the frequency channels that GLONASS use for normal operation?
a) i=-7 to +4
b) i=+5 to +12
c) i=-7 to +12
d) i=-2 to +7
167. Why was the frequency channel used by the GLONASS shifted down after 2005?
a) Political issue
b) Less power requirements
c) Avoid future MSS interference
d) Reduce atmospheric interference

168. L1 and L2 signals are both contain PRN and navigational data.
a) True
b) False

169. How are the ephemeris data broadcast in GLONASS?

a) ECEF coordinates
b) ECI coordinates
c) Directional cosines
d) Geodetic spherical coordinates

170. What are the frequency channels that GLONASS use as a technical channel?
a) i=-7 and +4
b) i=+5 and +6
c) i=-7 and +12
d) i=-2 and +7

171. GLONASS time and GPS time follows leap the second correction.
a) True
b) False

172. What is the spectral separation between each satellite L2 signal in the GLONASS?
a) 437.5kHz
b) 2MHz
c) 1240MHz
d) 562.5kHz

173. GLONASS time is related to which of the following?

a) UTC(USNO)
b) UTC(Moscow)
c) UTC(London)
d) UTC(Beijing)

174. What does the accelerometer measure?

a) Mass
b) Acceleration
c) Velocity
d) Distance

175. What is the output given by an accelerometer if the instrument is accelerated upward
with an acceleration of 7g?
a) 5g
b) 8g
c) 6g
d) 6.5g
176. Which accelerometer uses torquer coil and pick off supported by a flexure to measure
acceleration?
a) MEMS accelerometer
b) Flexure pivot accelerometer
c) Vibrating beam accelerometer
d) Mechanical accelerometer

177. In flexure pivot accelerometer, the torque current is a measure of acceleration.

a) True
b) False

178. Why do accelerometers that include fluid damping exhibit reduced damping?
a) State of fluid
b) Density
c) Pressure
d) Thermal characters

179. An accelerometer can only measure acceleration in one direction?

a) True
b) False

180. Which of the following is true with respect to flexure pivot accelerometers?
a) Flexure must provide maximum resistance in the direction of input axis
b) Flexure must provide maximum resistance in the direction other than input axis
c) Torquer coil current measures the acceleration
d) Unbalanced accelerometer type

181. Which of the following conditions cause rectification of vibration inputs?

a) Heating
b) Low voltage
c) High voltage
d) Low current

182. What does silicon accelerometers use for proof mass sensing and for rebalancing?
a) Pivot
b) Flexure
c) Metalised wafers
d) Single crystal silicon frame

183. Which type of rebalancing technique use voltage applied to pendulum and electrode for
correction?
a) Charge forcing
b) Voltage forcing
c) Current forcing
d) Potential forcing
184. What is the purpose of a gyro in an inertial navigation system?
a) Space-stabilize the accelerometer
b) Angle of rotation
c) Measure rotation rate
d) Calculate velocity

185. What is the range of an order of angular rate magnitude that gyros used in military
planes need?
a) 8
b) 8.5
c) 7.1
d) 3

186. Why are unfloated instruments with ball bearings not suitable for air navigation?
a) Weight restrictions
b) High drift rate
c) Low drift rate
d) Power restrictions

187. Which of the following is false with respect to SDF floated gyros?
a) Wheel is floated at neutral buoyancy
b) Used in launch vehicles
c) Three gimbals are used
d) Magnetic pickoff used to sense rotation

188. Which of the following spinning wheel gyro has an accuracy of 0.001 deg/hr?
a) Floated TDF gyro
b) Electrostatically suspended TDF gyro
c) Floated SDF gyro
d) Unfloated ball bearing gyro

189. The input, output and spin axes of a gyro are always perpendicular to each other.
a) True
b) False

190. Which of the following is false with respect to spinning rotor gyros?
a) Mechanically complex
b) High probability of failure
c) Low run up time
d) High power consumption

191. What is the basic principle under which MEMS gyro work?
a) Sagnag effect
b) Coriolis effect
c) Angular momentum conservation
d) Mass conservation
192. Which part of the insects acts as gyros?
a) Wings
b) Halteres
c) Thorax
d) Legs

193. Which of the following is false with respect to MEMS gyro?

a) Low failure rate
b) Low cost
c) High maintenance
d) Less power consumption

194. Gyros are used as feedback sensors in FBW.

a) True
b) False

195. Which of the following systems do not use MEMS gyro?

a) Space launch vehicles
b) Flight control systems
c) Missile guidance
d) Car stability systems

196. Why is a tuning fork gyro better than the vibrating cylinder type gyro?
a) Reduce base motion
b) Low power consumption
c) Easy to manufacture
d) Low run up time

197. Which type of gyros works by calculating the difference in time taken by light to travel
in a closed circle?
a) Ring laser gyro
b) MEMS gyro
c) Floated gyro
d) Dry tuned gyro

198. What is the basic principle by which laser gyros work?

a) Coriolis effect
b) Conservation of momentum
c) Sagnac effect
d) Mass conservation

199. Which of the following type of gyro works by counting the nodes of standing waves of
laser beams?
a) Ring laser gyro
b) Optical fiber gyro
c) Dry tuned gyro
d) Floated gyro
200. A fiber optic gyro measures rotation using the _______ of the two beams?
a) Intensity difference
b) Resonance
c) Interference intensity
d) Wavelength difference

201. In two mode RLGs, only linearly polarized modes can be resonant in the cavity.
a) True
b) False

202. The emission of photons by the gas medium that fills the RLG cavity is called as?
a) Laser discharge
b) Spontaneous discharge
c) Spontaneous emission
d) Laser emission

203. What is the cause of lock-in phenomena in RLG?

a) Backscatter
b) Low intensity
c) High intensity
d) Low standing wave ratio

204. Which method uses a turntable in RLG to reduce lock-in errors?

a) Intensity control
b) Rate biasing
c) Using mechanical dither
d) Random rate fixing

205. In which type of inertial navigation system are the gyro and accelerometer rigidly
mounted to the body?
a) Gimballed system
b) Fixed system
c) Strapdown system
d) Void system

206. What the gyro act as in a strapdown system?

a) Angular rate sensors
b) Null sensors
c) Angle indicators
d) Orientation indicators

207. Which one of the following is not a purpose of strapdown calculations?

a) Calculate vehicle’s attitude
b) Transform accelerometer measurements into navigational coordinates
c) Perform dead-reckoning computations
d) Provide inputs to air data computer
208. Which of the following is a four element entity consisting of a scalar and a vector and is
used to describe strapdown system rotation?
a) Directional cosines
b) Directional sines
c) Quaternion
d) Triternion

209. What does the quaternion integration algorithm use to control error?
a) Linearization constraint
b) Normalization constraint
c) Differential constraint
d) Integral constraints

210. What type of error occurs if the axis of rotation is moving in space?
a) Linearization errors
b) Control error
c) Coning error
d) Differential error

211. Pre-processing algorithms are also called as _________

a) Coning algorithm
b) Error control algorithm
c) Differential algorithm
d) Resolution algorithm
212. Why is the gyro and accelerometers shock mounted to the body?
a) Impact protection
b) Reduce drift error
c) Prevent voltage surges
d) Limit vibration errors

213. Sculling errors occur when rotation and acceleration are combined.
a) True
b) False

214. Which of the following is false with respect to gimballed platform?

a) Orients the accelerometers into a coordinate frame relative to Earth
b) Euler angles are not easily readable from the gimbals
c) Protect the instruments from large angular motion
d) Protection from vibration, temperature and magnetic effects.

215. When does a gimbal lock occur on a three axis platform?

a) Inner gimbal approaches 90°
b) Inner gimbal approaches 0°
c) Outer gimbal approaches 90°
d) Middle gimbal approaches 90°
216. Which of the following factors affect the ability of a stable element to remain non-
rotating relative to space?
a) Drift rate of the reference gyro
b) Accuracy of gyro torquer
c) Linear motion of the vehicle
d) Orthogonality of the components on the platform

217. In any order of gimbal, the innermost gimbal has unlimited freedom.
a) True
b) False

218. What is the primary function of the Doppler radar?

a) Determining true airspeed
b) Determining ground speed
c) Determining altitude
d) Detecting stealth aircraft

219. The Doppler radar works by measuring the ________ of the reflected radio wave.
a) Intensity
b) Frequency
c) Doppler amplitude
d) Doppler shift

220. Which of the following is not true with respect to Doppler radar system?
a) Measures the ground velocity
b) Transmitter power is high and requires ground assistance
c) Velocity is extremely accurate
d) All weather system

221. Doppler radar cannot be used in helicopters.

a) True
b) False

222. What is the change in the observed frequency called?

a) Doppler shift
b) Differential frequency
c) Delta frequency
d) Delta shift

223. The configuration in which the Doppler radar beams are both forward and backward
looking is called as?
a) Janus
b) Dual
c) Redundant
d) Wide beam
224. What is the number of beams that a Doppler radar uses?
a) 4
b) 2
c) 1
d) 3

225. A Janus configuration has less error than a non-Janus configuration.

a) True
b) False

226. Why is the radio altimeter placed in the tail of aircraft?

a) Can be placed anywhere
b) When landing tail is closer to the ground
c) When landing nose is closer to the ground
d) Weight balance

227. What is the maximum altitude that can be measured using a radio altimeter?
a) 100ft
b) 500ft
c) 50 ft
d) 5000ft

228. Altimeters that are specifically designed to provide mark signals at specific altitudes for
automatic operations are called as _________
a) Radar altimeter
b) Pressure altimeter
c) Altitude marking radar
d) Mark altimeter

229. What is the function leading edge range tracker servo loop?
a) Provide range to the nearest return
b) Speed measurements
c) Vertical speed measurement
d) Automatic ground navigation

230. What is the frequency designated to radar altimeters?

a) 4.2 to 4.4 GHz
b) 2.4 to 4.2 GHz
c) 500 to 1 GHz
d) 13 to 14 GHz

231. Which of the following is true with respect with solid state transmitters in pulsed radar
altimeters?
a) Input power is around 100W
b) Use receiver pre-amplifiers
c) High reliability
d) Small size
232. Which of the following is responsible for the reduced use of transmitter power in radar
altimeter?
a) Low range
b) Interference with other bands
c) Receiver low noise amplifier
d) Radome

233. What type of waveform must be transmitted to reduce Doppler shit errors?
a) Square
b) Triangular
c) Sine
d) Cosine

234. Which of the following are false with respect to stellar navigation?
a) Can be used in daylight and at night
b) Position and altitude can be measured
c) Non-radiating
d) Cannot be jammed

235. Which of the following can be used to estimate the latitude in the northern hemisphere
using the horizon as a reference?
a) North pole
b) Magnetic north
c) Polaris (north star)
d) Orion’s belt

236. What is it called when the position is determined by angles between a star and an
accurate time reference?
a) Position fix
b) Celestial fix
c) Sun fix
d) Horizontal fix

237. Why is the inertial navigation system combined with celestial navigation system?
a) Correction of drift error
b) Deriving true north
c) Deriving magnetic north
d) Correction for weather effects

238. The sensors that maintain a centered star image for celestial navigation is called as
_________
a) Star fixer
b) Celestial fixer
c) Star tracker
d) Star searcher
239. Which of the following is required to integrate stellar navigation and inertial navigation
to get the best estimate navigation solution?
a) Kalman filter
b) Star fix
c) Celestial fix
d) Multisensor processing

240. The observability problems are greatly intensified if the telescope is rigidly mounted to
the IMU.
a) True
b) False

241. The inertial LOS to any star is precisely given from _______
a) Star tracker
b) Star catalog
c) Air data computer
d) Celestial fix

242. The angular error is the angular difference between computed LOS and the physical star
sensor LOS.
a) True
b) False

243. Which of the following uses lens and mirrors for focusing?
a) Refractive
b) Reflecting
c) Catadioptric
d) Orthogonal

244. What is the physical diameter of the first optical element in the telescope?
a) Optical aperture
b) Field of view
c) Effective focal length
d) Light detector

245. What is the image of the star at the focal plane called as?
a) Star fixed image
b) Celestial interference image
c) Diffraction limited image
d) Spot image

246. The physical size of the star depends upon __________

a) Angular size of image
b) Intensity of image
c) Colour of image
d) Shape of image
247. The ratio of the focal length to aperture is called the __________
a) Critical aperture
b) Effective aperture
c) Focal number
d) f / number

248. Star signal power is directly proportional to an effective area of a telescope.

a) True
b) False

249. Anti reflection coated optics reduce __________

a) Optical transmission losses
b) Reflection angle
c) Refraction
d) Intensity of star image

250. The star signal power does not depend on _____________

a) Spectral irradiance of stellar light
b) Spectral response of the light detector
c) Brightness of the star
d) Size of the star

251. The sky background power does not depend on _______

a) Effective entrance area to the telescope
b) Field of view of the telescope
c) Background radiance
d) Intensity of observing star

252. The effect of night sky background effect is negligible with respect to star power.
a) True
b) False

253. The ratio of the photons converted to signal generating electrons to the total number of
photons arriving is called as?
a) Quantum efficiency
b) Photon ratio
c) Conversion ratio
d) Photons to electron ratio

254. The photovoltaic or photoconductive detectors are packaged as ___________

a) Star detectors
b) Star position fixer
c) Charge coupled devices
d) Photon coupled devices
255. The use of ______ allows a small sky background view with a large telescopic field
view?
a) CCD
b) CVF
c) VVR
d) CSK

256. The threshold level of star detection is a function of _________

a) Star brightness
b) Star position fix
c) Star size
d) Sky view

257. What does the term all weather landing refer?

a) Reduced visibility
b) Cross winds
c) Solar storms
d) Storm activity

258. The restriction of visibility to various degrees defined by law in certain countries is
called _______
a) Instrument meteorological conditions
b) Flight rules
c) Weather instrument law
d) Weather visibility conditions

259. What is the altitude at which the landing must be aborted if a runway is not in sight?
a) Low altitude
b) Decision height
c) Abortion altitude
d) Visibility altitude

260. What is the decision height for the category I landing system?
a) 100ft
b) 500ft
c) 1000ft
d) 200ft

261. ILS is not required for category I.

a) True
b) False
262. Which of the following is not required in a category II system?
a) Dual ILS system
b) Rain removal equipment
c) Head up display
d) Missed approach attitude guidance
263. Which category deals with zero visibility conditions?
a) Category I
b) Category III C
c) Category II
d) Every category

264. The height below which landing may continue in case of equipment failure is called as?
a) decision height
b) Abortion altitude
c) Visibility altitude
d) Alert height

265. Which of the following are used to measure visibility conditions?

a) Ceilometers
b) Barometers
c) Altimeters
d) Radar

266. In deteriorated weather, operations must be conducted under IFR.

a) True
b) False

267. In an approach, the transition flight path is defined by __________

a) GPS
b) Celestial fix
c) Initial and final approach fix
d) ILS

268. What does the light bar provide to the pilot?

a) Pitch, roll and azimuth cues
b) Roll cues
c) Pitch cues
d) Azimuth cues

269. What is the minimum descent altitude for non precision flight?
a) 100 to 1000ft
b) 10 to 100ft
c) 250 to 1000ft
d) 1000 to 2000ft

270. What is the rate of descent when the flare maneuver is executed?
a) 6 ft/sec
b) 12ft/sec
c) 20ft/sec
d) 3ft/sec
271. What is the speed reduction in a typical jet aircraft during the flare?
a) 95-100%
b) 75-82%
c) 50-55%
d) 5-10%

272. Auto land system is a must for _________ and above?

a) Category I
b) Category II
c) Category III
d) Category IV

273. The reduction of glide slope gain is called as________

a) Auto throttle
b) Auto gain
c) Auto attenuation
d) Gain scheduling

274. What is the nominal accuracy of radar altimeters below 100ft?

a) 5 ft
b) 10 ft
c) 20 ft
d) 1.5 ft

275. Accurate calculation of aircraft height using the glide path deviations and distance
information is not practical.
a) True
b) False

276. What is the wheel height where flare command is initiated?

a) 75ft
b) 100ft
c) 25ft
d) 5ft

277. __________ is the exponential path tangent to a horizontal plane several feet below the
runway?
a) Flare
b) Ground roll
c) Taxi
d) Tide

278. What is done to reduce the error in localizer as the runway is approached?
a) Gain scheduling
b) Reduce speed
c) Increase angle of attack
d) Flare
279. British Trident and U.S. L-1011 aircraft was certified for category III A operations.
a) True
b) False

280. Which of the following systems use a collection of radio transmitting stations to guide
an aircraft to a particular runway?
a) ILS
b) GPS
c) VOR
d) RADAR

281. How many ILS systems does an airport require?

a) 0
b) 1
c) Depends upon aircraft size
d) Depends upon density of traffic on the airspace

282. _______ standardized the signal in space for the ILS ground transmitting equipment?
a) ISRO
b) FAA
c) ICAO standards and recommended practices
d) NASA

283. Where is the localizer antenna placed?

a) Beyond the stop end of the runway
b) Start of the runway
c) Along the runway
d) Air traffic control

284. Which of the following is used to detect the failure in an ILS?

a) Fail safe ILS
b) Radiation monitors
c) ILS detector
d) ILS failure system is not used anywhere

285. What is the type of polarization is used in ILS systems?

a) Horizontal polarization
b) Vertical polarization
c) Circular polarization
d) No polarization

286. What is the frequency at which the marker beacons operate?

a) 65 MHZ
b) 50 MHZ
c) 150 MHZ
d) 75 MHz

287. Localizer, Glide slope and DME frequencies are paired to each other.
a) True
b) False
288. What is the type of receiver used for marker beacon?
a) Heterodyne
b) Super Heterodyne
c) Capacitative pick off
d) Crystal controlled

289. Which of the following cause multi path signals?

a) Low transmission power
b) Ground reflection
c) Low frequency transmission
d) High frequency transmission

290. Which of the following transmits an audio Morse code?

a) Localizer
b) Glide slope transmitter
c) DME
d) Marker beacons

291. ______________ provides deviation when the aircraft is displaced laterally from the
vertical plane of the runway?
a) Localizer
b) Glide slope transmitter
c) DME
d) Marker beacons

292. What is the signal that are added to the localizer signal, if the beam is narrow, to provide
signal coverage?
a) Localizer plus
b) Difference signal
c) Sum signal
d) Clearance signal

293. What type of antenna is used in the localizer?

a) Long periodic antenna
b) Helical antenna
c) Dipole antenna
d) Parabolic antenna

294. Clearance signals can be transmitted from the same array antenna as the localizer signal.
a) True
b) False

295. What is the type of glide slope that depends on the reflection of signals by the ground?
a) Reflection slope
b) Refraction glide slope
c) Image glide slope
d) Direct glide slope
296. What is the radiation pattern of the marker beacons?
a) Triangle
b) Circle
c) Square
d) Fan shape

297. What is the main weakness of the ILS system?

a) Less power
b) Less range
c) More noise
d) Environment sensitivity

298. What does the MLS use to overcome the weakness of ILS system?
a) Narrow beam width antennas
b) More power
c) Filers for separating noise
d) Array of antennas

299. Which of the following is not one of the basic components of the MLS system?
a) Azimuth ground station
b) Elevation ground station
c) DME
d) Radar

300. Why is a back azimuth station used in some MLS?

a) Better range
b) Less noise
c) Missed approach
d) Back up for main azimuth station

301. What is the number of channels in the MLS system?

a) 10
b) 50
c) 4000
d) 200

302. Which of the following determines the required transmission power in MLS?
a) Noise
b) Bit error rate
c) Runway length
d) Aircraft size

303. Using an audio tone to encode angles is an efficient method.

a) True
b) False
304. What is the typical scanning rate of the MLS antenna?
a) 20,000°/sec
b) 10000°/sec
c) 500°/sec
d) 37°/sec

305. MLS ESA works on the principle of phase shifting.

a) True
b) False

306. Which of the following is not a reason for not using the basic GPS for landing systems?
a) Accuracy
b) Integrity
c) Availability of satellites
d) Number of users

307. Which of the following is supplemented with GPS to provide non-precision and
Category I approaches?
a) Primary radar
b) WAAS
c) ILS
d) MLS

308. Which of the following is not true with respect to WAAS?

a) Provides WADGPS corrections
b) Uses ground integrity broadcast
c) Provide precision approaches for Category III C
d) Provide GPS ranging function

309. Which of the following is required to support Category II and III with DGPS?
a) High- integrity ground to air data link
b) ILS system
c) Transponder
d) DME station

310. Which of the following errors are not rectified by LDGPS?

a) Satellite ephemerides
b) Ionosphere propagation effects
c) Multi-path signal interference
d) Clock offset

311. The DME station can supply integrity warnings.

a) True
b) False

312. The accuracy of the SPS code solution is satisfactory for precision approaches.
a) True
b) False
313. The pilot has no other option than to use FLOLS to land the aircraft.
a) True
b) False

314. The relative speed of the aircraft with respect to the carrier deck is _________
a) Lower
b) Greater
c) Zero
d) Indifferent

315. What is the inclination of the glide slope with respect to the moving flight deck?
a) 3°
b) 5°
c) 3.5°
d) 4°

316. Which of the following causes a “burble” at the threshold and along the glide path?
a) High speed landings
b) Low visibility
c) Heaving motion of ship
d) Steady state wake

317. Wake perturbations are caused by ________

a) High speed landings
b) Low visibility
c) Heaving motion of ship
d) Steady state wake

318. Aircraft executing missed approach from low altitude is called as ____________
a) Bolter
b) Faultie
c) Ranger
d) Dropper

319. The ACLS can land an aircraft in zero visibility conditions.

a) True
b) False

320. Which of the following is an optical landing aid used in aircraft carriers?
a) ACLS
b) FLOLS (Fresnel lens optical landing system)
c) SPN-41
d) SPN-46

321. Why is heave motion of the carrier not corrected in the FLOLS?
a) Two aircraft use simultaneously
b) Atmospheric fluctuations
c) Too random motion
d) Not economical
322. What is the frequency band used by the ACLS?
a) Ka band
b) S band
c) C band
d) E band

323. Which of the following is false with respect to ACLS?

a) Zero visibility landing is possible
b) Uses Ka band radars
c) Compensated for carrier roll, heave and pitch
d) Only handle one aircraft at a time

324. What is added to SPN-42 to eliminate wandering of the echo skin?

a) AESA
b) Aircraft beacon
c) PESA
d) Helical antenna

325. What are the two principal processes of air traffic management?
a) Air traffic control and traffic flow management
b) Air traffic control and Aircraft system maintenance
c) Traffic flow management and Aircraft system maintenance
d) Aircraft system maintenance and Radio communication

326. Who provides assurance between the collision of aircraft with another aircraft or terrain?
a) ATM
b) Pilot
c) FMS
d) Autopilot

327. ATM also aids in search and rescue.

a) True
b) False

328. Which of the following ensures standardization of ATM services worldwide?

a) FAA
b) ICAO
c) IAO
d) DGCA

329. Who are not required to contact the ATM for navigation?
a) VFR operator
b) Co-pilot
c) Pilot
d) IFR operator
330. The aircraft whose attitude reference is solely based on the natural horizon follow
______
a) VFR
b) IFR
c) Pilot
d) FAA commands

331. Who is responsible for the separation of an aircraft from other aircraft in a controlled
airspace?
a) ATM operator
b) Pilot
c) Co-pilot
d) Navigator

332. What is the minimum visibility when flying below 10,000ft and following VFR?
a) One nautical mile
b) One kilometer
c) One statute mile
d) One mile

333. What altitude does FL540 correspond to?

a) 54,000ft
b) 5.4 ft
c) 54 ft
d) 5400 ft

334. The lateral displacement error of the aircraft form the intended track given the course
deviation signal is called as?
a) Navigation error
b) Pilot error
c) Flight technical error
d) Instrumental error

ADDED MCQ
1. What are control laws?
a) Algorithms relating pilots stick and control surface
b) Laws that govern aerodynamics forces
c) Laws that govern flight motion
d) Laws used to predict range and endurance

2. What is θi in pitch rate command law?

a) Tailplane demand angle
b) Pilot input angle
c) Gain in loop
d) Pitch rate gearing

3. What is false true with respect to K in the pitch rate command law?
a) Value of K is infinite
b) Value of K is constant with height and altitude
c) Value of K changes with height and altitude
d) Value of k is constant with altitude and airspeed

4. Derivative of a control system provides _________

a) Low steady state error
b) Gain proportional to error
c) Reduced overshoot
d) Infinite gain

5. Integral of a control system provides __________

a) Low steady state error
b) Gain proportional to error
c) Reduced overshoot
d) infinite gain

6. Phase advance control is also known as __________

a) Proportional error controller
b) Derivative error controller
c) Integral error controller
d) One plus derivative error controller

7. What is the MTBF of a solid state rate gyro?

a) 1,000 to 5,000 hrs
b) 5,000 to 10,000 hrs
c) 10,000 to 50,000 hrs
d) 50,000 to 100,000 hrs

8. What are the shortcomings of using an angle of incidence indicator for feedback sensor?
a) Damage from bird strikes and local airflow disturbance
b) Damage from ice formation and local airflow disturbance
c) Ground and impact damage from landing
d) Works only in subsonic ranges

9. What is the angle of incidence limiting?

a) Warning indication to the pilot during high angles of incidence
b) The minimum angle of attack that can be measured
c) Keeping angle of incidence under safety limits whilst maneuvering
d) Reducing the error that occurs in an angle of incidence indicator

10. The aircraft is a rigid body.

a) True
b) False

11. FCS sensors which sense aircraft motion also sense the structural deflections.
a) True
b) False

12. What happens to the phase lag in an actuator as the frequency is increased?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Constant
d) Cannot be determined

13. What can occur when the control valve travel limits are reached under conditions of large
amplitude demands?
a) Stall
b) Structural damage
c) Rate limiting
d) Rate delimiting

14. What is PIO?

a) Pitot indicator
b) Pilot induced oscillations
c) Pressure indicator observed
d) Primary Input/Output

15. Flight control systems comes under the category of _______

a) SISO
b) SIMO
c) MIMO
d) MISO

1. Which of the following is correct?

a) Aircraft which is statically stable may or may not be dynamically stable
b) Lift is equal to weight always
c) Thrust is only proportional to nose of aircraft
d) Drag is useful during takeoff

2. Dynamic stability is more concerned about time.

a) True
b) False

3. Damping ratio is defined as __________

a) damping coefficient divided by critical damping coefficient
b) lift to drag
c) thrust to weight
d) weight to power

4. Which of the following is correct?

𝒌
a. 𝑾𝒏 = 2𝒎
:
b. 𝑊6 = 1.2 ∗ 2;
c. 𝑊6 = 2 ∗ 𝑘
!
d. 𝑊6 = 2;
5. An aircraft is consider to be over damped. What will be the appropriate value for damping
ratio?
a) 1.45
b) 0.1
c) 0.001
d) 0.04

6. If damping ratio is unity then, system is _____________

a) critically damped
b) over damped
c) high lift device
d) thrust augmented

7. Consider the aircraft with weight of 1234 kg. Find the approximate value of the damping
ratio if time taken by system for damping is minimum.
a) 1
b) 1.7
c) 1.9
d) 0.002

Hint: For minimum damping time, system should be critically damped.

For, critical damping ratio is defined as,
Damping ratio = damping coefficient/critical damping coefficient = Cc/Cc = 1.

8. Find critical damping coefficient if damping ratio is 0.5 and damping coefficient is 1.1.
a) 2.2
b) 1
c) 4
d) 1.1

Hint: Critical damping coefficient damping coefficient/ damping ratio 1.1/0.5 = 2.2.

9. Which of the following is not the type of aircraft dynamic mode?

a) Flap
b) Dutch roll
c) Phugoid
d) Lateral mode

10. Which of the following is an example of longitudinal mode?

a) Phugoid
b) Dutch
c) Lateral
d) Aileron

11. Consider the 2d phugoid approximation with natural frequency of 0.4. Determine the
approximate value of aircraft speed.
a) 34.68
b) 56
c) 12
d) 12.68
Hint: value of aircraft speed = 1.414*g/w

12. If damping ratio is 0.05 then, find the lift to drag ratio. Consider 2-degree phugoid
approximation.
a) 14.14
b) 20
c) 25
d) 0.05
Hint: Given damping ratio d = 0.05
Lift to drag = 0.707/d = 0.707/0.05 = 14.14.

13. Which of the following is correct?

a) Dutch roll is not considered as a longitudinal mode
b) Lift curve slope is defined as ratio of lift to thrust
c) Stability and controllability are same
d) Dynamic stability of aircraft does not depend upon any parameter

1. The three critical flight dynamics parameters are?

a) Roll, pitch and yaw
b) Roll, pitch and jaw
c) Roll, play and yaw
d) Roll, play and jaw

2. What happens if an aircraft yaws about its center of gravity?

a) A sideslip angle arises
b) Aircraft will crash
c) Aircraft will start descending
d) Angle of attack increases

3. Which of the following gives the viscosity of flow?

a) Mach Number
b) Knudsen Number
c) Specific heat ratio
d) Reynolds Number

4. Which of the following is not an aerodynamic coefficient?

a) Pressure coefficient
b) Absolute temperature
c) Lift coefficient
d) Drag coefficient

5. Which of the following is not true about yaw?

a) About the vertical body axis
b) Positive with the nose to starboard
c) Measured in Hertz
d) Type of rotation

6. Flight dynamics studies the efficiency of vehicles travelling through air.

a) True
b) False
7. The equilibrium roll angle is known as __________
a) Roll angle
b) Angle of incidence
c) Zero bank angle
d) Angle of attack

8. Which is the most dominant force in spacecraft flight dynamics?

a) Gravitational force
b) Nuclear force
c) Air resistance force
d) Lift and drag

9. Control systems adjust the orientation of a vehicle about its __________

a) Pitch
b) Wheels
c) Centre of mass
d) Centre of gravity

10. An aircraft adjusts the lift generated by the wings when it pitches nose up or down by
adjusting the angle of attack.
a) True
b) False

11. Spacecraft flight dynamics does not involve which of the following forces?
a) Propulsive force
b) Gravitational force
c) Electromagnetic force
d) Lift and drag

12. What are the major sources of change in the aerodynamic forces and moments applied to
an aircraft?
a) Angle of attack of the wing and the angle of attack
b) Angle of attack of the wing and the angle of attack of the vertical tail
c) Angle of attack of the wing and the angle of incidence
d) Angle of incidence and the angle of attack of the vertical tai

13. Aircrafts are streamlined from nose to tail to reduce __________

a) Turbulence
b) Thrust
c) Gravitational force
d) Drag

14. Angle of attack of the vertical tail is also known as __________

a) Sideslip angle
b) Critical angle
c) Zero bank angle
d) Angle of incidence
15. Which of the following aircraft systems includes an actuator?
a) Hydraulic systems
b) Electronic systems
c) Communication systems
d) Control systems

1. What is the use of the turns compensation in current transformer?

a) to increases the ratio error
b) to reduce the ratio error
c) to increase the phase angle error
d) to reduce the phase angle error

2. What is the formula of the actual ratio?

a) actual ratio = turns ratio + load current * secondary current
b) actual ratio = turns ratio * load current * secondary current
c) actual ratio = turns ratio + load current / secondary current
d) actual ratio = turns ratio / load current * secondary current

3. What happens if the number of secondary turns is reduced?

a) the primary turns is reduced
b) the output is reduced
c) the efficiency is reduced
d) the transformation ratio is reduced

4. What is the best number of secondary turns of the current transformer?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 1 or 2 less than the number such that the turns ratio is equal to the nominal current
ratio
d) 1 or 2 more than the number such that the turns ratio is equal to the nominal current ratio

5. The phase angle error is significantly affected by the small change in secondary turns.
a) true
b) false

6. What is the dimension of the round copper wire made use of in the windings of current
transformer?
a) 3 cm2
b) 3 mm2
c) 3 m2
d) 3 cm

7. What is the range of current density in the windings of the current transformer?
a) 1-3 A per mm2
b) 2-3 A per mm2
c) 1-2 A per mm2
d) 0.5-2 A per mm2
8. How many factors are present in the behavior of transformer under short circuit
conditions?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

1. The system with the open loop transfer function 1/s(1+s) is:
a) Type 2 and order 1
b) Type 1 and order 1
c) Type 0 and order 0
d) Type 1 and order 2

2. The identical first order system have been cascaded non-interactively. The unit step
response of the systems will be:
a) Overdamped
b) Underdamped
c) Undamped
d) Critically damped

3. A third order system is approximated to an equivalent second order system. The rise time
of this approximated lower order system will be:
a) Same as the original system for any input
b) Smaller than the original system for any input
c) Larger than the original system for any input
d) Larger or smaller depending on the input

4. A system has a single pole at origin. Its impulse response will be:
a) Constant
b) Ramp
c) Decaying exponential
d) Oscillatory

5. When the period of the observation is large, the type of the error will be:
a) Transient error
b) Steady state error
c) Half-power error
d) Position error constant

6. When the unit step response of a unity feedback control system having forward path
transfer function G (s) =80/s(s+18)?
a) Overdamped
b) Critically damped
c) Under damped
d) Un Damped oscillatory
7. With negative feedback in a closed loop control system, the system sensitivity to parameter
variation:
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Becomes zero
d) Becomes infinite

8. An underdamped second order system with negative damping will have the roots :
a) On the negative real axis as roots
b) On the left hand side of complex plane as complex roots
c) On the right hand side of complex plane as complex conjugates
d) On the positive real axis as real roots

9. Given a unity feedback system with G (s) =K/ s (s+4). What is the value of K for a
damping ratio of 0.5?
a) 1
b) 16
c) 4
d) 2

10. How can the steady state error can be reduced?

a) By decreasing the type of the system
b) By increasing system gain
c) By decreasing the static error constant
d) By increasing the input

1. Assertion (A): The zeroes on the real axis near the origin are generally avoided in design.
Reason (R): In a sluggish system introduction of zeroes can improve the transient response
a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true

2. Addition of zero increases the stability.

a) True
b) False

3. Zeroes are defined as:

a) Roots of the denominator of the closed loop transfer function
b) Roots of the numerator of the closed loop transfer function
c) Parts of the numerator
d) Parts of the denominator

4. As zero moves sufficiently left from the origin the effect of zero becomes less pronounced.
a) True
b) False
5. If number of poles are greater than number of zeroes then the system is known as
______________
a) Stable system
b) Unstable system
c) Minimum phase system
d) Non-minimum phase system

6. A control system is generally met with the time response specifications:

a) Steady state accuracy
b) Damping factor
c) Setting time
d) All of the mentioned

7. Steady state accuracy specified in terms of:

a) Steady state error
b) Damping ratio
c) Natural frequency
d) All of the mentioned

8. Steady state accuracy is determined by suitable choice of____________

a) Steady error
b) Error constants
c) Damping
d) Transient error

9. Damping factor specifies:

a) Peak overshot to step input.
b) Steady state error
c) Damping ratio
d) Natural frequency

10. If rise time is also taken into consideration it should be ____________ to the settling
time.
a) Inconsistent
b) Consistent
c) Perfect
d) Unique