Cd009

1 CD0009200 Why is the exhaust from an oil fired boiler a suitable source of inert gas to use
to inert cargo tanks on an oil tanker?
☒ The boiler exhaust gas is normally clean and contaminant free

☒ The boiler exhaust normally contains about 30% oxygen

☒ The boiler exhaust normally contains no oxygen

☑ The boiler exhaust normally contains less than 5% oxygen

2 CD0009199 Which one of the following boiler operating parameters would normally give
automatic shut down of the boiler in event of alarm condition?
☒ High steam temperature

☒ High fuel temperature

☒ Exhaust high oxygen level

☑ Flame failure

3 CD0009198 Many boiler burner units include an air register. What is the purpose of an air
register?
☒ It prevents backflow of exhaust gas from the furnace

☒ It measures the quantity of combustion air entering the furnace

☒ It controls the direction and movement of the combustion air entering the furnace

☑ It controls the quantity of combustion air entering the furnace

4 CD0009197 Some boiler use rotary cup burners instead of jet nozzle types. Which one of the
following options best describes how rotary cup burners differ from jet nozzle types?
☒ Rotary cup burners operate with simple on/off control

☒ Rotary cup burners normally use steam atomisation

☒ Rotary cup burners rely on electrostatic charge for atomisation of the fuelatomization of the fuel.

☑ Rotary cup burners operate on much lower fuel pressures than simple jet nozzle types

5 CD0009196 Which one of the following options best describes how combustion in a boiler
furnace is different to that in a diesel engine cylinder?
☒ Boiler combustion is controlled by measuring the exhaust temperature
☒ Boiler combustion is started from cold using distillate fuel

☒ Boiler combustion requires more excess air

☑ Boiler combustion is a continuous process.

6 CD0009195 Some diesel engine manufacturers have introduced the use of fuel and water
emulsions as part of their exhaust emissions control measures. How do these emulsions help to reduce
air pollutants in exhaust gas emissions?
☒ The oxygen in the water improves combustion of carbon and reduces carbon monoxide levels

☒ They dissolve the ash components of the fuel and reduce particulate levels

☒ The water washes out sulphur and reduces SOx levels

☑ They lower the maximum cylinder temperature and reduce NOx levels

7 CD0009194 Dual fuel diesel engines which use gas and fuel oil are used on some ships.
Select the option which best describes one of the methods of operation of the fuel systems for these
engines
☒ High pressure gas is used as fuel when fuel oil is not available

☒ Low pressure gas and fuel oil are injected into the cylinder separately

☒ High pressure gas is added to the fuel oil and both injected into the cylinder together

☑ Low pressure gas is used as main fuel with fuel oil used to ignite it

8 CD0009193 Some diesel engines feature a twin injection system designed to improve fuel
injection performance. Select the option which best describes this feature.
☒ A variable amount of fuel is injected by the first injector while the amount through the second one is
constant at all loads

☒ An equal amount of fuel passes through each injector in simultaneously

☒ An equal amount of fuel passes through each injector in sequence

☑ A constant amount of fuel is injected by the first injector at all loads while the amount through the
second one varies

9 CD0009192 Some diesel engines have fuel injection systems which incorporate pilot
injection. What is the main purpose of using pilot injection?
☒ To reduce maximum cylinder pressure

☒ To increase maximum cylinder pressure

☒ To increase ignition delay

☑ To reduce ignition delay

10 CD0009191 Some diesel engines operate on a fuel mixture which is blended onboard. Which
one of the following is a means to control the make up of the blended fuel?
☒ Preset viscosity, temperature and blend component ratio

☒ Preset temperature and blend component ratio and varying viscosity

☒ Preset viscosity and temperature with varying pump pressure

☑ Preset viscosity and temperature with varying ratio of blend components.

11 CD0009190 Which one of the following options best describes why recirculation type fuel
injectors are sometimes fitted to diesel engines?
☒ Removes the need to have viscosity control

☒ Removes the need for the vessel to carry distillate fuel

☑ A separate fuel valve cooling system is not required

☒ They allow engine to be run on heavy fuel oil

12 CD0009189 The vessel you are sailing on, which has one settling tank and one service tank in
the fuel system, is due to operate in a SECA. When would you need to start to change over to low
sulphur fuel if you are currently operating on normal heavy fuel?
☒ In time to consume the contents of the service tank and the in service system

☒ In time to consume the contents of the in service system

☒ Just as you enter the SECA

☑ At the time before entry into the SECA stated in the ship’s fuel changeover procedure

13 CD0009188 Which one of the following problems is likely to occur if the correct procedure
for changing over from heavy fuel to distillate fuel prior to stopping a diesel engine is not followed?
☒ The engine may not stop

☒ Viscosity control may remain in manual mode

☑ Gassing up due to distillate fuel component overheating

☒ SECA limits may not be met

14 CD0009187 Which one of the following best describes why a low pressure alarm is often
fitted in the low pressure part of a diesel engine heavy fuel oil system?
☒ To indicate when the service tank valve is not fully open.

☒ To indicate when the level in the fuel oil service tank is low.

☒ To indicate when distillate fuel has reached the pump supply manifold

☑ To minimise the risk of engine fuel starvation

15 CD0009186 Fuel oil viscosity control is considered necessary for diesel engines operating on
heavy fuel oil. Which one of the following best describes the principle of operation of a Viscotherm unit?
☒ Measurement of the differential temperature across the unit

☒ Measurement of differential pressure between inlet and outlet to the unit

☒ Measurement of outlet pressure of the unit pump

☑ Measurement of differential pressure in a capillary tube

16 CD0009185 Which one of the following best explains why high pressure fuel pipes fitted to
many diesel engines are often double skinned?
☒ To prevent engine room personnel from contacting the hot inner skin

☒ To prevent heat loss by insulating the inner skin

☒ So that if the inner skin fails operation can continue using the outer skin

☑ So that any leakage is contained

17 CD0009184 Which one of the following best describes the purpose of the spring in a fuel
injection valve?
☒ To allow recirculation of fuel through the valve

☒ To limit the lift of the valve needle

☑ To give positive seating of the valve to prevent back flow of gas from cylinder into the fuel system

☒ To allow adjustment of the valve closing period.

18 CD0009183 What is the most common method used to allow the position of fuel cams to be
individually adjusted on the camshaft?
☒ The majority of fuel cams are of split design

☒ The majority of fuel cams are bolted to flanges

☒ The majority of fuel cams are mounted on splines

☑ The majority of fuel cams are mounted on hydraulic sleeve couplings

19 CD0009182 Which one of the following options is an acceptable method of checking the
timing of diesel engine high pressure fuel pumps?
☒ Testing fuel injector lift pressure

☒ Measuring fuel pump discharge pressure

☒ Matching witness marks on pump casing and camshaft cover

☑ Spill cut off method

20 CD0009181 Why is variable injection timing, VIT, incorporated in some diesel engine fuel
systems?
☒ To increase the maximum load of the engine

☒ To increase the minimum compression pressure

☒ To reduce the maximum cylinder pressure

☑ To increase thermal efficiency and reduce specific fuel consumption

21 CD0009180 Many diesel engine high pressure fuel pumps have plungers with helical profiles
cut into them. How do these helical profile type plungers control the timing and quantity of fuel
delivered to the cylinder.
☒ The trailing edge controls both the start and end of injection

☒ The leading edge controls both the start and end of injection

☒ The trailing edge controls the start of injection and the leading edge controls the end of injection

☑ The leading edge controls the start of injection and the trailing edge controls the end of injection

22 CD0009179 Which one of the following features would you expect to find with an inline
multi cylinder fuel pump block arrangement?
☒ Positioning on the engine at crankshaft level

☒ High pressure fuel pipes without bends

☒ A separate camshaft for each cylinder

☑ A single rack to control all of the fuel pumps simultaneously.

23 CD0009178 When diesel engines are operated on heavy fuel oil the fuel is heated up to
achieve the correct injection viscosity. How is the fuel system prevented from gassing up when
operating this way?
☒ By operating the system with an open vent

☒ By setting a temperature limit of below 100° C

☒ By increasing the viscosity control setting to limit the fuel temperature

☑ By maintaining a high enough pressure in the low pressure system to prevent vapour formation

24 CD0009177 What is meant by the term direct injection in relation to diesel engine fuel
injection systems?
☒ A system in which fuel is taken straight from the settling tanks to the engine

☒ A system in which fuel is admitted with the inlet air

☒ A system in which fuel is injected into a pre-combustion chamber

☑ A system in which fuel is injected into the combustion chamber

25 CD0009176 Which one of the following options is a requirement of a diesel engine fuel
injection pump?
☒ Ensure the fuel is at the viscosity to ensure combustion

☒ Ensure the fuel at the right temperature to ensure combustion

☑ Ensure the correct quantity of fuel injected

☒ Ensure the correct quantity of air admitted

26 CD0009175 Which one of the following gases would you normally associate with the
combustion of hydrocarbon fuel containing sulphur in a diesel engine?
☒ Sulphur oxide, SO

☒ Hydrogen sulphide, H2S

☒ Sulphur carbide, SC3

☑ Sulphur dioxide, SO2

27 CD0009174 Which one of the following options is considered to be a product of incomplete

combustion of fuel in a diesel engine cylinder?
☒ Water vapour

☒ Carbon dioxide
☒ Nitrogen

☑ Carbon monoxide

28 CD0009173 Which one of the following elements of diesel engine exhaust emissions are
considered as atmospheric pollutants?
☒ Heat

☒ H₂O

Cd00010
1 CD0010243 Water/fuel oil emulsions are being used in some diesel engines. Which one of
the following best describes the purpose of these emulsions?
☒ To help to clean the fuel system.

☒ To reduce the fuel consumption.

☒ To help to lubricate the engine cylinders.

☑ To reduce harmful exhaust emissions.

2 CD0010242 Chemical additives and stabilisers are sometimes used as part of the fuel oil
treatment. Which one of the following best describes how fuel stabilisers are intended to work?
☒ By introducing chemicals which ignite more easily.

☒ Changing the fuel molecules.

☒ Forming stable emulsions.

☑ Preventing the fuel from ageing.

3 CD0010241 Which one of the following would be the normal way to remove microbial
contamination from fuel oil?
☒ Regular draining of tanks.

☒ Treatment with combustion improvers.

☒ Treatment with fuel stabilisers.

☑ Treatment with biocides.

4 CD0010240 Which one of the following best describes how water is removed from fuel oil
when static filter modules are used instead of centrifuges?
☒ They contain edge filter elements.
☒ They contain fine mesh elements.

☒ They contain paper elements.

☑ They contain coalescer elements.

5 CD0010239 Back flushing filters are sometimes fitted in the onboard fuel oil treatment
system. Which one of the following options best describes what the unit is normally back flushed with?
☒ Diesel oil.

☒ Air.

☒ Water.

☑ Cleaned fuel.

6 CD0010238 Fuel oil treatment systems sometimes include ultrasonic devices. Which one of
the following best describes how these devices improve the condition of the fuel?
☒ They grind down contaminant particles and heavy molecules.

☒ They generate magnetic fields which break down contaminant particles and heavy molecules.

☒ They generate electrical pulses which break down contaminant particles and heavy molecules.

☑ They generate high energy vibrations which break down contaminant particles and heavy molecules.

7 CD0010237 Mechanical homogenisers are sometimes fitted as part of the fuel oil treatment
arrangement. Which one of the following options given best describes the effect of an homogeniser on
fuel oil?
☒ Separate solids and water from the fuel.

☒ Reduces the density.

☒ Increases the density.

☑ Grinds solid particles down in size.

8 CD0010236 Edge filters are used for removal of very small particles. Which one of the
following best describes where you would be likely to find edge filters fitted in the fuel oil system?
☒ Before the viscosity controller.

☒ At purifier inlet connections.

☒ At the fuel tank outlet connection.

☑ Before fuel injection equipment.

9 CD0010235 Some centrifuges used for oil have a solenoid valve in the water outlet which is
controlled by a water sensor in the oil outlet. What is this type of centrifuge used for?
☒ Treating fuels with minimum water content.

☒ Treating distillate fuel oils.

☒ Treating lubricating oil.

☑ Treating high density residual fuel oils.

10 CD0010234 When a centrifuge is set up as a fuel oil clarifier it normally only separates solids
from the dirty fuel. How is the set up of a clarifier different to that for a purifier?
☒ The gravity discs with the largest diameter holes are fitted.

☒ The disc stack has no distribution holes.

☒ The water outlet is closed off by a solenoid valve.

☑ The water outlet is closed off by the top cover of the disc stack.

11 CD0010233 When centrifuges are set up as fuel oil purifiers they often have gravity discs or
gravity plugs fitted. How does fitting different sizes of these allow fuels of different densities to be
treated?
☒ They alter the flow rate through the purifier.

☒ They alter the position of the oil outlet.

☒ They alter the height of the disc stack.

☑ They control the position of the interface.

12 CD0010232 Suction strainers are fitted to most fuel oil treatment systems. Which one of the
following best describes the main purpose of a suction strainer?
☒ To improve the flow rate to the centrifuges.

☒ To remove all of the solids in the fuel.

☒ To protect the pumps from any water in the fuel.

☑ To protect the pumps from large solid particles.

13 CD0010231 Which of the following options best completes the following statement? The
main reason for heating fuel oil before it enters a purifier is to …
☒ decrease the viscosity difference between fuel and water.
☒ decrease the density difference between fuel and water.

☒ increase the viscosity difference between fuel and water.

☑ increase the density difference between fuel and water.

14 CD0010230 Filters are often fitted as part of the fuel oil cleaning arrangement. Which one of
the following best describes why duplex (double) filter units are normally fitted?
☒ To have filters with different gauge mesh in operation at the same time.

☒ To allow automatic cleaning of the elements.

☒ To double the cleaning effect.

☑ To allow cleaning without interrupting the fuel supply.

15 CD0010229 Centrifuges are often used in pairs to give combined cleaning effect on fuel oil.
Which of the options given is the preferred arrangement for these combinations?
☒ Purifier and clarifier in parallel.

☒ Two clarifiers in series.

☒ Two purifiers in parallel.

☑ Purifier and clarifier in series.

16 CD0010228 Which one of the following describes the normal way of removing accumulated
water from a fuel oil settling tank?
☒ With a centrifuge.

☒ With a water pump.

☒ During manual cleaning.

☑ Regular draining using the drain cock.

17 CD0010227 Which one of the following is the best method for onboard testing of fuel oil
density?
☒ Flostick.

☒ Spot test.

☒ A falling ball viscometer.

☑ A hydrometer.
18 CD0010226 Taking samples of oil when bunkering is necessary for a number of reasons.
Which one of the following is the recommended manner of obtaining a representative sample?
☒ Directly from the supplier from shoreside/barge tanks.

☒ Fill a sample container at ship’s manifold at the start of bunkering.

☒ Fill a sample container at ship’s manifold at the end of bunkering.

☑ Fill a sample container at ship’s manifold by a continuous drip method.

19 CD0010225 Ships are required to take a bunker oil sample for MARPOL Annex VI purposes.
Which of the following options gives the time that this sample must be retained onboard?
☒ Until all of the bunkers have been used.

☒ At least 3 months.

☒ At least 3 years.

☑ At least 12 months.

20 CD0010224 The majority of ships are require to have a Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency
Plan (SOPEP) while some others are required to have a Shipboard Marine Pollution Emergency Plan
(SMPEP). Which of the following best describes the kinds of ship that require an SMPEP?
☒ Bunker barges

☒ Gas carriers

☒ Ships carrying MARPOL Annex I cargoes

☑ Ships carrying MARPOL Annex II cargoes

21 CD0010223 When checking the quantity of liquid in a tank either a sounding or ullage may
be taken to calculate the amount. Which one of the following best describes the term “ullage”?
☒ The reading obtained from a remote contents gauge.

☒ The distance from the surface of the oil to the top of the tank.

☒ The depth of the oil in the tank.

☑ The distance from the top of the sounding pipe to the surface of the oil.

22 CD0010222 Which of the options best completes the following statement? It is

recommended that fuel oils from different supplies should not be mixed together in a tank when
bunkering in case they …
☒ contain water
☒ are contaminated

☒ are unstable

☑ are incompatible

23 CD0010221 Which one of the following best describes the difference made to a ship’s fuel
oil requirements if it enters a SOx Emission Control Area, SECA?
☒ The minimum nitrogen content of any fuel burnt will be higher.

☒ Combustion changes will cause an increase in fuel consumption.

☒ The minimum sulphur content of any fuel burnt will be higher.

☑ The maximum sulphur content of any fuel burnt will be lower.

24 CD0010220 Which of the following options gives the minimum flashpoint for marine fuel
oils?
☒ 100° C

☒ 80° C

☒ 40° C

☑ 60° C

25 CD0010219 There are various health and environmental hazards associated with handling
and using fuel oil, including bunkering operations. Where would you expect to find the information
relating to these hazards?
☒ The engine manufacturers fuel specification.

☒ The bunker receipt.

☒ The ISO 8217 fuel standards tables for residual and distillate fuel.

☑ The Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS).

26 CD0010218 In which one of the following would you expect to find the bunkering
procedures for the ship that you are sailing on?
☒ Planned Maintenance System (PMS)

☒ SOLAS

☒ MARPOL

☑ Safety Management Manual

27 CD0010217 Which one of the following options best describes the conditions under which
microbial contamination of distillate fuel is most likely to occur?
☒ The fuel contains sulphur.

☒ Oxygen is not present in the fuel.

☒ Oxygen is present in the fuel.

☑ Water is present in the fuel.

28 CD0010216 Which of the following options best describes the term “incompatible” when
applied to fuel oil?
☒ The components of a fuel separate out over time.

☑ The fuel become unstable and form sludges when mixed with another fuel.

CD 17
Cd0017
1. Which of the factors do you believe will NOT affect the lifetime of the brass bearings in the
actuator:
Ans. Safety valve pressure
2. Which of the below mentioned parts are normally not exposed to wear or aging.
Ans. Cast iron sealing bars on vanes and stopper
3. All jobs except for daily and monthly inspections should be done by:
Ans. Manufacturers service engineer
4. The actuator bearings should be checked
Ans. At the regular class inspections, or after grounding
5. Why does the motor stop when it is overloaded?
Ans. The motor is equipped with its own overload protection overruling the alarm system and
this has been released.
6. Which type of valves is actuated in order to move the rudder in case of local steering
Ans. Directional valves
7. The vessel is offshore on steady course and an order to switch over to local steering is given.
What knowledge will you need in particular?
Ans. What you have learnt from the OPERATING INSTRUCTIONS and drilling the emergency
procedures.
8. Which one of the situations described below may cause the need for local steering?
Ans. Bridge out of function
9. What is the purpose of the acknowledge function:
Ans. Tell the system that the alarm is registered.
10. The steering gear's maximum working torque is:
 Ans. At least the torque necessary to turn the rudder to the maximum required angle at the
vessel's full speed
11. According to the SOLAS rules the maximum rudder angle to Port and Starboard should be at
least:
Ans. 35 degrees
12. According to the SOLAS rules the rudder angle velocity should be at least 35-0-30 dgrees in
maximum 28 seconds for:
Ans. For regular ships, other requirements for special ships.
13. The steering mode, in which the rudder angle is pre-set manually and kept in position
automatically, is called?
Ans. Follow up
14. Where is the remote rudder angle indicators most often located?
Ans. At the bridge
15. In case of any steering gear alarm occurs this can only be acknowledged from…?
Ans. The wheel house
16. What are the bearings lubricated with?
Ans. The system oil
17. What are the bearings made of?
Ans. Brass
18. How is the rotor fixed to the rudderstock?
Ans. By friction only
19. What is the main purpose of the housing, stoppers and cover?
Ans. Making boundaries for the pressure chambers.
20. One of the statements below is not correct, which one?
Ans. The ram type steering gears generally work with a lower oil pressure than a rotary type
21. What is the purpose of the safety valve?
Ans. To protect the actuator against too high oil pressure.
22. How is the movement of the actuator created?
Ans. Start at least one power unit and actuate the direction valve.
23. When shall both power units be in use?
Ans. When navigation demand special caution
24. When level switch 4 is actuated because of a significant drop of oil level, the following will
happen:
Ans. The separation process will start
25. The IMO version steering gear has a higher degree of safety compared with a standard model
becauce:
Ans. The IMO version will identify leakage from the actuator, not only the hydraulic system,
and still work.
26. According to SOLAS, the IMO version steering gear is required for tankers with single rudder,
when the vessel's size is above:
Ans. 100.000 DWT (Deadweight tons)
27. Witch one of these tree rudders gives the best manoeuvrability, given they have the same size?
Ans. Flap rudder
28. Water flow creates...?
29. Ans. Both vertical and side forces
Cd000043

1 CD0043957 Is it possible to separate an emulsion by settling

☑ No

☒ Yes

2 CD0043956 The suction pipe to the bilge water separator should be placed so that the
suction is ......... than the heating coils.
☒ Lower

☑ Higher

3 CD0043955 Due to residues from heavy fuel the bilge water should have a temperature of
…….. before it is pumped from the bilge water tank.
☒ 10-30 °C

☒ 95-100 °C

☑ 50-55 °C

4 CD0043954 When should the accuracy of the bilge alarm be checked?

☒ Once a week

☒ Every time the bilge water separator is used

☒ Every 6 months

☑ At renewal of IOPP Certificate

5 CD0043953 What is done to avoid anyone tampering with the bilge alarm?
☒ Anything but essential operation will give an alarm

☑ Anything but essential operation requires the breaking of a seal

6 CD0043952 What is the main weakness of a bilge water separator of gravity type?
☒ It cannot operate in heavy weather

☒ It requires heating of the bilge water

☑ It doesn’t separate emulsified bilge water

7 CD0043951 Which of the following shall be recorded in oil record book part 1?
☒ Main engine fuel oil consumption

☒ Bunkering of fresh water

☒ Incineration of garbage

☑ Condition of oil discharge monitoring and control system

☑ Collection and disposal of oil residues

☑ Bunkering of fuel or bulk lubricating oil

8 CD0043950 For how long must the oil record book be kept onboard after the last entry has
been made?
☒ 10 years

☒ 1 year

☒ 5 years

☑ 3 years

9 CD0043949 What is the maximum response time between detection of to high oil content
out of the bilge water separator and operation of an automatic stopping device preventing overboard
discharge?
☒ 15 seconds

☒ 60 seconds

☒ 5 seconds

☑ 20 seconds

10 CD0043948 What is used to calibrate the bilge alarm?

☒ A sample from sludge tank

☒ A sample from bilge water tank

☒ Diesel oil

☑ Clean water

11 CD0043947 Which persons shall sign in the oil record book?

☒ Duty engineer

☒ 2nd engineer

☒ Chief officer

☒ Chief engineer

☑ Master

☑ Officer in charge of the operation

12 CD0043946 IMO regulations demands that the accuracy of the bilge alarm should be within
…..?
☒ +/- 100 ppm.

☒ +/- 15 ppm.

☒ +/- 1 ppm.

☑ +/- 5 ppm.

13 CD0043945 Which of the following areas are defined as special areas with strict controls on
discharges of oily wastes?
☒ The South China Sea area

☒ The Indian Ocean

☑ The Red Sea area

☑ The Mediterranean Sea area

14 CD0043944 Are you allowed to discharge oily water from the oily water separator and into
the sea when the ship is at anchor?
☒ Yes, if the oil content is less than 5 ppm.

☑ No, the ship has to be proceeding en route

15 CD0043943 Oily mixtures discharged into the sea after passing through the bilge water
separator must never have an oil content exceeding:
☒ 5 parts per million
☒ 50 parts per million

☒ 100 parts per million

☑ 15 parts per million

16 CD0043942 What regulation controls the discharge of oil in to the sea?

☒ STCW

☒ ISPS Code

☒ SOLAS

☑ MARPOL

CD 78

1 CD00781765 Positive displacement pumps require a relief valve because?

☒ A high pressure could overload the motor.

☒ It allows priming liquid to return to the suction.

☑ The pump gives a constant flow rate.

☒ It can regulate the delivery pressure.

2 CD00781764 On which side of point A will cavitation occur?

☑ Side B

☒ Side A

3 CD00781763 The main reason for operating pumps in series is?

☑ So that commercially available pumps (i.e. small) can be used and to avod extremely high discharge
pressures which would be necessary with only one pump.

☒ To share the power absorbed using many small motors instead of one large motor, which is more
energy efficient.

☒ To avoid cavitation in high-pressure systems.

4 CD00781762 Is this pump a single acting pump or a double acting pump?

☑ Double acting
☒ Single acting

5 CD00781761 When operating pumps in parallel the increments of flow from doubling the
number pumps is correspondingly doubled, tripled for three pumps etc?
☑ False.

☒ True.

6 CD00781760 A pump is to be used to pump fresh water at 25 degrees c. The vapour pressure
of water at 25 degrees c = 3 kN/m2. If the atmospheric pressure is 105 kN/m2, the maximum suction lift
is 6.7m, and the pipeline losses on the suction side are equivalent to ah head of 3.2m, what will the
pump NPSH available be?
☒ 0.3 m

☑ 0.5 m

☒ 0.7 m

☒ 1.1 m

7 CD00781759 Positive displacement pumps can only vary their delivery rate by changing the
speed of the drive motor.
☑ False

☒ True

8 CD00781758 Under what system conditions does it turn out that operating pumps in parallel
achieves very little benefit?
☑ If the piping system is undersized or some component in the system acts as a bottleneck

☒ If the piping system is oversized, causing al lack of discharge pressure

☒ If the piping system is of different sizes for each pump

9 CD00781757 Cavitation of the fluid in a centrifugal pump is caused by?

☒ The viscosity of the fluid is too high, the extra power absorbed being converted into heat.

☑ The vapour pressure in the suction pipe falls below the vapour pressure of the liquid at a given
temperature.

☒ Too high a speed of impeller rotation creating adverse heat.

10 CD00781756 The main reason for operating pumps in parallel?

☒ Is that the combined electrical load on the pumps is lower than an equivalent single pump.

☑ Is to allow a wider range of flow than for a single arrangement.

☒ Is that a greater discharge pressure can be achieved.

11 CD00781755 In centrifugal pump series operation the flow through all of the pumps is equal?
☒ False

☑ True

12 CD00781754 Why is the axial flow pump ideal for trimming and heeling duties?
☒ Its discharge pressure is increased by the speed of the ship.

☒ It has excellent suction lift.

☑ It is reversible and has a high capacity flow.

13 CD00781753 Positive displacement pumps are ideal for fuel transfer duties because?
☒ They require the pumped liquid to be used for lubrication

☑ They can handle large volume of vapours and gases

☒ They have very small clearances

☒ They can deliver high pressure

14 CD00781752 By starting a centrifugal pump with the delivery valve closed then?
☒ The pump will loose suction

☒ The starting load on the motor will cause overload

☑ The starting load on the motor will be minimum

☒ The delivery pressure will be large causing the relief valve to open

15 CD00781751 The efficiency of a pump is not dependent on?

☒ Pump Losses

☒ Pump Capacity

☒ Dynamic Head

☑ NPSHA

16 CD00781750 Which of the following statements is correct?

☒ Positive displacement pumps always require priming

☑ Positive displacement pumps can require priming

☒ Positive displacement pumps are always self priming

17 CD00781749 The energy transformation within a centrifugal pump is as follows?

☒ Decreasing the velocity in the impeller decreases the kinetic energy, decreasing the kinetic energy
whilst increasing the velocity of the fluid in the volute casing increasing its pressure.

☑ The impeller creates centrifugal force, which increases the liquid velocity, an increase in velocity
means an increase in kinetic energy, the increased kinetic energy is converted into pressure by reducing
the velocity in the volute casing.

☒ Pressure is converted into kinetic energy by the impeller; this kinetic energy is converted to an
increase in velocity by the volute casing.

18 CD00781748 In order to pump liquids Positive displacement pumps rely on?

☒ Non-return valves

☑ Changes of volume of the pump chambers

☒ Small clearances within the pump

☒ Fast speed of operation

19 CD00781747 If a pump had available NPSH of 0.5m would a NPSH requirement of 0.48 be
suitable for this purpose?
☑ No

☒ Yes

20 CD00781746 If the NPSHA is less than the NPSHR then?

☒ The pump needs to run faster

☑ The pump will suffer damage

☒ The pump will overheat

☒ The pump will not draw the liquid