06-Assessment in Learning1

MARCOS, REGIE MAMAUAG - LPT 2021
For I know the plans I have for you, “ declares the Lord, ” plans to prosper you and not to harm you, plans to give
you hope and future. Jeremiah 29:11
Republic of the Philippines

NUEVA VIZCAYA STATE UNIVERSITY
Bayombong, Nueva Vizcaya
College of Teacher Education
Review Course 2 (Review on Professional Education Courses)

1st Semester, 2020-2021
Professional Education Examination 6

ASSESSMENT OF LEARNING
For Items 1 and 2: Given the scores of 5 pupils in a test: 5, 5, 7, 8, and 100
1. What is the mean. median and mode of the scores, in this order?
A. 10, 5, and 7 B. 25, 5, and 7 C. 25, 7, and 5 D. 15, 10, and 7
2. In this situation, where there are one or more extreme scores, which measure/s will better reflect the average
magnitude?
A. median B. median and mode C. mean and median D. mode and mean
3. The kurtosis of a curve reflects what property of distribution?
A. The average deviation C. the variability of the scores
B. The representative score D. the standard deviation
4. If the variance is 60.67, what is the standard deviation?
A. 2.02 B. 7.79 C. 3.68 D. 2.79
5. Given the mean as 10 and the standard deviation of 4. What is the range of scores of the test takers occupying
2 standard deviations around the mean?
A. 8 to 12 B. 2 to 18 C. 6 to 14 D. 4 to 16
6. Here is an essay test for the finals given by teacher Jun to his class: “Write everything that you learned from this
course.” What’s wrong with the test item?
I. It is too broad.
II. It does not show how scoring will be done.
III. It is very open minded
A. I, II and III B. II and III C. I and II D. I
7. Here is an essay test for the finals given by teacher Johnny Bravo to his class: “Write everything that you have
learned from this course on school-based management.” Which is an improved version of the essay test?
A. Write 5 main principles on school-based management that you learned from the course. You will be
given 2 points each for stating a correct principle and 8 points each for correctly and adequately
explaining each principle.
B. State and explain 5 main principles of school-based management
C. Clearly state and fully explain 5 main principles of school-based management.
D. State and explain 5 main principles of school-based management. 5 points for stating and 25 points for
correctly explaining.
For items 8 and 9:
Review Course 2 Page 1

Here are 4 elements with their corresponding percentages that k to 12 curriculum includes in its assessment
process:
Knowledge – 15% Process and skills – 25% Understanding – 30% Product and performance – 30%
8. Which conclusion can be derived from k to 12 assessment practice?

A. Assessment puts emphasis on knowledge and process and skills.
B. Assessment practice makes use of multiple sources.
C. Assessment emphasizes most on comprehension
D. Assessment requires critical thinking and disregards recall.
9. What generalization on assessment can be derived from the table?
A. Assessment considers recall of information insignificant.
B. Assessment in the level of understanding excludes learning in the knowledge level.
C. Assessment considers demonstration of a skill learned as the strongest proof of learning.
D. Assessment puts more emphasis on knowledge and process and skills.
10. Why is it considered unfair to learners for teachers to use only the traditional tools for assessment?
A. Learners learn and demonstrate learning in multiple ways other than in written form.
B. Traditional tools cannot measure higher order thinking skills.
C. Most teachers are not ready to use alternative assessment tools.
D. Traditional assessment is threatening.
11. Which BEST explains assessment AS learning?
I. The use of a scoring rubric makes specific to the learner the ideal expected output.
II. The use of a scoring rubric gives the learner an opportunity for self-assessment
III. A teacher who periodically assesses learner’s understanding ensures learning.
A. I and II B. II only C. I only D. I, II and III
12. Which is referred to as assessment of learning?
A. Formative assessment C. Traditional Assessment
B. Summative assessment D. Authentic assessment
13. Which applies to authentic assessment?
A. Indirect assessment C. Performing real-world tasks
B. Teaching to the test D. Paper and pencil test
A. Product assessment C. Traditional test
B. Indirect assessment D. Teaching to the test
A. Application of knowledge and skills learned C. Indirect assessment
B. Teaching to the test D. Traditional test
16. Which form of assessment best measures the recall of factual information?
A. matching type B. multiple choice C. short answer item D. essay question
17. What are the two classifications of essay questions?
A. Short-answer and long-answer types
B. Restricted-response and extended-response types
C. Factual and opinionated types
D. Constructed-response and supply- response types
18. When comparing multiple-choice test items with true-alse items, the former _____.

A. are scored easier, more objectively, and more rapidly.
B. offer less demand on reading ability.
C. are less-influenced by guessing.
D. have incorrect answers with diagnostic information.
19. Which correctly arranges the test types in order of increasing freedom of responses?
A. Short-answer item – restricted-response essay – extended-response essay
B. Short-answer item – extended-response essay – restricted-response essay
C. Restricted-response essay – short-answer item – extended-response essay
D. Extended-response essay – restricted-response essay – short-answer item
20. Which among the factors can distort scores in an essay question?
I. Reading ability III. Writing ability
II. Guessing IV.Bluffing
A. I and II B. I and III C. II and III D. III and IV
21. Kurt and 14 other classmates took a grammar quiz. He scored 25 out of 30. Three classmates scored higher
than Mark. What is Mark’s percentile rank (PR)?
A. 70 B. 75 C. 80 D. 85
22. Kurt’s percentile rank means that he scored the same or better than ____ of his classmates?
A. 70% B. 80% C. 90% D. 95%
Refer to the given scenario:
T scores are used to report personality inventories. They have a mean of 50 and the standard deviation
of 10. I scored 60 and you scored 40 on a test for dominance.
23. Which of the following describes my score in the test for dominance?
A. I scored 1 standard deviation below the mean.
B. I scored 2 standard deviations below the mean.
C. I scored 1 standard deviation above the mean.
D. I scored 2 standard deviations below the mean.
24. How does my dominance score compare with yours?
A. I am 2 SD higher than you. C. I am 20 SD higher than you.
B. I am 10 SD higher than you. D. I am 1 SD higher than you.
25. This assessment term conveys the idea that assessments should engage the students in applying knowledge
and skill in the same way that they are used in the ‘real-world’ outside the school.
A. Alternative assessment C. Performance assessment
B. Authentic assessment D. Traditional assessment
For questions 26 – 31: here are two scoring rubrics. Study them and answer the following questions:
Rubrics A
Criteria 1 2 3
Number of sources X1 1–4 5–9 10 – 12
Historical accuracy X3 Lots of historical inaccuracies Few inaccuracies No apparent inaccuracies
Organization X1 Cannot tell from which Can tell with difficulty where
source of information come information come from
Bibliography X1 Contains very little Contains most relevant All relevant information is

information information included
Rubrics B
Criteria Poor (1) Good (2) Excellent (3)
Number of sources X1
Historical accuracy X3
Organization X1
Bibliography X1
26. For which are these scoring rubrics

A. Research portion of a project C. An essay in English class
B. A project in history class D. Theme written in composition
27. How are Rubrics A and B classified?
A. Holistic B. Analytic C. Values D. Skills
28. Against how many criteria is the competency assessed?
A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 3
29. Are the criteria for research given equal weight?
A. Yes C. No, historical accuracy is given most weight
B. No, organization is given most weight D. yes, for two criteria
30. Among the criteria for good research, which one is of greatest importance?
A. Number of sources C. Historical accuracy
B. Organization D. Bibliography
31. What are in Rubric A that is NOT in Rubric B?
A. specific descriptors C. levels of performance
B. criteria D. weights
32. This assessment term refers to a variety of tasks and situations in which students are given opportunities to
demonstrate their understanding and to thoughtfully apply knowledge, skills, and habits of mind in a variety of
context.
A. Alternative assessment C. performance assessment
B. Authentic assessment D. traditional assessment
33. This assessment term applies to any and all assessments that differ from usual tie, one-shot approaches that
characterize most standardized and classroom assessments.
34. This assessment term includes classroom and standardized tests.
35. All of the following always characterize performance assessments EXCEPT:
A. Performance assessments involve students working with others.

B. Performance assessments result in a tangible product or an observable performance.
C. Performance assessments encourage self-evaluation and revision and require judgment to score.
D. Performance assessments reveal degrees of proficiency based on established criteria.
36. Arrange the following tests according to their history of development and introduction.
I. Aptitude and achievement tests III.Interest tests
II. Intelligence tests IV. Personality tests
A. I, II, III, IV B. II, I, IV, III C. I, II, IV, III D. II, IV, III, I
37. Which among the assessment type – example pairs is MISMATCHED?
A. Rorschach inkblot test – personality assessment
B. Wechsler Intelligence Scale for children– Intelligence test
C. Strong vocational interest bank – aptitude test
D. Primary mental ability test – achievement
For questions 38 – 41, complete the analogy.
38. Traditional assessment: selecting a response; authentic assessment: _________.
A. Performing a task B. Matching the answer C. Filling in the blanks D. Identifying the answer
39. Authentic response: real-life; traditional assessment: ________.
A. real task B. simulated activity C. contrived D. role-playing
40. Traditional assessment: recall; authentic assessment: ______.
A. comprehension B. laboratory reports C. recognition D. generalization
41. Traditional assessment: indirect evidence; authentic assessment:_____
A. circumstantial evidence B. conclusion C. direct evidence D. generalization
42. In process-oriented performance-based assessment, the teacher is interested in assessing which of these
students’ output?
A. laboratory skills B. laboratory reports C. art works D. functional models
43. All of the following are skills under the receiving level of the affective domain EXCEPT:
A. listens to instructions C. claps hands to show appreciation
B. reads directions D. watches power-point presentations
44. Consider two examples of affective tasks:
I. The learner would read a book passage about civil rights.
II. The learner would answer questions about the book, read another book by the same author, another
book about civil rights, etc.
A. Both statements are in the receiving level.
B. Both statements are in the responding level.
C. It is in the receiving level while II is in the responding level.
D. II is in the receiving level while I is in the responding level.
45. When an individual is committed to act consistently in accordance to the values he / she has internalized, he
/she is in what affective level?
A. valuing B. organizing values C. synthesizing D. characterizing
values
46. Standardized tests which are given by authorities such as the National Achievement Test (NAT) and the
National Career Assessment Examination (NCAE) are forms of
A. Traditional assessment C. Authentic assessment
B. Alternative assessment D. Nontraditional assessment
47. All of the following are subjective information about someone of something EXCEPT
A. Test scores and rating B. Report of others C. interview data D. descriptive data
48. When we make ____, we assign numbers or quantity, the meaningful information that was gathered during
_____.
A. Measurements; assessments C. measurement; testing
B. Evaluations; assessments D. assessments; testing
49. Which of the following correctly describes standardized test? They are forms of ____ assessment.
A. Traditional B. Performance C. Informational D. Nontraditional
50. How can one say that an assessment instrument is balanced?
A. The test items and the objectives of the lesson match.
B. Its administration and scoring entail the least cost to the school.
C. It involves the proper distribution of simple recall and higher thinking processes.
D. It can properly distinguish between high performers and low performers.
51. Authentic assessment is said to be more student-structured than teacher-structured. What does this mean?
Authentic assessment _____
A. allows more student choices in determining what is presented as evidence of proficiency.
B. is limited to the presentation of evidence of learning to that which is acceptable to the teacher.
C. limits presentation of evidence of learning to that which is acceptable to the teacher.
D. allows students to choose the topics to learn over which to show proof of learning.
52. Why are traditional assessments said to be more teacher-structured than student-structured?
A. What students will show as proof of learning is dependent on what teacher asks.
B. Students can show evidence of learning much more than what teacher asks.
C. In traditional assessment, teachers limit tests to low-level test items.
D. Traditional assessment is not as challenging as authentic assessment.
53. Are authentic assessments more student-structured than teacher-structured?
A. No, it is more teacher-structured.
B. It depends on the orientation of the teacher giving the traditional assessment.
C. Yes, it is more student-structured.
D. It depends on the type of authentic assessment given.
54. Is traditional assessment more student-structured than teacher-structured?
A. No, it is more teacher-structured.
B. It depends on the orientation of the teacher giving the traditional assessment.
C. Yes, it is more student-structured.
D. It can be determined by the ability of the students taking the test.
55. What does “teaching the test” mean?
A. Teachers teach by focusing primarily on those that will be tested.
B. Teachers teach in such a way that students perform well on meaningful tasks.
C. Teachers use test to teach.
D. Teachers begin and end instruction with a test.
56. Which one shows that authentic assessment encourages integration of teaching, learning and assessing?
A. Students are asked to give back information they were taught.
B. Students are asked to apply what they were taught.

C. Students learn when they solve real-world problem, assess their own solutions to the problem with a
teacher facilitating.
D. Teacher presents a world problem in Math, gives formula to solve the problem and asks students to
check their answers.
57. Assessments should be multiple and varied. What does this mean?
I. Sufficient number of samples of student performance must be obtained.
II. Use different tools to determine student’s application of learning
III. Cater to the multiple intelligences
A. I and II B. II and III C. I and III D. I, II and III
58. Which illustrate/s multiple and varied assessment? Using observation-based assessment tool and ______.
I. Observe not only one but all the students
II. Observe as frequently and as regularly as possible
III. Stick only to one observation tool
IV. Observe both routine and exceptional occurrences.
A. I and IV B. I, II, III C. I and II D. I, II, and IV
59. The following are characteristics of authentic assessment EXCEPT:
A. Criterion-referenced C. Requires students to use a range of HOTS
B. Emphasizes performance D. Norm-referenced
60. The following are characteristics of authentic assessment, EXCEPT:
A. Encourages both teacher and students to determine their rate of progress
B. Encourages rote learning
C. Discourages passive learning
D. Emphasizes student’s performance in real-world situations
Use the following KEY to identify/match with the items from 61 to 63
I. Placement assessment III. Diagnostic assessment
II. Formative assessment IV. Summative assessment
61. On which learning tasks are the students progressing satisfactorily? On which ones do they need help?
A. I B. II C. III D. IV
62. To what extent have the students already achieved the intended learning outcomes of the planned instruction?
63. Which students have mastered the learning tasks to such degree that they should proceed to the next course or
unit of instruction?
64. What is the purpose of placement assessment?
A. Determine entry performance C. Study persistent difficulties
B. Monitor learning strategies D. Determine terminal performance
65. During what type of assessment does the teacher have in mind both readiness and placement concerns?
A. Placement assessment C. diagnostic assessment
B. Formative assessment D. summative assessment
66. Which are examples of authentic assessment activities?
I. Writing report III. Doing science experiment
II. Defending a thesis IV. Answering a multi-matching test
A. IV B. I, II and IV C. I and IV D. I, II and III

67. Which are TRUE about a portfolio? By means of a portfolio,
A. the teacher can assess the growth and development of the students at various levels.
B. students can display any work they want to display.
C. parents have a concrete picture of their children’s progress in school.
D. instructional supervisors have a concrete basis in evaluating their academic program.
68. Teacher Chucky Doll wants to determine whether or not a student is able to focus the microscope according to
set standards. Which assessment tool will she use?
A. Performance checklist C. Oral questioning
B. Self-report D. Observation report
69. Teacher Nasaudee wants to determine a student’s ability to communicate ideas in coherent verbal sentences.
Which performance assessment tool is most fit?
A. oral questioning B. observation C. self-report D. behavior checklist
70. Teacher Nora makes use of binary test. Which does she make use of?
I. True-False III. Right-Wrong
II. Fact-Opinion IV. Yes-No
A. I and II B. I and III C. II and III D. I, II, III and IV
71. Read this item then answer the question:
Criterion-referenced …
a. refers to how a test is constructed c. refers to how a test is scored
b. refers to how a test is interpreted d. refers to how a passing score is established
What is wrong with the test item?
A. very easy B. repeated options C. no answer D. poor grammar
72. Read the test item and then answer the question:
Internal consistency is high…
a. when students who scored high on the first half of the test score high on the second half of the test.
b. when students who scored high on the first half of the test score low on the second half of the test.
c. when students who scored high on the first half of the test score in an unpredictable manner on the
second half of the test.
d. when all of the above are true.
What is faulty with the test item?
I. It uses “all of the above”
II. Not all options are grammatically correct when connected to the stem.
III. The options are repetitive.
A. I and II B. II and III C. I only D. I and III
73. Read the test item and then answer the question:
If the internal consistency of a test is good, how will a group of students score on the second half of the test if
they got the highest scores on the first half of the test?
a. highest scores c. unpredictable scores
b. lowest scores d. cannot be determined
Is this an improved version of the test item given in #53?
A. No, the number of options is reduced to 3 C. all options are impossible
B. Yes, the options are not repetitive D. Yes, there is window dressing.
74. Read this item and then answer the question:

Various item formats have specific advantages and limitations. An advantage of the essay format over the
multiple choice format is . . .?
a. The essay item can access more skills in a given amount of time.
b. The essay item can assess students’ ability to evaluate ideas.
c. The essay item can be reliably scored.
d. The essay item requires students to communicate ideas in writing.
What is TRUE of the test item?
A. It is poorly written because it has window dressing
B. It is well-written
C. It has two possible answers
D. The options end with a period.
75. These assessments are designed to capture a complex range of outcomes (including cognitive, psychomotor,
affective ends) for long periods of time.
A. Paper-and-pencil tests and standardized tests C. Performance assessments and portfolios
B. Traditional tests and attitude surveys D. Portfolios and attitude surveys
76. How is portfolio different from a scrapbook?
A. A portfolio contains reflections C. A scrapbook contains pictures
B. A portfolio contains pictures D. A portfolio contains a visual appeal.
77. When we indicate levels of performance in our rubric, we

A. have inconsistent assessments C. have clearer expectations
B. have more subjective assessments D. give a more general feedback
78. An analytic rubric is best used
A. for a quick snap shot of overall status or achievement
B. when speed or scoring is more important than having a profile of strengths and weaknesses
C. when the skill or product to be assessed is simple
D. in teaching students the nature of a quality product or performance.
79. All of the following are questions that call for self-assessment (questions that invite insights and not vague
answers) EXCEPT:
A. What is fun to do in school? C. Are you a good learner?
B. Do you like math? D. What subject do you like the most? Why?
80. Read the test item then answer the question:
Which of the following has helped most to increase the length of human life?
a.fast driving c. avoidance of overeating
b.wider use of vitamins d. wider use of inoculation
What is faulty with the test item?
A. Implausible distracter C. options not parallel
B. no stem D. options grammatically inconsistent with the stem
81. Read the test item then answer the question:
In purifying water for a city water supply, one process is to have the impure water seep through layers of sand
and fine and course gravel. Here many impurities are left behind. Below are four terms, one of which will
describe this process better than the others. Select the correct one.
a. sedimentation B. filtration c. chlorination D. aeration
What is a flaw of the test item?
A. Stem includes an “instructional aside.” C. There is no correct answer.
B. The test item is very long. D. There are two possible answers.
82. Read the test item then answer the questions:
Which event is most important in the Philippine history?
a. The capture of Aguinaldo C. EDSA I revolution
b. The execution of Jose Rizal D. Proclamation of Philippine Independence
What is the flaw of the test item?
A. opinionated B. no single answer C. insignificant D. irrelevant
83. Read the test item then answer the question
The population of Denmark is about
a.2 million b. 15 million c. 4 million d. 7 million
What is the flaw of the test item?
A. options not sequenced C. irrelevant
B. insignificant D. limited options
84. In which levels of Bloom’s cognitive taxonomy of objectives are questions that begin with “restate in your own
words…” and “convert fractions into . . .” fall?
A. analysis B. comprehension C. recall D. application
85. Which question fall under recall in Bloom’s taxonomy?
I. Who invented the …? III. Where is the . . .?
II. What is meant by. . .? IV. restate in your own words?
A. I and II B. II and IV C. I and III D. I, II and III
86. Questions that begin with “How is . . . An example of . . .?” and “How is . . . related to?” in Bloom’s taxonomy,
are questions on_____?
A. analysis B. synthesis C. comprehension D. application
87. Questions such as:

What would you infer from . . .?
What ideas can you add to . . .?
How would you create a . . .?
Are examples of _____ in Bloom’s and Anderson’s taxonomy of objectives.
A. Creating B. Analyzing C. Applying D. Understanding
88. In presenting words and their definitions in a matching type of test, which practice is CORRECT?
A. Column 2 should contain the definitions, which are longer than the words.
B. The items which are arranged in chronological order would be found on both columns.
C. The premise is found in column 1.
D. All items in both columns are numbered.
89. Which type of paper-and-pencil test is most appropriate for this lesson objective: “the students will be able to
identify the elements with their symbols from the periodic table.”
A. binary test B. short answer C. completion D. matching type
90. Which of the following DOES NOT belong to the category of conceptual knowledge?
A. Knowledge of terminologies C. knowledge of principles and generalizations
B. Knowledge of classifications and categories D. knowledge of theories, models, and structures
91. Consider the following table comparing norm-referenced and criterion-referenced testing:
Bases of Comparison Norm-Referenced Testing Criterion-Referenced Testing
I. Principal Use Survey testing Mastery testing
II. Major elements Measures individual differences in Describes tasks students can
achievement perform
III. Interpretation of results Compares performance to a clearly Compares performance to that of
specified achievement domain other individuals
In which bases, IF ANY, are the two concepts ERRONEOUSLY compared:

A. I B. II C. III D. none actually
92. Which among the descriptions of validity is INCORRECT?
A. Validity is inferred, not measured, from available evidence.
B. Validity is expressed by degree – high, moderate, low
C. Validity refers to the instrument used, not the inferences drawn
D. Validity is specific to a particular use
93. For all her major classroom assessments, a history teacher asks her social studies department head to review
the draft of assessment instruments to make sure that they’re covering the right knowledge and skills. Although
most of the time the department head approves the proposed test as is, on a few occasions he had identified
content-coverage gaps. What kind of evidence is the teacher assembling?
A. Content-related evidence of validity C. Criterion-related evidence of validity
B. Construct-related evidence of validity D. Face-related evidence of validity
94. Out of 3 distracters in a multiple-choice test item, namely X, Y, and Z no pupil chose Z as an answer. This
implies that Z is ____.
A. an effective distractor B. a plausible distracter C. a vague distracter D. an ineffective distracter
95. Writing an original essay is an example of which level of objective in the cognitive domain?
A. evaluation B. synthesis C. analysis D. application
96. Which term refers to the collection of student’s products and accomplishments for a period for evaluation
purposes?
A. anecdotal record B. observation report C. diary D. portfolio
97. About what percent of the cases falls between +2 and -1 in a normal curve?
A. 99.84% B. 95.4% C. 43.1 % D. 68.2%
98. What does a skewed score distribution mean?
A. The sores are concentrated more at one end or the other end.
B. The mode, the mean, and the median are equal
C. The mean and the median are equal.
D. The scores are normally distributed.
99. Which is implied by a negatively skewed score distribution?

A. The scores are evenly distributed from the left to the right
B. Most pupils are underachievers
C. Most of the scores are high
D. Most of the scores are low.
100. Which of these criteria is the most important in test construction?
A. The stem should contain the central problem.
B. Items should be congruent with the objectives.
C. A table of specification should be prepared.
D. Options should be of almost the same length.
Acknowledgement is given to Dr. Jonathan P. Pasion for the Review Materials.

Faculty members teaching the subject will provide the answer key.
(Formatting and editing were done by the current faculty in-charge).
JANE D. NAVALTA
Professor In-Charge

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MARCOS, REGIE MAMAUAG - LPT 2021

Republic of the Philippines

College of Teacher Education

Review Course 2 (Review on Professional Education Courses)

Professional Education Examination 6

Review Course 2 Page 1

8. Which conclusion can be derived from k to 12 assessment practice?

Review Course 2 Page 2

Number of sources X1 1–4 5–9 10 – 12

Historical accuracy X3 Lots of historical inaccuracies Few inaccuracies No apparent inaccuracies

Review Course 2 Page 3

Criteria Poor (1) Good (2) Excellent (3)

26. For which are these scoring rubrics

Review Course 2 Page 4

Review Course 2 Page 6

Review Course 2 Page 7

Review Course 2 Page 8

77. When we indicate levels of performance in our rubric, we

87. Questions such as:

In which bases, IF ANY, are the two concepts ERRONEOUSLY compared:

99. Which is implied by a negatively skewed score distribution?

Acknowledgement is given to Dr. Jonathan P. Pasion for the Review Materials.

Review Course 2 Page 12

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