GT REVIEWER

GT 1
(ICS, MASS MEDIA RELATIONS, PROTOCOL & SOCIAL AMENITIES,
RESEARCH METHOD)

1. Over-all Leadership of an incident management

a. Responsible Official
b. Incident Commander
c. Operation Section Chief
d. Planning Section Chief

2. Responsible in maintaining incident costs

a. Operations Section Chief
b. Planning Section Chief
c. Logistics Section Chief
d. Finance and Admin Section Chief

3. This is an incident management option where a certain group is assigned

multiple IMTs managing multiple incidents
a. Incident Complex
b. Single Incident Divided
c. Single Command
d. Unified Command
e. Area Command

4. Responsible in maintaining the Base

a. Operations Section Chief
b. Planning Section Chief
c. Logistics Section Chief
d. Finance and Admin Section Chief

5. Who is the Bureau of Fire Protection’s Spokeperson

a. F/SUPT ANALEE C ATIENZA
b. F/SUPT ANNALEE CARBAJAL-ATIENZA
c. F/SUPT ANNA LEE C ATIENZA
d. F/SUPT ANA LE CARBAJAL-ATIENZA

6. We celebrate Fire Service Recognition Day every ___of December

a. 11th
b. 12th
c. 13th
d. 14th

7. Responsible for Coordinating to the Media

a. Public information Officer
b. Safety Officer
c. Liason Officer
d. Finance and Administrative Section Chief

8. Minimum to Maximum span of control

a. 3 to 6
b. 5 to 10

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 c. 3 to 8
d. 3 to 7
9. Ranks do not apply in ICS.
a. True
b. False
c. Partially False
d. Partially True

10. The chair of the NDRRMC

a. DILG
b. DND
c. DSWD
d. OCD

11. Which of the following do not belong in the procedures in releasing information to
media
a. Intelligence Information
b. Non-investigative information
c. Investigative information
d. None of the above

12. It is official Statement issued by the BFP to the media. May be purely factual and
address a specific issue or concern, or may be promotional in nature.
a. Press release
b. Press freedom
c. Press conference
d. Press the button

13. Written press statement shall be approved first by the ______________before it

can be disseminated to the media
a. Unit Head/Chief
b. Designee
c. HEA
d. All of the above

14. A media representative wishing to cover / gather news information about the BFP
shall have to
a. Submit to the PIO a certificate of endorsement from his editor / station
manager
b. In the case of foreign media, an accreditation from the International Press
Center
must be presented to the PIO, while freelancers must submit their letter of
intent
c. Fill up the media personnel information form to the provided by the PIO
d. None of the above

15. Media representatives shall be denied access to the contents of investigative or

incident reports and records where release of the information would

a. Interfere with law enforcement proceedings, including pending investigations

b. Constitute an unwarranted invasion of the personal privacy rights of another
person
c. Disclose investigative techniques and procedures, thereby impairing future
effectiveness of the department

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 d. None of the above

16. Public information shall be released to the media as promptly as circumstances

allow, objectively and without partiality
a. True
b. False
c. Partially true
d. Partially False

17. The officially designated authority who acts as the mouthpiece of the BFP and
usually speaks in behalf of the Chief, BFP.
a. Spokesperson
b. PIO
c. Deputy PIO
d. HEA

18. Who is the Bureau of Fire Protection’s Spokeperson

a. F/SUPT ANALEE C ATIENZA
b. F/SUPT ANNALEE CARBAJAL-ATIENZA
c. F/SUPT ANNA LEE C ATIENZA
d. F/SUPT ANA LE CARBAJAL-ATIENZA

19. The Bureau of Fire Protection created its own BFP Media Relations Policy
a. MC No. 2007-009 dated 25 September 2007
b. MC No. 2009-009 dated 25 September 2009
c. MC 511 dated 25 September 2007
d. None of the above
20. The BFP Media Relation Policy is consistent with the policy of rational
transparency in all fire related activities, and of upholding the right of the people
to be informed on matters of
a. Public interest
b. Fire walls
c. Fire calls
d. Fire fighting

21. The following are examples of customs on courtesy performed by the , except
a. Exit Call
b. Entrance Call
c. Christmas Call
d. New year’s Call

22. The highest in precedence of officials in the Philippines is the?

a. President
b. Senator
c. DILG Secretary
d. Fire Chief of the Bureau of Fire Protection

23. What is the meaning of the word RHIP?

a. Rank has its own position
b. Rank has its own power
c. Rank has its own privilege
d. Rank has its own priority

24. The third in rank in the Bureau of Fire Protection is the?

a. DCA

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 b. DCO
c. CDS
d. Fire Director
25. The second in rank in the Bureau of Fire Protection is the?
a. DCA
b. DCO
c. CDS
d. Fire Director

26. We Celebrate the anniversary of BFP every ___of August.

a. 1st
b. 2nd
c. 3rd
d. 4th

27. The following are examples of customs on ceremonies , except;

a. Wedding ceremony
b. Birth ceremony
c. Fire Service Recognition Day
d. Honor Ceremony

28. The following are examples of Required Activities performed by the BFP
EXCEPT
a. Scheduled Ceremonies
b. Physical Fitness
c. Training
d. Performing Zumba

29. We celebrate Fire Service Recognition Day every ___of December

a. 11th
b. 12th
c. 13th
d. 14th

30. What is the highest kind of respect to a uniformed personnel

a. Salute
b. Greetings
c. Hug
d. Handshake

31. This is used whether structured, unstructured , semi-structured in depth sessions

with the researcher and a participant.
a. Interviews
b. Focus group
c. Observations
d. Document analysis

32. It is the systematic inquiry to describe explain and predict and control observe
phenomenon
a. Research
b. Research Design
c. Research Method
d. Research descriptive

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33. Quantitative analysis uses numbers and statistics to understand frequencies ,
averages and ___
a. Correlations
b. Experiments
c. Observations
d. Triangulation
34. It provides a holistics approach combining and analyzing the statistical data with
deeper contextualized insights.
a. Qualitative research
b. Quantitative research
c. Mixed method research
d. Triangulation research

35. Ask the same questions to large numbers of participants or use Likert Scale
measure opinions as numeral data.
a. Document screening
b. Experiments
c. Observation
d. Survey or questionnaire

36. The validity of the research will depend on your _____________.

a. Data collected
b. Interview
c. Sampling method
d. Questionnaire

37. Research is conducted with a purpose to

a. Inform
b. Search
c. Understand
d. Work

38. It gathers data about lived experience, emotions or behavior, and the meanings
individuals attach to them
a. Qualitative research
b. Quantitative research
c. Qualitative search
d. Quantitative search

39. It gathers numerical data which can be ranked, measured or categorized through
statistical analysis.
a. Qualitative Research
b. Quantitative Research
c. Mixed method research
d. Triangulation research

40. Ask the same questions to large numbers of participants or use Likert Scale
measure opinions as numeral data.
a. Document screening
b. Experiments
c. Observation
d. Survey or questionnaire

5
 GT 2
(ECOLOGY & DISASTER MANAGEMENT)

1. This law classifies the cutting, gathering, and/or collecting of timber and other
forest products without a permit from DENR as qualified thief is.
a. PD 705
b. RA 507
c. PD 750
d. RA 507
e. RA 705

2. This ecosystem exists in lakes and ponds

a. wetlands
b. lotic
c. lentic
d. terrestial
e. marine

3. The person authorized to make apprehension of forest products is/are:

a. Forest Officers
b. Deputies
c. Police Officers
d. Private Person
e. All of the given

4. It is an act that regulates the use of Chainsaw

a. RA 9175
b. RA 9275
c. RA 9715
d. RA 9725
e. RA 9517

5. These plants grow in brackish or salty water

a. Xerophytes
b. Hydrophytes
c. Halophytes
d. Mesophytes
e. Epiphytes

6. It is the Ecological Solid Waste Management Act of 2000

a. RA 9003
b. RA 6969
c. RA 8749
d. RA 9275
e. RA 1586
7. What do you call the interaction of the community and the non-living
environment?
a. Environment
b. Community
c. Ecology
d. Ecosystem
e. Population

6
8. This law aims to protect the country’s water bodies from land-based pollution
sources.
a. RA 9275
b. RA 8749
c. RA 6969
d. RA 9727
e. RA 1586

9. It is usually considered as the shortest day.

a. June 21
b. December 21
c. March 21
d. September 21
e. July 21

10. The undesirable change in the physical, chemical and biological conditions of the
environment
a. Acid rain
b. Global warming
c. El Niño
d. Maturity
e. Pollution

11. This compound is produced from animal manures.

a. Carbon monoxide
b. Nitrous oxide
c. Methane
d. CFC
e. Carbon dioxide

12. An act providing for Comprehensive Air Quality management policy and program
which aims to achieve and maintain healthy air for all Filipinos.
a. RA 6969
b. RA 9727
c. RA 9275
d. RA 8749
e. RA 1586
f.
13. Under the 1987 Constitution, lands of the public domain are classified into the
following except:
a. timberland
b. Residential
c. National park
d. Agricultural
e. Mineral

14. A branch of Ecology that deals with the interrelations of two or more organisms
and their environment
a. Genocology
b. Ecosystems analysis
c. Paleoecology
d. Synecology
e. Autoecology

15. It is the very deep area of the ocean.

7
 a. Hadal
b. Intertidal
c. Neritic
d. Bathyal
e. Canyons

16. It is an Act that prohibits the cutting of mangrove trees –

a. RA 6170
b. RA 7061
c. RA 7161
d. RA 7160
e. RA 6171

17. In a soil composition, how many percent that comprises solid soil or mineral?
a. 35%
b. 5%
c. 25%
d. 45%
e. 40%

18. It provides nursery grounds for fish, prawns and crabs and support fisheries
production in coastal waters:
a. Fishpond
b. Mangrove
c. Corrals
d. Seaweeds
e. Seagrass

19. These organisms are active during day time

a. Crepuscular
b. Nocturnal
c. Diurnal
d. Owl
e. Fauna

20. No cutting permit is needed of plantation species except the following-

a. Gmelina
b. Mahogany
c. Molave
d. Bagras
e. Mangium

21. These organisms are generally active at dawn time.

a. Crepuscular
b. Nocturnal
c. Diurnal
d. Owl
e. Fauna

22. This law aims to systematically integrate the concept of climate change in the policy
formulation and development plans of all government agencies and units, to the end that
the government will be prepared for the impact of climate change.
a. RA 9147
b. RA 9175

8
 c. RA 9729
d. RA 8749
e. RA 4791
23. It is any change in climate over time whether due to natural variability or as a
result of human activity.
a. climate change
b. global warning
c. carbon monoxided
d. CFC
e. Carbon dioxide

24. This greenhouse gas comprises about 36-73% in the atmosphere.

a. Methane
b. Carbon monoxide
c. Water vapor
d. CFC
e. Carbon dioxide

25. The main contributors to climate change that accumulate in the atmosphere.
a. Pollution
b. Greenhouse gases
c. Sunlight
d. Carbon dioxide
e. Acid rain

26. What is the law that transfer responsibilities, more powers of authority , and
resources to the LGU’s as well as providing 5% calamity fund from the national
Government to the LGUs’ in terms of disaster management?
a. RA 10121
b. RA 9514
c. RA 56
d. RA 7160 the Local Government Act of 1991

27. What executive order issued by Mayor President Rodrigo Roa Duterte putting the
BFP as the Lead Agency in Conducting fire suppression operations and
providing the public with Emergency Medical Services, hazardous Materials
(HAZMAT) and technical search and rescue services?
a. EO 7160 the Local Government Act of 1991
b. EO 9514
c. EO 10121
d. EO 56

28. What law defines as the new fire code of the Philippines?
a. RA 9514
b. RA 7160 the Local Government Act of 1991
c. RA 56
d. RA 10121

29. A sudden event such as an Accident or a Natural Catastrophe, that causes great
damage or loss of Life.
a. Vulnerability
b. Disaster
c. Pandemic
d. Hazard

9
30. All are Natural Disasters the have taken place around the world in 2020,
EXCEPT.
a. Black Plague
b. COVID-19
c. Earthquake
d. Bush Fire
31. Any substance, phenomenon or event that has potential to cause disruption or
damage to communities. Or any potential threat to the public safety and/or public
health?

a. Vulnerability
b. Pandemic
c. Disaster
d. Hazard

32. All BUT one are Man-made/human induced and Natural hazards that affects the
world.

a. Structural
b. Fire
c. Explosive Devices
d. Volcano

33. Factors the increase the risk from arising from a specific Hazard in a Specific
Community?

a. Hazard
b. Disaster
c. Vulnerability
d. Pandemic

34. Anticipated consequences of specific Hazard Interacting with specific community

at a specific time?

a. Risks
b. Hazard
c. Vulnerability
d. Disaster

35. What law that strengthens the Philippine Disaster risk reduction and
management system, provides the national risk and reduction management
framework and institutionalizing the National Disaster Risk Reduction and
Manangement Plan, appropriating funds and for other purposes?

a. RA 7160 the Local Government Act of 1991

b. RA 10121
c. RA 56
d. RA 9514

10
GT 3
(HRM, LEADDERSHIP, RA 10121)

1. The State shall ensure and promote the Constitutional mandate that
appointments in the Civil Service shall be made only according _____________.
a. competencies
b. rewards and accomplishments
c. merit and fitness
d. qualification standards

2. Which is true regarding the rule on appointment?

a. The appointment shall take effect immediately the date it was signed by
the appointing Officer/authority
b. All of the above
c. The date shall not fall on Saturday, Sunday or Holiday, except in cases
where the date of issuance is specifically provided in a special law
d. In no case shall an appointment take effect earlier than the date it was
signed except in case authorized by law
3. An appointment shall be submitted to the Commission with___________calendar
days From the date of issuance.
a. Sixty (60)
b. Ten (10)
c. Thirty (30)
d. Fifteen (15)

4. Any action denoting the movement or progress of human resource in the civil
service is called
a. Human resource action
b. Placement
c. Promotion
d. Reassignment

5. The duration of probationary period is generally_______months or depending on

the duration of the probationary period as required by the position
a. Sixty (60)
b. Thirty (30)
c. Twelve (12)
d. One (1)

6. Nepotism is defined as an appointment issued in favor of a relative within the

third civil degree of consanguinity or affinity or any of the following :
a. Chief of the Bureau or Office
b. all of the above
c. appointing authority
d. recommending authority

7. An employee who resigned from the government service during the

_______month period before any election to promote the candidacy of another
shall not be reemployed during the six-month period following such election.
a. Three (3)
b. One (1)
c. Twelve (12)
d. Six (6)

11
8. No detail or reassignment shall be made within _______months before any
election unless with the permission of the COMELEC.
a. Six (6)
b. Twelve (12)
c. Three (3)
d. One (1)

9. The issuance of an appointment as a result of reorganization, devolution, salary

standardization, re-nationalization, recategorization, rationalization or similar
events.
a. Secondment
b. Reappointment
c. Reemployment
d. Reinstatement

10. The restoration of a person, as a result of a decision, to a career position from

which he/she has, through no delinquency or misconduct, been separated but
subject position is already abolished, requiring the issuance of an appointment.
a. Reinstatement
b. Secondment
c. Reappointment
d. Reemployment

11. The position that “ great leaders are born and not made” is the emphasis of
___________theory
a. Carlyle and Galton Trait Theory
b. Fiedler’s Contingency Model
c. Blake-Mouton’s Managerial Grid
d. McGregor’s XY Theory

12. One of the following is not a description of leadership:

a. Involves leading a group of people
b. Always includes responsibility for people
c. Always includes responsibility for managing
d. Concerned with responsibility for things, e.g., budget, IT, advertising,
equipment, etc.
13. Blake-Mouton’s Managerial Grid declares Team Management as the best
management
Style because;
a. It creates an environment of performance competition
b. Here is authority compliance
c. Production needs and the needs of the people are equally attended to
d. The concern for production is very high

14. McGregor’s XY Theory suggests that there are two fundamental approaches to
managing people. Many managers tend towards Theory X, and generally get
________results.
a. Fairly satisfactory
b. Poor
c. Very satisfactory
d. Satisfactory

15. In relation to question number 4, the same Theory explains managers who used
Theory Y produced _________results.

12
 a. Better
b. Moderately good
c. Very satisfactory
d. Outstanding

16. Kurt Lewin’s Three Styles Model are:

a. Authoritarian-Persuasive-Directive
b. Authoritarian-Provocative-Directive
c. Authoritarian-Participative-Delegative
d. Authoritarian-Supportive-Directive

17. The three main action areas of John Adair’s Action Centered Leadership Model
are:
a. Task, Team, Individual
b. Structural, Human Resource, Political
c. Task, Political, Individual
d. Task, Team, Environment

18. “Challenge the process” is one of Kouzes and Posner’s Five Leadership
Practices Model with their corresponding key behaviors, which key behavior
below refer to it:

a. Envision an uplifting , exciting, meaningful future

b. Set the example
c. Celebrate team accomplishments regularly
d. Search out challenging opportunities to change, grow, innovate and improve

19. Charismatic leadership resembles Transformational leadership. However, they

differ in terms of their___________.
a. Followers
b. In-born talent
c. Intent
d. Training

20. In French and Raven’s Five Forms of Power, the result of a person’s perceived
attractiveness, worthiness, and right to respect from others is known as :

a. Legitimate power
b. Referent power
c. Reward power
d. Coercive power

Scenario:

TALAMAK is an island province situated on the east coast of the Philippines, which is
frequently visited by typhoon, and has a huge coastal area that is prone for tsunamis
and storm surges. It was the rainy season again and PAGASA announced an incoming
super Typhoon named “ZORRO” with maximum sustained wind that is classified as
Category 5 Zorro was forecasted to hit the province of TALAMAK in the next couple of
days, as it is continuously head towards the eastern side of the country.

21. The Government officials of province of Talamak deliberately use false and inflated
data in support of their request for funding and other assistance and found out to be

13
misrepresenting the source of relief goods, equipment and other aid commodies given
by NGO’s. With such a crime committed by Talamak’s officials, they can be sentenced
with the following, EXCEPT;

a. Fine between P500,000 to P1,000,000

b. Imprisonment between six months to one year
c. Perpetually disqualified from public office
d. Both fine and imprisonment
e. Confiscation or forfeiture of the objects and instrumentalities used

22. Due to the aftermath of Typhoon Zorro, the head of Government of the province of
Talamak decided to take REMEDIAL MEASURES upon declaration of State of
Calamity. The following are mandatory course of action, EXCEPT:

a. Imposition of a price ceiling on basic necessities and prime commodities

b. Granting of no-interest loans by government financing institutions to the

most affected population

c. Prevention of overpricing/profiteering and hoarding of prime

commodities,medicines and petroleum products

d. Coordinating with Non-Government Organization like that can provide

additional assistance in helping the for the recovery of victims.

e. Programming/reprogramming of funds for the repair and upgrading of public

infrastructure

23. Zorro took the province of Talamak by surprise due to lack of capacities to lessen
the effects of disasters, The DRRM Act build capacities in disaster preparedness
through the following, EXCEPT:

a. LDRRMO shall conduct public awareness programs and activities to provide

stakeholders with knowledge and skills in preparing for disasters
b. Preparing LGUs for disasters by purchasing life-saving equipment
c. Private sector employees are required to undergo training in emergency
response and preparedness
d. . LDRRM Fund can be utilized for pre-disaster preparedness programs such
as training, stockpiling of food and medicine.
e. Accelerating livelihood recovery through seed banks in the local community

24. Since the DRRM Fund is a huge amount of money and considered a delicate fund,
the proper utilization of the DRRM Fund ensured at the local level through the following,
EXCEPT:

a. The LDRRMO through the LDRRMC and the LDC shall likewise submit the
report on the utilization of the LDRRMF and other dedicated DRRM resources
to the local Commission on Audit (COA).

b. Releases, utilization, accounting and auditing of the LDRRMF shall be in

accordance with the guidelines and procedures by the LDRRMC.

c. Releases, utilization, accounting and auditing of the LDRRMF shall be

monitored by the NDRRMC.

14
 d. The LDRRM Plan shall be the basis for the use and disbursement of the
Local DRRM Fund. This shall be monitored and evaluated by the LDRRMC.
e. The LDRRMO through the LDRRMC and the LDC shall submit the proposed
programming of the LDRRMF to the local Sanggunian.

25. Considering the damages brought by Zorro to the province of Talamak a huge
amount of money can be used by the local government coming from the DRRM Fund.
The following best indicates the guidelines for the DRRM Fund usage, EXCEPT:

a. The LDRRMC may transfer the DRRM Fund to support disaster risk reduction
work of other LDRRMCs which are declared under a state of calamity.

b. Unexpended LDRRMF goes to a trust fund, which will be used solely for
DRRM activities of the LDRRMC within the next five (5) years. Funds, which
are still not fully utilized after five (5) years, shall go back to the general fund
and will be available for other social services to be identified by the local
Sanggunian.

c. The DRRM Fund can be used for DRRM. It can be used to implement the
DRRM Plan. Thirty percent (30%) of the fund shall be set aside as a Quick
Response Fund (QRF) for relief and recovery programs.

d. The Local DRRM Fund shall be sourced from not less than 5% of the
estimated revenue from regular sources.

e. After a state of calamity have been declared the government will then be able
to access and utilize the DRRM Fund.

26. Immediately after the disaster hundreds of families have been left with no houses,
more than a hundred have been identified as dead, and some others are missing. This
might possibly indicate a poor DRRM Plan which is supposed to have the following,
EXCEPT:

a. agency roles, responsibilities and line of authority at all government levels

b. identification of hazards, vulnerabilities and risks to be managed at the
national level
c. vertical and horizontal coordination of DRRM in the pre-disaster and post-
disaster phases.
d. blueprints of proposed structures and buildings to be funded by the Local
government that will serve as a capacity in response to disasters.
e. DRRM approaches and strategies to be applied in managing identified
hazards and risks

27. A couple of days have passed and Typhoon Zorro hit the province of Talamak, what
is the most appropriate course of action is expected from them given the circumstances
above?

a. Seek immediate assistance from international community to ensure that the

government will have enough funds, work force and equipment to deal with the
effects of the typhoon.
b. Conduct appropriate training as mandated by the DRRM Act of 2010 for all
local personnel and community to be able to respond properly to the aftermath of
the typhoon.
c. Revisit the DRRM Plan and seek for some possible revisions before immediate
implementation.

15
 d. The DRRMO should recommend to the head of the local government and
Sanggunian Council the declaration of State of Calamity and take the next
appropriate actions from there.
e. Immediate Community Risk Assessment must be done in order to efficiently
cater to those area and people that needs more prioritization.

28. The following is included in the description of the framework, through which the
DRRM Act provides a responsive and proactive manner of addressing disasters,
EXCEPT:

a. Addresses root causes of disaster risks

b. Top down and centralized disaster management
c. Ensures broad‐based and greater participation from Civil Society
d. Recognizes the important role and strengthens capacities of local communities
e. Prioritizes on community level DRRM focusing on the most vulnerable sectors
(i.e., the poor, the sick, people with disabilities, the elderly, women and children)

29. Which of the following statement best describes the feature of the law being asked
above?

a. It gives focus on disaster response and anticipation

b. It gives highlight to the importance of a reactive approach or way of dealing
with different disaster risk.
c. It transforms the Philippines’ disaster management system from disaster relief
and response towards disaster risk reduction (DRR).
d. It repealed PD 1576 that transforms the Philippines’ disaster management
system from disaster relief and response towards disaster risk reduction (DRR).
e. This puts more emphasis on strengthening international linkages as a capacity
to help the community better absorb stress, maintain basic functions during a
disaster and bounce back better from disasters.

30. What is the law that can help the province of TALAMAK to better deal with hazards
and disasters that might hit their place?
a. RA 10121 - Philippines Disaster Risk Reduction and Mitigation Act of 2010
b. RA 10121 - Philippines Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Act of 2010
c. RA 12101 - Philippines Disaster Risk Reduction and Management Act of 2010
d. RA 12101 - Philippines Disaster Reduction, Ratification and Management Act
of 2010
e. RA 11121 - Philippines Disaster Reduction, Ratification and Management Act
of 2010

16
GT 4 (CONCEPTS AND PRINCIPLES OF TEACHING AND LEARNING)

1. Learning experiences to be perceived meaningful for adult learners to be.

a. Inquiry-based
b. All of the listed option
c. Self-directing
d. Relate to previous experience

2. This is the essential part of human experience and is the most natural activity people
engaged in.
a. Communicating
b. Writing
c. Learning
d. Listening

3. Which of the following statement is TRUE?

a. Effective teaching is grounded on the use of technology in instruction.
b. Effective teaching involves alignment of three major components of
instruction; learning objective, assessment, and instructional activities.
c. Effective teaching requires both the effort of the students and the teacher’s
experiences
d. Effective teaching involves the consideration of experiences and the
environment.

4. The quality of instruction delivered depends on the quality of its teacher and their
teaching. This statements is expressed the same way as.
a. Teaching and learning makes the instruction successful because of effective
teachers
b. Teaching and learning is effective when teachers give utmost effort in
instruction.
c. Teaching and learning is dependent on the learner’s skills and competence of
the teacher
d. Teaching and learning is maximized when learner’s needs are met by the
quality of instruction given.

5. Giving authentic activities, interactive learning , demonstration and collaborative work

are examples of which type of learning?
a. Sense Learning
b. Sight Learning
c. Tactile Learning
d. Sound Learning

6. When planning a lesson, a teacher can best help ensure that learning is effective and
appropriate if s/he uses.
a. Multi-sensory instruction
b. Multi-aptitude instruction
c. Multi-cognitive instruction
d. Multi-dimensional instruction

7. These are real representations of objects used as springboard in teaching

a. Globe
b. Props
c. Gadget

17
 d. Realias

8. Learners learn best when

a. All of the listed option
b. There is maximization of learning potentials in the environment
c. There is variety of expressions to learn from the environment
d. There is a non-threatening and flexible environment

9. Which statement is TRUE?

a. Vicarious experience provides a platform for improving teaching
b. As people interacts with other people new concepts are formed in learning
c. Various situations experienced by people gives confidence in learning
d. As people are exposed to various situations new learning and ideas are
acquired.

10. Provision of several routes to learning is the focus of which approach in teaching?
a. Learner-oriented
b. Environment-oriented
c. Experience-oriented
d. Teacher-oriented

11. Effective teaching involves selection and prioritizing a coverage of a topic to focus
on. Which of the following are the considerations of a teacher in the coverage of these?
a. Ability and experience
b. Motivation and performance
c. Objectives and activities
d. Knowledge and skills

12. Integrating students into activities and getting them working on a task is an
illustration of which approach?
a. Applying explanation approach
b. Information- Processing approach
c. Inquiry-based approach
d. Drill and Practice approach

13. Which of the following describes active learning?

a. Students watch a recorded video and asked to code specific actions.
b. Give students a problem. Ask students to interpret through simulation and
role playing. Execute the task
c. All of the listed option
d. Students write an essay and provide discussion on a certain topic.

14. Which of the following is the BEST example of an adult learning instruction?
a. A science teacher showing the periodic table to nursing students.
b. A Math teacher has his students listen to him unlocking a complex formula.
c. A Language teacher provides students with problem-oriented learning.
d. A Social Science teacher illustrating the concept of BAYANIHAN.

15. When students believe that the work they are doing is interesting and relates to their
own lives. This statement illustrates which type of learning?
a. Cognition Learning
b. Psychomotor Learning
c. Controlled Learning
d. Discovery Learning

18
16. This means the willingness of someone to do something
a. Learning
b. Performance
c. Teaching
d. Motivation

17. A teacher shows the correct procedure for performing complex tasks before
having students perform in return. This techniques is referred as.
a. Humanistic
b. Social Cognition
c. Behavioral
d. Cognitive

18. These are functions of learning EXCEPT

a. To make sense of the reality that surrounds us.
b. To develop the personality and full potential of the individual
c. To make sense of our everyday activities and existence
d. To prepare the individuals to specific roles.

19. Which are the factor(s) that influence the development of learning one’s job?
a. Ability to read a situation one is confronted with.
b. All of the listed option
c. Ability to make diagnosis and assess situations.
d. Knowing how to go about things.

20. These are adult learning principles EXCEPT

a. Preparation to learning
b. Learner’s self-concept
c. Role of learner’s experience
d. The need to know

19
GT 5 (RRACS)

1. Which of the following is NOT a disciplinary action before the CSC?

a. Request for extension of service
b. Invalidation of appointment
c. Sexual harassment action
d. Petition to place under preventive suspension

2. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a. None of the above
b. Resignation does not terminate an administrative case
c. Retirement terminates an administrative case
d. Death terminates an administrative case

3. These are acts which violate the basic norm of decency, morality and decorum
abhorred and condemned by society.
a. Dishonesty
b. Insubordination
c. Gross Neglect of Duties
d. Disgraceful and immoral conduct

4. This is defined as a want of care required by the circumstances.

a. Gross Neglect of Duties
b. Dishonesty
c. Disgraceful and immoral conduct
d. Insubordination

5. Which of the following is an offense involving moral turpitude?

a. Administrative case
b. Failure to pay debts
c. Murder
d. Violation of ordinance

6. Which of the following matters is required for a complaint?

a. Names and addresses of the complainant and respondent
b. Verification
c. Certifcation of non-forum shopping
d. All of the above

7. What DOES NOT take place during a preliminary investigation?

a. Submission of answer
b. Filing of the formal charge
c. Clarificatory hearing
d. Submission of position papers or memoranda.

8. Which of the following is a LIGHT OFFENSE?

a. Serious misconduct
b. Conduct prejudicial to the best interests of the service
c. Willful failure to pay just debts
d. Graft and corruption

9. On what grounds is a preventive suspension NOT APPLICABLE?

a. Dishonesty
b. Conduct Unbecoming of a Public Official

20
 c. Oppression
d. Grave Misconduct
10. What is the duration of a preventive suspension for local government units?
a. 30 days
b. 90 days
c. 60 days
d. 15 days

11. Who has jurisdiction over administrative cases involving employees of the
Bureau of Fire Protection?
a. Civil Service Commission
b. All of the above
c. Department of Interior and Local Government
d. Local Government Unit concerned

12. Which of the following is NOT PUNISHABLE by outright dismissal from the
service?
a. Being notoriously undesirable
b. Failure to pay just debts
c. Simple dishonesty
d. Cheating during the civil service examination

13. This is unlawful behavior or gross negligence by a public officer.

a. Dishonesty
b. Insubordination
c. Gross Neglect of Duties
d. Disgraceful and immoral conduct

14. Which constitutional commission implements the provisions of the 2017 RRACS?
a. Local Government units
b. Commission on Audit
c. Commission on Elections
d. Civil Service Commission

15. Which of the following is a GRAVE OFFENSE?

a. Failure to file SALN
b. Habitual Drunkenness
c. Serious Misconduct
d. Insubordination

16. Which of the following statement is FALSE?

a. The RRACS applies to elective and appointment local officials
b. The RRACS applies to all employees in national government agencies
c. The RRACS does not apply to employees in local government units.
d. None of the above

17. What is the required degree of proof for administrative cases heard under the
2017 RRACS?
a. Substantial evidence
b. Prima facie case
c. Preponderance of evidence
d. Guilt beyond reasonable doubt.

21
18. This is the appointment to office of a relative within the third civil degree of
consanguinity or affinity.
a. Cronyism
b. Communism
c. Nepotism
d. Despotism
19. The concealment or distortion of truth, which shows lack of integrity or a
disposition to defraud, cheat, deceive or betray and an intent to violate the truth.
a. Insubordination
b. Gross Neglect of Duties
c. Disgraceful and immoral conduct
d. Dishonesty

20. Which of the following is TRUE about a formal investigation

a. Hearings may be conducted upon the request of the respondent
b. All of the above
c. If the respondent fails to appear during the formal investigation, a decision
can be issued against him
d. A formal investigation is mandatory

22
GT 6 (RA 9514)

Scenario: A proposed 15 storey building is to be constructed and classified as

Residential type of occupancy where the plans, designs, and specifications were
submitted to the BFP for approval based on the provisional requirement of the Revised
Implementing Rules and Regulations (RIRR) of RA 9514 for the application of the
necessary permits and clearances as pre-requisite for the issuance of local permits.

1. What particular Rule of the RIIR of 9514 which provides that it is the policy of the
State to ensure public safety, promote economic development through the prevention
and suppression of all kinds, of destructive fires, and promote the professionalization of
the fire service as a profession.
a. Rule 4 of the IIR of RA 9514
b.Rule 1of the RIIR of RA 9514
c.Rule 2 of the IIR of RA 9514
d.Rule 3 of the IIR of RA 9514
e. None of the above

2. ___________________, storage, handling and/or use, and transportation of

explosives and/or combustible, flammable liquids and gases, toxic and other hazardous
materials and operations, and their wastes are among of the coverage of the Fire Code
of 2008.
a. Mechanical Refrigeration
b. Ripening
c. Hotworks
d. Manufacturing
e. None of the above

3. What particular notice will be issued by the BFP after an inspection was conducted
during construction wherein the modification made therein on the building plan were not
effected?
a. Written Notice to Stopped Work
b. Check List
c. FSCR
d. Notice of Disapproval (NOD)
4. The building or area thereof of such size, occupancy and arrangement, shall have at
least ________ means of egress remote from each other if the occupant load is more
than One Thousand (1000).
a. Three
b. Two
c. One
d. Four
e. None of the above

5. If the building or portions thereof will be used for the gathering of group of
6 or more persons for purposes of instruction what type of occupancy will it
be?
a. Educational
b. Restaurant
c. Place of Assembly
d. Business
e. None of the above

23
6. What particular documentary requirement will be submitted to the BFP by the building
owner, administrator or occupant in case the building will stored hazardous materials so
as to determine the nature and characteristics of that hazard that maybe present in
accordance with the Global Harmonize System (GHS)?

a. MSDS
b. flammability
c. SDS
d. FSC
e. None of the above

7. The building will be provided with a specialized water pump of a high-pressure

system that will deliver water quickly over a wide area or high pressure stream
concentrated area that aid fire containment.
a. Jockey Pump
b. Fire Pump
c. Vacuum Pump
d. Hydraulic Pump
e. None of the above

8. This class of occupancy includes buildings or structures which cannot be properly

classified in any of the preceding occupancy groups. Such special buildings and
structures shall conform to the fundamental guidelines provided for in Division 2 and to
any specific provisions applicable thereto in Division 19 both of this Chapter.
a. Residential
b. Special Structure
c. Day Care
d. Residential board and care
e. None of the above
9. Cooking equipment shall be protected by automatic kitchen hood fire suppression
system in accordance with NFPA 96, Standard for Ventilation Control and Fire
Protection of Commercial Cooking Operations and NFPA 17A, Standard for Wet
Chemicals Extinguishing System, except in the following:
a. Restaurants and similar establishments with an occupant load of less than
fifty (50) persons
b. Restaurants and similar establishments with an occupant load of more than
fifty (50) persons
c. Restaurants and similar establishments with an occupant load of at least fifty
(50) persons
d. Restaurants and similar establishments with an occupant load of less than
seventy five (75) persons
e. None of the above

10. In Section 13.0.0.4, Actions/Corrections to the violation/s specified in the Notice To

Comply should be complied for the period not exceeding _____________?
a. 3 days
b. 5 days
c. 10 days
d. 15 days
e. None of the above

11. Section 10.2.6.7 of the IRR of RA 9514 states that, “Where a required automatic
sprinkler system is out of service for more than ___________ hours in a ___________
period, the owner shall notify the nearest fire station immediately and a fire watch shall
be assigned until the return of the service.”

24
 a. four, 24-hour
b. four, 36-hour
c. four, 48-hour
d. four, 72-hour

12. The following are fundamental part of a sprinkler system except;

a. Water Supply
b. Jockey Pump
c. Riser
d. Fire Service Connections

13. The active fire protection of the building such as automatic sprinkler system and
standpipe systems shall be inspected, tested, and maintained regularly in accordance
with _____________________ as required by the Fire Code.
a. NFPA 20
b. NFPA 10
c. NFPA 15
d. NFPA 25
e. None of the above

14. Fire Code Construction Tax of 0.10% is based on __________________ the of

buildings or structures to be erected but not to exceed Php 50,000.00pesos;
a. Verified Estimated Value
b. Bill of Materials
c. Labor & Installation
d. Construction Price
e. None of the above

15. Any party aggrieved by the action(s) or findings of the C/MFM may challenge the
same by filing a __________________ to the Office of the Provincial Fire Marshal or
District Fire Marshal, as the case may be, within five (5) days from receipt of a notice or
order.
a. Verified Complaint
b. Verified Protest
c. Petition Protest
d. Appeal
e. None of the above

17. Fire Safety Inspection Fee. Fee charged for the conduct of Fire Safety Inspection
equivalent to ________________ of all fees charged by the Local Government Unit or
Philippine Economic Zone Authority (PEZA), but in no case shall be lower than Five
Hundred Pesos (PhP500.00).

a. One-hundredth of one per centum (0.01%)

b. One-tenth of one per centum (0.10%)
c. One per centum (1%)
d. Fifteen per centum (15%)
e. None of the above

17. In case of willful failure to correct the deficiency or abate the fire hazard, the violator
shall be punished by:
a. Imprisonment of not less than six (6) months not more than six (6) year
b. Fine not more than one hundred thousand pesos (Php 100,000.00)
c. Both fine and imprisonment

25
 d. All of the above
e. None of the above

18. Emergency rooms, operating rooms, intensive care units, delivery rooms and other
similar facilities shall be located on the level of exit discharge. Xxx. Where the said
facilities are located above the floor of exit discharge but in no case shall exceed
_______________.

a. five (5) floors

b. Below Exit Discharge
c. four (4) floors
d. Thee (3) floors
e. None of the above

19. The BFP personnel who conduct site verification and inspection on building under
construction.
a. Fire Safety Engineer
b. Fire Safety Inspector
c. Plan Evaluator
d. PEZA Inspector
e. None of the above

20. Fixed Guideway Transit System. An electrified transportation system, utilizing a

fixed guideway, operating on right-of-way for the mass movement of passengers within
a metropolitan area, and consisting of its fixed guideways, transit vehicles, and other
rolling stock; power systems; buildings; stations; and other stationary and movable
apparatus, equipment, appurtenances, and structures.

a. Fixed Guideway Transit System

b. Light Railway Transit
c. Philippine National Railway
d. Passenger Rail System
e. None of the above

26
GT 7 (SMALL UNIT ADMINISTRATION)

1. Office personnel means, environment and purpose are termed as_______:

a. Human resources
b. Equipage
c. Intangible assets
d. Elements of office management

2. A place of business, clerical or professional activities is the definition of:

a. Classroom
b. Office
c. Assembly area
d. Workstation

3. In decision-making, ________________wordings must be avoided:

a. Accurate
b. Truthful
c. Definitive
d. Absolute

4. In office management, defining the objectives, locating the problems, analyzing the
problems and searching the solutions are among the enumerated _______of scientific
management:
a. Requirements
b. Primary considerations
c. Principles
d. Guidelines

5. The qualifications of office manager are:

a. Education and personal qualities
b. All of the above
c. Leadership and organizing capacity
d. Experience

6. Which of the following is among the expectations of companies or organizations

from supervisors?
a. Stay aware of the big picture
b. Treat new programs and methods with cynicism
c. Promote laissez faire environment
d. Friendly to the employee union

7. That leadership power that comes from holding the position is known as
a. Legitimate power
b. Expert power
c. Coercive power
d. Earned or referent power

8. As a supervisor or manager, your decision must be presented to the following with

the view of selling it to them:
a. All of the above
b. Immediate supervisor
c. Employees directly and indirectly affected
d. Other supervisors that need to be informed

27
9. Taking notes, staying focused, asking questions and identifying the main idea are
steps to improve________ skills:
a. Planning
b. Listening
c. Organizing
d. Decision-making

10. The concept of new information theories and professions include:

a. Knowledge management
b. Strategic information management
c. Content and document management
d. All of the above
11. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a modern office:
a. An important service function
b. Memory and control center
c. Management of information
d. Dispensable unit

12. _______________is one of the best way to deal with the needs of your employees:
a. Show feigned interest
b. Offer phony assistance
c. Observe their work strictly
d. Listen patiently

13. To some organization, mechanization, computerization, legal problems and large

sizes of business are still forthcoming situations which are referred to as:
a. Future budgetary priority
b. Future plan
c. Future challenges
d. Alarming situation

14. The following are examples of effective behaviors, except:

a. Patience
b. Emphathy
c. Sense of humor
d. Sensitivity

15. The orderly organization of an office aimed at achieving the best of personnel,
other resources and providing the most suitable environment is termed as:
a. Human resource planning
b. Staffing
c. Office layout
d. Office management

16. Correspondence and communication, placing and layout of office, typing and
duplicating and scientific work system are among the _______challenges in office
management.
a. Extreme
b. Day to day
c. Great
d. Difficult

17. One of the following is inappropriate attitude or consideration in decision-making:

a. Avoid absolute wordings

28
 b. Open-mindedness
c. Recognize your own bias
d. Taking sides

18. The process of scientific management covers:

a. Workers-management relations
b. Standardization
c. Research of time, motion and methods
d. All of the above

19. Improve productivity, more job satisfaction, developing skills in others are among
the positive results of ________________ skills.
a. Interpersonal
b. Communication
c. Effective delegation
d. Controlling

20. In criticizing your subordinates, which of the following should you avoid:

a. Limit comments to the person’s actions

b. Let them do some of the talking
c. Do it quickly with the view of penalizing him/them
d. Make it private

29
GT 8
(CBRRM, PRINCIPLES OF MANAGEMENT,MANAGEMENT FUNCTIONS, HAZMAT)

1. It is a tool that shows us the extent of our community’s worst experience and sectors,
areas with limited capacities to prepare for and respond if a similar event occurs.
a. Disaster Timeline
b. Elements-at-Risk
c. Community Risk Assessment
d. Hazard Mapping
e. Participatory DRRM Planning

2. A potentially damaging physical event, phenomenon, or human activity that may

cause the loss of life or injury, property damage, social and economic disruption, or
environmental degradation
a. Disaster
b. Hazard
c. Risk
d. Disaster Risk
e. Emergency

3. It happens when there s a serious disruption of the functioning of a community or a

society causing widespread human, material, economic, or environmental losses which
exceed the ability of the affected community or society to cope using its own resources

a. Disaster Risk
b. Calamities
c. Emergency
d. Disaster
e. Hazard
4. Are characteristics and circiumstances of a community, system, or asset that make it
susceptible to the damaging effects of a hazard

a. Weakness
b. Exposure
c. Hazard
d. Risk
e. Vulnerability

5. It is a combination of all the strenghts, attributes and resources available within a

community, society or organization that can be used to achieve agreed goals

a. Strengths
b. Capacity
c. Capability
d. DRRM Planning
e. BDRRMC Strengthening

6. It is the degree to which a community is likely to experience hazard events of different

magnitude.

a. Exposure
b. Physical Location
c. Hazard
d. Risk

30
 e. Vulnerability

7. It is the probability that a hazard would hit a vulnerable community and would hit a
vulnerable community and would result in loss of lives and physical damages.
a. Emergency
b. Risk
c. Hazard
d. Disaster Risk
e. Community Risk Assessment

8. It is the systematic process of using administrative directives, organizations, and

operational skills and capacities to implement strategies, policies and improved coping
capacities in order to lessen the adverse impacts of hazards and the possibility of
disaster
a. National Disaster Risk Reduction and Management
b. Communty-Based Disaster Risk Management
c. Participatory BDRRM Planning
d. Community Hazard Mapping
e. Disaster Risk Reduction and Management

9. It is a rapid rise in global temperature brought about by the greenhouse effect.

a. Climate Change
b. Greenhouse Gasses
c. Global Warming
d. Climate Change Adaptation
e. Carpooling

10. It is an adjustment in natural and human systems in response to actual or expected

climate stimuli or thier effects, which moderates harm or exploits benefit opportunities
a. Climate Change Mitigation
b. Climate Change Preparedness
c. Climate Change Response
d. Climate Change Reduction and Management
e. Climate Change Adaption

11. It is the technological change and changes in activities the reduce resource/inputs
and emissions per unit of output and implementing policies to reduce greenhouse gas
emissions and enhance sinks
a. Climate Change Adaption
b. Climate Change Mitigation
c. Climate Change Preparedness
d. Climate Change Response
e. Climate Change Reduction and Management

12. Are activities, measures, projects and programs that aim to reduce disaster risks
and are primarily designed by people living in high-risk communities, and are based on
their urgent needs and capacities.
a. Community-Based Disaster Risk Reduction and Management
b. Disaster Risk Reduction and Management
c. Strengthening BDRRMC Structure
d. Participatory DRMM Planning
e. Community Risk Assessment

13. Why do we have varying perceptions and understanding disaster risk?

31
 a. Degree of vulnerability
b. Manner of exposure
c. Level of perceived capacity
d. Only A & B
e. all of the above

14. It is a method to determine the nature and extent of risks by analyzing potential
hazards and evaluating the existing conditions of vulnerability that could potentially
harm and expose people, property, services, livelihood, and the environment on which
they depend.
a. Disaster Timeline
b. Hazard Mapping
c. Community Venn Diagram
d. Community Risk Assessment
e. Element-at-Risks

15. It is sufficient knowledge and skills to effectively prepare for and respond to and
recover from the impacts of disaster
a. Disaster Prevention
b. Disaster Mitigation
c. Disaster Preparedness
d. Disaster Response
e. Disaster Rehabilitation

16. It is an outright avoidance of disaster impacts.

a. Disaster Prevention
b. Disaster Mitigation
c. Disaster Preparedness
d. Disaster Response
e. Disaster Rehabilitation

17. It is an information, advisory, and warning to individuals, groups, or populations on

the existence of danger, and what can be done to prevent, avoid, or minimize danger.

a. Community awareness
b. National warning system
c. Hazard mapping
d. Indigenous knowledge
e. Community early warning system

18. It is a systematic distribution of information about potential hazards and threats and
what people can do about them in order to encourage people to protect their lives and
property.

a. Public Awareness
b. Community Early Warning System
c. National Warning System
d. Community Awareness
e. Indigenous Knowledge

19. It is the provision of emergency services and public assistance during or

immediately after a disaster in order to save lives, reduce health impacts, ensure public
safety, and meet the basic subsistence needs of people affected.

a. Disaster Rehabilitation

32
 b. Relief
c. Disaster Response
d. Rescue
e. Emergency Response

20. It aims to ensure the immediate survival of the threatened population by providing
emergency health services, temporary shelter, food, and non-food items.

a. Relief
b. Disaster Response
c. Response
d. Rescue
e. Rapid Disaster Assessment and Needs Analysis

21. To manage is to forecast and to plan, to organize, to command, to coordinate and

control.

a. Peter Drucker
b. Henri Fayol
c. Warren Bennis
d. Mary Parker Follet

22. It means doing the thing correctly, refers to the relationship between inputs and
outputs.
a. Effectiveness
b. Efficiency
c. Sufficiency
d. Completeness

23. It encourages motivating employees, directing the activities of others, selecting the
most effective communication channel and resolving conflict.
a. Planning
b. Organizing
c. Leading
d. Controlling

24. Strategic formulation are the following, EXCEPT:

a. Determination of mission objectives
b. Analysis of strengths and weaknesses of the firm
c. Environmental opportunities and threats
d. Implement and assess the activities

25. There are 5 steps to making more effective, EXCEPT:

a. Decide what you want to accomplish
b. Choose the right step for making the goal
c. Set a goal with your employees
d. Make a roadmap for reaching the goal with a mile stones along the way.

26. TQM is a management philosophy that seeks to integrate all organizational

functions to focus on meeting customer needs and
a. Organizational functions
b. Organizational effectiveness
c. Organizational objectives
d. Organizational mission

33
27. There are four (4) sequential categories of TQM which is Planning, Doing, Checking
and
a. Directing
b. Acting
c. Budgeting
d. Coordinating
28. Management commitment is to act (recognize, communicate and revise) do (deploy,
support and participate, check (review) and;
a. Train
b. Plan
c. Direct
d. Implement

29. The benefits and relevance of strategic management are the following, EXCEPT:
a. Envision an organization’s future
b. Dynamic and appropriate environment
c. Better delegation, organization, monitoring, etc
d. Better management and people

30. Some of the pitfalls that TQM must avoid, EXCEPT:

a. Lack of top management support
b. Lack of middle management support
c. Commitment in only one depart
d. Soliciting employee failure

31. Good management is the art of making problems so interesting and their solutions
so constructive that everyone wants to get to work and deal with them
a. F.W. Taylor
b. Paul Hawken
c. Henri Fayol
d. Steve Jobs

32. Defining goals, establishing strategy and developing sub-plans to choose

alternatives and coordinate activities.
a. Planning and Decision Making
b. Planning and Organizing
c. Planning and Directing
d. Planning and Controlling

33. Planning as defined means the following statement, EXCEPT:

a. Planning is the primary function of management
b. It focuses more on the future course of action
c. Primary activity
d. Basis for controlling

34. Taylor develops a science for each element of a man’s work, which replaces the old
method.
a. Manual
b. Machine
c. Rule of thumb
d. Specialization

35. Manager at this level are ultimately responsible for: making long terms plans,
establish policies and represent the company is called _________

34
 a. First line management
b. Middle Management
c. Top management
d. None of the above

36. It is the systematic arrangement of people brough together to accomplish specific

purpose is called______
a. Community
b. People
c. Management
d. Organization

37. It the process of getting things done effectively and efficiently through and with other
people is called _________
a. Management
b. Organizing
c. Planning
a. Structure

38. It is the force that unifies human as well as non-human resources in the service of
the organizational goals.
a. Methods
b. Manpower
c. Management
d. Machinery

39. Management as a process “consisting of planning, organizing, actuating ________

performed to determine and accomplish the objective using people and resources.”
a. Coordinating
b. Controlling
c. Communication
d. Collaboration

40. The desired future condition that the organization seeks to achieve is called:
a. Group
b. Management
c. Organization
d. People

41. The well known HazMat abbreviation is defined as ________.

a. Hazy Material
b. Hazardous Material
c. Hazardous Maternity
d. Hazelnut Material

42. Explosives are assigned to this class of hazmat.

a. Class 1
b. Class 2
c. Class 3
d. Class 4

43. Gases are assigned to this class of hazmat.

a. Class 1
b. Class 2
c. Class 3

35
 d. Class 4

44. Flammable and Combustible Liquids are assigned to this class of hazmat
a. Class 1
b. Class 2
c. Class 3
d. Class 4

45. Flammable Solids are assigned to this class of hazardous material

a. Class 1
b. Class 2
c. Class 3
d. Class 4

46. Oxidizing Substances, Organic Peroxides are assigned to this class of hazardous
material.
a. Class 5
b. Class 6
c. Class 7
d. Class 8

47. Toxic substances are assigned to this class of hazardous material

a. Class 5
b. Class 6
c. Class 7
d. Class 8

48. Radioactive Materials are assigned to this class of hazardous material.

a. Class 5
b. Class 6
c. Class 7
d. Class 8

49. Corrosives are assigned to this class of hazardous material

a. Class 5
b. Class 6
c. Class 7
d. Class 8

50. Class 9 is known as to what type of hazardous material?

a. Toxic substances
b. Radioactive Material
c. Corrosives
d. Miscellaneous hazardous material

36