Tap 2

ĐỀ THI 1
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three
in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
1. A. removed B. approved C. reminded D. relieved
2. A. fragile B. bargain C. general D. luggage
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
the primary stress in each of the following questions.
3. A. marvelous B. notorious C. credulous D. numerous
4. A. majority B. obstinacy C. apology D. equality
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
5. All at once Millie got up and left the house without any explanation.
A. as usual B. as first C. suddenly D. not frequent
6. Considering they are over 70 years old, you must admit they are in good shape.
A. fit B. wealthy C. clever D. slow
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)
7. “Don’t be such a pessimist I’m sure you’ll soon get over it. Cheer up!”
A. activist B. feminist C. optimist D. hobbyist
8. It is obligatory for all students to take the entrance examination in order to attend the university.
A. forced B. impelling C. required D. optional
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
9. Ancient people made a clay pottery because they needed it for their survival.
A. a clay B. because C. it D. their survival
10. If they took their language lesson seriously, they would be able to communicate with the locals now.
A. took B. seriously C. would be D. with the locals
11. Grover Cleveland was the only American present served two nonconsecutive terms.
A. the only B. served C. nonconsecutive D. terms
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
12. My husband and I both go out to work so we share the _______.
A. happiness B. household chores
C. responsibility D. employment
13. When our teacher saw what we had done he was absolutely _______.
A. angry B. upset C. furious D. annoyed
14. I enjoy walking to school, but on rainy days I _______ to going by bus.
A. would rather B. commit C. prefer D. resort
15. The traffic lights _______ green and I pulled away.
A. became B. turned C. got D. changed
16. You should have _______ those shares when they were cheap.
A. taken out B. sold off C. bought up D. taken over
17. I’ll _______ you _______ to our research department. Please hold on.
A. put – away B. put – out C. put – through D. put – up
18. The telescope will photograph distant galaxies, _______ attempt to understand their past.
A. in B. for C. on D. with
19. He _______ the umbrella in his right hand, trying to keep his balance.
A. hold B. held
C. has been holding D. has held
20. They want to get young people to open a bank _______.
A. count B. counter C. account D. deposit
21. Despite the plan’s emphasis on agricultural _______, the industrial sector received a larger share of
state investment.
A. developing B. developer C. development D. developed
22. They still remain the need for an integrated system of subsidies which will _______ farmers to look
after their upland environment and producing food.
A. enable B. adopt C. consume D. discourage
23. Although she loves movies, she doesn’t _______ enjoy live theatre.
A. partially B. regularly C. finally D. particularly
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase
that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
POST IN HISTORY
Although it may come as a surprise to many people, postal services have existed in some parts of the
world for thousands of years. There is ample evidence that a postal services existed among the Assyrians
and Babylonians. In China a regular postal service was established in the seventh century BC, and over the
centuries attained such a high level of efficiency that some 2000 years after its (24) _______ it won the
admiration of travelers like Marco Polo. Efficient and highly developed postal services were also established
in the Persia and Roman Empires. In ancient times, these services were mainly confined to the use of
representative of the state; private citizens made use of slaves, merchants and the (25) _______ to send their
messages and documents. In Medieval Europe, postal services were organized by emperors and by the
papacy, (26) _______ private citizens continued to entrust their correspondence to various travelers. Later
around the 13th century, universities and towns came to have the own messengers. However, it was not until
the 14th century when merchants, the private citizens who had the greatest need for a speedy and regular
exchange of correspondence, began to set (27) _______ regular courier services. The needs of business (28)
_______ to the development of the postal services as we know it today.
24. A. introduction B. institution C. application D. occurrence
25. A. such B. likely C. like D. same
26. A. when B. and C. until D. while
27. A. up B. out C. off D. in
28. A. resulted B. came C. brought D. led
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions.
In addition to their military role, the forts of the nineteenth century provided numerous other benefits
for the American West. The establishment of these posts opened new roads and provided for the protection
of daring adventures and expeditions as well as established settlers. Forts also served as bases where
enterprising entrepreneurs could bring commerce to the West, providing supplies and refreshments to
soldiers as well as to pioneers. Ports like Fort Laramie provided supplies for wagon trains travelling the
natural highways toward new frontiers. Some posts became stations for the pony express; still others, such
as Fort Davis, were stagecoach stops for weary travelers. All of these functions, of course, suggest that the
contributions of the forts to the civilization and development of the West extended beyond patrol duty.
Through the establishment of military posts, yet other contributions were made to the development of
western culture. Many posts maintained libraries or reading rooms, and some – for example, Fort Davis –
had schools. Post chapels provided a setting for religious services and weddings. Throughout the wilderness,
post bands provided entertainment and boosted morale. During the last part of the nineteenth century, to
reduce expense, gardening was encouraged at the forts, thus making experimental agriculture another
activity of the military. The military stationed at the various forts also played a role in civilian life by
assisting in maintaining order, and civilian officials often called on the army for the protection.
Certainly, among other significant contributions the army made to the improvement of the conditions
of life was the investigation of the relationships among health, climate, and architecture. From the earliest
colonial times throughout the nineteenth century, disease ranked as the foremost problem in defense. It
slowed construction of forts and inhibited their military functions. Official documents from many regions
contained innumerable reports of sickness that virtually incapacitated entire garrisons. In response to the
problems. Detailed observations of architecture and climate and their relationships to the frequency of the
occurrence of various disease were recorded at various posts across the nation by military surgeons.
29. Which of the following statements best expresses the main idea of the passage?
A. By the nineteenth century, forts were no longer used by the military.
B. Surgeons at forts could not prevent outbreaks of disease.
C. Forts were important to the development of the American West.
D. Life in nineteenth-century forts was very rough.
30. The word “daring” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. lost B. bold C. lively D. foolish
31. The word “others” in paragraph 1 refers to _______.
A. posts B. wagon trains C. frontiers D. highways
32. Which of the following is the most likely inference about the decision to promote gardening at forts?
A. It was expensive to import produce from far away.
B. Food brought in from outside was often spoiled.
C. Gardening was a way to occupy otherwise idle soldiers.
D. The soil near the forts was very fertile.
33. According to the passage, which of the following posed the biggest obstacle to the development of
military forts?
A. Insufficient shelter B. Shortage of materials
C. Attacks by wild animals D. Illness
34. The word “inhibited” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. involved B. exploited C. united D. hindered
35. How did the military assist in the investigation of health problems?
A. By registering annual birth and death rates
B. By experiments with different building materials
C. By maintaining records of diseases and potential causes
D. By monitoring the soldiers’ diets
the questions.
Birds that feed in flocks commonly retire together into roots. The reasons for roosting communally are
not always obvious, but there are some likely benefits. In winter especially, it is important for birds to keep
warm at night and converse precious food reserves. One way to do this is to find a sheltered roost. Solitary
roosters shelter in dense vegetation or enter a cavity – horned larks dig holes in the ground and ptarmigan
burrow into snow banks – but the effect of sheltering is magnified by several birds huddling together in the
roosts, as wrens, swifts, brown creepers, bluebirds, and anis do. Body contact reduces the surface area
exposed to the cold air, so the bird keep each other warm. Two kinglets huddling together were found to
reduce their heat losses by a quarter, and three together saved a third of their heat.
The second possible benefit of communal roosts is that they act as “information centers”. During the
day, parties of birds will have spread out to forage over a very large area. When they return in the evening
some will have fed well, but others may have found little to eat. Some investigators have observed that when
the birds set out again next morning, those birds that did not feed well on the previous day appear to allow
those that did. The behavior of common and lesser kestrels may illustrate different feeding behaviors of
similar birds with different roosting habits. The common kestrel hunts vertebrate animals in a small, familiar
hunting ground, whereas the very similar lesser kestrel feeds on insects over a large area. The common
kestrel roots and hunts alone, but the lesser kestrel roosts and hunts in flocks, possibly so one bird can learn
from others where to find insect swarms.
Finally, there is safety in numbers at communal roosts since there will always be a few birds awake at
any given moment to give the alarm. But this increased protection is partially counteracted by the fact that
mass roosts attract predators and are especially vulnerable if they are on the ground. Even those in trees can
be attacked by birds of prey. The birds on the edge are at greatest risk since predators find it easier to catch
small birds perching at the margins of the roost.
36. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. How birds find and store food B. How birds maintain body heat in the winter
C. Why birds need to establish territory D. Why some species of birds nest together
37. The word “converse” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______?
A. retain B. watch C. locate D. share
38. Ptarmigan keep warm in the winter by _______.
A. huddling together on the ground with other birds
B. building nests in trees
C. burrowing into dense patches of vegetation
D. digging tunnels into the snow
39. The word “magnified” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. caused B. modified C. intensified D. combined
40. The author mentions “kinglets” in paragraph 1 as an example of birds that _______.
A. protect themselves by nesting in holes
B. nest with other species of birds
C. nest together for warmth
D. usually feed and nest in pairs
41. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as an advantage derived by birds that
huddle together while sleeping?
A. Some members of the flock warn others of impending dangers.
B. Staying together provides a greater amount of heat for the whole flock.
C. Some birds in the flock function as information centers for others who are looking for food.
D. Several members of the flock care for the young.
42. Which of the following is a disadvantage of communal roosts that is mentioned in the passage?
A. Diseases easily spread among the birds.
B. Groups are more attractive to predators than individual birds are.
C. Food supplies are quickly depleted.
D. Some birds in the group will attack the others.
43. The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. a few birds B. mass roosts C. predators D. trees
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges.
44. – Well, it was nice talking to you, but I have to go.
-_______.
A. Yes, I enjoyed talking to you too. B. OK, see you.
C. Pleased to meet you, too. D. Nice to meet you. I’m Hoa.
45. – Do you feel like going out for a drink this evening?
-_______.
A. That would be great. B. Thank you very much for your kind invitation.
C. Yes, I like very much. D. No, I don’t. I am busy.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
46. She’s bound to see Jim at the meeting.
A. She’s obligated to see Harry at the meeting.
B. She’s on her way to see Harry at the meeting.
C. It’s certain that she will see Harry at the meeting.
D. She’s too busy to see Harry at the meeting.
47. The burglar was caught red-handed by the police when he broke into the flat.
A. The police caught the burglar breaking into the flat.
B. The police caught the burglar to break into the flat.
C. The police caught the burglar when breaking into the flat.
D. When the burglar had broken into the flat, the police caught him at once.
48. I won’t sell the painting, no matter how much you offer me.
A. Whenever you offer me to buy the painting, I won’t sell it.
B. How many money you offer me, I won’t sell the painting.
C. Whatever price you offer me, I won’t sell the painting.
D. In spite of your offering me how much money, but I won’t sell the painting.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
49. We spend about one-third of our lives sleeping. We know relatively little about sleep.
A. We know relatively little about sleep; as a result, we spend about one-third of our lives sleeping.
B. We shall know more about sleep if we spend more than one-third of our lives sleeping.
C. Despite spending about one-third of our lives sleeping, we know relatively little about sleep.
D. We spend about one-third of our lives sleeping so that we know relatively little about sleep.
50. He didn’t take his father’s advice. That’s why he is out of work.
A. If he had taken his father’s advice, he would not have been out of work.
B. If he took his father’s advice, he would not be out of work.
C. If he had taken his father’s advice, he would not be out of work.
D. If he takes his father’s advice, he will not be out of work.
ĐỀ THI 2
1. A. young B. plough C. couple D. cousin
2. A. confine B. conceal C. convention D. concentrate
3. A. dependable B. cafeteria C. simplicity D. detoxify
4. A. westernize B. official C. division D. millennium
5. I was turning to the left lane when a car came out of nowhere and hit me.
A. stopped right in front of B. suddenly appeared
C. spun over D. fell off a truck
6. S. Mayo Hospital in New Orleans was so named in recognition of Dr. Mayo’s outstanding
humanitarianism.
A. exhaustive B. charitable C. remarkable D. widespread
7. As soon as I gave up smoking, I felt a lot better.
A. gave out B. took up C. got on D. took out
8. Fruit and vegetables grew in abundance on the island. The islanders even exported the surplus.
A. large quantity B. small quantity C. excess D. sufficiency
9. The next host for the SEA Games is Laos. It is Laos’ the first time as the host for the biannual-
games.
A. the next B. it is C. the first time D. the host
10. Buying clothes is often a time-consuming practice because those clothes that a person likes is seldom
the ones that fit him or her.
A. time-consuming B. that C. is D. ones
11. The assassination Nathuran Vinayak Godse shot Mohandas K. Gandi in New Delhi, India on
September 17, 1948.
A. assassination B. shot C. in D. September 17, 1948
12. They attempted to _______ the painting to its original condition.
A. restore B. renovate C. repair D. refurbish
13. Flooding in April is an unusual _______ in this area.
A. occurrence B. occur C. occurring D. occurred
14. Frankly, I’d rather you _______ anything about it for the time being.
A. don’t do B. hadn’t done C. didn’t do D. haven’t done
15. The book would have been perfect _______ the ending.
A. had it not been for B. it had not been for
C. it hadn’t been for D. hadn’t it been for
16. Jane’s very modest, always _______ her success.
A. playing down B. turning around C. keeping down D. pushing back
17. Those companies were _______ due to some seriously financial problems.
A. taken off B. set up C. wiped out D. gone over
18. Instead of an increase, there has been a recent _______ in crime.
A. crash B. drop C. break D. issue
19. Students also have the opportunity to choose from a wide range of _______ courses in the university.
A. compulsory B. optional C. required D. limited
20. The issue _______ question is more complex than we think.
A. in B. from C. on D. at
21. _______ have announced that a major breakthrough in medicine has been made.
A. Research B. Researchers C. Researches D. Researching
22. _______ many times I tell him, he always forgets to pass on phone messages.
A. Wherever B. Whatever C. Whenever D. However
23. When we _______ to the airport, I realized that I _______ my passport at home.
A. got/ had left B. got/ was left C. got/ left D. had got/ had left
A child prodigy of four is receiving computer lessons at Brunei University, in London. Nicholas
MacMahon is studying at university because he is too clever for school. A senior lecturer at the university,
Valso Koshy, said that the boy was remarkably intelligent.
Nicholas spoke fluently before he was one and by the time he was 18 months old, he was taking
telephone (24) _______. This was soon followed by conversational French. These are the trademarks of a
highly gifted child, unusual but not unique. The strange thing about Nicholas is his reading – he taught
himself to read before he could speak. Ms. Koshy, an expert (25) _______ gifted children, says Nicholas is
quite exceptional. Yet ‘exceptional’ underrates his amazing ability to read, almost from birth. ‘He was
talking when he was one and we realized from start that he could read,’ his father said. ‘Soon after, he was
correcting my spelling, words (26) _______ caterpillar. Now he (27) _______ insects by their Latin names.’
The list of achievements is impressive, but frightening. A four-year-old who can (28) _______ a
Boeing 747 from a DC 10, devours encyclopedias, read The Daily Telegraph and is well on the way to
becoming a violin virtuoso is hardly normal.
24. A. news B. information C. notes D. messages
25. A. about B. for C. with D. on
26. A. as B. such C. like D. for example
27. A. realizes B. determines C. recognizes D. identifies
28. A. tell B. differ C. vary D. say
the questions.
Hummingbirds are small, often brightly colored birds of the family Trochilidae that live exclusively in
the Americas. About 12 species are found in North America, but only the ruby-throated hummingbird breeds
in eastern North America and is found from Nova Scotia to Florida. The southeastern Alaska to northern
California.
Many hummingbirds are minute. But even the giant hummingbird found in western South America,
which is the largest known hummingbird, is only about 8 inches long and weighs about two-thirds of an
ounce. The smallest species, the bee hummingbird of Cuba and the Isle of Pines, measures slightly more
than 5.5 centimeters and weighs about two grams.
Hummingbirds’ bodies are compact, with strong muscles. They have wings shaped like blades. Unlike
the wings of other birds, hummingbird wings connect to the body only at the shoulder joint, which allows
them to fly not only forward but also straight up and down, sideways, and backward. Because of their
unusual wings, hummingbirds can also hover in front of flowers so they can suck nectar and find insects.
The humming-bird’s bill, adapted for securing nectar from certain types of flowers, is usually rather long
and always slender, and it is curved slightly downward in many species.
The hummingbird’s body feathers are sparse and more like scales than feathers. The unique character
of the feathers produces brilliant and iridescent colors, resulting from the refraction of light by the feathers.
Pigmentation of other feathers also contributes to the unique color and look. Male and female hummingbirds
look alike in some species but different in most species; males of most species are extremely colorful.
The rate at which a hummingbird beats its wings does not vary, regardless of whether it is flying
forward, flying in another direction, or merely hovering. But the rate does vary with the size of the bird – the
larger the bird, the lower the rate, ranging from 80 beats per second for the smallest species to 10 times per
second for larger species. Researchers have not yet been able to record the speed of the wings of the bee
humming-bird but imagine that they beat even faster. Most hummingbirds, especially the smaller species,
emit scratchy, twittering, or squeaky sounds. The wings, and sometimes the tail feathers, often produce
humming, hissing, or popping sounds, which apparently function much as do the songs of other birds.
29. According to the passage, where are hummingbirds found?
A. Throughout the word B. In South America only
C. In North America only D. In North and South America
30. The author indicates that the ruby-throated hummingbird is found _______.
A. throughout North America B. in California
C. in South America D. in the eastern part of North America
31. The word minute in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. extremely tiny B. extremely fast C. unique D. organized
32. The word which in the second paragraph refers to _______.
A. western South America B. the giant hummingbird
C. all hummingbirds D. Florida hummingbirds
33. What does the author imply about the rate hummingbirds’ wings beat?
A. Although the bee hummingbird is the smallest, its wings don’t beat the fastest.
B. The hummingbird’s wings beat faster when it is sucking nectar than when it is just flying.
C. The rate is not much different than that of other birds of its size.
D. The speed at which a bee hummingbird’s wings beat is not actually known.
34. The author indicates that a hummingbird’s wings are different from those of other birds because
A. they attach to the body at one point only
B. they attach to the body at more points than other birds
C. they attach and detach from the body
D. they are controlled by a different section of the brain
35. According to the passage, what causes the unique color and look of hummingbirds?
A. The color of the feathers
B. The structure of the feathers as well as pigmentation
C. The rapidity of flight
D. The pigmentation of the body
the questions.
If we believe that clothing has to do with covering the body, and costumes with the choice of a
particular form of garment for a particular use, then we can say that clothing depends primarily on such
physical conditions as climate, health, and textile manufacture, whereas costumes reflect social factors such
as religious beliefs, aesthetics, personal status, and the wish to be distinguished from or to emulate our
fellows.
The ancient Greeks and the Chinese believed that we first covered our bodies for some physical reason
such as protecting ourselves from the weather elements. Ethnologists and psychologists have invoked
psychological reasons: modesty in the case of ancients, and taboo, magical influence and the desire to please
for the moderns.
In early history, costumes must have fulfilled a function beyond that of simple utility, perhaps through
some magical significance, investing primitive man with the attributes of other creatures. Ornaments
identified the wearer with animals, gods, heroes or other men. This identification remains symbolic in more
sophisticated societies. We should bear in mind that the theater has its distant origins in scared
performances, and in all periods children at play have worn disguises, so as to adapt gradually to adult life.
Costumes helped inspire fear or impose authority. For a chieftain, costumes embodied attributes
expressing his power, while a warrior’s costume enhanced his physical superiority and suggested he was
superhuman. In more recent times, professional or administrative costume has been devised to distinguish
the wearer and express personal or delegated authority; this purpose is seen clearly in the judge’s robes and
the police officer’s uniform. Costume denotes power, and since power is usually equated with wealth,
costume came to be an expression of social caste and material prosperity. Military uniform denotes rank and
is intended to intimidate, to protect the body and to express membership in a group. At the bottom of the
scale, there are such compulsory costumes as the convict’s uniform. Finally, costume can possess a religious
significance that combines various elements: an actual or symbolic identification with a god, the desire to
express this in earthy life, and the desire to enhance the wearer’s position or respect.
36. The passage mainly discusses costume in term of its _______.
A. physical protection B. religious significance
C. social function D. beauty and attractiveness
37. What is the purpose of the paragraph 1?
A. To describe the uses of costume B. To contrast costume with the clothing
C. To trade the origins of costume D. To point out that clothing developed before costume
38. Psychological reasons for wearing garments include _______.
A. protection from cold B. availability of materials
C. prevention of illness D. wishing to give pleasure
39. The word “ornaments” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. garments B. representation C. details D. decorations
40. It can be inferred from paragraph 3 that _______.
A. The function of costume has become very sophisticated
B. Children like to identify with other creature by wearing costumes
C. Primitive people wore cloths only for scared performances
D. Costume no longer fulfills a function beyond simple utility
41. Why does the author mention the police officer’s uniform?
A. To illustrate the aesthetic function of costume
B. To identify the wearer with a hero
C. To suggest that police are superhuman
D. To show how costume signifies authority
42. The word “denotes” in line paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. disguises B. describes C. indicates D. denigrates
43. Which of the following would most likely NOT be reflected in a person’s costume, as it is defined in
the passage?
A. Having a heart condition B. Playing in a baseball game
C. Working in a hospital D. Participating in a religious ceremony
44. A: _______.
B: Oh, thank you. I just got it yesterday.
A. When have you got this beautiful dress?
B. How a beautiful dress you’re wearing!
C. You’ve just bought this beautiful dress, haven’t you?
D. That’s a beautiful dress you have on!
45. “What are they like?” – “_______”
A. They are very nice. B. They are from London.
C. They’re in London. D. They’re American.
questions.
46. “If I were you, I would try to finish the pre-lab report before carrying out the experiment.” The
professor said to his students.
A. The professor advised his students to finish the pre-lab report before carrying out the experiment.
B. The professor wished he could finish the pre-lab report for his students.
C. The professor regretted that his students didn’t do things in the right way.
D. The professor advised his students to carry out the experiments and then write the pre-lab report.
47. He started computer programming as soon as he left school.
A. No sooner had he started computer programming than he left school.
B. Hardly had he started computer programming when he left school.
C. No sooner had he left school than he started computer programming.
D. After he left school, he had started computer programming.
48. Twice as many men as women are insurance agents.
A. More men than women have insurance.
B. Male insurance agents outnumber female agents.
C. Women are twice as likely as men to have sold insurance.
D. Insurance is twice as difficult to sell to women as to men.
49. He wanted to give the ball a powerful kick. He used the top of his foot.
A. He gave the ball a powerful kick to use the top of his foot.
B. Using the top of his foot, he kicked a powerful ball.
C. What he wants to do is to give the ball a powerful kick and use the top of his foot.
D. He used the top of his foot to give the ball a powerful kick.
50. Marie graduated with a good degree. She joined the ranks of the unemployed.
A. Marie joined the ranks of the unemployed because she graduated with a good degree.
B. If Marie graduated with a good degree. She would join the ranks of the unemployed.
C. Although Marie graduated with a good degree, she joined the ranks of the unemployed.
D. That Marie graduated with a good degree helped him join the ranks of the unemployed.
ĐỀ THI 3
1. A. chore B. stretch C. synchronized D. punching
2. A. isolated B. climate C. automobile D. island
3. A. curious B. receive C. unique D. achieve
4. A. comprehend B. entertain C. develop D. introduce
5. The situation seems to be changing minute by minute.
A. from time to time B. time after time
C. again and again D. very rapidly
6. He had never experienced such discourtesy towards the president as it occurred at the annual meeting
in May.
A. politeness B. rudeness C. encouragement D. measurement
7. I clearly remember talking to him in a chance meeting last summer.
A. unplanned B. deliberate C. accidental D. unintentional
8. The US troops are using much more sophisticated weapons in the Far East.
A. expensive B. complicated
C. simple and easy to use D. difficult to operate
9. In the 1960s, urban renewal projects cleared land for commerce and offices buildings.
A. urban renewal B. cleared land C. commerce D. offices buildings
10. It was my father whom talked me into learning another foreign language.
A. was B. whom C. into D. another
11. How seems to be the greatest injustice of all, however, is that the new lands that Columbus
discovered were never given his name.
A. how B. the greatest injustice
C. the new lands D. were never given
12. The judge _______ the murderer to a lifetime imprisonment.
A. accused B. convicted C. sentenced D. prosecuted
13. It’s surprising that ex-smokers are less _______ smokers than non-smokers.
A. tolerant of B. tolerable to C. intolerant D. tolerance towards
14. I was angry when you saw me because I _______ with my sister.
A. have been arguing B. had been arguing
C. argued D. would argue
15. _______ over long distances is a fact.
A. That electricity transmitting B. That electricity can be transmitted
C. That electricity D. That can be transmitted
16. Deborah is going to take extra lessons to _______ what she missed while she was away.
A. catch up on B. cut down on C. put up with D. take up with
17. The _______ for this position starts at thirty thousand euros per year.
A. wage B. payment C. fee D. salary
18. I want to take these jeans back because they are too small but I can’t find the _______ anywhere.
A. receipt B. receiver C. reception D. receptionist
19. I wonder _______ mind watching this bag for me for a moment.
A. would you B. you would C. if would you D. whether you would
20. I was only absent _______ the office for a few minutes!
A. for B. from C. in D. about
21. Everyone said that they had _______ themselves at the wedding.
A. enjoyed B. pleased C. impressed D. excited
22. I _______ sight of the robber just before he disappeared around the corner.
A. caught B. took C. got D. had
23. Laura is about _______ me.
A. younger than two years B. two years younger than
C. younger two years than D. two years then younger
Read the following passage and mark the latter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase
A long and happy marriage is something that many people wish for, but finding the right partner is
(24) _______ more difficult than you might imagine. A friend of mine, Susan had not been very successful
in her attempt to find the perfect partner, and she was beginning to lose heart and feel rather depressed. One
day she happened to hear someone (25) _______ about a computer dating agency which could help you to
find the ideal partner. Susan immediately (26) _______ an appointment to see someone at the agency, then
waited to see what would happen. The agency arranged a meeting with a “suitable” partner at the local
railway station a week later, although I (27) _______ her not to go. My friend arrived a few minutes early
but could see no one who matched the appearance of the man in the photograph she had been sent. She
noticed a man waiting under the station clock and (28) _______ a bunch of flowers. But there was no one
else around. Suddenly the man started chatting to her and, after a while, asked her if she would like to go
and have a coffee. Not until much later did they come to the conclusion that they had both been waiting for
each other! When they had both recovered from the shock, they decided that the computer had been right
after all!
24. A. so B. much C. too D. lot
25. A. mentioning B. telling C. talking D. relating
26. A. did B. had C. set D. made
27. A. advised B. urged C. suggested D. whispered
28. A. fetching B. wearing C. carrying D. holding
the questions.
These days, photography is considered an art form. However, people did not always feel this way. It
took one of the greatest photographers of all time to change public opinion about photography: Ansel
Adams.
Ansel Adams claimed that he knew his destiny when he first visited Yosemite, a national park, at the
age of fourteen. Until then, the focus of his life had always been music; he had long dreamed of being a
concert pianist, a career that would have required him to live an urban lifestyle. Instead, Adams found
himself drawn to Yosemite and to other natural settings. Over time his love of photography became more
influential than that of music. Contrary to the popular belief of the time, he believed photography to be an
art form and often exhibited it as art.
Due to his love of nature, Adams become devoted to the conservation of and access to wilderness. He
believed that the American people needed to experience nature in all its glory. Adams felt that the
experience of nature was a spiritual one, a view evidenced by many of his photographs.
29. What is this passage primarily about?
A. conversation of the environment
B. Yosemite National Park
C. Adams’ feelings about photography and nature
D. his conflict between music and photography
30. What can we infer about photographers before Adams’ time?
A. They were often musicians as well.
B. They were not considered artists.
C. They did not worry about conservation.
D. They had never taken photos of nature.
31. According to the passage, which of the following made Adams want to become a photographer?
A. Yosemite National Park B. the urban lifestyle
C. loss of interest in music D. a religious experience
32. The word “destiny” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. future B. chance C. hobby D. talent
33. According to the passage, photography has come to be recognized as an art form since _______.
A. Americans started appreciating the beauty of nature
B. several famous books on photography were published
C. American colleges began offering courses on photography
D. one talented photographer emerged
34. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. belief B. music C. photography D. art form
35. According to the passage, all of the following are true of Adams EXCEPT that _______.
A. his early life goal was to be a pianist
B. he showed his photographs to the public frequently
C. he took many pictures of natural scenery
D. he had no idea what career he wanted until he was 14
the questions.
Psychologists who work on motivation research a wide range of human traits and physiological
characteristics that include the effects of hunger, reward, and punishment, as well as desires for power,
tangible achievement, social acceptance, belongingness, self-esteem, and self-actualization. A plethora of
hypotheses developed in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries have the goal of identifying causes of an
organism’s behavior that can be both conscious and unconscious. The hierarchical organization of human
needs is a theoretical model, originally established by an American psychologist, Abraham Maslow, in
1954. The needs located at the bottom of the pyramid are the essentials of physiological survival that
encompass oxygen, water, nutrition, rest, and avoidance of pain. Maslow’s theory, grounded in research,
also stipulated that these are variable and, at least to some extent, may explain, for example, food
gratification. The second tier is rooted in the human need for safety, stability, and protection.
In the human life cycle, the needs for belonging are manifested in the desires to marry, have a family,
belong in a community or among similarly minded people. In part, the need to belong can also show up in a
search for particular types of occupations or careers. The next level of the hierarchy in effect deals with two
substrata, where the first presumes the need for status, prestige, recognition, appreciation, and dominance,
and the higher division includes a conglomeration of emotionally centered traits that pivot on competence,
confidence, mastery, achievement, independence, and freedom.
The top tier is different from all other, and Maslow referred to it as growth motivation and self-
actualization. At the highest level, individuals seek to realize and put to use their creativity, talent,
leadership, curiosity, and understanding. At this level people can reach their full potentials and accurately
perceive and accept reality, seek privacy and depth in personal relationship, resist enculturation, and develop
social interests, compassion, and humanity. In many cases, self-actualizers do not lead ordinary lives, choose
growth over safety, and cultivate peak experiences that leave their mark and change one for the better.
36. According to the passage, what does psychology of motivation attempt to uncover?
A. Reactions to hunger and desires for power
B. Developments of human physiology and mind
C. Reasons for human conduct and moving forces
D. Organization of human society and hierarchies
37. The word “plethora” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. oversimplification B. overlap
C. overreach D. overabundance
38. It can be inferred from the passage that in Maslow’s hierarchy _______.
A. the first layer of needs dominates other tiers
B. the highest level of the model supersedes the lower levels
C. the second layer of needs is more urgent than the first
D. the third level of the model is embedded in the fourth
39. The word “these” in paragraph 1 refers to _______.
A. theory and research B. rest and avoidance of pain
C. oxygen, water, nutrition, and rest D. the lowest set of factors
40. It can be inferred from the passage that in modern-day terms, the second layer of needs can be
reflected in people’s desire for _______.
A. a house in an upscale neighborhood
B. a protected existence and dependence
C. a measure of job and financial security
D. a degree of friendship and family life
41. The word “conglomeration” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. complex B. congress C. conjunction D. connotation
42. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a factor in human motivation?
A. Esteem B. Participation
C. Accomplishment D. Conformism
43. Which of the following conclusions is supported by the passage?
A. Genuine self-actualizers may attain self-satisfaction
B. Sincere self-promoters can achieve full contentment
C. Real self-starters can achieve their lives’ desires
D. True self-actualizers may lead complicated lives
44. “Should I give you a little more coffee?” – “_______.”
A. No, you’re welcome B. No, thank you
C. Yes, you’re right D. Yes, I’m OK
45. “Could you hand me that hammer?” – “_______.”
A. It’s not very expensive B. Yes, please
C. I’m about to use it myself D. Yes, I’d like to
questions.
46. Mr. Baker is determined to continue working when he is 65.
A. There is a determination of him to continue working when Mr. Baker is 65.
B. Not until Mr. Baker is 65, he is determined to continue working.
C. Mr. Baker has no intention of stopping working when he is 65.
D. Mr. Baker’s determination to continue working only when he is 65.
47. He was such a bright student that he could solve all the math problems.
A. He was not bright enough to solve all the math problems.
B. He was so intelligent that he could solve all the math problems.
C. The math problems were too difficult for him to solve.
D. All the math problems were so bright that he could solve them.
48. His daydreaming prevented him from becoming a good employee.
A. If he daydreamed, he would become a better employee.
B. He could become a better employee without his daydreaming.
C. He daydreams, which makes him a good employee.
D. As a daydreamer, he is a good employee.
49. He is very intelligent. He can solve all the problems in no time.
A. So intelligent is he can solve all the problems in no time.
B. He is very intelligent that he can solve all the problems in no time.
C. An intelligent student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
D. So intelligent a student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
50. We haven’t seen each other for a long time. I’m wondering whether I shall even recognize him.
A. Although we haven’t seen each other for a long time, I’m wondering whether I shall even
recognize him.
B. We haven’t seen each other for a long time because I’m wondering whether I shall even recognize
him.
C. We haven’t seen each other for a long time, so I’m wondering whether I shall even recognize him.
D. The reason why we haven’t seen each other for a long time is that I’m wondering whether I shall
even recognize him.
ĐỀ THI 4
1. A. river B. rival C. native D. driven
2. A. measure B. pleasure C. ensure D. leisure
3. A. familiar B. impatient C. uncertain D. arrogant
4. A. disappear B. arrangement D. opponent D. contractual
5. There’s something about him I just can’t stand, he really gets under my skin.
A. pushes me B. presses me C. treats me D. annoys me
6. The use of lasers in surgery has become relatively commonplace in recent years.
A. absolutely B. relevantly C. almost D. comparatively
7. He decided not to buy the fake watch and wait until he had more money.
A. authentic B. forger C. faulty D. original
8. Match the world in A with its appropriate definition in B.
A. indirect B. illegal C. improper D. unreal
9. Each of the students in the accountant class has to type their own research paper this semester.
A. students B. accountant C. their own D. research paper
10. Most bacteria has strong cell walls much like those of the plants.
A. most B. has C. much D. those
11. It’s thirty years since this thirty-storeys building was built.
A. it’s thirty years B. since C. thirty-storeys D. was built
12. Granny is completely deaf. You’ll have to _______ allowance for her.
A. bring B. take C. make D. find
13. The house is found _______ down.
A. to burn B. burning C. having burned D. to have been burned
14. Nearly all of the reporters _______ the press conference had questions _______.
A. attend – asked B. attended – to ask
C. attending – to ask D. would attend – to be asked
15. _______, sheep were then used for wood.
A. Having first domesticated for milk production
B. Having been first domesticated for milk production
C. Because they have been first domesticated for milk production
D. Although they had first domesticated for milk production
16. The car burst into _______ but the driver managed to escape.
A. fire B. flames C. heat D. burning
17. When they thought they has enough evidence, the police _______ the man with murder.
A. charged B. arrested C. suspected D. investigated
18. Mrs. Moore waited for the class to _______ before she continued.
A. bring up B. pass away C. settle down D. bring on
19. It seems that the thief took _______ of the open windows an got inside that way.
A. occasion B. chance C. opportunity D. advantage
20. _______ I do okay in the interview, I’ve got a good chance of getting the job.
A. unless B. in case C. only D. provided
21. Call me as soon as you _______ your test results.
A. get B. will get C. will have got D. got
22. How much is the bus _______ to the city centre?
A. fee B. fare C. price D. cost
23. The country’s economy relies heavily on the tourist _______.
A. industry B. industrial C. industrialize D. industrious
GLOBAL WARMING
Few people now realize the reality of global warming and its effects on the world’s climate. Many
scientists (24) _______ the blame for recent natural disasters on the increase in the world’s temperatures and
are convinced that, more than ever before, the Earth is at (25) _______ from the forces of the wind, rain and
sun. according to them, global warming is making extreme weather events, such as hurricanes and droughts,
even more severe and causing sea levels all around the word to rise.
Environmental groups are putting pressure on governments to take action to reduce the amount of
carbon dioxide which is given (26) _______ by factories and power plants, thus attacking the problem at its
source. They are in (27) _______ of more money being spent on research into solar wind, and wave energy
devices, which could then replace existing power (28) _______. Some scientists, however, believe that even
if we stopped releasing carbon dioxide and other gases into the atmosphere tomorrow, we would have to
wait several hundred years to notice the results. Global warming, it seems, is to stay.
24. A. give B. put C. take D. has
25. A. danger B. harm C. risk D. threat
26. A. off B. up C. over D. away
27. A. request B. suggestion C. belief D. favor
28. A. houses B. dumps C. stations D. generation
the questions.
The changing profile of a city in the United States is apparent in the shifting definitions used by the
United States Bureau of the Census. In 1870 the census officially distinguished the nation’s “urban” from
its “rural” population for the first time. “Urban population” was defined as persons living in towns of 8,000
inhabitants or more. But after 1900 it meant persons living in incorporated places having 2,500 or more
inhabitants.
Then, in 1950 the Census Bureau radically changed its definition of urban to take account of the new
vagueness of city boundaries. In addition to persons living in incorporated units of 2,5000 or more, the
census now included those who lived in unincorporated units of that size, and also all persons living in the
densely settled urban fringe, including both incorporated and unincorporated areas located around cities of
50,000 inhabitants or more. Each such unit, conceived as an integrated economic and social unit with a large
population nucleus, was named a Standard Metropolitan Statistical Area (SMSA).
Each SMSA would contain at least (a) one central city with 50,000 inhabitants or more or (b) two
cities having shared boundaries and constituting for general economic and social purposes, a single
community with a combined population of at least 50,000, the smaller of which must have a population of at
least 15,000. Such an area would include the county in which the central city was located, and adjacent
countries that were found to be metropolitan in character and economically and socially integrated with the
county of the central city. By 1970, about two-thirds of the population of the United States was living in
these urbanized areas, and of that figure more than half were living outside the central cities.
While the Census Bureau and the United States government used the term SMSA (by 1969 there were
233 of them), social scientists were also using new terms to describe the elusive, vaguely defined areas
reaching out from what used to be simple “towns” and “cities”. A host of terms came into use: “metropolitan
regions,” “poly-nucleated population groups,” “conurbations,” “metropolitan clusters,” “megalopolises” and
so on.
A. How cities in the United States began and developed
B. Solutions to overcrowding in cities
C. The changing definition of an urban area
D. How the United States Census Bureau conducts a census
30. According to the passage, the population of the United States was first classified as rural or urban in
_______.
A. 1870 B. 1900 C. 1950 D. 1970
31. The word “distinguished” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. differentiated B. removed C. honored D. protected
32. Prior to 1900, how many inhabitants would a town have to have before being defined as urban?
A. 2,500 B. 8,000 C. 15,000 D. 50,000
33. According to the passage, why did the Census Bureau revise the definition of urban in 1950?
A. City borders had become less distinct
B. Cities had undergone radical social change.
C. Elected officials could not agree on an acceptable definition
D. New businesses had relocated to larger cities.
34. The word “those” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. boundaries B. persons C. units D. areas
35. The word “constituting” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. located near B. determined by C. calling for D. making up
the questions.
The penny press, which emerged in the United States during the 1830’s, was a powerful agent of mass
communication. These newspapers were little dailies, generally four pages in length, written for the mass
taste. They differed from the staid, formal presentation of the conservative press, with its emphasis on
political and literary topics. The new papers were brief and cheap, emphasizing sensational reports of police
courts and juicy scandals as well as human interest stories. Twentieth-century journalism was already
foreshadowed in the penny press of the 1830’s.
The New York Sun, founded in 1833, was the first successful penny paper, and it was followed two
years later by the New York Herald, published by James Gordon Bennett. Not long after, Horace Greeley
issued the New York Tribune, which was destined to become the most influential paper in America. Greeley
gave space to the issues that deeply touched the American people before the Civil War – abolitionism,
temperance, free homesteads, Utopian cooperative settlements, and the problems of labor. The weekly
edition of the Tribune, with 100,000 subscribers, has a remarkable influence in rural areas, especially in
Western communities.
Americans were reputed to be the most avid readers of periodicals in the world. An English observer
enviously calculated that, in 1829, the number of newspapers circulated in Great Britain was enough to
reach only one out of every thirty-six inhabitants weekly; Pennsylvania in that same year had a newspaper
circulation which reached one out of every four inhabitants weekly. Statistics seemed to justify the common
belief that Americans were devoted to periodicals. Newspapers in the United States increased from 1,200 in
1833 to 3,000 by the early 1860’s, on the eve of the Civil War. This far exceeded the number and circulation
of newspapers in England and France.
36. What does the author mean by the statement “Twentieth-century journalism was foreshadowed
by the penny press of the 1930’s” in paragraph 1?
A. The penny press darkened the reputation of news writing.
B. Twentieth-century journalism is more important than nineteenth-century journalism.
C. Penny-press news reporting was more accurate than that in twentieth-century newspapers.
D. Modern news coverage is similar to that done by the penny press.
37. Which of the following would LEAST likely be in a penny-press paper?
A. A report of theft of union funds by company officials
B. An article about a little girl returning a large amount of money she found in the street
C. A scholarly analysis of an economic issue of national importance
D. A story about land being given away in the West
A. the New York Sun B. the New York Herald
C. America D. the Civil War
39. Who was Horace Greeley?
A. The publisher of the first penny-press paper to make a profit.
B. The founder of the penny-press paper that did the most to influence the thinking of the public.
C. The most successful writer for the penny press.
D. The man who took over James Gordon Bennett’s penny-press paper and made it successful.
40. The word “remarkable” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. significant B. discussable C. remote D. uneven
41. The word “avid” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. intelligent B. eager C. critical D. thrifty
42. The figures concerning newspaper circulation in Pennsylvania in 1829 are relevant because they
A. explain why so many different periodicals were published
B. prove that weekly periodicals were more successful than daily papers
C. show the difference between reading habits before and after the Civil War
D. support the belief that Americans were enthusiastic readers of periodicals
43. The word “justify” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. generate B. calculate C. modify D. prove
44. “Make yourself at home!” – “_______”
A. Yes. Can I help you? B. Not at all. Don’t mention it.
C. Thanks. The same to you. D. That is very kind. Thank you.
45. “Do you mind if I borrow a chair?” – “_______”
A. I’m sorry. B. Not at all. C. Yes, I do. D. Yes, I would
questions.
46. My sister worries so much about fitness that she wastes a lot of time and money.
A. My sister wastes a lot of time and money though she worries so much about fitness.
B. My sister worries about fitness so that she wastes a lot of time and money.
C. Worrying too much about fitness, my sister wastes a lot of time and money.
D. Fitness worried, my sister wasted a lot of time and money.
47. The heavy downpour brought their picnic to an abrupt end.
A. their picnic didn’t end in the heavy downpour.
B. The heavy downpour ended when they brought me to their picnic.
C. Their picnic ends abruptly because of the heavy downpour.
D. They had to cut short their picnic because of the heavy downpour.
48. You can now buy these products at all large supermarkets.
A. These products are now available at all large supermarkets.
B. All large supermarkets are now on sale these products.
C. These products are for sales to all large supermarkets.
D. All large markets are available with these products.
49. His academic record at high school was poor. He failed to apply to that prestigious institution.
A. His academic record at high school was poor because he didn’t apply to that prestigious
institution.
B. His academic record at high school was poor as a result of his failure to apply to that prestigious
institution.
C. Failing to apply to that prestigious institution, his academic record at high school was poor.
D. His academic record at high school was poor; as a result, he failed to apply to that prestigious
institution.
50. Overeating is a cause of several deadly diseases. Physical inactivity is another cause of several
deadly diseases.
A. Not only overeating but also physical inactivity may lead to several deadly diseases.
B. Apart from physical activities, eating too much also contributes to several deadly diseases.
C. Both overeating and physical inactivity result from several deadly diseases.
D. Overeating and physical inactivity are caused by several deadly diseases.
ĐỀ THI 05
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
1. A. amuses B. purses C. blouses D. pleases
2. A. Valentine B. imagine C. discipline D. determine
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
3. A. consider B. apply C. provide D. offer
4. A. pollution B. attractive C. separate D. activity
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the two following questions.
5. Most of the female football players will be jobless when the Game are over.
A. employed B. busy C. unemployed D. highly-paid
6. Parents interpret facial and vocal expressions as indicators of how a baby is feeling.
A. translate B. understand C. read D. comprehend
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase OPPOSITE in
7. A lot of people think that Kim Kardashian is really hot.
A. beautiful B. cool C. unattractive D. kind
8. A chronic lack of sleep may make us irritable and reduces our motivation to work.
A. uncomfortable B. responsive C. calm D. miserable
9. Please remain in your assign seats until the instructor dismisses the class.
A. in B. assign seats C. until D. dismisses
10. Even you are unsure of the standard procedures in any situation, please don’t hesitate to consult with
your supervising manager.
A. Even B. unsure of C. in any situation D. consult with
11. We have always believed that honesty is best policy in personal as well as professional matters.
A. have always believed B. best policy
C. personal D. professional
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
12. I haven’t _______ my mind where to go for our holiday this year. I am quite busy at work.
A. turn up B. made up C. break up D. changed
13. I wish you _______ making so much noise! I just need to relax for a while.
A. will stop B. stop C. had stopped D. would stop
14. Gold, as well as silver, _______ in price, he said.
A. have fallen B. has fallen C. fall D. are falling
15. I wonder if you could _______ me a small favour, Tom?
A. bring B. make C. give D. do
16. Many traffic accidents are _______ by carelessness and impatience.
A. caused B. resulted C. occurred D. happened
17. Sam confessed _______ all the cookies.
A. eat B. eating C. to eating D. to eat
18. The bus conductor told him to get off because he couldn’t pay the _______.
A. fare B. journey C. bill D. travel
19. Some people believe that books are _______ species, fighting for survival in competition with TV,
film, the Internet and CD.
A. danger B. dangerous C. endangered D. dangerously
20. _______ quickly they ran, they just couldn’t catch up with the van.
A. However B. So C. Even D. Much
21. Our team was losing but we managed to _______ the score.
A. get B. noticed C. even D. have
22. Since Carl was unable to pay his bill, after a couple of months, his telephone was _______.
A. cut off B. broken up C. dropped off D. rung up
23. He always did it well at school _______ having his early education disrupted by illness.
A. in spite of B. on account of C. in addition to D. even though
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete the following
exchanges.
24. “Didn’t you go to the conference?” – “_______”
A. No, I went there with my friends. B. That sounds nice, but I can’t.
C. Don’t worry. I’ll go there. D. I did, but I didn’t stay long.
25. “May I leave a message for Ms. Davis?” – “_______”
A. I’m afraid she’s not here at the moment.
B. No, she’s not here now.
C. She’s leaving a message to you now.
D. Yes, I’ll make sure she gets it.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following sentences.
26. Most people get fewer colds in the summer than in the winter.
A. A person is more likely to get a cold in the winter than in the summer.
B. More people have summer colds than winter colds.
C. People get colder in the summer than in the winter.
D. The winter is much colder than the summer.
27. If it hadn’t been for his carelessness, we would have finished the work.
A. He was careless because he hadn’t finished the work.
B. If her were careful, we would finish the work.
C. If he had been more careful, we would have completed the work.
D. Because he wasn’t careless, we didn’t finish the work.
28. The captain to his men: “Abandon the ship immediately!”
A. The captain invited his men to abandon the ship immediately.
B. The captain suggested his men abandon the ship immediately.
C. The captain ordered his men to abandon the ship immediately.
D. The captain requested his men to abandon the ship immediately.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
29. The girl is talking to a man with a ponytail. She is my friend.
A. The girl who is talking to a man with a ponytail is my friend.
B. The girl, whom a man with a ponytail is talking to, is my friend.
C. My friend is the girl, who is talking to a man with a ponytail.
D. The girl, who is talking to a man with a ponytail, is my friend.
30. She doesn’t want to go to their party. We don’t want to go either.
A. Neither she nor we don’t want to go to their party.
B. Neither we nor she wants to go to their party.
C. Either we or she doesn’t want to go to their party.
D. Neither we nor she want to go to their party.
Reading the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
THE OLD GATE
In the Middle Ages the vast majority of European cities had walls around them. They (31) _______ to
defend the city, but they also kept out undesirable people, like those with contagious diseases.
Most of London’s gates had been (32) _______ by the end of the eighteenth century. However, by a
stroke of luck, the last of them was preserved. This gate is, in actual fact, not called a gate at all; its name is
Temple Bar, and it marked the (33) _______ between the old City of London and Westminster. However, as
the (34) _______ of traffic through London increased, Temple Bar became an obstacle to its free flow. In
1878 it was decided to take it down, so its stone were numbered, dismantled and put in storage. A couple of
years later a wealthy businessman bought the stones and re-erected them at his house in Hertfordshire.
In the 1970s the Temple Bar Trust was (35) _______ with the intention of returning the gate to the
City of London. Much of the money for this project was donations from the Temple Bar Trust. The
stonework needed a lot of restoration, which was carried out by the Cathedral Works Organization. Today,
Temple Bar stands next to St Paul’s Cathedral.
31. A. supposed B. served C. expected D. meant
32. A. devoted B. demolished C. declared D. decreased
33. A. division B. part C. line D. boundary
34. A. amount B. quantity C. bulk D. number
35. A. set out B. set up C. set off D. set back
the questions from 36 to 42.
In developing countries, where three fourths of the world’s population live, sixty percent of the people
who can’t read and write are women. Being illiterate doesn’t mean they are not intelligent. It does mean it is
difficult for them to change their lives. They produce more than half of the food. In Africa eighty percent of
all agricultural work is done by women. There are many programs to help poor countries develop their
agriculture. However, for years, these programs provided money and training for men.
In parts of Africa, this is a typical day for a village woman. At 4:45 am, she gets up, washes and eats.
It takes her a half hour to walk to the fields, and she works there until 3:30 pm. She collects firewood and
gets home at 4:00. She spends the next hour and a half preparing food to cook. Then she collect water for
another hour. From 6:30 to 8:30 she cooks. After dinner, she spends an hour washing the dishes and her
children. She goes to bed at 9:30 pm.
International organizations and programs run by developed nations are starting to help women, as
well as men, improve their agricultural production. Government have already passed some laws affecting
women because of the UN Decade for Women. The UN report will affect the changes now happening in the
family and society.
36. What does the word “run” in the last paragraph mean?
A. move quickly B. push C. managed D. organized
37. Why do people say women produce more than half of the food in Africa?
A. because 60 percent of women are illiterate.
B. because 80 percent of all agricultural work is done by women.
C. most women are not intelligent.
D. all are correct.
38. Why do people say that Africa women’s lives are hard?
A. Because these women are busy with housework.
B. Because they work all day in the fields.
C. both A and B are correct.
D. Because they are illiterate.
39. A typical Africa woman spends _______ collecting firewood every day.
A. 3 hours B. 2 hours C. 1 hour D. 4 hours
40. Which of these statements is NOT TRUE?
A. Women’s roles in the family and society are changing nowadays.
B. It is difficult for women to change their lives because of their illiteracy.
C. In the past only men in poor countries got benefit from many international programs.
D. Because they are illiterate, women are not intelligent.
41. By whom (what) was the Decade for Women organized?
A. by the United Nations Organization. B. by developing countries.
C. by the World Health Organization. D. by many African countries.
42. The passage would most likely be followed by details about _______.
A. changes in life between men and women in the family and in the society.
B. negative effects of the UNO law
C. positive effects of the roles of women
D. women and men’s roles in their family
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
In Science, a theory is a reasonable explanation of observed events that are related. A theory often
involves an imaginary model that helps scientists picture the way an observed event could be produced. A
good example of this is found in the kinetic molecular theory, in which gases are pictured as being made up
of many small particles that are in constant motion.
After a theory has been publicized, scientists design experiments to test the theory. If observations
confirm the scientists’ predictions, the theory is supported. If observations do not confirm the predictions,
the scientists must search further. There may be a fault in the experiment, or the theory may have to be
revised or rejected.
Science involves imagination and creative thinking as well as collecting information and performing
experiments. Facts by themselves are not science. As the mathematician Jules Henri Poincare said: “Science
is built with facts just as a house is built bricks, but a collection of facts cannot be called science any more
than a pile of bricks can be called a house”
Most scientists start an investigation by finding out what other scientists have learned about a
particular problem. After known facts have been gathered, the scientists comes to the part of the
investigation that requires considerable imagination. Possible solutions to the problem are formulated. These
possible solutions are called hypotheses. In a way, any hypothesis is a leap into the unknown. It extends the
scientist’s thinking beyond the known facts. The scientist plans experiments, performs calculations, and
make observations to test hypotheses. For without hypotheses, further investigation lacks purpose and
direction. When hypotheses are confirmed, they are incorporated into theories.
43. Which of the following is the main subject of the passage?
A. The importance of models in scientific theories.
B. The sorts of facts that scientists find most interesting.
C. The ways that scientists perform different types of experiments.
D. The place of theory and hypothesis in scientific investigation.
44. The word “related” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. described B. identified C. connected D. completed
45. According to the second paragraph, a useful theory is one that helps scientists to _______.
A. observe events B. publicize new findings
C. make predictions D. find errors in past experiments
46. The word “supported” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. upheld B. finished C. adjusted D. investigated
47. “Bricks” are mentioned in paragraph 3 to indicate how _______.
A. science is more than a collection of facts
B. scientific experiments have led to improved technology
C. mathematicians approach science
D. building a house is like performing experiments
48. In the fourth paragraph, the author implies that imagination is most important to scientists when they
_______.
A. formulate possible solutions to a problem
B. evaluate previous work on a problem
C. close an investigation
D. gather known facts
49. In the last paragraph, what does the author imply is a major function of hypotheses?
A. Linking together different theories.
B. Communicating a scientist’s thoughts to others.
C. Providing direction for scientific research.
D. Sifting through known facts.
50. Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?
A. Theories are simply imaginary models of past events.
B. A scientist’s most difficult task is testing hypotheses.
C. A good scientist needs to be creative.
D. It is better to revise a hypothesis than to reject it.
ĐỀ THI 06
1. A. crop B. common C. household D. bodily
2. A. charity B. chaos C. champion D. chin
3. A. accelerate B. impossible C. assimilate D. opposition
4. A. intervention B. eventually C. renovation D. confirmation
5. As a government official, Benjamin Franklin often traveled abroad.
A. widely B. secretly C. alone D. overseas
6. The lost hikers stayed alive by eating wild berries and drinking spring water.
A. connived B. survived C. surprised D. revived
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
7. Fruit and vegetables grew in abundance on the island. The islanders even exported the surplus.
A. large quantity B. small quantity C. excess D. sufficiency
8. Her father likes the head cabbage rare.
A. over-boiled B. precious C. scarce D. scare
9. People respected him because he was a honest man.
A. People B. respected C. because D. a honest man
10. My uncle has just bought some expensive furnitures fir his new house.
A. has just bought B. expensive C. furnitures D. for his new house
11. The flag over the White House is risen at dawn everyday by a color guard from the United States
armed forces.
A. over the White House B. is risen
C. at dawn D. armed
12. When I last saw him, he _______ in London.
A. lived B. is living C. was living D. had been living
13. They studied hard and _______ they passed the entrance exam.
A. eventually B. finally C. at the end D. finish
14. I shivered and sweated _______.
A. continue B. continual C. continuously D. continually
15. I _______ to Greece until Sally and I went there last summer.
A. have never been B. had never been
C. was never being D. were never
16. As the drug took _______, the patient became quieter.
A. effect B. force C. influence D. action
17. He said if he had not answered the phone at the petroleum station then, he _______ a fine.
A. would pay B. hadn’t paid C. had been paid D. wouldn’t have had to pay
18. Jim’s _______ flu again. That’s the third time this year.
A. led up to B. come up with C. gone down with D. put up with
19. I am driving instructor so I have to be very _______ as people get upset when you critize them.
A. powerful B. skillful C. tactful D. helpful
20. The number of learners of English _______ in recent years.
A. have increased rapidly B. has been increased rapidly
C. have been increased rapidly D. has increased rapidly
21. The old manager has just retired, so Tom takes _______ his position.
A. in B. on C. up D. out
22. Every step _______ to improve the living conditions in these slums only attracts more migrants.
A. held B. hold C. taken D. took
23. When you have a small child in the house, you _______ leave small objects lying around. Such
objects _______ be swallowed, causing serious injury or even death.
A. needn’t/ may B. should not/ might
C. should/ must D. mustn’t/ can’t
exchanges.
24. “How can this dress be so expensive?” – “_______”
A. Yes, it’s the most expensive. B. What an expensive dress!
C. You’re paying for the brand. D. That’s a good idea.
25. “May I speak to the manager?” – “_______”
A. He always comes late. He is not very well.
B. Thank you. Good bye.
C. I’m afraid he’s not in. Can I take a message?
D. I’m afraid not. He works very hard.
26. Amanda has improved a lot this term.
A. Amanda has made a lot of impression this term.
B. Amanda has made great progress this term.
C. A lot of progress were made by Amanda this term.
D. Amanda has made a lot of advances this term.
27. They have collected the test and checked the answers.
A. The tests have been collected and the answers have been checked.
B. They have checked the answers when they have collected the tests.
C. The tests have been collected for checking.
D. The answers would be given after they collected the tests.
28. Machines have taken the place of the people who used to do this kind of work.
A. It is machines that do this kind of work, not people.
B. Thanks to machines, people no longer do this kind of work.
C. Machines are better than people at doing this kind of work.
D. The people who used to do this kind of work have been replaced by machines.
29. I think my hair looks fine. My brother believes it needs a little more brushing.
A. Not only do I think my hair looks fine, but my mother also believes it needs a little more
brushing.
B. Either my mother believes it needs a little more brushing or I think my hair looks fine.
C. I think my hair looks so fine that my mother believes it needs a little more brushing.
D. I think my hair looks fine, but my mother believes it needs a little more brushing.
30. We can protect the world in which we live. We, for example, can grow more trees and recycle
rubbish.
A. We can protect the world in which we lives as well as we can grow more trees and recycle
rubbish.
B. We can protect the world in which we live, growing more trees and recycle rubbish.
C. We can protect the world in which we live by growing more trees and recycling rubbish.
D. We can protect the world in which we live such as growing more trees and recycling rubbish.
PAPER
‘Just imagine a day without paper,’ reads one advertisement for a Finnish paper company. It adds,
‘You almost certainly see our products every day.’ And they’re right. But in most industrial countries.,
people are so (31) _______ to paper – whether it’s for holding their groceries, for drying their hands or for
providing them with the daily news – that its (32) _______ in their daily lives passes largely unnoticed.
At one (33) _______ paper was in short supply and was used mainly for important documents, but
more recently, growing economies and new technologies have (34) _______ a dramatic increase in the
amount of paper used. Today, there are more than 450 different grades of paper, all designed for a different
purpose.
Decades ago, some people predicted a ‘paperless office’. Instead, the widespread use of new
technologies has gone hand-in-hand with an increased use of paper. Research into the relationship between
paper use and the use of computers has shown that the general (35) _______ is likely to be one of growth
and interdependence.
However, the costs involved in paper production, in terms of the world’s land, water and air resources,
are high. This raises some important questions. How much paper do we really need and how much is
wasted?
31. A. conscious B. acquainted C. familiar D. accustomed
32. A. task B. operation C. service D. role
33. A. time B. instance C. date D. occasion
34. A. called on B. come around C. brought about D. drawn up
35. A. method B. order C. trend D. system
ACADEMICS AREN’T THE PROBLEM
Studies about how students use their time might shed light on whether they face increased academic
and financial pressures compared with earlier eras.
Based on data about how students are spending time, academic or financial pressures don’t seem to be
greater now than a generation ago. The data show that full-time students in all types of colleges study much
less now than they did a generation ago – a full 10 hours a week lees. Students are also receiving
significantly higher grades. So it appears that academic pressure are, in fact, considerably lower than they
used to be.
The time-use data don’t suggest that students feel greater financial pressures, either. When the time
savings and lower opportunity costs are factored in, college appears less expensive for most students than it
was in the 1960s. And though there are now full-time students working to pay while in college, they study
less even when paid work choices are held constantly.
In other words, full-time students do not appear to be studying less in order to work more. They
appears to be studying less and spending the extra time on leisure activities or fun. It seems hard to imagine
that students feeling increased financial pressure would respond by taking more leisure.
Based on how students are spending their time then, it doesn’t look as though academic or financial
pressures are greater now than a generation ago. The time-use data don’t speak directly to social pressures,
and it may well be that these have become more intense lately.
In one recent set of data, students reported spending more than 23 hours per week either socializing
with friends or playing on the computer for fun. Social activities, in person or on computer, would seem to
have become the major focus of campus life. It is hard to tell what kinds of pressures would be associated
with this change.
36. The study’s condition that students’ workload now is not greater than before is based on _______.
A. what students achieve with greater load
B. how students spend their time
C. how students work through college
D. what college demands from students
37. Students get higher grades as _______.
A. students study much harder
B. academic workload appears more attractive
C. academic workload appears less demanding
D. college’s facilities are much better
38. According to the author, the fact that students have more time for leisure is a proof that _______.
A. financial pressure on students is not a problem
B. academic work disinterests them
C. they are active with extra-curricular activities
D. they cannot find extra jobs
39. All factors considered, college now seems _______.
A. more costly B. ever more expensive
C. much more expensive D. less expensive
40. Students nowadays seem to be studying less and _______.
A. spending more time on leisure B. spending more time doing odd jobs
C. giving more time to sports D. taking more extracurricular activities
41. The word “focus” in the last paragraph can be replace with _______.
A. central activity B. primary theme C. headline D. biggest importance
42. The author finds it hard to point out _______.
A. how students’ campus life becomes subject to academic pressure
B. what is associated with the change in students’ campus life
C. the cause to students’ financial pressure
D. how the background of students’ campus life is built
The biologist’s role in society as well as his moral and ethical responsibility in the discovery and
development of new ideas has led to a reassessment of his social and scientific value systems. A scientist
can no longer ignore the consequences of his discoveries; he is as concerned with the possible misuses of his
findings as he is with the basic research in which he is involved. This emerging social and political role of
the biologist and all other scientists requires a weighing of values that cannot be done with the accuracy or
the objectivity of a laboratory balance. As a member of society, it is necessary for a biologist now to
redefine his social obligations and his functions, particularly in the realm of making judgments about such
ethical problems as man’s control of his environment or his manipulation of genes to direct further
evolutionary development. As a result of recent discoveries concerning hereditary mechanisms, genetic
engineering, by which human traits are made to order, may soon be a reality.
As desirable as it may seem to be, such an accomplishment would entail many value judgments. Who
would decide, for example, which traits should be selected for change? In case of genetic deficiencies and
disease, the desirability of the change is obvious, but the possibilities for social misuse are so numerous that
they may far outweigh the benefits.
Probably the greatest biological problem of the future, as it is of the present, will be to find ways to
curb environmental pollution without interfering with man’s constant effort to improve the quality of his
life. Many scientists believe that underlying the spectre of pollution is the problem of surplus human
population. A rise in population necessitates an increase in the operations of modern industry, the waste
products of which increase the pollution of air, water, and soil. The question of how many people the
resources of the Earth can support is one of critical importance.
Although the solutions to these and many other problems are yet to be found, they do indicate the need
for biologists to work with social scientists and other members of society in order to determine the
requirements necessary for maintaining a healthy and productive planet. For although many of man’s
present and future problems may seem to be essentially social, political, or economic in nature, they have
biological ramifications that could affect the very existence of life itself.
43. According to the passage, a modern scientist should be more concerned about _______.
A. the consequences of his discoveries B. his basic research
C. his manipulation of genes D. the development of new ideas
44. The pronoun “it” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. genetic engineering B. an accomplishment
C. hereditary mechanism D. a reality
45. It is implied in the passage that genetic engineering _______.
A. will change all human traits B. is no longer desirable
C. is the most desirable for life D. may do us more harm than good
46. The pronoun “they” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. possibilities for genetic deficiencies
B. cases of genetic deficiencies
C. discoveries concerning hereditary mechanisms
D. effects of genetic engineering misuse
47. What is probably the most important biological problem mentioned in the passage?
A. environmental pollution
B. manipulation of genes
C. genetic engineering misuse
D. social and economic deficiencies
48. According to the passage, to save our planet, biologists should work _______.
A. with other social scientists
B. accurately and objectively
C. on social and political purposes
D. harder and harder
49. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “ramifications” in paragraph 4?
A. effective techniques
B. latest developments
C. harmful consequences
D. useful experiments
50. What is the author’s purpose in this passage?
A. To urge biologists to solve the problem of surplus human population
B. To conduct a survey of the biologist’s role in society
C. To advise biologists to carry out extensive research into genetic engineering
D. To emphasize the biologist’s role in solving the world’s problems
ĐỀ THI 07
1. A. merchant B. sergeant C. commercial D. mermaid
2. A. obstacle B. obscure C. obsession D. oblivious
3. A. generous B. electricity C. horrible D. famous
4. A. economy B. village C. interest D. industry
5. The boy was brought up with a family in the countryside.
A. reared B. bred C. raised D. grown
6. There was nothing they could do but leave the car at the roadside where it had broken down.
A. except B. instead of C. than D. unless
7. We offer a speedy and secure service of transferring money in less than 24 hours.
A. uninterested B. unsure C. slow D. open
8. We tried to emphasize a system where you put things in place and hire smart, industrious people.
A. slothful B. hardworking C. busy D. fruitful
9. The windows at the front of the house need to repair.
A. The windows B. of the house C. need D. to repair
10. Last week Mark told me that he got very bored with his present job and were looking for a new one.
A. told B. got C. were looking D. new one
11. New laws should be introduced to reduce the number of traffic in the city center.
A. laws B. be introduced C. number D. city center
12. I _______ along the street when I suddenly heard footsteps behind me.
A. was walking B. am walking C. walk D. walked
13. “You should stop working too hard _______ you’ll get sick”.
A. or else B. if C. in case D. whereas
14. He occasionally _______ a headache in the morning.
A. has had B. has C. have D. is having
15. Nowadays children would prefer history lessons _______ in more practical ways.
A. to be delivered B. delivered C. be delivered D. to be delivering
16. They would _______ go by air than travel by train.
A. always B. better C. prefer D. rather
17. Henry _______ into the restaurant when the writer was having dinner.
A. was going B. went C. has gone D. did go
18. She _______ the baby on the bed in order to change its nappy.
A. lay B. laid C. lied D. lain
19. These quick and easy _______ can be effective in the short term, but they have a cost.
A. solve B. solvable C. solutions D. solvability
20. The headmaster said the students had well performed in the test _______.
A. yesterday B. last day C. the day before D. the previous
21. I’ve just spent two weeks looking _______ an aunt of mine who’s been ill.
A. at B. for C. out for D. after
22. Were you aware _______ the regulations against smoking in the area?
A. in B. with C. of D. about
23. My uncle took _______ golf when he retired from work.
A. on B. after C. up D. over
exchanges.
24. “Why did you turn the air conditioner on? – “_______”
A. I think it’s a bad air conditioner. B. I can’t see anything.
C. It’s a little hot in here. D. It’s a good idea.
25. “Where’s the view? The advertisement said this place has a great view of the sea.” – “_______”
A. It has good facilities. B. It’s convenient to see it.
C. You can find it very convenient. D. You can see it from the back.
26. “How fashionable your dress is!” they said to the lady.
A. They exclaimed in admiration for how fashionable the lady’s dress was.
B. They exclaimed with admiration at how fashionable was the lady’s dress.
C. They exclaimed with admiration at how fashionable the lady’s dress was.
D. They exclaimed in admiration that it was fashionable dress the lady had.
27. Of the members, half were for the proposal and half were against.
A. The member of members who favoured the proposal was equal to the number who opposed it.
B. None of the members could agree whether to accept or reject the proposal.
C. Half of the members were chosen for the project, but those who weren’t objected to it.
D. Many members didn’t agree with the proposal, but some did.
28. You can never be sure about the accuracy of TV weather reports.
A. If you want to know how the weather is going to be, you should watch TV.
B. There are more accurate ways of learning how the weather will be than watching TV.
C. If I were you, I would rely on the TV weather report.
D. Weather forecasts on television are notoriously unreliable.
29. This computer is badly damaged. It cannot be required.
A. This computer is too badly damaged to be repaired.
B. This computer is so badly damaged that it cannot be repaired.
C. This computer is so badly damaged that nobody can repair it.
D. All are correct.
30. The blouse is a little too loose. You’d better ask your tailor to take it in.
A. Your tailor is asked to take your blouse in a little.
B. You’d better have the blouse taken in as it is too loose.
C. The blouse is lost as you didn’t ask your tailor to take it in.
D. The blouse is little as you asked your tailor to take it in.
THE PERFORMING ARTS
In the past, British children were frequently encouraged to try out their performing skills for the
benefits of adults. They did this by reading aloud, acting or (31) _______ a musical instrument. As they
grew up they were taken to public places of entertainment – the theatre, opera, circus or ballet. They looked
forward to these (32) _______ with great excitement and would remember and discuss what they had seen
for many weeks afterwards. But nowadays television and computers supply an endless stream of easily (33)
_______ entertainment, and children quickly accept these marvelous inventions as a very ordinary part of
their everyday lives. For many children, the sense of witnessing a very (34) _______ live performance is
gone forever.
But all is not lost. The presence of a TV set may have encouraged a lazy response from (35) _______
in their own homes, but the desire of those with ambitions to become performing artists themselves does not
seem to have been at all diminished. And live performances in public are still relatively popular, albeit with
an older, more specialist audience.
31. A. controlling B. handling C. doing D. playing
32. A. circumstances B. occasions C. incidents D. situations
33. A. applicable B. convenient C. available D. free
34. A. special B. peculiar C. specific D. particular
35. A. spectators B. onlookers C. viewers D. listeners
The invention of the electric telegraph gave birth to the communications industry. Although Samuel B.
Morse succeeded in making the invention useful in 1837, it was not until 1843 that the first telegraph line of
consequence was constructed. By 1860 more than 50,000 miles of lines connected people east of the
Rockies. The following year, San Francisco was added to the network.
The national telegraph network fortified the ties between East and West and contributed to the rapid
expansion of the railroads by providing an efficient means to monitor schedules and routes. Furthermore, the
extension of the telegraph, combined with the invention of the steam-driven rotary printing press by Richard
M. Hoe in 1846, revolutionized the world of journalism. Where the business of news gathering had been
dependent upon the mail and on hand-operated presses, the telegraph expanded the amount of information a
newspaper could supply and allowed for more timely reporting. The establishment of the Associated Press
as a central wire service in 1846 marked the advent of a new era in journalism.
36. The main topic of the passage is _______.
A. the history of journalism
B. the origin of the national telegraph
C. how the telegraph network contributed to the expansion of railroads
D. the contributions and development of the telegraph network
37. The word “gathering” in the second paragraph refers to _______.
A. people B. information C. objects D. substances
38. The author’s main purpose in this passage is to _______.
A. compare the invention of the telegraph with the invention of the steam-driven rotary press
B. propose new ways to develop the communications industry
C. show how the electric telegraph affected the communications industry
D. criticize Samuel B. Morse
39. It can be inferred from the passage that _______.
A. Samuel Morse did not make a significant contribution to the communications industry
B. Morse’s invention did not immediately achieve its full potential
C. The extension of the telegraph was more important than its invention
D. Journalists have the Associated Press to thank for the birth of communications industry
40. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about the growth of the
communications industry?
A. Morse invented the telegraph in 1837
B. People could use the telegraph in San Francisco in 1861
C. The telegraph led to the invention of the rotary printing press
D. The telegraph helped connect the entire nation
41. The word “Rockies” refers to _______.
A. a telegraph company B. the West Coast
C. a mountain range D. a railroad company
42. This passage would most likely be found in a _______.
A. U.S. history book B. book on trains
C. science textbook D. computer magazine
Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
All mammals feed their young. Beluga whale mothers, for example, nurse their calves for some twenty
months, until they are about to give birth again and their young are able to find their own food. The behavior
of feeding of young is built into the reproductive system. It is a nonselective part of parental care and the
defining feature of a mammal, the most important thing that mammals – whether marsupials, platypuses,
spiny anteaters, or placental mammals – have in common.
But not all animal parents, even those that tend their offspring to the point of hatching or birth, feed
their young. Most egg-guarding fish do not, for the simple reason that their young are so much smaller than
the parents and eat food that is also much smaller than the food eaten by adults. In reptiles, the crocodile
mother protects her young after they have hatched and takes them down to the water, where they will find
food, but she does not actually feed them. Few insects feed their young after hatching, but some make other
arrangement, provisioning their cells and nests with caterpillars and spiders that they have paralyzed with
their venom and stored in a state of suspended animation so that their larvae might have a supply of fresh
food when they hatch.
For animals other than mammals, then, feeding is not intrinsic to parental care. Animals add it to their
reproductive strategies to give them an edge in their lifelong quest for descendants. The most vulnerable
moment in any animal’s life is when it first finds itself completely on its own, when it must forage and fend
for itself. Feeding postpones that moment until a young animal has grown to such a size that it is better able
to cope.
Young that are fed by their parents become nutritionally independent at a much greater fraction of
their full adult size. And in the meantime those young are shielded against the vagaries of fluctuating of
difficult-to-find supplies. Once a species does take the step of feeding its young, the young become totally
dependent on the extra effort. If both parents are removed, the young generally do not survive.
A. The care that various animals give to their offspring
B. The difficulties young animals face in obtaining food
C. the methods that mammals use to nurse their young
D. The importance among young mammals of becoming independent
44. The author lists various animals in the first paragraph to _______.
A. contrast the feeling habits of different types of mammals
B. describe the process by which mammals came to be defined
C. emphasize the point that every type of mammals feeds its own young
D. explain why a particular feature of mammals is nonselective
45. The word “tend” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. sit on B. move C. notice D. care for
46. The word “provisioning” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. supplying B. preparing C. building D. expanding
47. According to the passage, how do some insects make sure their young have food?
A. By storing food near their young
B. By locating their nests or cells near spiders and caterpillars
C. By searching for food some distance from their nest
D. By gathering food from a nearby water source
48. The word “edge” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. opportunity B. advantage C. purpose D. rest
49. The word “it” in the third paragraph refers to _______.
A. feeding B. moment C. young animal D. size
50. The word “shielded” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. raised B. protected C. hatched D. valued
ĐỀ THI 08
1. A. failed B. reached C. absorbed D. solved
2. A. develops B. takes C. laughs D. volumes
3. A. deafness B. arrange C. absorb D. exhaust
4. A. dedicate B. sensible C. treatment D. employment
5. Smoking has been banned in public places in some countries.
A. made illegal B. limited C. restricted D. given way
6. During the earthquake, a lot of buildings collapsed, which killed thousands of people.
A. went off accidentally B. fell down unexpectedly
C. explored suddenly D. erupted violently
7. Unless the two signatures are identical, the bank won’t honor the check.
A. different B. genuine C. fake D. similar
8. Constant correction by a teacher is often counterproductive, as the student may become afraid to
speak at all.
A. desolate B. productive C. barren D. effective
9. Woman were denied the right to own property and participate in public life.
A. Woman B. the right C. and D. in public life
10. Bill is often late for class, which makes his teachers angrily.
A. is B. for C. which D. angrily
11. Books with good stories are often described like food for thought.
A. with B. are C. described D. like
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correction answer to each of the
12. Although he tried to hide it, it was _______ that Peter didn’t like his birthday present.
A. foolish B. basic C. obvious D. vigorous
13. Environmental groups try to stop farmers from using harmful _______ on their crops.
A. economy B. articulate C. investments D. chemicals
14. If you _______ too much on study, you will get tired and stressed.
A. concentrate B. develop C. organize D. complain
15. The bus only stops here to _______ passengers.
A. alight B. get on C. get off D. pick up
16. Everyone has their _______ which are hardly recognized by themselves.
A. limit B. limited C. limitation D. limitations
17. In order to _______ their goals in college, students need to invest the maximum amount of time,
money, and energy in their studies.
A. achieve B. catch C. establish D. manage
18. _______ the students in my class enjoy taking part in social activities.
A. Most B. Most of C. Many D. The number of
19. Vehicles also account _______ air pollution in the cities.
A. on B. at C. for D. in
20. The people _______ for the bus in the rain are getting wet.
A. waiting B. to wait C. waited D. wait
21. I take _______ everything I said about Tom. I realize now that it wasn’t true.
A. on B. over C. in D. back
22. Hey, you _______ at the computer all day. You should really take a break now.
A. were sitting B. have been sitting
C. have sit D. have sat
23. A lot of money _______ on advertising every year.
A. spend B. is spent C. are spent D. spends
exchanges.
24. “I think the pants are a little big.” – “_______”
A. Are they big enough? B. You should get a bigger pair.
C. Yes, maybe a little. D. Yes, they are not big at all.
25. “What does this thing do?” – “_______”
A. I think it’s a waste of money. B. It peels potatoes.
C. It sure does. D. I can use it well.
26. Who made you work so hard yesterday?
A. Who forced you to work so hard yesterday?
B. Why did you work so hard yesterday?
C. What made you work so hard yesterday?
D. How could you work so hard yesterday?
27. We stayed in that hotel despite the noise.
A. Despite the hotel is noisy, we stayed here.
B. We stayed in the noisy hotel and we liked it.
C. No matter how noisy the hotel was, we stayed there.
D. Because of the noise, we stayed in the hotel.
28. She is studying not only English but also French.
A. She is studying both English and French.
B. English and French are favorite subjects.
C. She likes both English and French.
D. She isn’t studying English, but she is studying French.
29. Mary was sick. She didn’t leave the meeting until it ended.
A. In spite of the fact that Mary’s sickness, she didn’t leave the meeting until it ended.
B. Mary didn’t leave the meeting until it ended despite she was sick.
C. When the meeting ended, Mary left because she was sick.
D. Though sick, Mary didn’t leave the meeting until it ended.
30. He wanted to give the ball a powerful kick. He used the top of his foot.
A. He gave the ball a powerful kick to use the top of his foot.
B. Using the top of his foot, he kicked a powerful ball.
C. He used the top of his foot to give the ball a powerful kick.
D. What he wants to do is give the ball a powerful kick and use the top of his foot.
correct word or phrase that bests fit each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
SHOPPING MALLS
Victor Gruen, an American architect, revolutionized shopping in the 1950s by creating the type of
shopping centre that we now call a shopping mall.
Gruen’s (31) _______ was to provide a pleasant, quiet and spacious shopping environment with large
car parks, which usually meant building in the suburbs. He also wanted people to be able to shop in all kinds
of weather. He (32) _______ on using building designs that he knew people would feel comfortable with,
but placed them in landscaped ‘streets’ that were entirely enclosed and often covered with a curved glass
roof. This was done to (33) _______ some of the older shopping arcades of city centres, but while these
housed only small speciality shops, Gruen’s shopping malls were on a much grander scale.
Access to the whole shopping mall was gained by using the main doors, which (34) _______ the
shopping ‘streets’ from the parking areas outside. As there was no need to keep out bad weather, shops no
longer needed windows and doors, and people could wander (35) _______ from shop to shop. In many
cities, shopping malls now contain much more than just shops; cinemas, restaurants and other forms of
entertainment are also growing in popularity.
31. A. direction B. aim C. search D. view
32. A. insisted B. demanded C. requested D. emphasized
33. A. model B. imitate C. repeat D. shadow
34. A. disconnected B. withdrew C. separated D. parted
35. A. freely B. loosely C. simply D. entirely
correct answer to each of the questions 36 to 42.
As heart disease continues to be the number-one killer in the United States, researches have become
increasingly interested in identifying the potential risk factors that trigger heart attacks. High-fat diets and
“life in the fast lane” have long been known to contribute to the high incidence of heart failure. Bur
according to new studies, the list of risk factors may be significantly longer and quite surprising.
Heart failure, for example, appears to have seasonal and temporal patterns. A higher percentage of
heart attacks occur in cold weather, and more people experience heart failure on Monday than on any other
day of the week. In addition, people are more susceptible to heart attacks in the first few hours after walking.
Cardiologists first observed this morning phenomenon in the mid-1980, and have since discovered a number
of possible causes. An early-morning rise in blood pressure, heart rate, and concentration of heart
stimulating hormones, plus a reduction of blood flow to the heart, may all contribute to the higher incidence
of heart attacks between the hours of 8:00 A.M. and 10:00 A.M.
In other studies, both birthdays and bachelorhood have been implicated as risk factors. Statistics reveal
that heart attack rates increase significantly for both females and males in the few days immediately
preceding and following their birthdays. And unmarried men are more at risk for heart attacks than their
married counterparts. Though stress is thought to be linked in some way of the aforementioned risk factors,
intense research continues in the hope of further comprehending why and how heart failure is triggered.
A. seasonal and temporal patterns of heart attacks
B. cardiology in the 1980s
C. risk factors in heart attacks
D. diet and stress as factors in heart attacks
37. The word “trigger” as used in line 2 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. affect B. cause C. encounter D. involve
38. Which of the following could best replace the world “incidence” as used in line 3?
A. factor B. rate C. chance D. increase
39. The phrase “susceptible to” in line 8 could best be replaced by
A. affected by B. prone to C. aware of D. accustomed
40. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT a possible cause of many heart attacks?
A. decreased blood flow to the heart B. increased blood pressure
C. increase in hormones D. lower heart rate
41. Which of the following is NOT cited as a possible risk factor?
A. having a birthday B. being under stress
C. getting married D. eating fatty foods
42. Which of the following does the passage infer?
A. We have not identified many risk factors associated with heart attacks.
B. We now fully understand how risk factors trigger heart attacks.
C. We do not fully understand how risk factors trigger heart attacks.
D. We recently began to study how risk factors trigger heart attacks.
Since the dawn of time, people have found ways to communicate with one another. Smoke signals and
tribal drums were some of the earliest forms of communication. Letters, carried by birds or by humans on
foot or on horseback, made it possible for people to communicate larger amounts of information between
two places. The telegram and telephone set the stage for more modern means of communication. With the
invention of the cellular phone, communication itself has become mobile.
For you, a cell phone is probably just a device that you and your friends use to keep in touch with
family and friends, take pictures, play games, or send text message. The definition of a cell phone is more
specific: it is a hand-held wireless communication device that sends and receives signals by way of small
special areas called cells.
Walkie-talkies, telephones and cell phones are duplex communication devices: They make it possible
for two people to talk to each other. Cell phones and walkie-talkies are different from regular phones
because they can be used in many different locations. A walkie-talkie is sometimes called a half-duplex
communication device because only one person can talk at a time. A cell phone is a full-duplex device
because it uses both frequencies at the same time. A walkie-talkie has only one channel. A cell phone has
more than a thousand channels. A walkie-talkie can transmit and receive signals across a distance of about a
mile. A cell phone can transmit and receive signals over hundreds of miles. In 1973, an electronic company
called Motorola hired Martin Cooper to work on wireless communication. Motorola and Bell Laboratories
(now AT&T) were in a race to invent the first portable communication device. Martin Cooper won the race
and became the inventor of the cell phone. On April 3, 1973, Cooper made the first cell phone call his
opponent at AT&T while walking down the streets of New York city. People on the sidewalks gazed at
Cooper in amazement. Cooper’s phone was called a Motorola Dyna-Tac. It weighed a whopping 2.5 pounds
(as compared to today’s cell phones that weigh as little as 3 or 4 ounces)
After the invention of his cell phone, Cooper began thinking of ways to make the cell phone available
to the general public. After a decade, Motorola introduced the first cell phone for commercial use. The early
cell phone and its service were both expensive. The cell phone itself cost about $3,500. In 1977, AT&T
constructed a cell phone system and tried it out in Chicago with over 2,000 customers. In 1981, a second
cellular phone system was started in the Washington, D.C and Baltimore area. It took nearly 37 years for
cell phones to become available for general public use. Today, there are more than sixty million cell phone
customers with cell phones producing over thirty billion dollars per years.
43. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. the increasing number of people using cell phone
B. the different between cell phones and telephones
C. the history of a cell phone
D. hoe Cooper compete with AT&T
44. What definition is true of a cell phone?
A. The first product of two famous corporation
B. A hand-held wireless communication device
C. Something we use just for playing games
D. A version of walkie-talkie
45. The word “duplex” is closest meaning to _______.
A. having two parts B. quick
C. modern D. having defects
46. To whom did Cooper make his first cell phone call?
A. his assistant at Motorola B. a person on New York street
C. a member of Bell Laboratories D. the director of his company
47. How heavy is the first cell phone compared to today’s cell phones?
A. ten times as heavy as B. as heavy as
C. much lighter D. 2 pounds heavier
48. When did AT&T widely start their cellular phone system?
A. in 2001 B. in 1977 C. in 1981 D. 37 years after their first design
49. What does the word “gazed” mean?
A. looked with admiration B. angrily looked
C. glanced D. started conversation
50. The phrase “tried it out” refers to _______.
A. made effort to sell the cell-phone B. reported on AT&T
C. tested the cell-phone system D. introduced the cell-phone system
ĐỀ THI 09
1. A. species B. invent C. medicine D. tennis
2. A. advanced B. established C. preferred D. stopped
3. A. budget B. inquire C. tepid D. transcript
4. A. accomplish B. predictable C. prohibit D. duplicate
5. The doctor was sued for bad treatment.
A. mistreatment B. malpractice C. misdemeanour D. maltreatment
6. In astronomy, a scale of magnitude from one to six denotes the brightness of a star.
A. signifies B. predicts C. contrasts D. examines
7. We’d better speed up if we want to get there in time.
A. slow down B. turn down C. put down D. lie down
8. We are now a 24/7 society where shops and services must be available all hours.
A. an active society B. an inactive society
C. a physical society D. a working society
9. When I want to have my hair cuts I often go to the hairdresser’s.
A. When B. have C. cuts D. hairdresser’s
10. They asked me what did happen last night, but I was unable to tell them.
A. asked B. what did happen C. but D. to tell
11. Nonla, that is one of the typical symbols of the Vietnamese culture, has a conical form.
A. that B. typical C. of D. a
12. Parents have great hopes of great _______ when they send their children to school.
A. wishes B. obligations C. expectations D. plans
13. Many people claimed _______ unidentified flying objects.
A. to see B. to have seen C. to had seen D. see
14. They have plenty of time, so they need not _______.
A. be hurry B. to hurry C. hurry D. to be hurry
15. She has changed so much that I didn’t _______ her right away.
A. admit B. recognize C. know D. believe
16. Don’t take any _______ of Mike – he’s always rude to everyone.
A. sight B. view C. notice D. attention
17. The tragic sinking of the Titanic _______ for she went down on her first voyage with heavy loss of
life.
A. will always remember B. will always be remembered
C. always remember D. no answer is correct
18. The problem of _______ among young people is hard to solve.
A. employment B. employers C. employees D. unemployment
19. The boy fell while he _______ down the stairs.
A. run B. running C. was running D. runs
20. Belinda Harrell _______ taking her driving test until she finally passed it on her twenty-first attempt.
A. kept on B. cleared off C. used up D. wore out
21. You may get malaria _______ you are bitten by a mosquito.
A. if B. so that C. though D. unless
22. If only _______ taller, I might be better at basketball.
A. I am B. I were C. I be D. I have been
23. James is now too old to live on his own, so he is being _______ by his daughter.
A. found out B. brought up C. moved on D. looked after
exchanges.
24. “Where will you go on vacation?” – “_______”
A. Probably to the beach. B. The beach is nice, isn’t it?
C. Probably I won’t think of. D. I have a four-day vacation.
25. “I wonder if you could do something for me.” – “_______”
A. It depends on what it is. B. What’s it like.
C. No, thanks. D. I’m afraid I won’t come.
26. The coffee was not strong. It didn’t keep us awake.
A. The coffee was very strong, but it couldn’t keep us awake.
B. The coffee was not strong enough to keep us awake.
C. The coffee was not good enough for us to keep awake.
D. We were kept awake although the coffee was not strong.
27. Alison bought the big house because she wanted to open a hotel.
A. Alison bought the big house with a view to opening a hotel.
B. Alison bought the big house so that she can open a hotel.
C. Alison bought so big a house that she could use it as a hotel.
D. Alison bought the big house in a view of opening a hotel.
28. “Shall I carry the suitcase for you, Mary?” said John.
A. John offered Mary to carry the suitcase for Mary.
B. John offered to carry the suitcase for Mary.
C. John offered carrying the suitcase for Mary.
D. John offered Mary if he should carry the suitcase for her.
29. We can protect the world in which we live. We, for example, can grow more trees and recycle
rubbish.
A. We can protect the world in which we live as well as we can grow more trees and recycle rubbish.
B. We can protect the world in which we live, growing more trees and recycling rubbish.
C. We can protect the world in which we live by growing more trees and recycling rubbish.
D. We can protect the world in which we live such as growing more trees and recycling rubbish.
30. He enjoyed the army in 1998. He was soon after promoted to the rank of caption.
A. He was promoted to the rank of captain in 1998 and enjoyed the army.
B. Promoted to the rank of captain in 1998, he joined the army soon later.
C. He worked as a captain in the army and had a promotion in 1998.
D. Joining the army in 1998, he was soon promoted to the rank of captain.
THOMAS EDISON
On the night of 21 October 1931, millions of Americans took part in a coast-to-coast ceremony to
commemorate the passing of a great man. Lights (31) _______ in homes and offices from New York to
California. The ceremony marked the death of arguably the most important inventor of all time: Thomas
Edison.
Few inventors have (32) _______ such an impact on everyday life, and many of his inventions played
a crucial in the development of modern technology. One should never (33) _______ how revolutionary
some of Edison’s inventions were.
In many ways, Edison is the perfect example of an inventor – that is, not just someone who dreams up
clever gadgets, but someone whose products transform the lives of millions. He possessed the key
characteristics that an inventor needs to (34) _______ a success of inventions, notably sheer determination.
Edison famously tried thousands of materials while working on a new type of battery, reacting to failure by
cheerfully announcing to his colleagues: ‘Well, (35) _______ we know 8,000 things that don’t work.’
Knowing when to take no notice of experts is also important. Edison’s proposal for electric lighting circuitry
was received with total disbelief by eminent scientists, until he lit up whole streets with his lights.
31. A. turned out B. came off C. went out D. put off
32. A. put B. had C. served D. set
33. A. underestimate B. lower C. decrease D. mislead
34. A. gain B. make C. achieve D. get
35. A. by far B. at least C. even though D. for all
Walt Disney was born in 1990 in Chicago, but soon moved to a small farm near Marceline, Missouri.
From this rural and rather humble beginning he later became one of the most famous and beloved motion-
picture producers in history. Although he died in 1966, his name and artistic legacy continue to influence the
lives of millions of people though out the world.
After several years of barely making ends meet as a cartoon artist operating from his Los Angeles
garage, Disney had his first success in 1928, with his release of a Mickey Mouse cartoon. Throughout the
next decade, he continued to produce a number of cartoons, and develop more of his highly profitable and
enduring creations, such as Donald Duck and Pluto. In the late 1930s, he issued full-length cartoon film.
Snow White became an instant commercial and critical success. This was only the first of many films, both
animated and not, produced by Disney and his studio.
But as renowned as Disney name is for cartoon and monies, it is probably best known for a string of
spectacular amusement and theme parks. Starting with California’s Disneyland in 1955 and culminating
with the fantastically successful Disney World and EPCOT Center in Florida, Disney became a household
name. in recent years, the theme park concept became international, with openings in Tokyo and Paris. With
the continuing success of Disney, the creation of future theme park are under discussion.
36. Which of the following is the title for the passage?
A. The history of Disney World and Disneyland. B. Walt Disney and his legacy
C. Walt Disney and Animated Cartoon D. Walt Disney’s Boyhood Years
37. What is the author’s attitude toward the accomplishments of Walt Disney?
A. respectful B. critical C. ambivalent D. approving
38. According to the passage, which of the following is true?
A. Snow White was the first full-length cartoon film.
B. Disney’s first concern was always profitability.
C. Mickey Mouse was Disney’s only cartoons creation.
D. Disney’s first achieved success after his death.
39. The word “enduring” in bold in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. lasting B. suffering C. difficult D. famous
40. The word “renowned” in bold in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. talked about B. well-known C. possessed D. useful
41. It can be inferred from the passage that _______.
A. the Tokyo theme park is in financial difficulty
B. Snow White was Disney’s most successful film
C. the California theme park is now closed
D. Disney created cartoon movies and “non-cartoon” movies
42. In future years it is most likely that _______.
A. the remaining theme parks will also close
B. the Paris theme park will become successful
C. the Disney name will stay well known
D. Disney will produce only cartoon
American humor and American popular heroes were born together. The first popular heroes of the new
nation were comic heroes, and the first popular humor of the new nation was the antics of its hero-clowns.
The heroic themes are obvious enough and not much different from those in the legends of other time
and places: Achilles, Beowulf, Siegfried, Roland, and King Arthur. The American Davy Crockett legends
repeat the familiar pattern of the old world heroic story: the pre-eminence of a mighty hero whose fame in
myth has a tenuous basis in fact; the remarkable birth and precocious strength of the hero; single combats in
which he distinguished himself against antagonists, both man and beast; vows and boasts; pride of the hero
in his weapons, his dog, and his woman.
Davy Crockett conquered and beast with a swaggering nonchalance. He overcame animals by force of
body and will. He killed four wolves at the age of six. He hugged a bear to death; he killed a rattlesnake with
his teeth. He mastered the forces of nature. Crockett’s most famous natural exploit was saving the earth on
the coldest day in history. First, he climbed a mountain to determine the trouble. Then he rescued all
creation by squeezing bear-grease on the earth’s frozen axis and over the sun’s icy face. He whistled, “Push
along, keep moving!” The earth gave a grunt and began moving.
Neither the fearlessness nor the bold huntsman’s prowess was peculiarly American. Far more
distinctive was the comic quality, all heroes are heroic; few are also clowns. What made the American
popular hero heroic also made him comic. “May be”, said Crockett, “you’ll laugh at me and not at my
book”. The ambiguity of American life and the vagueness which laid the continent open to adventure, which
made the land a rich storehouse of the unexpected, which kept vocabulary ungoverned and the language
fluid – this same ambiguity suffused both the Crockett legends were never quite certain whether to laugh or
to applaud, or whether what they saw and heard was wonderful, awful or ridiculous.
43. What is the main point the author makes in the passage?
A. Davy Crockett wrote humorous stories about mastering the nature.
B. American popular heroes were characteristically comic.
C. The Davy Crockett stories reflected the adventurous spirit of early America.
D. American popular literature was based on the legends of other times and places
44. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a heroic theme?
A. Superior physical strength B. Pride in the hero woman
C. Fluid use of language D. Boasting by the hero
45. The word “antagonists” could be best replaced by _______.
A. wild animals B. heroes C. forces D. opponents
46. Davy Crockett is an example of _______.
A. a popular writer B. a heroic theme
C. an old world hero D. a hero-clown
47. In paragraph 3, the author mentions a story in which Davy Crockett _______.
A. killed a wild boar B. saved a bear
C. saved the earth D. ate a rattlesnake
48. The word “exploit” in paragraph 3 is closest meaning to _______.
A. resource B. heroic act C. skill D. character trait
49. In paragraph 4, the author makes the point that _______.
A. American enjoyed laughing at other people
B. American writers strove to create a distinctively American literature
C. American life was open to adventure and full of the unexpected
D. Americans valued comic qualities more than heroic qualities
50. The word “ambiguity” in the last paragraph is closest meaning to _______.
A. ridiculous B. richness C. uncertainty D. quality
ĐỀ THI 10
Mark the latter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
1. A. exact B. examine C. eleven D. elephant
2. A. pressure B. assure C. assist D. possession
Mark the latter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
3. A. alcohol B. comment C. chemical D. proceed
4. A. historian B. architecture C. biography D. thermometer
Mark the latter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase CLOSEST in
5. The newscaster gave a concise account of the strategy.
A. complicated and intricate B. short and clear
C. sad and depressing D. long and detailed
6. Fruit is customarily treated with sulfur prior to drying to reduce any color change.
A. previous to B. at the time of C. in front of D. subsequent to
Mark the latter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase OPPOSITE in
7. Affluent families find it easier to support their children financially.
A. Wealthy B. Well-off C. Privileged D. Impoverished
8. Synthetic products are made from chemicals or artificial substances.
A. natural B. made by machine
C. man-made D. unusual
Mark the latter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
9. The science and technology industries have grown up steadily over the last decade.
A. science B. have grown up C. have grown up steadily D. last decade
10. Originated in Ethiopia, coffee was drunk in the Arab world before it came to Europe in the 17th
century.
A. Originated B. was drunk C. came D. in
11. The swirling winds of a tornado can reach quickly speeds close to 300 miles per hour.
A. swirling winds B. reach quickly C. close to D. per hour
Mark the latter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
12. I will come and see you before I _______ for America.
A. leave B. will leave C. have left D. left
13. Politicians _______ blame the media if they don’t win the election. They’re so predictable.
A. variable B. variety C. various D. invariably
14. The investment has had _______ on the development of our project.
A. results B. progress C. effects D. interruptions
15. We’ve _______ out of milk. You’ll have to drink your tea without it.
A. come B. taken C. gone D. run
16. She got the job _______ the fact that she had very little experience.
A. although B. because of C. despite D. because
17. When the first child was born, they _______ for three years.
A. have been married B. had been married
C. will been married D. will have been married
18. He would win the race if he _______ his brother’s example and trained harder.
A. repeated B. set C. answered D. followed
19. She’s finished the course, _______?
A. isn’t she B. doesn’t she C. didn’t she D. hasn’t she
20. “Excuse me. Where is the _______ office of OXFAM located?”
A. leading B. head C. central D. summit
21. The boy was always getting _______ trouble as a youth. Then, to everyone’s surprise, he became a
policeman.
A. into B. onto C. on D. with
22. _______ for farming purposes, soil must contain the minerals plants require.
A. To be good B. Being good C. Be good D. That’s good
23. My grandfather passed _______ when I was only six years old. He had lung cancer.
A. out B. over C. away D. off
exchanges.
24. “How about an evening riverboat tour?” – “_______”
A. No, it’s good to do so.
B. Actually I’ve never gone on an evening riverboat tour.
C. No, I’ve never gone an evening riverboat tour.
D. Actually I’ve gone twice this week.
25. “Can you come over after the show?” – “_______”
A. That would be nice. B. No, I didn’t.
C. Please, go ahead. D. Why don’t we go to the show?
26. “I was not there at the time,” he said.
A. He denied to have been there at the time.
B. He denied that he had not been there at the time.
C. He denied to be there at the time.
D. He denied having been there at the time.
27. “Let’s go out for a walk now,” he suggested.
A. He suggested going out for a walk then.
B. He suggested to go out for a walk then.
C. He suggested them to go out for a walk then.
D. He suggested them going out for a walk then.
28. “You broke my glasses,” said the woman to me.
A. The woman blames me of breaking her glasses.
B. The woman blamed me of breaking her glasses.
C. The woman blames me for having broken her glasses.
D. The woman blamed me for having broken her glasses.
29. We started out for California. It started to rain right after that.
A. No sooner did we start out for California than it started to rain.
B. No sooner had we started out for California when it started to rain.
C. No sooner had it started to rain than we started out for California.
D. No sooner had we started out for California than it started to rain.
30. We have been friends for years. It is quite easy to share secrets between us.
A. Having been friends for years, we find quite easy to share secrets between us.
B. we have been friends for years so that it is quite easy to share secrets between us.
C. Being friends for years, we find it quite easy to share secrets between us.
D. We find it quite easy to share secrets, being friends.
A GOOD START TO A HOLIDAY
I had never been to Denmark before, and when I set out to catch the ferry in early May, I little (31)
_______ that by the end of the trip I’d have made such lasting friendships.
I wanted to use my time well, so I had planned a route which would (32) _______ several small
islands and various parts of the countryside. I arrived at Esbjerg, a convenient port for a cyclist’s arrival,
where tourist information can be obtained and money changed. A cycle track (33) _______ out of town and
down to Ribe, where I spent my first night.
In my experience, a person travelling alone sometimes meets with unexpected hospitality, and trip was
no exception. In Ribe, I got into conversation with a cheerful man who turned (34) _______ to be the local
baker. He insisted that I should join his family for lunch, and, while we were eating, he contacted his
daughter in Odense. Within minutes, he had (35) _______ for me to visit her and her family. Then I was sent
on my way with a fresh loaf of bread to keep me going, and the feeling that this would turn out to be a
wonderful holiday.
31. A. wondered B. suspected C. doubted D. judged
32. A. include B. contain C. enclose D. consist
33. A. leads B. rides C. moves D. connects
34. A. up B. out C. in D. over
35. A. arrange B. fixed C. settled D. ordered
My family consists of four people. There’s my father whose name is Jan, my mother whose name is
Marie, my brother, Peter and of course, me. I have quite a large extended family as well but, only the four of
us live together in our apartment in a block of flats. My father is fifty-two years old. He works as an
accountant in an insurance company. He is tall and slim, has got short brown and gray hair and blue eyes.
My father likes gardening very much as well as listening to music and reading books about political science.
His special hobbies are bird watching and travelling.
Now I’ll describe my mother and my brother. My mother is forty-seven and she works as a nurse in a
hospital. She is small, and slim, has short brown hair and green eyes. She likes bird watching and travelling
too, so whenever my parents are able to they go someplace interesting for nature watching. Since we have a
cottage with a garden they both spend a lot of time there. My brother is sixteen. He is slim and has short
brown hair and blue eyes. He also attends high school. He is interested in computers and sports like football
and hockey. He also spends a lot of time with his friends.
I have only one grandmother left still living. She is in pretty good health even at the age of seventy-
eight so she still lives in her own flat. I enjoy spending time with her when I can. Both my grandfathers died
from cancer because they were smokers, which was really a great tragedy because I didn’t get chance to
know them. My other grandmother died just a few years ago. I also have a lot of aunts, uncles, and cousins.
The cousin I’m closest to is my uncle’s daughter Pauline. We have a lot in common because we are both
eighteen and so we are good friends.
My parents have assigned me certain duties around the house. I don’t mind helping out because
everyone in a family should contribute in some way. I help with the washing up, the vacuuming and the
shopping. Of course I also have to help keep my room tidy as well. My brother is responsible for the dusting
and mopping. He also has to clean his own room. Even though my brother and I sometimes fight about who
has to do what job, we are still very close. I am also very close to my parents and I can rely on them to help
me. My parents work together to keep our home well maintained and it seem they always have a project or
another that they are working on. They respect each other’s opinions and even if they disagree they can
always come to a compromise. I hope in the future that I have a family like ours.
36. What does the writer’s father do?
A, a cashier B. an accountant C. a receptionist D. a writer
37. What does the writer’s mother look like?
A. She is slim and small B. She is small and has grey hair
C. She has blue eyes D. She has long brown hair
38. What does the writer’s brother do?
A. a computer programmer B. a high school student
C. a college student D. a football player
39. What happened to the writer’s grandfathers?
A. They died because the smoked too much.
B. They got lung cancer a few years ago.
C. They had to leave their own flat.
D. They had an accident and died.
40. The word “tragedy” in the third paragraph mostly means
A. bad luck B. sudden accident C. sad event D. boring result
41. The word “assigned” in the fourth paragraph mostly means _______
A. allowed B. appointed C. forced D. encouraged
42. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. The writer’s mother likes travelling.
B. One of the writer’s grandmothers is living with her.
C. The writer’s brother has to clean his own room.
D. The writer has a cousin whose age is the same as hers.
In early civilizations, citizens were educated informally, usually within the family unit. Education
meant simply learning to leave. As civilizations became more complex, however, education became more
formal, structured, and comprehensive. Initial efforts of the ancient Chinese and Greek societies
concentrated solely on the education of males. The post-Babylonian Jews and Pluto were exceptions to this
pattern. Pluto was apparently the first significant advocate of the equality of the sexes. Women, in his ideal
state, would have the same rights and duties and the same educational opportunities as men. This aspect of
Platonic philosophy, however, had little or no effect on education for many centuries, and the concept of a
liberal education for men only, which had been espoused by Aristotle, prevailed.
In ancient Rome, the availability of an education was gradually extended to women, but they were
taught separately from men. The early Christians and medieval Europeans continued this trend, and single-
sex schools for the privileged classes prevailed through the Reformation period. Gradually, however,
education for women on a separate but equal basis to that provided for men was becoming a clear
responsibility of society. Martin Luther appealed for civil support of schools for all children. At the Council
of Trent in the 16th century, the Roman Catholic Church encouraged the establishment of free primary
schools for children of all classes. The concept of universal primary education, regardless of sex, had been
born, but it was still in the realm of the single-sex school.
In the late 19th and early 20th centuries, co-education became a more widely applied principle of
educational philosophy. In Britain, Germany, and the Soviet Union the education of boys and girls in the
same classes became an accepted practice. Since World War II, Japan and the Scandinavian countries have
also adopted relatively universal co-educational systems. The greatest negative reaction to coeducation has
been left in the teaching systems of the Latin countries, where the sexes have usually been separated at both
primary and secondary levels, according to local conditions.
A number of studies have indicated that girls seem to perform better overall and in science in
particular in single-sex classes: during the adolescent years, pressure to conform to stereotypical female
gender roles may disadvantage girls in traditionally male subjects, making them reluctant to volunteer for
experimental work while taking part in lessons. In Britain, academic league tables point to high standards
achieved in girls’ schools. Some educationalists therefore suggest segregation of the sexes as a good thing,
particularly in certain areas, and a number of schools are experimenting with the idea.
43. Ancient education generally focused its efforts on _______.
A. male learners B. both sexes
C. female learners D. young people only
44. Education in early times was mostly aimed at _______.
A. teaching skills B. learning to live
C. learning new lifestyles D. imparting survival skills
45. The first to support the equality of the sexes was _______.
A. the Chinese B. the Greek C. Pluto D. the Jews
46. The word “informally” in this context mostly refers to an education occurring _______.
A. in classrooms B. outside the school
C. in a department D. ability
47. When education first reached women, they were _______.
A. locked up in a place with men B. isolated from normal life
C. deprived of opportunities D. separated from men
48. When the concept of universal primary education was introduced, education _______.
A. was given free to all B. was intended for all the sexes
C. focused on imparting skills D. was intended to leave out female learners
49. The word “espouse” is contextually closest in meaning to “_______”.
A. to support B. to put off C. to give D. to induce
50. Co-education was negatively responded to in _______.
A. Japan B. the Scandinavian countries
C. South American countries D. conservative countries
ĐỀ THI 11
1. A. heavy B. head C. weather D. easy
2. A. processed B. infested C. balanced D. reached
3. A. applicant B. preference C. courteous D. appointment
4. A. interviewer B. concentrate C. comfortable D. technology
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase CLOSET in
meaning the underlined word(s) in each of the two following questions.
5. Who will replace you to monitor the class on the days you are on duty next week?
A. support B. undermine C. vandalize D. manage
6. We, the young, should take the actions to raise people’s awareness of being concerned with sewage
processing measures from now on.
A. indifferent to B. carefree with C. interested in D. nervous about
meaning the underlined word(s) in each of the two following questions.
7. That is a well-behaved boy whose behavior has nothing to complain about.
A. behaving cleverly B. behaving nice
C. behaving improperly D. good behavior
8. I must have a watch since punctuality is imperative in my new job.
A. being courteous B. being cheerful
C. being efficient D. being late
9. The longest mountain range, the Mid-Atlantic Range, is not hardly visible because most of it lies
under the ocean.
A. mountain range B. not hardly C. most of D. under
10. The abilities to work hard, follow directions, and thinking independently are some of the criteria for
success in the workplace.
A. to work B. thinking C. are D. for success
11. Establishing in 1984 for students who wanted to study art and music subjects, LaGuardia was the
first school of its kind.
A. Establishing B. for students C. was D. of its kind
12. We all believe that a happy marriage should be _______ mutual love.
A. based on B. concerned with C. confided in D. obliged to
13. The teachers are, at the moment, trying their best _______ all the necessary that their students may
need for their critical examination while, sadly, some do not seen to appreciate that.
A. to prepare B. prepared C. preparing D. prepare
14. A lot of skills and knowledge fields _______.
A. be prepared and practiced B. have to be prepared and practiced
C. prepared and practiced D. have to be being prepared and practiced
15. We arranged to meet at the station, but she didn’t _______.
A. get through B. turn up C. walk out D. wait on
16. Our professor _______ said we should turn in the assignment on Friday.
A. specific B. specifically C. specifying D. specifyingly
17. They were 30 minutes later because their car _______ down.
A. got B. put C. cut D. broke
18. Scientists warn that many of the world’s great cities are _______ flooding.
A. being B. at risk C. in danger of D. endangered
19. The replacement of shops such as the groceries’ and chemist’s by cafes _______ the housewives
with insufficient facilities for shopping.
A. leave B. have left C. has left D. to have left
20. I studied English for four years in high school. _______ had trouble talking with people when I
was traveling in the US.
A. Therefore, I B. Otherwise, I C. Although I D. However, I
21. My uncle was _______ ill last summer; however, fortunately, he is now making a slow but steady
recovery.
A. seriously B. deeply C. fatally D. critically
22. If you want your son to do better on his exams, I suggest he _______ harder.
A. will study B. studies C. would study D. study
23. _______ the book, please turn it to me.
A. Should you find B. Will you be finding
C. Will you find D. Will you have found
exchanges.
24. Mary invited her friend, Sarah, to have dinner out that night and Sarah accepted.
Mary: “Shall we eat out tonight?” – Sarah: “_______.”
A. That’s a great idea B. That’s acceptable
C. You are very welcome D. It’s kind of you to invite
25. “Thank you for taking the time to come here in person.” – “_______”
A. It’s my pleasure. B. I don’t know what time that person comes.
C. I’d love to come. What time? D. Do you have time for some gossip?
26. You could not have made a very good impression on them.
A. You seem to have impressed them very unfavourably.
B. It’s impossible that the effect you made on them was particularly positive.
C. Something appears to have made them think you are unsuitable.
D. You should have tried harder to make them think well of you.
27. Due to the heavy snow, all buses have been cancelled until further notice.
A. If it weren’t for the heavy snow, you would notice how much further the bus had to go.
B. The buses would not have been cancelled if only it had not snowed so much.
C. Heavy snow has caused the buses to stop running, though there will be an announcement of
when they will start up again.
D. If this snow keeps up, there will be an announcement to declare that the buses will no longer
run.
28. It’s more than a couple of years since I last went there.
A. I have never stayed there for longer than two years.
B. It was only after two years that I went there again.
C. I haven’t been there since my visit over two years ago.
D. I had never been there until the year before last.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
29. The referee brought the football game to a halt. He blew his whistle.
A. The referee stopped playing football and blowing his whistle.
B. the referee stopped the football game before he blew his whistle.
C. Having stopped the football match, the referee blew his whistle.
D. The referee brought the football game to a halt by blowing his whistle.
30. We planned to visit Eiffel Tower in the afternoon. We could not afford the fee, however.
A. As planned, we could not afford the visit to Eiffel Tower in the afternoon because of the fee.
B. We visited Eiffel Tower in the afternoon though the fee was too high for us.
C. We were going to visit Eiffel Tower in the afternoon but the fee was too high for us.
D. The fee was, however, high enough for us to plan a visit to Eiffel Tower in the afternoon.
Speech is one of the most important (31) _______ of communicating. It consists of far more than just
making noises. To talk and also to (32) _______ by other people, we have to speak a language, that is, we
have to use combinations of sounds that everyone agrees to stand for particular object or idea.
Communication would be impossible if everyone made up their own language.
Learning a language properly is very (33) _______. The basic vocabulary of English is not very large,
and only about 2,000 words are needed to speak it quite (34) _______. But the more idea you can express,
the more precise you can be about their exact meaning.
Words are the main thing we use in communicating what we want to say. The way we say the words is
also very important. Our tone of voice can express many emotions and (35) _______ whether we are pleased
or angry, for instance.
31. A. rules B. reasons C. ways D. tests
32. A. be understood B. be spoken C. be examined D. be talked
33. A. easy B. expensive C. simple D. important
34. A. perfect B. good C. well D. fluent
35. A. know B. show C. ask D. understand
COLORS AND EMOTIONS
Colors are one of the most exciting experiences in life. I love them, and they are just as important to
me as emotions are. Have you ever wondered how the two are so intimately related?
Color directly affects your emotions. Color both reflects the current state of your emotions, and is
something that you can use to improve or change your emotions. The color that you choose to wear either
reflects your current state of being, or reflects the color or emotion that you need.
The colors that you wear affect you much more than they affect the people around you. Of course they
also affect anyone who comes in contact with you, but you are the one saturated with the color all day! I
even choose items around me based on their color. In the morning, I choose my clothes based on the color or
emotion that I need for the day. So you can consciously use color to control the emotions that you are
exposed to, which can help you to feel better.
Color, sound, and emotions are all vibrations. Emotions are literally energy in motion; they are meant
to move and flow. This is the reason that real feelings are the fastest way to get your energy in motion. Also,
flowing energy is exactly what creates healthy cells in your body. So, the fastest way to be open to your real
feelings. Alternately, the fastest way to create disease is to inhibit your emotions.
36. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Colorful clothes can change your mood.
B. Emotions and colors are closely related to each other.
C. Colors can help you become healthy.
D. Colors are one of the most exciting.
37. Which of the following can be affected by color?
A. Your need for thrills B. your friend’s feelings
C. your appetite D. your mood
38. Who is more influenced by colors you wear?
A. The people around you are more influenced.
B. No one is influenced.
C. You are more influenced.
D. The people who wear those colors, not you.
39. According to this passage, what creates disease?
A. wearing the color black B. exposing yourself to bright colors
C. being open to your emotions D. ignoring your emotions
40. The term “intimately” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. clearly B. closely C. obviously D. simply
41. The term “they” in paragraph 3 refers to
A. emotions B. people C. colors D. none of the above
42. Why does the author mention that color and emotions are both vibrations?
A. to show how color can affect energy levels in the body.
B. Because they both affect how we feel.
C. to prove the relationship between emotions and color.
D. Because vibrations make your healthy.
Although they are an inexpensive supplier of vitamins, minerals, and high-quality protein, eggs also
contain a high level of blood cholesterol, one of the major causes of heart diseases. One egg yolk, in fact,
contains a little more than two-thirds of the suggested daily cholesterol limit. This knowledge has driven egg
sales to plummet in recent years, which in turn has brought about the development of several alternatives to
eating regular eggs. One alternative is to eat substitute eggs. These eggs substitute are not really eggs, but
they look somewhat like eggs when they are cooked. They have the advantage of having low cholesterol
rates, and they can be scrambled or used in baking. One disadvantage, however, is that they are not good for
frying, poaching, or boiling. A second alternative to regular eggs is a new type of egg, sometimes called
“designer” eggs. These eggs are produced by hens that are fed low-flat diets consisting of ingredients such
as canola oil, flax, and rice bran. In spite of their diet, however, these hens produce eggs that contain the
same amount of cholesterol as regular eggs. Yet, the producers of these eggs claim that eating their eggs will
not raise the blood cholesterol in humans.
Eggs producers claim that their product has been portrayed unfairly. They cite scientific studies to
back up their claim. And, in fact, studies on the relationship between eggs and human cholesterol but the
person who is eating the eggs. Some people may be more sensitive to cholesterol derived from food than
other people. In fact, there is evidence that certainly dietary fats stimulate the body’s production of blood
cholesterol. Consequently, while it still makes sense to limit one’s intake of eggs, even designer eggs, it
seems that doing this without regulating dietary fat will probably not help reduce the blood cholesterol level.
43. What is the main purpose of the passage?
A. To introduce the idea that dietary fat increases the blood cholesterol level.
B. To make people how about the relationship between eggs and cholesterol.
C. To persuade people that eggs are unhealthy and should not be eaten.
D. To convince people to eat “designer” eggs and egg substitutes.
44. What has been the cause for changes in the sale of eggs?
A. Increasing price B. Decreased production
C. Dietary changes in hens D. Concerns about cholesterol
45. What is meant by the phrase “mixed results”?
A. The results are blended B. The results are a composite of things.
C. The results are inconclusive. D. The results are mingled together.
46. Which of the following could best replace the word “somewhat”?
A. in fact B. a little C. indefinitely D. a lot
47. According to the passage, one yolk contains approximately what fraction of the suggested daily
limit for human consumption of cholesterol?
A. 3/4 B. 2/3 C. 1/2 D. 1/3
48. The word “portrayed” could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. studied B. destroyed C. tested D. described
49. What is the meaning of “back up”?
A. reverse B. advance C. block D. support
50. According to the passage, egg substitutes cannot be used to make any of the following types of
eggs EXCEPT _______.
A. boiled B. poached C. scrambled D. fried
ĐỀ THI 12
1. A. honorable B. honesty C. historic D. heir
2. A. chore B. change C. choice D. chorus
3. A. terrific B. Pacific C. Arabic D. mechanic
4. A. evaporate B. consulate C. communicate D. coordinate
5. I’ll take the new job whose salary is fantastic.
A. reasonable B. acceptable C. pretty high D. wonderful
6. He was asked to account for his presence at the scene of crime.
A. complain B. exchange C. explain D. arrange
7. His career in the illicit drug trade ended with the police raid this morning.
A. elicited B. irregular C. secret D. legal
8. Mr. Smith’s new neighbors appear to be very friendly.
A. amicable B. inapplicable C. hostile D. futile
9. Japanese initially used jeweled objects to decorate swords and ceremonial items.
A. Japanese B. used C. jeweled D. decorate
10. Because of attitudes shape behavior, psychologists want to find how opinions are formed.
A. Because of B. shape C. psychologists D. are formed
11. As the roles of people in society change, so does the rules of conduct in certain situations.
A. As the rules B. so does C. rules of D. situations
12. “How was your exam?” “A couple of questions were tricky, but on the _______ it was pretty easy.”
A. spot B. general C. hand D. whole
13. If you practice regularly, you can learn this language skill in short _______ of a time.
A. period B. aspect C. arrangement D. activity
14. Students can _______ a lot of information just by taking an active part in class.
A. concern B. install C. appear D. memorize
15. It _______ a long time since we were apart, I did not recognize her.
A. is B. has been C. was D. had been
16. I have learned a lot about the value of labour from my _______ at home.
A. credit B. energy C. chores D. pot plants
17. In the past people believed that women’s _______ roles were as mothers and wives.
A. nature B. natural C. naturism D. naturalist
18. Not until the manager got the right solution to the problem _______.
A. we must try by ourselves B. must we try by ourselves
C. have we to try by ourselves D. we must try for ourselves
19. A few years ago, a fire _______ much of an overcrowded part of the city.
A. battled B. devastated C. mopped D. developed
20. Juliet, remember shammed death when Romeo appears, _______?
A. didn’t she B. doesn’t he C. do you D. will you
21. Charles Lindbergh’s feat put him in a position from which _______ the development of commercial
aviation.
A. he could encourage B. he encourage
C. encouraged D. encouragement
22. She started the course two months ago but dropped _______ after only a month.
A. in B. back C. out D. off
23. Mary eats _______ she used to.
A. fewer meat and bananas than B. less and less meat and bananas than
C. less meat and fewer bananas than D. the least meat and fewest bananas than
exchanges.
24. “I have a terrible headache.” – “_______”
A. Maybe I’m not going to the doctor’s. B. Not very well. Thanks.
C. Maybe you should take a rest. D. Not bad. I’m going to the doctor’s.
25. “Do you want me to help you with those suitcases?” – “_______”
A. Of course, not for me. B. No, I can’t help you now.
C. No, those aren’t mine. D. No, I can manage them myself.
26. I don’t agree with prohibiting smoking in bars.
A. I’m not in favor of prohibiting smoking in bars.
B. I’m not in favor to prohibiting smoking in bars.
C. I’m not favor with prohibiting smoking in bars.
D. I’m not doing a favor to prohibiting smoking in bars.
27. She has always had a good relationship with the children.
A. She has got a lot of children and relatives who she always gets along with.
B. She always gets along well with the children.
C. The children have had her as their friends and relatives.
D. She has always got on well with the children.
28. But for his father’s early retirement, Peter would not have taken over the family business.
A. His father retired early, but Peter still ran the family business.
B. Peter’s father didn’t want him to take over the family business despite his retirement.
C. Peter only took over the family business because his father decided to retire early.
D. Peter didn’t take over the family business because his father didn’t retire.
29. He is very intelligent. He is solve all problems in no time.
A. SO intelligent is he that he can solve all problems in no time.
B. He is very intelligent that he can solve all e problems in no time.
C. An intelligent student is he that he can solve all e problems in no time.
D. So intelligent a student is he that he can solve all problems in no time.
30. We cut down many forests. The Earth becomes hot.
A. The more forests we cut down, the hotter the Earth becomes.
B. The more we cut down forests, the hotter the Earth becomes.
C. The more forests we cut down, the Earth becomes hotter.
D. The more we cut down forests, the Earth becomes hotter.
WORKING MOTHERS
Reliable studies have shown that the children of working mothers have no more problems than
children whose mothers stay at home. My personal view is that mothers should work if they wish.
Some women have invested so much in a career that they cannot (31) _______ to give it up. Others
have to work because of economic necessity, and there are also those who are simply not (32) _______ out
to be fill-time parents.
There appear to be several options when it comes to choosing childcare. These range from child
minders through to granny or the kind lady across the street. (33) _______, however, many parents don’t
have any choice; they have to accept anything they can get.
No (34) _______ how good the available childcare may be, some children protest if their parents are
not around. This is a perfectly normal stage in a child’s development. Babies over the age of six months
become dependent on mum and close family members, so make sure that you allow (35) _______ time to
help your child settle in.
And don’t forget: if you want to do the best for your children, it’s not the quantity of time you spend
with them, it’s the quality that matters.
31. A. bear B. decide C. hope D. expect
32. A. made B. cut C. brought D. born
33. A. In addition B. In practice C. In order D. In contrast
34. A. way B. matter C. surprise D. exception
35. A. little B. no C. lots D. plenty of
Herman Melville, an American author best known today for his novel Moby Dick, was actually more
popular during lifetime for some of his other works. He traveled extensively and used the knowledge gained
during his travels as the basis for his early novels. In 1837, at the age of eighteen, Melville slimed as a cabin
boy on a merchant ship that was to sail from his Massachusetts home to Liverpool, England. His experiences
on this trip served as a basis for the novel Redburn (1849). In 1841 Melville set out on a whaling ship
headed for the South Sea. After jumping ship in Tahiti, he wandered around the islands of Tahiti and
Moorea. This South Sea island sojourn was a backdrop to the novel Omoo (1847). After three years away
from home., Melville joined up with a U.S. naval frigate that was returning to eastern United States around
Cape Horn. The novel White-Jacket (1850) describes this lengthy voyage as a navy seaman. With the
publication of this early adventure novels, Melville developed a strong and loyal following among readers
eager for his tales of exotic places and situations. However, in 1851, with the publication of Moby Dick,
Melville’s popularity started to diminish. Moby Dick, on one level the saga of the hunt for the great white
whale, was also a heavily symbolic allegory of the heroic struggle of humanity against the universe. The
public was not ready for Melville’s literary metamorphosis from romantic adventure to philosophical
symbolism. It is ironic that the novel that served to diminish Melville’s popularity during his lifetime is the
one for which he is best known today.
36. The main subject of the passage is _______.
A. Melville’s travels B. Melville’s personal background
C. the popularity of Melville’s novels D. Moby Dick
37. In what year did Melville’s book about his experiences as a cabin boy appear?
A. 1837 B, 1841 C. 1849 D. 1847
38. The word “basis” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. foundation B. message C. bottom D. theme
39. The passage implies that Melville stayed in Tahiti because_______.
A. he had unofficially left his ship. B. he was on leave while his ship was in port.
C. he had finished his term of duty. D. he had received permission to take a vacation in Tahiti.
40. How did the publication of Moby Dick stayed in Tahiti because _______.
A. His popularity increased immediately.
B. It has no effect on his popularity.
C. It caused his popularity to decrease.
D. His popularity remained as strong as ever.
41. According to the passage, Moby Dick is _______.
A. a romantic adventure B. a single-faceted work
C. a short story about a whale D. symbolic of humanity fighting the environment
42. The word “metamorphosis” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. change B. circle C. mysticism D. descent
Before the 1500’s, the western plains of North America were dominated by farmers. On group, the
Mandans, lived in the upper Missouri River country, primarily in present-day North Dakota. They had large
villages of houses built close together. The tight arrangement enable the Mandans to protect themselves
more easily from the attacks of others who might seek to obtain some of the food these highly capable
farmers stored from one year to the next.
The women had primary responsibility for the fields. They had to exercise considerable skill to
produce the desired results, for their northern location meant fleeting growing seasons. Winter often
lingered; autumn could be ushered in by severe frost. For good measure, during the spring and summer,
drought, heat, hail, grasshoppers, and other frustrations might await the wary grower.
Under such conditions, Mandan women had to grow maize capable of weathering adversity. They
began as early as it appeared feasible to do so in the spring, clearing the land, using fire to clear stubble from
the fields and then planting. From this point until the first green corn could be harvested, the crop required
labor and vigilance.
In August the Mandans picked a smaller amount of the crop before it had matured fully. This green
corn was boiled, dried and shelled, with some of the maize slated for immediate consumption and the rest
stored in animal-skin bags. Later in the fall, the people picked the rest of the corn. They saved the best of the
harvest for seeds or for trade, with the remainder eaten right away or stored for later use in underground
reserves. With appropriate banking of the extra food, the Mandans protected themselves against the disaster
of crop failure and accompany hunger.
The woman planted another staple, squash, about the first of June, and harvested it near the time of the
green corn harvest. After they picked it, they sliced it, dried it, and strung the slices before they stored them.
Once again, they saved the seeds from the best of the year’s crop. The Mandans also grew sunflowers and
tobacco; the latter was the particular task of the older men.
43. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. The agricultural activities of a North America Society.
B. Various ways corn can be used.
C. The problems encountered by farmers specializing in growing once crop.
D. Weather conditions on the western plains.
44. The Mandans built their houses close together in order to _______.
A. guard their supplies of food B. protect themselves against the weather
C. allow more room for growing corn D. share farming implements
45. Why does the author believe that the Mandans were skilled farmers?
A. They developed effective fertilizers.
B. They developed new varieties of corn.
C. They could grow crops despite adverse weather.
D. they could grow crops in most types of soil.
46. The word “consumption” in the 4th paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. decay B. planting C. eating D. conversation
47. Which of the following processes does the author imply was done by both men and women?
A. Clearing fields B. Planting corn C. Harvesting corn D. Harvesting squash
48. The word “them” in the last paragraph refers to _______.
A. women B. seeds C. slices D. the Mandans
49. Which of the following crops was cultivated primarily by men?
A. Squash B. Sunflower C. Corn D. Tobacco
50. Throughout the passage, the author implies that the Mandans _______.
A. planned for the future B. valued individuality
C. were open to strangers D. were very adventurous
ĐỀ THI 13
1. A. habitat B. protection C. essential D. priority
2. A. question B. presentation C. industrialization D. modernization
3. A. production B. deficient C. ancient D. sufficient
4. A. biology B. accordance C. incomplete D. pudicity
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word of phrase CLOSEST in
5. There is no thing to make it likely or certain that he will be at the party.
A. proof B. promise C. guarantee D. fact
6. I think the medicine is beginning to wear off.
A. stop being effective B. take effect
C. be put in a bottle D. be swallowed
7. The International Organizations are going to be in a temporary way in the country.
A. soak B. permanent C. complicated D. guess
8. There has been no discernible improvement in the noise levels since lorries were banned.
A. insignificant B. clear C. obvious D. thin
Mark the letter A, B C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
9. Have you learnt the reason why does the water of the ocean becomes blue?
A. reason B. does C. of D. blue
10. It is the high time John understands how to behave properly towards the old men.
A. high B. understands C. how to D. towards
11. Every child in Great Britain between the old year of five and fifteen must attend school.
A. Every B. between C. old year D. must
12. I just took it _______ that he’d always be available.
A. into consideration B. easy
C. into account D. for granted
13. It was not _______ Michael Jackson’s death that people around the world understood his
contribution in music.
A. since B. when C. until D. result
14. Although David was _______ after a day’s work in the office, he tried to help his wife the household
chores.
A. exhaustion B. exhausted C. exhausting D. exhaustive
15. _______ your precious help, I wouldn’t have certainly overcome most of the practical difficulties.
A. If not B. Provided C. Unless D. Without
16. Will you ever forget _______ in such an expensive restaurant?
A. eating B. eat C. to eat D. being eaten
17. I accidentally _______ Mike when I was crossing a street downtown yesterday.
A. kept an eye on B. lost touch with
C. paid attention to D. caught sight of
18. If she _______ sick, she would have gone out with me to the party.
A. wasn’t B. hadn’t been C. hasn’t been D. weren’t
19. I was glad when he said that his car was _______.
A. for my use B. for me use C. at my use D. at my disposal
20. _______ the French army was defeated at the battle of Dien Bien Phu came a complete surprise to all
over the world.
A. Why B. Which C. What D. That
21. I’d rather you _______ to the English-speaking club with me this Friday.
A. will come B. came C. come D. to come
22. Stop _______ about the bush, John! Just tell me exactly what the problem is.
A. rushing B. hiding C. beating D. moving
23. Don’t worry we’ll have to wait a little longer because I’m sure he will _______.
A. turn down B. turn in C. turn into D. turn up
exchanges.
24. “What do you think of your new DVD player?” – “_______”
A. I love it B. My brother gave it to me.
C. It was a gift from my brother. D. I always put it there.
25. “How long have you been recently?” – “_______”
A. It’s too late now. B. Pretty busy, I think.
C. By bus, I think. D. No, I’ll not be busy.
26. I have seen all of her films but one.
A. I have seen only one film of hers.
B. I have seen one of her films.
C. There is only one film of hers that I have not seen.
D. I have finished seeing even one film of hers.
27. Many people are afraid of sharks, but they rarely attack people.
A. Although sharks rarely attack people, many people are afraid of them.
B. Many people are afraid of sharks because they are dangerous.
C. Rarely attacked by sharks, many people are, therefore, afraid of them.
D. Sharks rarely attack people because many people are afraid of them.
28. No matter how hard he tried, Mike could not make sense of his economics textbook.
A. Mike could not understand his economics textbook because he hardly tried to at all.
B. In spite of his efforts, Mike was unable to understand the contents of his economics textbook.
C. If Mike had studied harder, he would have been able to comprehend what was in his economics
textbook.
D. It was impossible for Mike to understand his economics textbook without making a great effort.
29. You don’t try to work hard. You will fail in the exam.
A. Unless you don’t try to work hard, you will fail in the exam.
B. Unless you try to work hard, you won’t fail in the exam.
C. Unless you try to work hard, you will fail in the exam.
D. Unless do you try to work hard, you will fail in the exam.
30. The Prime Minister set up a committee of financial experts. They were to help him discuss and
formulate new policies.
A. The Prime Minister, who is a financial expert, set up a committee to discuss and formulate new
polices.
B. A committee consisting of financial experts was set up by the Prime Minister to help him discuss
and formulate new policies.
C. The Prime Minister, who was helped by financial experts, set up a committee to discuss and
formulate new policies.
D. A committee consisting of financial experts who were helped by the Prime Minister discussed and
formulated new policies.
Mark the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
GOING ON A DIET
A calorie is a unit for measuring the amount of energy food will produce. The average person needs
about 1,800 calories per day to (31) _______ healthy. Without energy, the heart cannot pump blood through
blood vessels and organs cannot function.
You (32) _______ weight because you consume more calories a day than your body requires. The
only way to lose weight is to reduce the number of calories you consume. This is the basic principle behind
most diets.
(33) _______, diets don’t work for most people. It’s not that they don’t lose weight: they do, but when
they (34) _______ the diet, the kilos creep back. The key to losing weight and maintaining weight loss is a
sensible diet and exercise plan. You need to work out how to eat fewer calories than you actually consume.
You should also exercise daily so you can use up calories. Burning 250 to 500 calories per day can (35)
_______ a big difference. Try riding an exercise bike while you are watching TV or climbing the stairs
rather than taking the lift. Persuade someone to exercise with you; exercise is a lot easier if done in
company.
31. A. keep on B. stay C. continue D. carry
32. A. make B. increase C. gain D. put
33. A. Similarly B. Though C. Unfortunately D. Although
34. A. go off B. go on C. go back D. go away
35. A. have B. do C. make D. give
The three phases of human memory are the sensory memory, the short-term memory, and the long-
term memory. This division of the memory into phases is based on the length of the time of the memory.
Sensory memory is instantaneous memory. It is an image or memory that enters your mind only for a
period of time; it comes and goes in under a second. The memory will not last longer than that unless the
information enters the short-term memory.
Information can be held in the short-term memory for about twenty seconds or as long as you are
actively using it. If repeat a fact to yourself, that fact will stay in your short-term memory as long as you
keep repeating it. Once you stop repeating it, either it is forgotten or it moves into long term memory.
Long-term memory is the huge memory tank that can hold ideas and images for years and years.
Information can be added to your long-term memory when you actively try to put it there through
memorization or when an idea or image enters your mind on its own.
36. The best title for this passage would be _______.
A. The difference between sensory and short-term memory.
B. How long it takes to memorize.
C. The stages of human memory.
D. Human phases.
37. The three phases of memory discussed in the passage are differentiated according to _______.
A. The location in the brain.
B. The period of time it takes to remember something.
C. How the senses are involved in the memory.
D. How long the memory lasts.
38. The expression “is based on” in the first paragraph could be best replaced by _______.
A. is on the top of
B. is at the foot of
C. depends on
D. is below
39. According to the passage, which type of memory is the shortest?
A. Sensory memory
B. Active memory
C. Short-term memory
D. Long-term memory
40. According to the passage, when will information stay in your short-term memory?
A. For as long as twenty minutes.
B. A long as it is being used.
C. After you have repeated it many times.
D. When it has moved into long-term memory.
41. All of the following are TRUE about long-term memory EXCEPT that _______.
A. it has a very large capacity.
B. it can hold information.
C. it is possible to put information into it through memorization.
D. memorization is the only way that information can get there.
42. It can be inferred from the passage that if a person remembers a piece of information for two days.
A. there phases of memory B. the sensory memory
C. the short-term memory D. the long-term memory
Mark the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
Today’s cars are smaller, safer, cleaner, and more economical than their predecessors, but the car of
the future will be far more pollution-free than those on the road today. Several new types of automobile
engines have already been developed that run on alternative sources of power, such as electricity,
compressed natural gas, methanol, steam, hydrogen, and propane. Electricity, however, is the only zero-
emission option presently available.
Although electric vehicles will not be truly practical until a powerful, compact battery or other
dependable source of current is available, transport experts foresee a new assortment of electric vehicles
entering everyday life: shorter-range commuter electric cars, three-wheeled neighborhood cars, electric
delivery vans, bikes and trolleys.
As automakers work to develop practical electrical vehicles, urban planners and utility engineers are
focusing on infrastructure systems to support and make the best use of the new cars. Public charging
facilities will need to be as common as today’s gas stations. Public parking spots on the street or in
commercial lots will need to be required with devices that allow drivers to charge their batteries while they
stop, dine, or attend a concert. To encourage the use of electric vehicles, the most convenient parking in
transportation centers might be reserved for electric cars.
Planners foresee electric shuttle buses, trains, buses and neighborhood vehicles all meeting at transit
centers that would have facilities for charging and renting. Commuters will be able to rent a variety of
electric cars to suit their needs: light trucks, one-person three-wheelers, small cars, or electric/ gasoline
hybrid cars for longer trips, which will no doubt take place on automated freeways capable of handing five
times the number of vehicles that can be carried by freeway today.
43. The following electrical vehicles are all mentioned in the passage EXCEPT _______.
A. vans B. trains C. trolleys D. planes
44. The author’s purpose in the passage is to _______.
A. describe the possibilities for transportation in the future
B. narrate a story about alternative energy vehicles
C. support the invention of electric cars
D. criticize conventional vehicles
45. The passage would most likely be followed by details about _______.
A. electric shuttle buses B. pollution restrictions in the future
C. automated freeways D. the neighborhood of the future
46. The word “compact” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. squared B. long-range C. concentrated D. inexpensive
47. In the second paragraph, the author implies that _______.
A. a single electric vehicle will eventually replace several modes of transportation.
B. everyday life will stay much the same in the future.
C. electric vehicles are not practical for the future.
D. a dependable source of electric energy will eventually be developed.
48. According to the passage, public parking lots of the future will be _______.
A. as common as today’s gas stations
B. equipped with charging devices
C. much larger than they are today
D. more convenient than they are today
49. The word “charging” in this paragraph refers to _______.
A. credit cards B. lightning C. aggression D. electricity
50. The word “foresee” in paragraph 4 could be replaced by _______.
A. count on B. invent C. image D. rely on
ĐỀ THI 14
1. A. food B. shoot C. book D. boot
2. A. choice B. chaos C. charge D. chase
3. A. medicine B. endanger C. addition D. survival
4. A. experience B. cosmetics C. economics D. photography
5. This tapestry has a very complicated pattern.
A. obsolete B. intricate C. ultimate D. appropriate
6. We decided to pay for the furniture on the installment plan.
A. monthly payment B. cash and carry
C. credit card D. piece by piece
7. She had a cozy little apartment in Boston.
A. uncomfortable B. warm C. lazy D. dirty
8. He decided not to buy the fake watch and wait until he had more money.
A. authentic B. forger C. faulty D. original
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part needs correction in each of the following
questions
9. In just three months H.G. Wells wrote the famous classic The Time Machine for what he won a
Newberry Caldecott award.
A. just B. wrote C. what D. a
10. It was suggested that Pedro studies the material more thoroughly before attempting to pass the exam.
A. studies B. more C. attempting D. to pass
11. Chicago’s Sears Tower, now the tallest building in the world, rises 1,522 feet from the ground to the
top of it antenna.
A. now B. rises C. feet D. it
12. This is very _______! Can’t you practise your violin somewhere else?
A. convenient B. conveniently C. inconvenient D. convenience
13. We are here to provide you _______ the best service possible.
A. of B. with C. to D. for
14. No sooner had we left the house _______ it started snowing.
A. and B. than C. when D. that
15. Several cars, _______ owners had parked them under the trees, were damaged.
A. their B. of which C. whom D. whose
16. The young should _______ themselves in social activities.
A. determine B. serve C. involve D. promote
17. Please cut my hair _______ the style in this magazine.
A. the same length as B. the same length like
C. the same long like D. the same long as
18. I prefer _______ jobs because I don’t like keep on moving and changing all the time.
A. demanding B. challenging C. steady D. secure
19. _______ anyone object, the plan will be reconsidered.
A. If B. Should C. Do D. Might
20. When they _______ for the beach the sun was shining, but by the time they arrived it had clouded
over.
A. went out B. went off C. set off D. left out
21. I’m really sleepy today. I wish I _______ Bob to the airport late last night.
A. weren’t taking B. didn’t have to take
C. didn’t take D. hadn’t had to take
22. He left the country _______ arrest if he returned.
A. in fear that B. with fear that C. with threat of D. under threat of
23. In order to _______ their goals in college, students need to invest the maximum amount of time,
money, and energy in their studies.
A. achieve B. catch C. establish D. manage
exchanges.
24. “Can I try your new camera?” – “_______”
A. I’m sorry I can’t. Let’s go now. B. Sure. I’d love to.
C. Sure. But please be careful with it. D. I’m sorry. I’m home late.
25. “How well do you play?” – “_______”
A. Yes, I used to play tennis. B. I don’t play very often.
C. No, I don’t play very well. D. Pretty well, I think.
26. David drove so fast; it was very dangerous.
A. David drove so fast, which was very dangerous.
B. David drove so fast and was very dangerous.
C. David drove so fast, then was very dangerous.
D. David drove so fast that was very dangerous.
27. The children couldn’t go swimming because the sea was too rough.
A. The children were not calm enough to swim in the sea.
B. The sea was rough enough for the children to swim in.
C. The sea was too rough for the children to go swimming.
D. The sea was too rough to the children’s swimming.
28. “Leave my house now or I’ll call the police!” shouted the lady to the man.
A. The lady threatened to call the police if the man didn’t leave her house.
B. The lady said that she would call the police if the man didn’t leave her house.
C. The lady told the man that she would call the police if he didn’t leave her house.
D. The lady informed the man that she would call the police if he didn’t leave her house.
29. The girl didn’t have any friends. Therefore, she left lonely.
A. Having many friends, the girl felt lonely.
B. Deprived of friends, the girl felt lonely.
C. Not having friends, they made the girl feel lonely.
D. Having no friends, the girl felt lonely.
30. It was an interesting novel. I stayed up all night to finish it.
A. The novel was so interesting that I stayed up all night to finish it.
B. Though it was an interesting novel, I stayed up all night to finish it.
C. I stayed up all night to finish the novel so it was interesting.
D. Unless it were an interesting novel, I would not stay up all night to finish it.
SCHOOL LUNCH
Research has shown that over half the children in Britain who take their own lunches to school do not
eat (31) _______ in the middle of the day. In Britain, schools have to provide meals at lunchtime. Children
can choose to bring their own food or have lunch at the school canteen.
One shocking (32) _______ of this research is that school meals are much healthier than lunches
prepared by parents. There are strict standards for the preparation of school meals, which have to include
one portion of fruit and one of vegetables, as well as meat, a dairy item and starchy food like bread or pasta.
Lunchboxes (33) _______ by researchers contained sweet drinks, crisps and chocolate bars. Children (34)
_______ twice as much sugar as they should at lunchtime.
The research will provide a better understanding of why the percentage of overweight students in
Britain has increased in the last decade. Unfortunately, the government cannot instruct parents, but can
remind them of the (35) _______ value of milk, fruit and vegetables. Children can easily develop bad eating
habits at this age, and parents are the only ones who can prevent it.
31. A. approximately B. properly C. probably D. possibly
32. A. finding B. number C. figure D. factor
33. A. examined B. found C. taken D. looked
34. A. take B. contain C. consume D. consist
35. A. nutritional B. healthy C. positive D. good
Most, languages have several levels of vocabulary that may be used by the same speakers. In English,
at least three have been identified and described.
Standard usage includes those words and expressions understood, used, and accepted by a majority of
the speakers of a language in any situation regardless of the level formality. As such, these words and
expressions are well defined and listed in standard dictionaries. Colloquialisms, on the other hand, are
familiar words and idioms that are understood by almost all speakers of a language and used in informal
speech or writing, but not considered acceptable for more formal situations. Almost all idiomatic
expressions are colloquial language. Slang, however, refers to words and expressions understood by a large
number of speakers but not accepted as appropriate formal usage by the majority. Colloquial expressions
and even slang may be found in standard dictionaries but will be so identified. Both colloquial usage and
slang are more common in speech than in writing.
Colloquial speech often passes into standard speech. Some slang also passes into standard speech, but
other slang expressions enjoy momentary popularity followed by obscurity. In some cases, the majority
never accepts certain slang phrases but nevertheless retains them in their collective memories. Every
generation seems to require its own set of words to describe familiar objects and events.
It has been pointed out by a number of linguists that three cultural conditions are necessary for the
creation of a large body of slang expressions. First, the introduction and acceptance of new objects and
situations in the society; second, a diverse population with a large number of subgroups; third, association
among the subgroups and the majority population.
Finally, it is worth noting that the terms “standard”, “colloquial”, and “slang” exist only as abstract
levels for scholars who study language. Only a tiny number of the speakers of any language will be aware
that they are using colloquial or slang expressions. Most speakers of English will, during appropriate
situations, select and use all three types of expressions.
36. Which of the following is the main topic of the passage?
A. Standard speech B. Idiomatic phrases
C. Dictionary usage D. Different types of vocabulary
37. The word “appropriate” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. old B. correct C. important D. large
38. The word “obscurity” could best be replaced by _______.
A. qualification B. disappearance C. influence D. tolerance
39. The word “them” refers to _______.
A. slang phrases B. words C. the majority D. memories
40. Where in the passage does the author explain where colloquial language and slang are most
commonly used?
A. The last sentences of paragraph 2.
B. The last sentences of paragraph 3.
C. The first two sentences of paragraph 2.
D. The last two sentences of paragraph 5.
41. The author mentions all of the following as requirements for slang expressions to be created
EXCEPT _______.
A. a number of linguists B. a new generation
C. interaction among diverse groups D. new situations
42. It can be inferred from the passage that the author _______.
A. does not approve of colloquial usage in writing
B. approve of slang and colloquial speech in appropriate situations
C. does not approve of either slang or colloquial speech in any situation
D. approves of colloquial speech in some situations, but not slang
At 7 pm on a dark, cold November evening, thousands of people are making their way across a vast
car park. They’re not here to see a film, or the ballet, or even the circus. They are all here for what is,
bizarrely, a global phenomenon: they are here to see Holiday on Ice. Given that most people don’t seem to
be acquainted with anyone who’s ever been, the show’s statistics are extraordinary: nearly 300 million
people have seen Holiday on Ice since it began in 1943; it is the most popular live entertainment in the
world.
But what does the production involve? And why are so many people prepared to spend their lives
travelling round Europe in caravans in order to appear in it? It can’t be glamorous, and it’s undoubtedly hard
work. The backstage atmosphere is an odd mix of gym class and workplace. A curtained-off section at the
back of the arena is laughably referred to as the girls’ dressing room, but is more accurately described as a
corridor, with beige, cracked walls and cheap temporary tables set up along the length of it. Each girl has a
small area littered with pots of orange make-up, tubes of mascara and long false eyelashes.
As a place to work, it must rank pretty low down the scale: the area round the ice-rink is gray and
mucky with rows of dirty blue and brown plastic seating and red carpet tiles. It’s an unimpressive picture,
but the show itself is an unquestionably vast, polished global enterprise: the lights come from a firm in
Texas, the people who make the audio system are in California, but Montreal supplies the smoke effects;
former British Olympic skater Robin Cousins is now creative director for the company and conducts a vast
master class to make sure they’re ready for the show’s next performance.
The next day, as the music blares out from the sound system, the case start to go through their
routines under Cousins’ direction. Cousins says, ‘The aim is to make sure they’re all still getting to exactly
the right place on the ice at the right time-largely because the banks of lights in the ceiling are set to those
places, and if the skaters are all half a metre out they’ll be illuminating empty ice. Our challenge,’ he
continues, ‘is to produce something they can sell in a number of countries at the same time. My theory is
that you take those things that people want to see and you give it to them, but not in the way they except to
see it. You try to twist it. And you have to find music that is challenging to the skaters, because they have to
do it every night.’
‘The only place you’ll see certain skating moves is an ice show,’ he says, ‘because you’re not allowed
to do them in competition. It’s not in the rules. So the ice show world has things to offer which the
competitive world just doesn’t. cousins knows what he’s talking about because he skated for the show
himself when he stopped competing-he was financially unable to retire. He learnt the hard way that you
can’t put on an Olympic performance every night. I’d be thinking, these people have paid their money, now
do your stuff, and I suddenly thought, “I really can’t cope. I’m not enjoying it”.’ The solution, he realized,
was to give 75 per cent every night, rather than striving for the sort of twice-a-year excellence which won
him medals.
To be honest, for those of us whose only experience of ice-skating is watching top-class Olympic
skaters, some of the movements can look a bit amateurish, but then, who are we to judge? Equally, it’s
impossible not to be swept up in the whole thing; well, you’d have to try pretty hard not to enjoy it.
(Source TOEFL reading)
43. What surprises the writer about the popularity of Holiday on Ice?
A. Few people know someone who has been it.
B. The show has not changed since it started.
C. Ice-skating is not generally a popular hobby.
D. People often say they prefer other types of show.
44. The word blares out in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. seeps out B. sounds beautifully
C. resounds loudly D. rings
45. What does the writer highlight about the show in the third paragraph?
A. the variety of places in which the show has been staged
B. the range of companies involved in the production
C. the need for a higher level of professional support
D. the difficulty of finding suitable equipment
46. The word them in paragraph 4 refers to _______.
A. things that people want to see
B. skating moves
C. the skaters
D. skating competitions
47. For Robin Cousins, the key point when rehearsing skating routines is
A. filling all available space on the ice
B. the movement of the lights
C. keeping in time with the music
D. the skaters’ positions on the ice
48. Cousins believes that he can meet the challenge of producing shows for different audiences
A. by varying the routines each night
B. by selecting music that local audiences will respond to
C. by adapting movements to suit local tastes
D. by presenting familiar material in an unexpected way
49. What does Cousins suggest in paragraph 5 about skating in shows?
A. It can be as competitive as other forms of skating
B. It enables skaters to visit a variety of places
C. It is particularly well paid
D. It allows skaters to try out a range of ideas
50. What conclusion does the writer draw about Holiday on Ice?
A. It is hard to know who really enjoys it.
B. It is more enjoyable to watch than formal ice-skating.
C. It requires as much skill as Olympic ice-skating.
D. It is difficult to dislike it.
ĐỀ THI 15
1. A. amount B. country C. counter D. around
2. A. education B. document C. endangered D. secondary
3. A. interviewer B. inhabitant C. solidify D. relationship
4. A. enter B. comment C. chemist D. proceed
5. With the dawn of space exploration, the notion that atmospheric conditions on Earth may be unique
in the solar system was strengthened.
A. expansion B. beginning C. continuation D. outcome
6. Roget’s Thesaurus, a collection of English words and phrases, was originally arranged by the ideas
they express rather than by alphabetical order.
A. regardless of B. as well as C. unless D. instead of
7. She was disgusted at the way they treat their children.
A. allergic to B. delighted at C. displeased with D. angry at
8. All of the students are obliged to pass the entrance examination in order to attend the university.
A. forced B. impelled C. required D. optional
9. Measles have not yet been eradicated because of the controversy concerning immunization.
A. have not B. yet C. because of D. concerning
10. With the discovery of Pluto’s moon, Charon, astronomy now think that Pluto is the smallest planet in
the solar system.
A. with B. astronomy C. the smallest D. solar system
11. For more than 450 years, Mexico City has been the economic, culture and political centre of Mexican
people.
A. more than B. has been C. culture D. Mexican people
12. When Mr. Spendthrift ran out of money, he _______ his mother for help.
A. fell back on B. fell upon C. fell behind D. fell in with
13. It’s funny you should say that. I’ve just had the _______ thought.
A. like B. identical C. alike D. likely
14. _______, I decided to stop trading with them.
A. Despite of the fact that they were the biggest dealer
B. Though being the biggest dealer
C. Being the biggest dealer
D. Even though they were the biggest dealer
15. He used to do well at school _______ having his early education disrupted by illness.
A. apart from B. in spite of C. in addition to D. because of
16. I refuse to believe a word of it; it’s a cock-and-_______ story.
A. hen B. goose C. bull D. duck
17. Why don’t you _______ a go? It’s not difficult!
A. make B. have C. do D. set
18. How many means of _______ do you use on a regular basis?
A. communication B. communicating
C. communicator D. communicative
19. Students use the library’s computers to get access _______ the Internet.
A. for B. to C. with D. by
20. If you can’t remember his phone number, you can always _______ it _______ in the phone book.
A. take/ down B. look/ up C. find/ out D. bring/ about
21. Researchers have _______ to the conclusion that your personality is affected by your genes.
A. come B. got C. reached D. arrived
22. You should _______ a professional to check your house for earthquake damage.
A. have B. get C. make D. take
23. Many of the people who attended Mr. David’s funeral _______ him for many years.
A. didn’t see B. wouldn’t see C. haven’t seen D. hadn’t seen
MICHAEL FARADAY
During the last 400 years, most scientists have based on mathematics in their development of their
inventions or discoveries. However, one great British scientist, Michael Faraday, did not make (24) _______
of mathematics. Faraday, the son of a poor blacksmith, was born in London in 1791 and had no (25)
_______ beyond reading and writing.
In 1812 Faraday was hired as a bottle washer by the great chemist Humphry Davy. Later, Faraday
became a greater scientist than Davy, making the last years of Davy’s life embittered with jealousy. Faraday
made the first (26) _______ motor in 1821, a device that used electricity to produce movement. Then
Faraday became interested in the relationship between electricity and magnetism. In 1831 he discovered that
when a magnet is moved near a wire, electricity flows in the wire. With this discovery he produced a
machine for making electricity called a dynamo. Faraday then went on to show how electricity affects
chemical (27) _______.
Because Faraday believed that money should be given to the poor, when he grew old, he was destitute.
(28) _______, Queen Victoria rewarded him for his discoveries by giving him a stipend and a house. He
died in 1867.
24. A. usage B. advantage C. use D. utilization
25. A. instruction B. knowledge C. training D. schooling
26. A. electric B. electronics C. electricity D. electrician
27. A. matters B. substances C. materials D. equations
28. A. Still B. So C. However D. Yet
Read the following the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each
of the questions.
A number of factors related to the voice reveal the personality of the speaker. The first is the broad
area of communication, which includes imparting information by use of language, communicating with a
group or an individual, and specialized communication through performance. A person conveys thoughts
and ideas through choice of words, by a tone of voice that is pleasant or unpleasant, gentle or harsh, by the
rhythm that is inherent within the language itself, and by speech rhythms that are flowing and regular or
uneven and hesitant, and finally, by the pitch and melody of the utterance. When speaking before a group, a
person’s tone may indicate unsureness or fright, confidence or calm. At interpersonal levels, the tone may
reflect ideas and feelings over and above the words chosen, or may belie them. Here the speaker’s tone can
consciously or unconsciously reflect intuitive sympathy or antipathy, lack of concern or interest, fatigue,
anxiety, enthusiasm or excitement, all of which are usually discernible by the acute listener. Public
performance is a manner of communication that is highly specialized with its own techniques for obtaining
effects by voice and/ or gesture. The motivation derived from the text, and it the case of signing, the music,
in combination with the performer’s skills, personality, and ability to create empathy will determine the
success of artistic, political, or pedagogic communication.
Second, the voice gives psychological clues to a person’s self-image, perception of others, and
emotional health. Self-image can be indicated by a tone of voice that is confident, pretentious, shy,
aggressive, outgoing, or exuberant, to name only a few personality traits. Also the sound may give a clue to
the facade or mask of that person, for example, a shy person hiding behind an overconfident front. How a
speaker perceives the listener’s receptiveness, interest, or sympathy in any given conversation can
drastically alter the tone of presentation, by encouraging or discouraging the speaker. Emotional health is
evidenced in the voice by free and melodic sounds of the happy, by constricted and harsh sound of the
angry, and by dull and lethargic qualities of the depressed.
A. The function of the voice in performance
B. The connection between voice and personality
C. Communication styles
D. The production of speech
30. What does the author mean by stating that “At interpersonal levels, the tone may reflect ideas and
feelings over and above the words chosen”?
A. Feeling is expressed with different words than ideas are.
B. The tone of voice can carry information beyond the meaning of words.
C. A high tone of voice reflects an emotional communication.
D. Feelings are more difficult to express than ideas.
31. The word “Here” in paragraph 1 refers to _______.
A. interpersonal interactions B. the tone
C. ideas and feelings D. words chosen
32. The word “derived” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. discussed B. prepared C. registered D. obtained
33. According to the passage, an exuberant tone of voice, may be an indication of a person’s _______.
A. general physical health B. personality
C. ability to communicate D. vocal quality
34. According to the passage, an overconfident front may hide _______.
A. hostility B. shyness C. friendliness D. strength
35. The word “drastically” in line paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. frequently B. exactly C. severely D. easily
the questions.
As the twentieth century began, the importance of formal education in the United States increased.
The frontier had mostly disappeared and by 1910 most Americans lived in towns and cities. Industrialization
and the bureaucratization of economic life combined with a new emphasis upon credentials and expertise to
make schooling increasingly important for economic and social mobility. Increasingly, too, schools were
viewed as the most important means of integrating immigrants into American society.
The arrival of a great wave of southern and eastern European immigrants at the turn of the century
coincided with and contributed to an enormous expansion of formal schooling. By 1920 schooling to age
fourteen or beyond was compulsory in most states, and the school year was greatly lengthened.
Kindergartens, vacation schools, extracurricular activities, and vocational education and counseling
extended the influence of public school over the lives of students, many of whom in the larger industrial
cities were the children of immigrants. Classes for adult immigrants were sponsored by public schools,
corporations, unions, churches, settlement houses, and other agencies.
Reformers early in the twentieth century suggested that education programs should suit the needs of
specific populations. Immigrant women were once such population. Schools tried to educate young women
so they could occupy productive places in the urban industrial economy, and one place many educators
considered appropriate for women was the home.
Although looking after the house and family was familiar to immigrant women, American education
gave homemaking a new definition. In pre-industrial economies, homemaking had meant the production as
well as the consumption of goods, and it commonly included income-producing activities both inside and
outside the home, in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States, however,
overproduction rather than scarcity was becoming a problem. Thus, the ideal American homemaker was
viewed as a consumer rather than a producer. Schools trained women to be consumer homemakers: cooking,
shopping, decorating, and caring for children “efficiently” in their own homes, or if economic necessity
demanded, as employees in the homes of others. Subsequent reforms have made these notions soom quite
out-of-date.
36. It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that one important factor in the increasing importance of
education in the United States was _______.
A. the growing number of schools in frontier communities
B. an increase in the number of trained teachers
C. the expanding economic problems of schools
D. the increased urbanization of the entire country
37. The word “means” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. advantages B. probability C. method D. qualifications
38. The phrase “coincided with” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. was influenced by B. happened at the same time as
C. began to grow rapidly D. ensured the success of
39. According to the passage, one important change in United States education by the 1920’s was that
_______.
A. most places required children to attend school
B. the amount of time spent on formal education was limited
C. new regulations were imposed on nontraditional education
D. adults and children studied in the same classes
40. Vacation schools and extracurricular activities are mentioned to illustrate _______.
A. alternatives to formal education provided by public schools
B. the importance of educational changes
C. activities that competed to attract new immigrants to their programs
D. the increased impact of public schools on students
41. According to the passage, early-twentieth century education reformers believed that _______.
A. different groups needed different kinds of education
B. special programs should be set up in frontier communities to modernize them
C. corporations and other organizations damaged educational progress
D. more women should be involved in education and industry
A. consumption B. production C. homemaking D. education
43. Women were trained to be consumer homemakers as a result of _______.
A. overproduction in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
B. scarcity in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
C. economic necessity in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
D. income-producing activities in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
Mark the letter A, B or C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges.
44. “_______” – “No, I can manage. Thank you.”
A. Can you give me a hand with this please?
B. Do you need their support?
C. Can you manage the job?
D. Let me carry the bag for you.
45. Tom. “I don’t have my glasses. I can’t read the menu.” – Jane. “_______”
A. I am going to read it to you B. I will read it to you
C. I have read it to you D. I will be reading it to you
questions.
46. Although Christopher was the stronger of the two, his attacker soon overpowered him.
A. Despite his superior strength, Christopher was soon overpowered by his attacker.
B. Christopher was stronger, but he overpowered his attacker after a while.
C. Christopher lost because he was stronger than his attacker.
D. Christopher was too strong to be overpowered by his attacker.
47. He could have gone by bus and so saved a lot of money.
A. He wouldn’t have saved much money if he had taken the bus.
B. He would have gone by bus if he had saved money for the fare.
C. He traveled by bus, and it didn’t cost him much.
D. He would have spent less money if he had traveled by bus.
48. I have every intention of finding out who is responsible for the graffiti.
A. I fully intend to find out who is responsible for the graffiti.
B. I have all the intention to find out who is responsible for the graffiti.
C. Who is responsible for the graffiti is one of my concerns.
D. I am intentional to find out who is responsible for the graffiti.
49. The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room. Therefore, he opened the window.
A. The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room because he opened the window.
B. The man opened the window in order to get some fresh air in the room.
C. The man got some fresh air in the room, even though he opened the window.
D. Having opened the window, the room could get some fresh air.
50. No one but the excepts were able to realize that the painting was an imitation. It greatly resembled
the original.
A. It was obvious that only a person with great talent could fake a painting so successfully.
B. It was hard for ordinary people to judge between the fake painting and the real one, but no for the
experts.
C. It was almost impossible for amateurs to realize that the painting was not authentic, though the
experts could judge it quite easily.
D. The painting looked so much like the authentic one that only the experts could tell it wasn’t
genuine.
ĐỀ THI 16
1. A. apologize B. agree C. algebra D. aggressive
2. A. likes B. tightens C. heaps D. coughs
3. A. celebrate B. occupy C. determine D. atmosphere
4. A. sensitive B. allowance C. consultant D. location
5. I had to pay through the nose to get my car repaired at a service station in the middle of the desert.
A. spend less money than usual B. cost a lot of money
C. pay too much for something D. make a lot of money
6. In the United States there are only a few deaths annually from rattlesnakes, with a mortality rate of
less than 2 percent of those attacked.
A. percentage B. illness C. death D. deliberate
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE to the underlined word(s) in each of
the following questions.
7. There has been no discernible improvement in the noise levels since lorries were banned.
A. insignificant B. clear C. obvious D. thin
8. These techniques to stop desert expansion are just temporary.
A. parallel B. constant C. permanent D. deliberate
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
9. Proteins are made up of folded irregularly chains, the links of which are amino acids.
A. made up of B. folded irregularly
C. the links D. which
10. Little he knows about the surprise that awaited him.
A. he knows B. about C. that D. awaited
11. The astronomy is the oldest science, but it continues to be at the forefront of scientific thought.
A. the astronomy B. science C. continues D. at
12. It was so quiet; you could have heard a _______ drop.
A. pin B. feather C. leaf D. sigh
13. _______ is not clear to researchers.
A. Why did dinosaurs become extinct B. Why dinosaurs became extinct
C. Did dinosaurs become extinct D. Dinosaurs became extinct
14. If a machine stops moving or working normally, you can say that it has _______.
A. cut off B. wiped out C. seized up D. go off
15. Drinking water _______ excessive amounts of fluorides may leave a stained or mottled effect on the
enamel of teeth.
A. containing B. including C. made up of D. composed of
16. Newspaper publishers in the States have estimated _______ reads a newspaper every day.
A. nearly 80 percentage of the adult population who
B. it is nearly 80 percent of the adult population
C. that it is nearly 80 percentage of the adult population
D. that nearly 80 percent of the adult population
17. The Artificial Intelligence expert wanted to have his assistant _______ the newly made robot.
A. activate B. activated C. activating D. to activate
18. Many materials have been used for _______ teeth, including wood.
A. artificial B. false C. hand-made D. natural
19. A lot of residents had to _______ from the unexpected hurricane last month.
A. protect B. recover C. suffer D. save
20. Each form of mass media has an important _______ on society.
A. impact B. pressure C. affection D. role
21. Many people _______ television as their main source of information and entertainment.
A. rely on B. try on C. put on D. hold on
22. A flat in the centre of the city might _______ you an arm and a leg.
A. spend B. lose C. cost D. require
23. The promoters called the concert _______ because the singer had a sore throat.
A. away B. up C. off D. with
Why is it that many teenagers have the energy to play computer games until late at night but can’t find
the energy to get out of bed (24) _______ for school? According to a new report, today’s generations of
children are in danger of getting so little sleep that they are putting their mental and physical health at (25)
_______. Adults can easily survive on seven to eight hours’ sleep a night, (26) _______ teenagers require
nine or ten hours. According to medical experts, one in five youngsters gets anything between two and five
hours’ sleep a night less than their parents did at their age.
This (27) _______ serious questions about whether lack of sleep is affecting children’s ability to
concentrate at school. The connection between sleep deprivation and lapses in memory, impaired reaction
time and poor concentration is well established. Research has shown that losing as little as half an hour’s
sleep a night can have profound effects on how children perform the next day. A good night’s sleep is also
crucial for teenagers because it is while they are asleep that they release a hormone that is essential for their
‘growth spurt’ (the period during teenage years when the body grows at a rapid rate). It’s true that they can,
to some (28) _______, catch up on sleep at weekends, but that won’t help them when they are dropping off
to sleep in class on a Friday afternoon.
24. A. behind time B. about time C. in time D. at times
25. A. jeopardy B. threat C. risk D. danger
26. A. or B. because C. whereas D. so
27. A. raises B. rises C. results D. comes
28. A. rate B. extent C. level D. point
the questions.
Psychologists have debated a long time about whether a child’s upbringing can give it the ability to do
outstandingly well. Some think that it is impossible to develop genius and say that it is simply something a
person is born with. Others, however, argue that the potential for great achievement can be developed. The
truth lies somewhere between these two extremes.
It seems very obvious that being born with the right qualities from gifted parents will increase a
child’s ability to do well. However, this ability will be fully realized only with the right upbringing and
opportunities. As one psychologist says, “To have a fast car, you need both a good engine and fuel.”
Scientists have recently assessed intelligence, achievement, and ability in 50 sets of identical twins
that were separated shortly after birth and brought up by different parents. They found that achievement was
based on intelligence, and later influenced by the child’s environment.
One case involving very intelligent twins was quoted. One of the twins received a normal upbringing,
and performed well. The other twin, however, was brought up by extremely supportive parents and given
every possible opportunity to develop its abilities. That twin, though starting out with the same degree of
intelligence as the other, performed even better.
This case reflects the general principle of intelligence and ability. The more favorable the
environment, the more a child’s intelligence and ability are developed. However, there is no link between
intelligence and the socioeconomic level of a child’s family. In other words, it does not matter how poor or
how rich a family is, as this does not affect intelligence.
Gifted people cannot be created by supportive parents, but they can be developed by them. One
professor of music said that outstanding musicians usually started two or three years earlier than ordinary
performers, often because their parents had recognized their ability. These musicians then needed at least ten
years’ hard work and training in order to reach the level they were capable of attaining.
People who want to have very gifted children are given the following advice.
 Marry an intelligent person.
 Allow children to follow their own interests rather than the interests of the parents.
 Start a child’s education early but avoid pushing the child too hard.
 Encourage children to play; for example, playing with musical instruments is essential for a child
who wants to become an outstanding musician.
29. The upbringing of highly intelligent children requires _______.
A. an expensive education B. good musical instruments
C. parental support and encouragement D. wealthy and loving parents
30. The word “others” used in the first paragraph refers to _______.
A. other people B. other scientists C. other children D. other geniuses
31. How were great musicians different from ordinary musicians in their development?
A. Their ability was realized at an early stage and then nurtured.
B. They practiced playing their instruments for many years.
C. They concentrated on music to the exclusion of other areas.
D. They were exceptionally intelligent and artistic.
32. When encouraging their gifted children, parents should avoid _______.
A. pushing their children too hard
B. letting them play their own way
C. permitting them to follow their own interests
D. starting their education at an early age
33. The remark. “To have a fast car, you need both a good engine and fuel.” In the passage means that in
order to become a genius.
A. you need to have good health and good nourishment
B. you need intelligence and you need to develop it
C. you should try to move quickly and efficiently
D. you must nourish your brain and train your muscles hard
34. The word “favorable” in the paragraph 5 mostly means _______.
A. “good for someone and making him/ her likely to be successful”
B. “helping somebody to be more intelligent compared to other people”
C. “of high quality or an acceptable standard”
D. “under the control or in the power of somebody else”
35. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT _______.
A. educational development depends completely on economic well-being
B. a child’s intelligence is influenced by that of his/ her parents
C. to become successful, a child needs both native intelligence and development
D. studying different twins is a useful scientific procedure
the questions.
In the world today, particularly in the two most industrialized areas, North America and Europe,
recycling is big news. People are talking about it, practicing it, and discovering new ways to be sensitive to
the environment. Recycling means finding ways to use products a second time. The motto of the recycling
movement is “Reduce. Reuse, Recycle”.
The first step is to reduce garbage. In stores, a shopper has to buy products in blister packs, boxes and
expensive wrappings. A hamburger from a fast food restaurant comes in lots of packaging: usually paper, a
box, and a bag. All that packaging is wasted resources. People should try to buy things that are wrapped
simply, and to reuse cups and utensils. Another way to reduce waste is to buy high-quality products. When
low quality appliances break, many customers throw them away and buy new ones – a loss of more
resources and more energy. For example, if a customer buys a high-quality appliance that can be easily
repaired, the manufacturer receives an important message. In the same way, if a customer chooses a product
with less packaging, that customer sends an important message to the manufactures. To reduce garbage, the
throwaway must stop.
The second step is to reuse. It is better to buy juices and soft drinks in returnable bottles. After
customers empty the bottles, they return them to the store. The manufacturers of the drinks collect the
bottles, wash them, and then fill them again. The energy that is necessary to make new bottles is saved. In
some parts of the world, returning bottles for money is a common practice. In those places, the garbage
dumps have relatively little glass and plastic from throwaway bottles.
The third step is being environmentally sensitive is to recycle. Spent motor oil can be cleaned and used
again. Aluminum cans are expensive to make. It takes the same amount of energy to make one aluminum
can as it does to run a color TV set for three hours. When people collect and recycle aluminum (for new
cans), they help save one of the world’s precious resources.
A. how to reduce garbage disposal
B. what people often understand about the term ‘recycle’
C. what is involved in the recycling movement
D. how to live sensitively to the environment
37. Which is described as one of the most industrialized areas?
A. Europe B. Asia C. Middle East D. South America
38. What does the world ‘sensitive’ in the phrase ‘sensitive to the environment’ in paragraph 1 mean?
A. cautious B. logical C. friendly D. responding
39. People can do the following to reduce waste EXCEPT _______.
A. buy high-quality product B. buy simply-wrapped things
C. reuse cups D. buy fewer hamburgers
40. The word “motto” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. meaning B. value C. belief D. reference
41. What best describes the process of the reuse?
A. The bottles are collected, washed, returned and filled again.
B. The bottles are filled again after being returned, collected and washed.
C. The bottles are washed, returned, filled again and collected.
D. The bottles are collected, returned, filled again and washed.
42. The garbage dumps in some areas have relatively little glass and plastic because _______.
A. people are ordered to return bottles
B. returned bottles are few
C. not many bottle are made of glass or plastic
D. each returned bottle is paid
43. The word ‘practice’ in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. drill B. exercise C. deed D. belief
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges
44. Brown. ‘_______’ – Smith. ‘Thanks, I’ll write to you as soon as I arrive in Paris.’
A. God bless you! B. Have a go!
C. Better luck next time! D. Have a nice trip!
45. James. ‘Do you mind if I open the window?’ – Carol. ‘_______’
A. I’d rather you didn’t B. Yeah, of course
C. Please, don’t worry D. Yes, it is, isn’t it?
questions.
46. I remember telling you about the due day of the exam paper.
A. I remember to tell you when the exam paper was due.
B. I think I have told you about the exam paper’s due.
C. I think I have told you when you sit for the exam.
D. I remember I have told you when the exam paper is due.
47. Friendly though he may seem, he’s not very trusted.
A. However he seems friendly, he’s not to be trusted.
B. However friendly he seems, he’s not to be trusted.
C. He may have friends, but he’s not to be trusted.
D. He’s too friendly to be trusted.
48. Alfred said to John. “I didn’t use your computer! Someone else did, not me.”
A. Alfred told John that he hadn’t used his computer, saying that someone else had.
B. Alfred denied having used John’s computer, saying that someone else had.
C. Alfred refused to use John’s computer, saying that someone else had.
D. Alfred said to John that he hadn’t used his computer, saying that someone else had.
49. We know that animals need vitamins for growth and development. Plants need them, too.
A. Plants are known to need the same vitamins for growth and development as do animals.
B. In order to grow and develop, plants are known to need the vitamins that are produced by animals.
C. Animals need vitamins to grow and develop whereas plants need its growth and development.
D. What we are that both animals and plants can produce vitamins for growth and development.
50. We chose to find a place for the night. We found the bad weather very inconvenient.
A. Bad weather was approaching, so we started to look for a place to stay.
B. The bad weather prevented us from driving any further.
C. Seeing that the bad weather had set in, we decided to find somewhere to spend the night.
D. Because the climate was so severe, we were worried about what we’d do at night.
ĐỀ THI 17
1. A. merchant B. sergeant C. commercial D. term
2. A. amuses B. purses C. blouses D. pleases
3. A. imagine B. inhabit C. continue D. disappear
4. A. popularity B. politician C. documentary D. laboratory
5. “Please speak up a bit more, Jason. You’re hardly loud enough to be heard from the back”, the
teacher said.
A. visible B. audible C. edible D. eligible
6. On the second thought, I believe I will go with you to the theater.
A. Upon reflection B. After discussing with my life
C. For this time only D. For the second time
7. He was so insubordinate that he lost his job within a week.
A. fresh B. disobedient C. obedient D. understanding
8. Children must sit on a parent’s lap unless an empty seat is available.
A. occupied B. booked C. disused D. abandoned
9. A paragraph is a portion of a text consist of one or more sentences related to the same idea.
A. a paragraph B. consist C. sentences D. related to
10. The train to Ho Chi Minh City left at precisely 7 o’clock as usually, but the train to Ha Noi capital
left at half past six o’clock, which was exactly 20 minutes late.
A. precisely B. as usually C. which D. exactly
11. Whether life in the countryside is better than that in the city depend on each individual’s point of
view.
A. whether B. that C. depend on D. point of view
12. British and Australian people share the same language, but in other respects they are as different as
_______.
A. cats and dogs B. salt and pepper
C. chalk and cheese D. here and there
13. A washing machine of this type will certainly _______ normal domestic use.
A. stand up for B. come up with C. get on to D. take down with
14. Half of the children were away from school last week because of _______ of influenza.
A. a break-out B. a breakthrough C. an outburst D. an outbreak
15. It’s a formal occasion so we’ll have to _______ to the nines- no jeans and pullovers this time!
A. hitch up B. put on C. wear in D. get dressed up
16. There seems to be a large _______ between the number of people employed in service industries,
and those employed in the primary sectors.
A. discrimination B. discretion C. discrepancy D. extinction
17. All students must hand _______ their homework the day after it is assigned.
A. out B. on C. to D. in
18. I’m not surprised that Tom is ill. He’s been _______ for a long time. It was bound to affect his health
sooner or later.
A. having his cake and eating it B. burning the candles at both hands
C. playing with fire D. going to town
19. The climber _______ into difficulties when there was a sudden storm.
A. came B. met C. had D. got
20. I picked up the wrong bag by _______.
A. mistake B. purpose C. luck D. fault
21. Most scientists believe that the day robots will become a part of our lives will come _______.
A. from time to time B. more and less C. sooner and later D. later than never
22. The mass media are _______ of communication, such as books, newspapers, recordings, radio,
movies, television, mobile phones and the Internet.
A. models B. modes C. parts D. types
23. If there are aliens out there, do you think they are much more _______ advanced than we are?
A. technological B. technologically C. technology D. technologies
Imagine you are studying English at a small college in the Midwestern United States. The local
newspaper rarely has news about your native country. (24) _______, it prints very little foreign news, but
this does not bother you at all. You sit comfortably in your apartment, turn on your (25) _______ computer,
and ask for the foreign news. The screen is immediately (26) _______ with news from (27) _______ the
world.
Computers have (28) _______ an information “superhighway”. Today, computers can work together –
they can network with each other. The worldwide computer network is called the Internet. Using the
Internet, you can find all kinds of information and news from people and countries around the world.
24. A. Despite B. In fact C. Because D. Although
25. A. person B. personified C. personally D. personal
26. A. filled B. full C. made D. taken
27. A. in B. on C. all above D. all over
28. A. written B. created C. composed D. invented
the questions.
Choosing a career may be one of the hardest jobs you ever have, and it must be done with care. View a
career as an opportunity to do something you love, not simply as a way to earn a living. Investing the time
and effort to thoroughly explore your options can mean the difference between finding a stimulating and
rewarding career and move from job to unsatisfying job in an attempt to find the right one. Work influences
virtually every aspect of your life, from your choice of friends to where you live. Here are just a few of the
factors to consider.
Deciding what matters most to you is essential to making the right decision. You may want to begin
by assessing your likes, dislikes, strengths, and weaknesses. Think about the classes, hobbies, and
surroundings that you find most appealing. Ask yourself questions, such as “Would you like to travel? Do
you want to work with children? Are you more suited to solitary or cooperative work?” There are no right or
wrong answers; only you know what is important to you. Determine which job features you require, which
ones you would prefer, and which ones you cannot accept. Then rank them in order of importance to you.
The setting of the job is one factor to take into account. You may not want to sit at a desk all day. If
not, there are diversity occupation – building inspector, supervisor, real estate agent – that involve a great
deal of time away from the office. Geographical location may be a concern, and employment in some fields
is concentrated in certain regions. Advertising job can generally be found only in large cities. On the other
hand, many industries such as hospitality, law education, and retail sales are found in all regions of the
country. If a high salary is important to you, do not judge a career by its starting wages. Many jobs, such as
insurance sales, offers relatively low starting salaries; however, pay substantially increases along with your
experience, additional training, promotions and commission.
Don’t rule out any occupation without learning more about it. Some industries evoke positive or
negative associations. The travelling life of a flight attendant appears glamorous, while that of a plumber
does not. Remember that many jobs are not what they appear to be a first, and may have merits or demerits
that are less obvious. Flight attendants must work long, grueling hours without sleeps, whereas plumbers
can be as highly paid as some doctors. Another point to consider is that as you get mature, you will likely to
develop new interests and skills that may point the way to new opportunities. The choice you make today
need not be your final one.
29. The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. questions B. answers C. features D. jobs
30. The word “assessing” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by _______.
A. discovering B. considering C. measuring D. disposing
31. According to paragraph 3, which of the following fields is NOT suitable for a person who does not
want to live in a bog city?
A. plumbing B. law C. retail sales D. advertising
32. It can be inferred from the paragraph 3 that _______.
A. jobs in insurance sales are generally not well-paid
B. insurance sales people can earn high salary later in their career
C. people should constantly work toward the next promotion
D. a starting salary should be an important consideration in choosing a career
33. In paragraph 4, the author suggest that _______.
A. you may want to change careers at some time in the future
B. as you get older, your career will probably less fulfilling
C. you will be at your job for a lifetime, so choose carefully
D. you will probably jobless at some time in the future
34. Why does the author mention “long, grueling hours without sleeps” in paragraph 4?
A. To emphasize the difficulty of working as a plumber
B. To contrast the reality of a flight attendant’s job with most people’s perception
C. To show that people must work hard for the career they have chosen
D. To discourage readers from choosing a career as a flight attendant
35. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?
A. To make a lot of number, you should not take a job with a low starting salary.
B. To make lots of money, you should rule out all factory jobs.
C. If you want an easy and glamorous lifestyle, you should consider becoming flight attendant.
D. Your initial view of certain careers may not be accurate.
the questions.
Baseball evolved from a number of different ball-and-stick games (paddle ball, trap ball, one-old-cat,
rounders, and town ball) originating in England. As early as the American Revolution, it was noted that
troops played “baseball” in their free time. In 1845 Alexander Cartwright formalized the New York
Knickerbockers’ version of the game: a diamond shaped infield, with bases ninety feet apart, three strikes-
you’re-out, batter out on a caught ball. Three outs per inning, a nine-man team. The “New York Game”
spread rapidly, replacing earlier localized forms. From its beginnings, baseball was seen as a way of
satisfying the recreational needs of an increasingly urban-industrial society. At its inception it was played
by and for wealthy gentlemen. A club might consist of 40 members. The president would appoint two
captains who would choose teams from among the numbers. Games were played on Monday and Thursday
afternoons, with the losers often providing a lavish evening’s entertainment for the winners.
During the 1850-70 period the game was changing; however, with increasing commercialism
(charging admission), under-the-table payments to exceptional players, and gambling on the outcome of
games. By 1868 it was said that a club would have their regular professional ten, an amateur first-nine, and
their “muffins” (the gentlemanly duffers who once ran the game). Beginning with the first openly all-
salaried team (Cincinnati’s Red Stocking Club) in 1869, the 1870-1890 period saw the complete
professionalization of baseball, including formation of the National Association of Professional Baseball
Players in 1871. The National League of Professional Base Ball Clubs was formed in 1876, run by business-
minded investors in joint-stock company clubs. The 1880s has been called Major League Baseball’s
“Golden Age”. Profits soared, player’s salaries rose somewhat, a season of 84 games became one of 132, a
weekly periodical “The Sporting News” came into being, wooden stadiums with double-deck stands
replaced open fields, and the standard refreshment became hot dogs, soda pop and peanuts. In 1900 the
Western League based in the growing cities of the Midwest proclaimed itself the American League.
36. What is the passage mainly about?
A. the origins of baseball
B. the commercialization of baseball
C. the influence of the “New York Game” on baseball
D. The development of baseball in the nineteenth century
37. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. the wealthy gentlemen who first played baseball, alter needed to find another recreational
opportunity if they did not want to mix others or become a “muffin”
B. hot dogs would not have become as popular as they did, without the professionalism and
commercialism that developed in baseball
C. the “New York Game” spread rapidly because it was better formalized
D. business-minded investors were only interested in profits
38. The word “inception” in paragraph 1 is closest meaning to _______.
A. requirements B. beginning C. insistence D. rules
39. The word “lavish” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. prolonged B. very generous C. grand D. extensive
40. According to the second paragraph, all of the following are true EXCEPT _______.
A. commercialism became more prosperous
B. the clubs are smaller
C. outstanding players got extra income
D. people gamed on the outcome of games
41. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a feature of the 1880s “Golden Age”?
A. wooden stadiums replaced open fields
B. a weekly periodical commenced
C. the National Association of Professional Baseball Players was formed
D. profits soared
42. The word “somewhat” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. to a significant extant B. to a minor extent
C. to not the same extent D. to some extent
43. The word “itself” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. the Western League B. growing cities
C. the Midwest D. the American League
the questions.
44. Ben. “_______”. Jane. “Never mind.”
A. Congratulations! How wonderful! B. Sorry for staining your carpet. Let me have it cleaned.
C. Thank you for being honest with me. D. Would you mind going to dinner next Sunday?
45. Peter. – “All right. Keep your receipt. If something comes up, you can show it to us, and we’ll give
you a refund.”
Tom. “_______.”
A. OK. I won’t use it. B. Thanks. I’ll put it in a safe place.
C. You’re welcome. See you later. D. Thanks you. I’ll keep it for you.
questions.
46. The staff couldn’t have worked any harder, and they could not even finish half of the order all the
week.
A. Had the staff worked a little harder, they might finished all the order by the end of the week.
B. Throughout the week, the staff could only complete half of the order, which how they did not
work as hard as they should have.
C. The staff, who only completed half of the order all week, could not have worked as hard as they
claimed they did.
D. Throughout the week, less than half of the order could be produced, although the staff worked as
hard as they could.
47. You needn’t have taken so many warm clothes there.
A. It’s not necessary for you to take so many warm clothes there.
B. You have taken so many warm clothes there that I don’t need.
C. There’s no need for you to take so many warm clothes there.
D. You took lots of warm clothes there but it turned out not necessary.
48. My sister would love to be involved in the organization of the event, so would I.
A. My sister is so much like me, since she too takes part in organizing events voluntarily.
B. My sister was so keen to take part in the organization of the event, that I encouraged her.
C. Both my sister and I would be very happy to take part in organizing the event.
D. I would like my sister to volunteer to take part in organizing the event.
49. Companies spend millions of dollars of advertising. They want to increase their sales.
A. Companies spend millions of dollars of advertising so that they want to increase their sales.
B. Companies spend millions of dollars of advertising, but they want to increase their sales.
C. Companies spend millions of dollars of advertising with the aim of increasing their sales.
D. In order that they want to increase their sales, companies spend millions of dollars of advertising.
50. I had two job offers upon graduation. Neither of them was appropriate for my qualifications.
A. Both of the job offers I had prior to my graduation were appropriate for my qualifications.
B. Though I wasn’t qualified enough, two jobs were offered to me upon graduation.
C. The two jobs offered to me after I graduated were inappropriate for my qualifications.
D. I was offered two jobs soon after my graduation, both of which were suitable for my
qualifications.
ĐỀ THI 18
1. A. building B. suitable C. suit D. recruitment
2. A. courtship B. courgette C. sour D. courtyard
3. A. license B. concert C. conserve D. lantern
4. A. intelligent B. architecture C. biography D. thermometer
5. Those who were engaged in the scandal will have to resign.
A. connected B. joined C. involved D. related
6. He annoys me by asking me stupid questions while I am working.
A. quarrels B. disturbs C. interferes D. damages
in each of the following questions
7. The number of wild animals has been dwindling in many parts of the world.
A. developing B. insignificant C. increasing D. declining
8. There is growing concern about the way man has destroyed the environment.
A. disregard B. attraction C, consideration D. speculation
9. Never before has so many people in the United States been interested in soccer.
A. has B. so many C. in D. interested
10. None two butterflies have exactly the same design on their wings.
A. none B. exactly C. design on D. wings
11. Dr. Fields received so large bill when he checked out of the hotel that he did not have enough money
to pay for a taxi to the airport.
A. so large bill B. checked out C. that D. enough money
12. There was no _______ in waiting longer than half an hour so we left.
A. use B. good C. worth D. point
13. It was so foggy that the driver couldn’t _______ the traffic signs.
A. make out B. break out C. keep out D. take out
14. It was a joke! I was pulling your _______.
A. thumb B. hair C. toe D. leg
15. The teacher hoped to _______ a positive, not a negative reply from his student.
A. respond B. donate C. elicit D. preface
16. She made the _______ mistake of forgetting to put the s” on the verb in the third person singular.
A. classic B. important C. classical D. famous
17. I had a long _______ with my neighbor yesterday. We talked for hours.
A. explanation B. protest C. conversation D. accusation
18. Mrs. Marie told her little boy to put all his toys _______ before coming to dinner.
A. out B. off C. away D. in
19. The old astronomer patiently made his _______ and wrote down what he saw.
A. observation B. observatory C. observe D. observer
20. We were both very excited about the visit, as we _______ each other for ages.
A. never saw B. didn’t see C. hadn’t seen D. haven’t seen
21. Why don’t you _______ you when you install this new electric gadget?
A. get Aaron help B. have Aaron help
C. have Aaron helped D. have got Aaron help
22. Only in the last few years _______ to use home computers.
A. have begun people B. when people begun
C. have people begun D. people have begun
23. “I’m really sleepy today” I wish I _______ Bob to the airport late last night.
A. didn’t have to take B. weren’t taking
C. hadn’t had to take D. didn’t take
LEARNING TO MAKE A PERFECT PIZZA
According to the European Pizza-Makers’ Association, making a good pizza is not a straightforward
skill to learn. The ingredients seem very (24) _______: flour, yeast, water and a bit of salt. But water and
flour can easily make glue and anyone who has eaten a (25) _______ quality will know how bad it can make
your stomach feel.
‘In Italy, 70% of pizza makers could improve on their product, not to (26) _______ all the pizza
makers around the world who serve uneatable meals,’ says Antonio Primiceri, the Association’s founder. He
has now started a pizza school in an attempt to save the reputation of this traditional dish. As part of a/ an
(27) _______ course, the students at Mr. Primiceri’s school are taught to avoid common mistakes, produce
a good basic mixture, add a tasty topping and cook the pizza properly. ‘Test the finished pizza by breaking
the crust, advises Mr. Primiceri: ‘If the soft part inside the pizza is white, clean and dry, it’s a good pizza. If
it not like this, the pizza will upset your stomach. You will feel (28) _______ full and also thirsty’.
In Italy alone, the pizza industry has an annual turnover of more than $12 billion. Mr. Primiceri
estimated that there are 10,000 jobs in pizza restaurants waiting to be filled by those with real skills. ‘If you
are a good pizza cook, you will never be without a job,’ he says.
24. A. simple B. primary C. pure D. regular
25. A. sad B. poor C. short D. weak
26. A. state B. mention C. remark D. fell
27. A. defensive B. extreme C. intensive D. intentional
28. A. hardly B. tightly C. uncomfortably D. heavily
the questions.
Most people can remember a phone number for up to thirty seconds. When this short amount of time
elapses, however, the numbers are erased from the memory. How did the information get there in the first
place? Information that makes its way to the short term memory (STM) does so via the sensory storage area.
The brain has a filter which only allows stimuli that is of immediate interest to pass on to the STM, also
known as the working memory.
There is much debate about the capacity and duration of the short term memory. The most accepted
theory comes from George A. Miller, a cognitive psychologist who suggested that humans can remember
approximately seven chunks of information. A chunk is defined as a meaningful unit of information, such as
a word or name rather than just a letter or number. Modern theorists suggest that one can increase the
capacity of the short term memory by chunking, or classifying similar information together. By organizing
information, one can optimize the STM, and improve the chances of a memory being passed on to long term
storage.
When making a conscious effort to memorize something, such as information for an exam, many
people engage in “rote rehearsal”. By repeating something over and over again, one is able to keep a
memory alive. Unfortunately, this type of memory maintenance only succeeds if there are no interruptions.
As soon as a person stops rehearsing the information, it has the tendency to disappear. When a pen and
paper are not handy, people often attempt to remember a phone number by repeating it aloud. If the doorbell
rings or the dog barks to come in before a person has the opportunity to make a phone call, he will likely
forget the number instantly. Therefore, rote rehearsal is not an efficient way to pass information from the
short term to long term memory. A better way is to practice “elaborate rehearsal”. This involves assigning
semantic meaning to a piece of information so that it can be filed along with other pre-existing long term
memories. For example, a reader engages in elaborate rehearsal when he brings prior knowledge of a subject
to a text.
Encoding information semantically also makes it more retrievable. Retrieving information can be done
by recognition or recall. Humans can easily recall memories that are stored in the long term memory and
used often; however, if a memory seems to be forgotten, it may eventually be retrieved by prompting. The
more cues a person is given (such as pictures), the more likely a memory can be retrieved. This is why
multiple choice tests are often used for subjects that require a lot of memorization.
29. According to the passage, how do memories get transferred to the STM?
A. They revert from the long term memory.
B. They are filtered from the sensory storage area.
C. They get chunked when they enter the brain.
D. They enter via the nervous system.
30. The word “elapses” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. passes B. adds up C. appears D. continues
31. The word “cues” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. questions B. clues C. images D. tests
32. How do theorists believe a person can remember more information in a short time?
A. By organizing it B. By repeating it
C. By giving it a name D. By drawing it
33. The author believes that rote rotation is _______.
A. the best way to remember something
B. more efficient than chunking
C. ineffective in the long run
D. an unnecessary interruption
34. The word ‘it’ in the last paragraph refers to _______.
A. encoding B. STM C. semantics D. information
35. Which of the following is NOT supported by the passage?
A. The working memory is the same as the short term memory.
B. A memory is kept alive through constant repetition.
C. Cues help people to recognize information.
D. Multiple choice exams are the most difficult.
the questions.
Perhaps it was his own lack of adequate schooling that inspired Horace Mann to work so hard for the
important reforms in education that he accomplished. While he was still a boy, his father and older brother
died, and he became responsible for supporting his family. Like most of the children in his town, he attended
school only two or three months a year. Later, with the help of several teachers, he was able to study law
and became a member of the Massachusetts bar, but he never forgot those early struggles.
While serving in Massachusetts legislature, he signed a historic education bill that set up a state board
of education. Without regret, he gave up his successful legal practice and political career to become the first
secretary of the board. There he exercised an enormous influence during the critical period of reconstruction
that brought into existence the American graded elementary school as substitute for the older distinct school
system. Under his leadership, the curriculum was restructured, the school year was increased to a minimum
of six months, and mandatory schooling was extended to age sixteen. Other important reforms included the
establishment of state normal schools for teacher training, institutes for in-service teacher education, and
lyceums for adult education. He was also instrument in improving salaries for teachers and creating school
libraries.
Mann’s ideas about school reform were developed and distributed in twelve annual reports to the state
of Massachusetts that he wrote during his tenure as secretary of education. Considered quite radical at the
time, the Massachusetts reforms later served as a model for the nation. Mann was recognized as the father of
public education.
36. Which of the following titles would best express the main topic of the passage?
A. The Father of American Public Education
B. Philosophy of Education
C. The Massachusetts State Board of Education
D. Politics of Education Institutions
37. Which of the following describes Horace Mann’s early life?
A. He attended school six months a year
B. He had to study alone, without help
C. He supported his family after his father died
D. He was an only child
38. The word “struggles” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by _______.
A. valuable experience B. happy situations
C. influential people D. difficult times
39. What did Horace Mann advocate?
A. The state board school system B. The district school system
C. The substitute school system D. The graded school system
40. The word “mandatory” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. required B. equal C. excellent D. basic
41. How were Mann’s educational reforms distributed?
A. In twelve annual reports to the state of Massachusetts
B. In reports that he wrote for national distribution
C. In speeches that he made throughout the country
D. In books that could be found in school libraries
42. Among Mann’s school reforms, which of the following is NOT mentioned?
A. Restructuring curriculum B. Schools for teacher training
C. Lyceums for adult education D. Creating museums
43. Which of the following statements best represents Mann’s philosophy?
A. Think in a new way B. Help others
C. Study very hard D. Work hard
44. – ‘Let me do that for you’ – ‘_______.’
A. Don’t worry yourself B. Please, don’t bother
C. It’s not for you D. Make yourself at home
45. – ‘Do you have a minute, Dr. Keith?’ – ‘_______’
A. Well, I’m not sure when B. Good, I hope so
C. Sure, what’s the problem? D. Sorry, I haven’t got it here
questions.
46. Without skillful surgery, he would not have survived the operation.
A. He survived the operation thanks to skillful surgery.
B. It wasn’t thanks to skillful surgery that he survived the operation.
C. If there weren’t skillful surgery, he would not have survived the operation.
D. But for skillful surgery, he would have survived the operation.
47. There’s no point in phoning Caroline – she’s away.
A. Don’t waste your time if you phone Caroline.
B. It would be a waste of time phoning Caroline.
C. Don’t save your time to phone Caroline because she’s away.
D. It isn’t a waste of time to phone Caroline.
48. Only final-year students are allowed to use the main college car park.
A. The main college car park is restricted to final-year students.
B. The use of the main college car park was not used by final-year students.
C. Final-year students weren’t restricted to use the main college car park.
D. The use of the main college car park isn’t restricted to final-year students
49. Mr. Baker is very interested in our plan. I spoke to him on the phone last night.
A. Mr. Baker, to whom I spoke on the phone last night, is very interested in our plan.
B. Mr. Baker who I spoke on the phone last night is very interested in our plan.
C. Mr. Baker, who is very interested in our plan, I spoke to on the phone last night.
D. Mr. Baker is very interested in our plan to whom I spoke to on the phone last night.
50. I did not dare to turn on the television. I was afraid of walking the baby up.
A. I did not dare to turn on the television for fear of walking the baby up.
B. Walking up the baby, I could not continue watching the television.
C. I decided not to turn on the television in order to wake the baby up.
D. I decided to turn the television down to avoid walking the baby up.
ĐỀ THI 19
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
1. A. create B. creature C. easy D. increase
2. A. needed B. played C. rained D. followed
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
3. A. considerate B. continental C. territorial D. economic
4. A. satisfaction B. presentation C. probability D. continuous
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the two following questions.
5. The student apologized to his teacher for submitting the essay late.
A. handing in B. dropping out of
C. carrying out D. bringing in
6. I wonder when I’m finally going to receive news Joe.
A. to hear of B. to hear from
C. to get in touch with D. turn away from
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the two following questions.
7. We run a very tight ship here, and we expect all our employees to be at their by eight o’clock and take good
care of their own business.
A. manage an inflexible B. have a good voyage
C. run faster than others D. organize things inefficiently
8. He usually stays in peace in stressful situations but this time he really lost his head.
A. kept calm B. excited
C. took leave of his sense D. lost touch
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
9. It was suggested that Pedro studies the material more thoroughly before attempting to pass the exam.
A. studies B. more C. attempting D. to pass
10. The lion has long been a symbol of strength, power and it is very cruel.
A. the B. long C. a D. it is very cruel
11. Everyone ought to know the basic steps that following in case of an emergency.
A. everyone B. that following
C. in case of D. an
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
12. The doctor who is _______ tonight in the general hospital is Mr. Brown.
A. in turn B. on tour C. on call D. at work
13. You _______ wonderful! Is that a new perfume you’re wearing?
A. are smelling B. smell C. will smell D. have been smelling
14. She has been very interested in doing research on _______.
A. biology B. biological C. biologist D. biologically
15. _______ of the United States grown during a Republican administration.
A. Rarely the federal government has
B. Rarely has the federal government
C. has the federal government rarely
D. The federal government has rarely
16. It took me 10 years to _______ enough money to travel around the country.
A. set out B. put away C. put by D. save aside
17. Had I known that you were ill last week, _______.
A. I would have gone to see you B. I would go to see you
C. I will go to see you D. I shall have gone to see you
18. It is widely believed that _______ human being are descended from common ancestor.
A. every B. all C. every of D. all of
19. Travel can _______ the mind, and exchange visits give young people experience of a _______ way of life
as well as a different language.
A. broadly/ different B. broaden/ different
C. broad/ differently D. broaden/ differ
20. I think I should have _______ your mother while I was passing.
A. dropped in on . come up with C. got on with D. run into
21. Mr. Dawson was given the award in _______ of his services to the hospital.
A. spite B. charge C. recognition D. sight
22. They thought they could deceive me but they were wrong. I could _______.
A. see them off B. see off them
C. see through D. see them through
23. The rumors go that Jack will be arrested. He is said _______ a bloody robbery.
A. to have taken B. to have joined in
C. to join in D. to take part in
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the most suitable response the following exchanges.
24. – Joan: “ Our friends are coming. _______, Mike?”
- Mike: “I’m sorry. I can’t do it now.”
A. Why don’t we cook some coffee
B. Shall I make you lie some coffee
C. Shall you make some coffee, please
D. Would you mind making some coffee
25. “Would you like to have dinner with me?” “_______”
A. Yes, it is B. Yes, so do I
C. I’m very happy D. Yes, I’d love to
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following sentences.
26. The scene is set in Normandy, but most of the characters in this novel are Londoners.
A. In the novel, the action moves backwards and forwards between Normandy and London.
B. The main characters in the novel are Londoners on a sightseeing holiday in Normandy.
C. In this novel, the story takes place in Normandy but the majority of the characters are from London.
D. The story is about Normandy, but the leading characters are all Londoners.
27. The airline requested a confirmation call to ensure a seat on my flight back home.
A. The airline made sure I got a seat on m flight home.
B. I secured a seat on my flight home.
C. The airline confirm a seat on my flight home.
D. It was necessary to confirm swat on my flight back home.
28. Mary should never have been allowed to try to swim in the sea alone.
A. When Mary let to swim in the sea alone, she said new what she was doing.
B. It would probably be wrong to let Mary swims in the sea on her own.
C. No one could have stopped Mary from trying to swim in the sea by herself.
D. Someone ought to have stopped Mary from attempting to swim in the sea on her own.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
29. He cannot lend me the book now. He has not finished reading it yet.
A. Having finished reading the book, he cannot lend it to me.
B. He cannot lend me the boo until he has finished reading it.
C. Not having finished reading the book, he will lend it to me.
D. As long as he cannot finished reading the book, he will lend it to me.
30. I did not arrive in time. I was not able to see her off.
A. She had left because I was not on time.
B. I did not go there, so I could not see her off.
C. I was not early enough to see her off.
D. I arrive very late so say goodbye to her.
Read the following passage ad mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
Postsecondary institutions and private schools are corporations under U.S law. They are approved to operate
as non-profit, for-profit, or public corporations (31)_____ education and training. Increasingly, state authorities are
requiring approved educational providers to apply for and receive accreditation as a condition of final and
continued approval.
As corporate entities, U.S institutions are internally self-governing and are (32)_____ to make property,
facilities, equipment, and utilities transactions; make their own personnel decisions; decide whom to admit to study
and to graduate; (33)_____ their own funds from outside sources, enter into contracts and compete for grants; and
do most of the other things that corporations do. Institutions compete (34)_____ one another for students, research
funding, faculty, and other benefits. Public institutions may compete within the same state or territory for budget
appropriations. It is the corporate nature of institutions and the competition within the system tat (35)_____
Americans to refer to the concept of the educational or academic marketplace – an important distinctive element of
the way U.S education is organized.
31. A. provide B. provision C. provide D. providing
32. A. capable B. able C. probable D. possible
33. A. rise B. raise C. call D. lend
34. A. with B. to C. for D. at
35. A. lets B. cause C. prevents D. makes
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
I read with interest the article on American families. In general, I agree with it, but there are some important
things it left out. It didn’t tell me the reader much about the life of a househusband. It’s not any easy life. I know,
because I’m now a househusband myself. A househusband has to change many of his ideas and his ways.
First of all, he has to change to way h thinks about time. Before I was a househusband, I worked full-time
for the New York Time. I was a reporter, and time was always important. We had to finish our articles quickly and
give them to the editor. Everyone was always in a hurry. This is the way, many other men work too. Businessmen
lawyers, bankers, and doctors all have to work quickly.
At home it’s different. The househusband cannot be in a hurry all the time. If you rush around, you will
make everyone unhappy! The children will be unhappy because they don’t understand. For them, time is not
important. Your wife will be unhappy because the children are unhappy. You will be unhappy, too, because they
are all unhappy. So you have to learn to slow down. That is the first and most important rule for a househusband.
There is something else the househusband must learn. You must learn to show how you feel about things. At
work, men usually do not talk about feelings. If they do, people think they are strange. So, many men are not used
to telling anyone about their feelings. They do not know how to talk about their anger, worries, or love. But
children need to know how you feel. They need to know how much you love them. If you are angry, they need to
know why. Your wife also needs o now about your feelings. If you do not say anything, your family may get the
wrong idea. Then there may be serious problem.
People talk a lot about househusbands these days. Usually they talk about men doing the housework, the
cooking, cleaning, and shopping. But in my opinion, these are the easiest things to learn. It was much harder for
me to change the way I think and the way I act with my family. I think, other men will also find this harder, but,
like me, will find it necessary if they want to have a happy family.
36. What is this article is mainly about?
A. fathers and children B. life as a househusband
C. ideas about time D. American families
37. At work, most people _____.
A. have to hurry B. take their time
C. have lots of time D. have to slow down
38. The word rush in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _____
A. to do things more slowly B. move about hurriedly
C. shout loudly and angrily D. spend time idly
39. What does the househusband have to learn?
A. to do things more slowly. B. to do things more quickly.
C. the important of time. D. how to understand his work.
40. According to the passage, children _____
A. are usually unhappy. B. are always in a hurry.
C. usually don’t think time is important. D. don’t know how to show their feelings.
41. What does the word they in paragraph 4 refers to?
A. strange people at work B. men who talk about feelings
C. men as househusband D. men who do not talk about feelings
42. It can be inferred from the passage that Ted think _____
A. learning about housework is easy.
B. learning about housework is problem.
C. cooking is the easiest thing to learn.
D. being a househusband is easy.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
According to some accounts, the first optical telescope was accidentally invented in the 1600s by children
who put two lenses together while playing with them in a Dutch optical shop. The owner of the hop, Hans
Lippershey, looked through the lenses and was amazed by the way they made the nearby church look so much
larger. Soon after that, he invented a device that he called a “looker”, a long thin tube where light passed in straight
from the front lens to the viewing at the other and of the tube. In 1608 he tried to sell his invention unsuccessfully.
In the same year, someone described the “looker” to the Italian scientist Galileo, who made his own version of the
device. In 1610 Galileo used his verso to make observation of the Moon, the planet Jupiter, and the Milky Way. In
April of 1611, Galileo shoed his device to guests at a banquet in his honor. One of the guests suggested a name for
the device: telescope.
When Isaac Newton began using Galileo’s telescope more than a century later, he noticed a problem. The
type of telescope that Galileo designed is call a refractor because the front lens bends, or refracts the light.
However, the curved front lens also caused the light to be separated into colors. This meant that when Newton
looked through the refracting telescope, the images of bright objects appeared with a ring of colors around them.
This sometimes interfered with viewing. He solved this problem by designing a new type of telescope that used a
curved mirror. This mirror concentrated the light and reflected of light to the eyepiece at the other end of the
telescope. Because Newton used a mirror, has telescope was called a reflector.
Very much larger optical telescopes can now be found in many parts of the world, built on hills and
mountains far from city lights. the world’s largest refracting telescope is located at the Yerkes Observatory in
Williams Bay, Wisconsin. Another telescope stand on Mount Palomar in California. This huge reflecting telescope
was for many years the largest reflecting telescope in the world until an even larger reflecting telescope was built
in the Caucasus Mountains. A fourth famous reflector telescope, the Keck Telescope situated on a mountain in
Hawaii, does not use a single large mirror to collect the light. Instead, the Keck uses the combined light that falls in
thirty-six mirrors.
Radio telescopes, like optical telescopes, allow astronomers to collect data from outer space, but they are
different in important ways. First of all, they look very different because instead of light waves, they collect radio
waves. Thus, I the place of lenses or mirrors, radio telescopes employ bowl-shaped disks that resemble huge TV
satellite dishes. Also, apart from their distinctive appearance, radio telescopes and optical telescopes use different
methods to record the information they collect. Optical telescopes use cameras to take photographs of visible
object, while radio telescopes use receivers to record radio waves from distant objects in space.
43. What can be inferred about the first optical telescope?
A. It was bought by children. B. It was invented in America.
C. It was sold by a shop owner. D. It was invented by accident.
44. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about Hans Lippershey?
A. He owned a shop. B. He was Dutch.
C. He sold his invention in 1608. D. He got his idea of the telescope from the kids in his shop.
45. When was Galileo’s invention called “telescope”?
A. in 1611 B. in 1610 C. in 1608 D. in 1600
46. What did Newton notice about Galileo’s telescope when he used it?
A. It had many problems B. It refracted the light
C. It was called a refractor D. It had a curved mirror
47. What did Newton do with Galileo’s telescope?
A. He called it reflector. B. He sent it back to Galileo.
C. He improved it. D. He stopped using it after his notice.
48. When did Newton start to use Galileo’s telescope?
A. in the 17th century B. in the 18th century
C. in the 16th century D. in the 15th century
49. Where does the largest reflecting telescope stand?
A. in Wisconsin B. in California
C. in Hawaii D. in Caucasus Mountains
50. Which of the following can both optical and radio telescope do?
A. Taking photographs of visible objects. B. Allowing a collection of data from outer space.
C. Collecting radio waves. D. Collecting light waves.
ĐỀ THI 20
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in each of the following questions.
1. A. reside B. conserve C. resume D. preserve
2. A. ploughs B. photographs C. gas D. laughs
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of the primary stress in each of the following question.
3. A. phenomenon B. military C. exhibit D. curriculum
4. A. powerful B. substance C. basement D. celestial
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase CLOSET in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the two questions.
5. The shop assistant was totally bewildered by the customer’s behavior.
A. disgusted B. puzzled C. angry D. upset
6. The newspaper reporters bear out what the Minister told yesterday.
A. define B. confirm C. support D. complain
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase OPPOSITE in meaning to
underlined word(s) in each of the two questions.
7. Unless you have been very lucky, you have undoubtedly experienced events in your life that made you cry.
A. certainly B. questionably C. absolutely D. definitely
8. His boss has enough of his impudence and doesn’t want to hire him anymore.
A. respect B. rudeness C. obedience D. agreement
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
9. Exploration of the Solar System is continuing, and at the present rate of progress all the planets will have
been contacted within the near 50 years.
A. continuing B. progress C. within D. near
10. Thanks to new techniques, canning goods now have a much longer shelf life.
A. Thanks to B. techniques C. canning goods D. a much longer
11. Florence Sabin is recognized not only for her theoretical research in anatomy and physiology and for her
work in public health.
A. recognized B. for C. anatomy D. and
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
12. It never ______ his mind that his dishonesty would be discovered.
A. crossed B. came C. spunk D. passed
13. The more ______ you look, the better impression you will make on your interviewer.
A. confine B. confident C. confidently D. confidence
14. I can’t decide if I ______ you till I ______ when they ______.
A. will join – will know – will leave B. will join – know – leave
C. join – will know – leave C. join – will know – will leave
15. ______ broken into when we were away on holiday.
A. It was our house B. We had our house
C. Thieves had our house D. Our house had
16. Could not ______ the lecture at all. It was too difficult for me.
A. hold on B. make off C. get along D. take in
17. There is now much ______ water in the lake than there was last year.
A. less B. lesser C. fewer D. smaller
18. Hurry up if you want to buy something because there is ______ left.
A. hardly anything B. a great deal C. hardly little D. hardly something
19. Elderly people, ______, require constant attention.
A. a large number’s depending on government aid.
B. and many of them depend on the government to finance them
C. who are dependent many of them on the financing from the government
D. many of them who are financially dependent on the government
20. Coming unexpectedly in to the room, ______.
A. so she made the intruder get surprise
B. he appearance took the intruder by surprise
C. it surprise the intruder with her appearance
D. she took the intruder by surprise
21. I’m sorry I offended you. I ______ what I said.
A. take back B. get back C. come back D. get away
22. The following day she left ______ well to go to work.
A. suffice B. sufficient C. sufficiently D. sufficiency
23. In one year’s time, she ______ in this company for 15 years.
A. will be working B. will have been working
C. will work D. has worked
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete the following exchanges.
24. – Dad: “I have bought you a toy. Happy birthday to you!” – Son: “______”
A. Have a nice day! B. The same to you!
C. What a lovely toy! Thanks. D. What a pity!
25. “When can you get it at all done? – “______”
A. How does next Monday sound? B. Two hours ago.
C. I used to do it on Monday. D. How much time to I need
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following sentences.
26. Both English and Vietnamese use Roman scripts, but the latter is a tonal language.
A. Later both Vietnamese and English use Roman scripts.
B. English has tones nut Vietnamese does not, although they both use Roman scripts.
C. Although English and Vietnamese are both Roman scripts, the former is not a tonal language
while the latter is.
D. Vietnamese and English which use Roman scripts later become tonal languages.
27. If I had known about their wedding plan earlier I would have been able to make time to attend the reception
party.
A. I knew their wedding would be planned earlier so I made some time to attend the morning
reception.
B. I wish I had known their wedding plan sooner so that I could arrange time to attend the morning
reception.
C. I don’t know their wedding plan earlier so I can’t make time to attend their morning reception.
D. When I knew their wedding party, it was too late to attend the morning reception.
28. “You did a great job! I’m proud of your achievement” said the woman to her grandchild.
A. The woman said that her grandchild’s job was great and she was so proud of his work
achievement.
B. The woman told her grandchild that she was proud of his achievement at work.
C. The woman told her grandchild to do a great job so that she could be proud of his achievement.
D. The woman complimented her grandchild on his achievement.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combine each pair of
29. I do my homework and schoolwork in separate books. I don’t get muddled up.
A. Having two separate books at home and at work helps me avoid getting muddled up.
B. I do my homework and schoolwork in separate books so that I don’t get muddled up.
C. I do not get muddled up sue to the separate between homework and schoolwork.
D. I would get muddled up if I did not separate homework from schoolwork.
30. Some economists argue that new technology cause unemployment. Others feel that it allows more jobs to
be create.
A. Some economists argue that new technology cause unemployment, so others fell that it allows
more jobs to be created.
B. Arguing that new technology cause unemployment, other economists feel that it allows more jobs
to be create.
C. Beside the argument that new technology cause unemployment, some economists feel that it
allows more jobs to be create.
D. Some economists argue that new technology cause unemployment, whereas others feel that it
allows more jobs to be create.
Read the following passage and make the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each the numbered blank from 31 to 35.
In “Cerealizing America”, Scott Bruce and Bill Crawford remark that the cereal industry uses 816 million
pounds of sugar per year. Americans buy 2.7 billion packages of breakfast cereal each year. If (31)______ end to
end, the empty cereal boxes from one year’s consumption would (32)______ to the moon and back. One point
three (1.3) million advertisements for cereal are broadcast on American television every year at a(n) (33)______ of
$762 million for airtime. Only automobile manufacturers spend more money on television advertising than makers
of breakfast cereal.
(34)______ of the boxed cereals found in supermarkets contain large amounts of sugar and some contain
more than 50% sugar. Cereal manufacturers are very clever in their marketing, making many cereals appear much
healthier than they really are by “fortifying” them with vitamins and minerals. Oh, (35)______- you now have
vitamin-fortifies sugar!
Before you eat any cereal, read the ingredient list and see how high sugar appears on the ingredient list. Then
check the “Nutrition facts” panel.
31. A. laying B. lay C. laid D. to lay
32. A. prolong B. stretch C. contact D. reach
33. A. cot B. charge C. average D. expense
34. A. Mostly B. Furthermost C. Most D. Almost
35. A. beautiful B. gorgeous C. lovely D. charming
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate to correct
Though Edmund Halley was most famous because of his achievements as an astronomer, he was a scientist
of diverse interests and great skill. In addition to studying the skies, Halley was also deeply interested in exploring
the unknown depths of the ocean. One of his lesser-known accomplishments that were quite remarkable was his
design for a diving the bell that facilitated exploration of the watery depths.
The diving bell that Halley design had a major advantage over the diving bells were in use prior to his Earlier
diving bells could only make use of the air contained within the bell itself, so divers had to surface when the air
inside the bell ran low. Halley’s bell was an improvement in that its design allowed for an additional supply of
fresh air that enable a crew of divers to remain underwater for several hours.
The diving contraption that Halley designed was the shape of a bell that measured three feet cross the top and
five feet across the bottom and could hold several divers comfortable: it was open at the bottom so that divers
could swim in and out at will. The bell was built of wood, which was first heavily tarred to make it water repellent
an was then covered with a half-ton sheet of lead to make the bell heavy enough to sink in water. The bell shape
held air inside for the divers to breathe as the bell sank to the bottom.
The air inside the bell was not the only source of air for the divers to breathe, and it was this improvement
that made Halley’s bells superior to its predecessors. In addition to the air already in the bell, air was also supplied
to the divers from a lea barrel that was lowered to the ocean floor close to the bell itself. Air flowed through a
leather pipe from the lead barrel on the ocean floor to the bell. The diver could breathe the air from a position
inside the bell, or he could move around outside the bell wearing a diving suit that consisted of a lead bell-shape
helmet with a glass viewing window and a leather body suit, with a leather pipe carrying fresh air from the diving
bell to the helmet.
36. Which of the following best expresses the subject of this passage?
A. Halley’s work as an astronomer
B. Halley’s many different interests
C. Halley’ invention of a contraption for diving
D. Halley’s experiences as a diver
37. Halley’s bell was better than its predecessors because it ______.
A. was bigger B. provided more air
C. weighed less D. could rise more quickly
38. The expression ‘ran low’ in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. move slowly B. had been replenished
C. sank to the bottom D. was almost exhausted
39. How long could divers stay underwater in Halley’s bell?
A. Just a few seconds B. Only a few minutes
C. For hours at a time D. For days on end
40. It is NOT stated in the passage that Halley’s bell _______.
A. was wider at the top than at the bottom
B. was made of tarred wood
C. was completely enclosed
D. could hold one than one diver
41. The expression “at will” in paragraph 3 could best replaces by _______.
A. in the future B. as they wanted
C. with great speed D. upside down
42. It can be inferred from the passage that, were Halley’s bell not covered with lead, it would _______.
A. float B. get wet
C. trap the divers D. suffocate the divers
Read the following passage an mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each question from 43 to 50.
The Timber rattlesnakes, one widespread throughout the eastern United States, is now on the endangered
species list and is extinct in two eastern state in which it once thrived. Compared to its Western cousins, the
Timber rattlesnakes may be especially vulnerable because of certain behaviors adapted for coping with the cold
climate in which it live.
Rattlesnakes are generally found in warm climates because, like all reptiles, they cannot generate or regulate
their own body temperature internally and must rely on the sun’s warmth for heat. But Timber rattlesnakes
migrated into colder northern areas about 8,000 years ago when glaciers retreated. In these northern regions, the
snakes developed a number of adaptive strategies to survive, but ultimately these behaviors make them more
vulnerable to human predation, their main threat.
One survival strategy the snakes have developed is hibernation. For approximately eight months of the year,
the rattlers remain motionless in deep frost-free crevices, with their body temperature dropping as low as 40
degrees. In the spring, when they emerge, they must warm their chilled bodies by sunning for three or four days on
rocks in the open. this behavior coupled with the fact that Timber rattlesnakes tend to concentrate in large numbers
at their wintering sites, make them easy prey. Gestating females are particularly vulnerable because they spend
much of their time basking in the sun in order to producing live young only every three to five years. If a frost or
cold spell comes late in the year, the entire litter of 6 to 12 young may die.
Efforts are underway to protect the Timber rattlesnakes and its habitats from further human depredation, but
in many states it is already too late.
A. Why Timber rattlesnakes hibernate
B. How Timber rattlesnakes are surviving
C. How Timber rattlesnakes adapted to northern climates
D. Why Timber rattlesnakes are endangered
44. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the world “vulnerable” in the first paragraph?
A. Unprotected B. Impervious C. Insensitive . Deprived
45. Which of the following in the true about Timber rattlesnakes?
A. They migrated to eastern states
B. They migrated northern during a warming climate
C. They migrated to escape a cold climate
D. They migrated to the South to seek a warmer climate
46. Which of the following best replace the word “emerge” in the third paragraph?
A. Come out B. Set off C. Get up D. See through
47. In which of the following places might a person be most likely to find Timber rattlesnakes the spring?
A. In the woods B. I meadows C. In bushy areas D. In canyons
48. The phrase “easy prey” in the third paragraph could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. Relaxed B. Protecting C. Victims D. Sociable
49. Which of the following word can bet replace the word “basking” in the third paragraph?
A. Washing B. Eating C. Sleeping D. Lying
50. Which of the following does NOT contribute to the rattlesnakes being an endangered animal?
A. Hibernating for eight months B. Basking in the sun
C. Congregating together D. Having long intervals between births

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