Part 1

Questions 1-7

At an art show, exactly five sculptures are to be displayed in a room with exactly five stands, arranged
along a single wall and numbered consecutively 1 through 5. The sculptures are to be selected from a total
of eight sculptures-M, N, P, Q, R, S, T, and U - and displayed, one sculpture on each stand, according to
the following conditions:

• Either M or U or both must be selected.

• If M is selected, M must be on stand 1.
• Either R or S must be on stand 3.
• If T is selected, P must also be selected, and T and P must then be on stands that are immediately
adjacent to one another.

1. Which of the following is an acceptable selection of sculptures to be displayed on stands 1 through 5?

1 2 3 4 5
(A) M R T P Q
(B) N T S U Q
(C) P T S R U
(D) T P R S M
(E) U N Q P T

2. If S is on stand 1, which of the following must be true?

(A) P is on stand 4.

(B) R is on stand 3:

(C) T is on stand 2.

(D) T is on stand 4.

(E) U is on stand 5

3. If T is on stand 5, which of the following pairs of sculptures can be on stands that are immediately
adjacent to each other?

(A) M and P

(B) Q and N

(C) Q and P

(D) R and T

(E) U and R
4. If U is on stand 4, any of the following can be on stand 5 EXCEPT

(A) N

(B) P

(C) Q

(D) R

(E) T

5. If T is on stand 2, which of the following sculptures must be selected?

(A) M

(B) N

(C) R

(D) S

(E) U

6. If P is not selected and R is on stand 1, which of the following lists, in alphabetical order, those sculptures
that must also be selected?

(A) M, Q, T, and U

(B) N, Q, S, and T

{C)· N, Q, S, and U

(D) N, S, T, and U

(E) Q, S, T, and U

7. If Q is displayed on a stand immediately adjacent to a stand on which R is displayed and immediately

adjacent to a stand on which S is displayed, which of the following must be true?

(A) N is on either stand 4 or stand 5.

(B) Q is on either stand 2 or stand 4.

(C) R is on either stand 1 or stand 3.

(D) S is on either stand 3 or stand 5.

(E) U is on either stand 2 or stand 4

Questions 8-15

• Choose A Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient.
• Choose B Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient.
• Choose C BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.
• Choose D EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.
• Choose E Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

8. When positive integer x is divided by 7 the quotient is q and the remainder is 1. What is the remainder
when x is divided by 10?

(1) When x is divided by 5 the quotient is q and the remainder is 1.

(2) x is less than 50

9. Of the 60 families in a certain neighborhood, 38 have a cat. How many families in this neighborhood
have a dog?

(1) 28 of the families in this neighborhood have a cat but not a dog.

(2) The number of families in the neighborhood who have a dog and a cat is the same as the number of
families who have neither a cat nor a dog.

10. If x and y are positive integers, what is the greatest common factor of x and y?

(1) When x is divided by y, the remainder is 1.

(2) x2 – 2xy + y2 = 1

11. For nonnegative integers x and y, what is the remainder when x is divided by y?

(1) x/y = 13.8

(2) The numbers x and y have a combined total of less than 5 digits.

12. If y is an odd integer and the product of x and y equals 222, what is the value of x?

(1) x is a prime number.

(2) y is a 3-digit number.

13. The infinite sequence a1, a2, …, an, … is such that a1 = x, a2 = y, a3 = z, a4 = 3 and an = an - 4 for n > 4. What
is the sum of the first 98 terms of the sequence?

(1) x = 5

(2) y + z = 2

14. Steve works at an apple orchard and is paid by the bushel for the apples he harvests each day. If Steve
harvests 42 bushels or less per day, he is paid y dollars per bushel. If Steve harvests more than 42 bushels
per day, he receives y dollars per bushel for the first 42 bushels and is paid 1.5 times that amount for each
additional bushel. How many bushels of apples did Steve harvest yesterday?

(1) Yesterday, Steve was paid $180 for the apples that he harvested.

(2) Today, Steve harvested 10 more bushels of apples than yesterday and was paid a total $240.

15. In the first hour of a bake sale, students sold either chocolate chip cookies, which sold for $1.30, or
brownies, which sold for $1.50. What was the ratio of chocolate chip cookies sold to brownies sold during
that hour?

(1) The average price for the items sold during that hour was $1.42.

(2) The total price for all items sold during that hour was $14.20

Question 16-20

P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are 7 friends who travel to college everyday by a particular train which stops at 5
stations – 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 respectively after it leaves base stations. 3 among them get in the train at the
base station. S gets down at the next station at which U gets down. Q gets in with 2 persons and does not
get down with either P or T. V alone gets in at station 3 and gets down with R, after 1 station. P travels
between only 2 stations and gets down at station 5. None of them gets in at station 2. R gets in with U but
does not get in with either Q or S. T gets in with 2 others and gets down alone after S. Q and S going to
same college and they get down together at station 3. None of them gets down at station 1.

16. At which station does T get down?

A) Station 2 B) Station 4 C) Station 3 D) Station 5 E) None of these

17. At which station does R, U get in?

A) Base station B) Station 2 C) Station 1 D) Station 3 E) Cannot be determined

18. After how many station(s) does T get down?

A) 4 B) 3 C) 1 D) 2 E) Cannot be determined

19. At which of the following station does Q and S get in?

A) Base Station B) Station 1 C) Station 2 D) Station 3 E) Cannot be determined

20. Which of the following is incorrect?

A) T gets in at the base station B) P gets in at the Station 4 C) V gets down at Station 5

D) U gets in at Station 2 E) None of these

 Part 2
Question 1-6

Historians have established that a particular copy of a rare ballet recording was sold each month on New
Month's Day for seven consecutive months, starting in January and ending in July. Each person who
bought that copy of the record owned it only during that period and owned it for exactly a month. The
seven owners of that copy of the record during this period were J, K, L, M, N, O, and P. The following are
all the additional facts the historians have discovered about the ownership of that copy of the record
during the period January to July:

• L sold it to O.
• P sold it to M.
• J owned it before O owned it.
• N owned it before L owned it.

1. Which of the following could be true about that copy of the ballet record during the period January-
July?

(A) J sold it to O.

(B) L sold it to M.

(C) N sold it to L.

(D) O sold it to N.

(E) P sold it to L.

2. Which of the following must be true of that copy of the ballet record during the period January-July?

(A) J owned it before L owned it.

(B) L owned it before P owned it.

(C) M owned it before P owned it.

(D) N owned it before M owned it.

(E) P owned it before N owned it.

3. Which of the following could have sold that copy of the ballet record to J on New Month's Day,
February?

(A) L (B) M (C) N (D) O (E) P

4. Which of the following must have owned that copy of the ballet record before New Month's Day, June?
(A) J (B) K (C) L (D) M (E) P

5. If K owned that copy of the ballet record during March and sold it to L on New Month's Day in April, M
must have bought it on New Month's Day in which of the following months?

(A) January (B) February (C) May (D) June (E) July

6. If O owned that copy of the ballet record during July, any one of the following could have owned it
during May EXCEPT

(A) J (B) K (C) M (D) N (E) P

Question 7-12

7. Most pain relievers come with warnings against continuous use longer than 7 consecutive days. While
some people might be able to safely use a particular pain reliever for a longer period of time, many people
will begin to experience side effects if the warnings are ignored.

The information above most strongly supports which of the following?

(A) A physician should not advise any patient to take any pain reliever for a period of longer than 7
consecutive days.

(B) People who are sensitive to one type of pain reliever should not attempt to use a different pain
reliever.

(C) At least some people who take pain relievers for longer than 7 days will experience side effects.

(D) Any side effects experienced by a patient who has taken a pain reliever for fewer than 7 consecutive
days cannot be the result of the pain reliever.

(E) Anyone who wants to maximize their natural health and well-being should avoid pain relievers entirely.

8. It is inaccurate to say that a diet high in refined sugar cannot cause adult-onset diabetes, since a diet
high in refined sugar can make a person overweight, and being overweight can predispose a person to
adult-onset diabetes.

The argument above is most parallel, in its logical structure, to which of the following?

(A) It is inaccurate to say that being in cold air can cause a person to catch a cold, since colds are caused
by viruses, and viruses flourish in warm, crowded places.

(B) It is accurate to say that no airline flies from HAfax to Washington. No single airline offers a direct
flight, although some airlines have flights from HAfax to Boston and others have flights from Boston to
Washington.
(C) It is correct to say that over-fertilization is the primary cause of lawn disease, since fertilizer causes
lawn grass to grow rapidly and rapidly growing grass has little resistance to disease.

(D) It is incorrect to say that inferior motor oil cannot cause a car to get poorer gasoline mileage, since
inferior motor oil can cause engine valve deterioration, and engine valve deterioration can lead to poorer
gasoline mileage.

(E) It is inaccurate to say that Alexander the Great was a student of Plato; Alexander was a student of
Aristotle, and Aristotle was a student of Plato.

9. In an attempt to protect the environment and stop oil companies from sinking a decommissioned North
Sea oil platform to the bottom of the ocean, environmental groups ringed the platform with protest boats
and demanded that it be towed to land, where it could be dismantled above water. Environmentalists
argued that sinking the oil platform would cause irreparable damage to the deep-sea ecosystem and
release into the ocean over 53 tons of oil residue and heavy metals.

Which of the following, if true, indicates the plan to tow the oil platform to land is ill-suited to the
environmentalist group’s goals?

(A) The National Environmental Research Council approved the sinking of the oil platform, calling it the
“best practicable environmental option.”

(B) Dismantling the oil platform on land would cost over 70 million dollars, compared to the $7.5 million
needed to secure and sink it in a deep ocean location.

(C) The release of 53 tons of toxic material into the ocean is very little compared to the volume of very
highly toxic materials released by deep sea volcanoes.

(D) Towing the oil platform into shallow waters poses a massive risk that it may break up on its way to
land, releasing the contained pollutants into fragile coastal waters.

(E) The sinking of the platform is fully in line with internationally approved guidelines for the disposal of
off shore installations at sea.

10. Heavy consumption of alcohol causes impaired judgment, a loss of fine motor skills, slower reaction
times, a decrease in visual acuity, and other short-term symptoms. Since alcohol can be metabolized in
the average person’s body at a rate of 0.015 BAC (or “blood alcohol content”) per hour, a severely
intoxicated individual with a BAC of 0.15 should be symptom-free after 10 hours. After this time, if the
individual exhibits similar symptoms, such symptoms cannot be caused by alcohol.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the conclusion above?

(A) Some symptoms normally associated with alcohol consumption may resemble symptoms caused by
prescription drugs or even drowsiness.

(B) Increases in BAC are based on the amount of alcohol consumed rather than the number of drinks
(some drinks contain more alcohol than others).
(C) Heavy alcohol consumption has numerous long-term effects such as cirrhosis of the liver, stomach
ulcers, and birth defects.

(D) The metabolic rate of alcohol varies according to a person’s health, weight, diet, and genetic
predispositions.

(E) Some people, due to an acute sensitivity to alcohol, cannot even reach a BAC of 0.15 before becoming
violently ill.

11. When astronauts observed the comet Steinman-Arnet 3 becoming 1,000 times brighter in September
1995, they correctly hypothesized that its increased brightness was a result of the comet’s breaking up.
When comets break up, they emit large amounts of gas and dust, becoming visibly brighter as a result.
However, their observations did not reveal comet Steinman-Arnet 3 actually breaking into pieces until
November 1995, even though telescopes were trained on it throughout the entire period.

Which of the following, if true, most helps to resolve the apparent conflict in the situation above?

(A) Comets often do not emit gas and dust until several weeks after they have begun to break up.

(B) The reason comets become brighter when they break up is that the gas and dust that they emit refract
light.

(C) Gas and dust can be released by fissures in a comet, even if the comet is not broken all the way through.

(D) The amount of gas and dust emitted steadily increased during the period from September through
November.

(E) The comet passed close to the sun during this period and the gravitational strain caused it to break up.

12. Researchers have recently discovered that approximately 70% of restaurant lemon wedges they
studied were contaminated with harmful microorganisms such as bacterial and fungal pathogens. The
researchers looked at numerous different restaurants in different regions of the country. Most of the
organisms had the potential to cause infectious disease. For that reason, people should not order lemon
wedges with their drinks.

Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the conclusion above?

(A) The researchers could not determine why or how the microbial contamination occurred on the lemon
wedges.

(B) The researchers failed to investigate contamination of restaurant lime wedges by harmful
microorganisms.

(C) The researchers found that people who ordered lemon wedges at restaurants were equally likely to
contract the diseases caused by the discovered bacteria as were people who did not order lemon wedges.

(D) Health laws require lemons to be handled with gloves or tongs, but the common practice is for waiters
and waitresses to handle them with their bare hands.
(E) Many factors that have nothing to do with lemons affect the chance of an individual contracting a
disease by coming into contact with bacteria. These factors include such things as the health and age of
the individual as well as the status of his or her immune system.

Question 13-17

Six duty workers—A, B, G, J, M, and T—are planning to perform a duty program consisting entirely of three
shifts. Each shift requires two fire men, one gas expert, and a driver. Each worker must perform duty of
in at least one shift, and each worker can perform duty of, at most, one role in a shift. No worker can
perform duty of the same type of role (fire man, gas expert, or driver) in two successive shifts.

• A can perform duty of fire man only, and must perform duty of in the first shift.
• B can perform duty of fire man or driver.
• G can perform duty of fire man or gas expert.
• J can perform duty of gas expert only.
• M can perform duty of fire man or driver.
• T can perform duty of driver only.

13. Any of the following duty workers could perform duty of in the second shift EXCEPT

(A) A (B) B (C) G (D)J (E) T

14. If G can perform duty of gas expert in the first shift, which of the following must be true?

(A) B can perform duty of driver in the first shift.

(B) G can perform duty of gas expert in the second shift.

(C) G can perform duty of gas expert in the third shift.

(D)J can perform duty of gas expert in the second shift,

(E) T can perform duty of driver in the first shift.

15. If A, B, G, and J perform duty of in the first shift, which of the following could be the group of duty
workers playing in the second shift?

(A) A, B, G, and M

(B) A, G, M, and T

(C) B, G, J, and M

(D) B, G, M, and T

(E) B, J, M, and T
16. Which of the following groups of duty workers includes all those, and only those, who CANNOT be
scheduled to perform duty of in all three shifts, no matter what schedule is devised?

(A) A, B, and G

(B) A, J, and T

(C) B, G, and M

(D) B, J, and M

(E) G, J, and T

17. Unavailability of which of the following duty workers would still permit scheduling the five remaining
players so that the proposed program could be performed?

(A) B (B) G (C) J (D) M (E) T

Question 18-20

18. If r, s, and t are positive integers and rst = 343, what is the value of t?

(1) r < s < t

(2) rs = 7

19. If n and a are positive integers, what is the units digit of n4a+2 – n8a?

(1) n = 3

(2) a is odd.

20. Set T is a finite set of positive consecutive multiples of 14. How many of these integers are also
multiples of 21?

(1) Set T consists of 30 integers.

(2) The smallest integer in set T is a multiple of 21