FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING THEORY - TEST BANK 80102016 - 2

b. Unrealized loss on investment classified as trading

1. The objectives of financial reporting are based on c. Loss on exchange of similar asset
a. Generally accepted accounting principles d. Loss on exchange of dissimilar asset
b. Reporting for regulators
c. The need for conservatism 10. Which of the following statements conforms to the realization concept?
d. The needs of the users of the information a. Equipment depreciation was assigned to a production department and then to product unit cost.
b. Depreciated equipment was sold in exchange for a note receivable.
2. The relevance of providing information in financial statements is subject to the constraint of c. Cash was collected on accounts receivable.
a. Comparability d. Product unit costs were assigned to cost of goods sold when the units were sold.
b. Cost-benefit
c. Reliability 11. What is the underlying concept that supports estimating a fixed asset impairment charge?
d. Faithful representation a. Substance over form
b. Consistency
3. Which of the following is an enhancing quality that relates to both relevance and faithful c. Matching
representation? d. Faithful representation
a. Comparability
b. Confirmatory value 12. What is the concept that supports the issuance of interim reports?
c. Predictive value a. Relevance
d. Freedom from error b. Materiality
c. Consistency
4. What is the requirement for incorporating an item into the financial statements? d. Faithful representation
a. It meets the definition of relevance and faithful representation.
b. It meets the definition of an element and can be measured reliably 13. Which of the following is an essential characteristic of an asset?
c. It satisfies the criteria of capital maintenance a. The claims to an asset’s benefits are legally enforceable.
d. It meets the requirement of comparability and consistency. b. An asset is tangible.
c. An asset is obtained at a cost.
5. What is the purpose of reporting comprehensive income? d. An asset provides future benefits.
a. To report changes in equity due to transactions with owners.
b. To report a measure of overall entity performance. 14. The installment method of accounting may be used if the
c. To replace net income with a better measure. a. Collection period extends over more than twelve months.
d. To combine income from continuing operations with income from discontinued operations. b. Installments are due in different years.
c. Ultimate amount collectible is indeterminate.
6. When a full set of general-purpose financial statements are presented, comprehensive income and its d. Percentage of completion method is inappropriate.
components should
a. Appear as a part of discontinued operations. 15. Which statement best justifies the use of the cost recovery method of revenue recognition to account for
b. Be reported net of related income tax should effect, in total and individually. installment sales?
c. Appear in a supplemental schedule in the notes to financial statements. a. The sales contract provides that title to the equipment only passes to the purchaser when all payments
d. Be displayed in a financial statement that has the same prominence as other financial statements. have been made.
b. No cash payments are due until one year from the date of sale.
7. Which is an acceptable method for reporting comprehensive income under IFRS? c. Sales are subject to a high rate of return.
a. One comprehensive income statement. d. There is no reasonable basis for estimating collectibility.
b. Two statements, an income statement and a comprehensive income statement.
c. In the statement of changes in equity. 16. Which of the following is not one of the criteria for revenue recognition for sale of goods?
d. One comprehensive income statement or two statements, an income statement and a comprehensive a. The significant risk and rewards of ownership of goods are transferred.
income statement b. Payment has been received.
c. The entity does not retain a continuing managerial involvement or control over the goods
8. Which of the following is true about financial statement requirements? d. The costs incurred can be measured reliably
a. Prior year comparative financial statements are required.
b. Income statements for three years are required. 17. Which of the following is the first step within the hierarchy of guidance when selecting accounting
c. Statements of financial position for three years are required. policies?
d. There are no specific requirements regarding comparative financial statements. a. Consider the most recent pronouncements of other standard setting bodies.
b. Apply a standard from PFRS if it specifically relates to the transaction, other event or condition.
9. Which of the following items would cause earnings to differ from comprehensive income? c. Consider the applicability of the definitions, recognition criteria and measurement concepts in the
a. Unrealized loss on investment classified as available for sale Conceptual Framework
 d. Apply the requirements in PFRS dealing with similar and related issues.

18. The effect of a change in accounting policy that is inseparable from the effect of a change in accounting 26. The summary of significant accounting policies should disclose the
estimate should be reported a. Proforma effect of retroactive application of an accounting change.
a. By restating the financial statements of all prior periods presented. b. Basis of profit recognition on long term construction contracts.
b. As a correction of an error. c. Adequacy of pension plan assets in relation to vested benefits.
c. As a component of income from continuing operations, in the period of change and future periods if d. Future minimum lease payments in the aggregate and for each of the succeeding fiscal years.
the change affects both.
d. As a separate disclosure after income from continuing operations, in the period of change and future 27. Which of the following is not true about the presentation of financial statements?
periods if the change affects both. a. A separate statement of comprehensive income and separate statement of changes in equity are
required.
19. If it is impracticable to determine the cumulative effect of an accounting change to any of the prior b. The LIFO cost flow assumption is not allowed for inventories.
periods, the accounting change should be accounted for c. Presentation of extraordinary items is required.
a. As a prior adjustment d. Impairment losses may be reversed in future periods.
b. On a prospective basis
c. As a cumulative effect change in the income statement 28. Which of the following items is required disclosure in the income statement?
d. As an adjustment to retained earnings in the first period presented. a. Revenue, cost of goods sold and advertising expense
b. Finance cost, tax expense and income
20. An entity that has included in consolidated financial statements this year a subsidiary acquired years ago c. Operating expenses, nonoperating expenses and extraordinary items
that was appropriately excluded from consolidation last year should report d. Gross profit, operating profit and net profit
a. An accounting change prospectively.
b. An accounting change retrospectively. 29. Which of the following inventory is not valued at the lower of cost and net realizable value?
c. A correction of an error. a. Manufactured inventory
d. Neither an accounting change nor a correction of an error. b. Retail inventory
c. Biological inventory
21. A voluntary change in accounting method may only be made if d. Industrial inventory
a. A new standard mandates the change in method
b. Management prefers the new method 30. The specific identification method of accounting for inventory is required for
c. The new method provides reliable and more relevant information a. All inventory items
d. There is no prohibition for the change. b. Inventory items that are interchangeable
c. Inventory items that are not interchangeable and goods that are produced and segregated for specific
22. The loss on disposal of a discontinued component should projects.
a. Exclude associated employee relocation cost d. Agricultural inventories.
b. Exclude operating loss for the period.
c. Include associated employee termination cost 31. Which of the following is not true about accounting for inventory?
d. Exclude associated lease cancelation cost a. FIFO is allowed
b. Interest costs may not be capitalized when financing purchase of inventory
23. An entity recently moved to a new building. The old building is being actively marketed for sale, and c. The weighted average method is acceptable
the entity expects to complete the sale in four months. Each of the following statements is correct d. Inventories are always valued at net realizable value.
regarding the old building, except
a. It will be reclassified as an asset held for sale. 32. Which of the following attributes would not be used to measure inventory?
b. It will be classified as a current asset. a. Historical cost
c. It will no longer be depreciated. b. Replacement cost
d. It will be valued at historical cost. c. Net realizable value
d. Present value of future cash flows
24. Financial statements shall include disclosures of material transactions between related parties, except
a. Nonmonetary exchanges by affiliates. 33. Which of the following statements is true about biological assets?
b. Sales of inventory by a subsidiary to the parent. a. Biological assets are only found in Biotech entities.
c. Expense allowances for executives which exceed normal business practice. b. Biological assets are living animals or plants and must be disclosed as a separate item in the statement
d. An entity’s agreement to act as surety for a loan to the chief executive officer. of financial position.
c. Biological assets must be valued at cost.
25. What is the purpose of information presented in notes to financial statements? d. Biological assets do not generally have future economic benefits.
a. To provide disclosures required by generally accepted accounting principles.
b. To correct improper presentation in the financial statements. 34. Impairment loss for asset to be held and used shall be reported
c. To provide recognition of amounts not included in the totals of the financial statements. a. As an extraordinary item.
d. To present management response to auditor comments. b. As a component of discontinued operations.
 c. As a component of income from continuing operations. b. Development cost is always deferred and expensed against future revenue
d. As a change in accounting estimate. c. Development cost may be capitalized as an intangible asset in very restrictive situations.
d. Development cost is recorded in other comprehensive income.
35. Long-lived assets are required to be reviewed for impairment
a. At the end of reporting period, every three years. 44. Which of the following is the proper treatment of the cost of equipment used in research and
b. When the asset is fully depreciated. development activities that will have alternative future use?
c. When circumstances indicate that the carrying amount of an asset might not be recoverable. a. Expensed in the year in which the research and development project started.
d. At the end of reporting period, every year. b. Capitalized and depreciated over the term of the research and development project.
c. Capitalized and depreciated over the estimated useful life.
36. The impairment rules for long-lived assets apply to all of the following, except d. Either capitalized or expensed but not both, depending on the term of the research and development
a. Building currently used in the business project.
b. Financial instruments
c. Land 45. Intangible assets with indefinite life are tested for impairment
d. Minicomputers used to run a production process a. Quarterly at the quarterly reporting date
b. Annually at the annual reporting date
37. What is required with respect to accounting for goodwill? c. Biannually at the reporting date
a. Goodwill should be amortized over a five year period d. There are no guidelines defining when intangible assets are tested for impairment
b. Goodwill should be amortized over the expected useful life.
c. Goodwill should be recorded and never adjusted 46. Any investment may be accounted for at fair value through profit and loss when
d. Goodwill should be recorded and periodically evaluated for impairment a. It is traded in an active market
b. It is an equity instrument
38. Which is true about the revaluation model for valuing plant, property, and equipment? c. It is a debt instrument
a. Revaluation of assets must be made on the last day of the fiscal year. d. The instrument matures within 2 years.
b. Revaluation of assets must be made on the same date each year.
c. There is no rule for the frequency or date of revaluation 47. Investments are classified in any of the following different ways, except
d. Revaluation of assets must be made every two years. a. Fair value through profit and loss
b. Amortized cost
39. An entity uses the fair value model for reporting investment property. Which of the following c. Tradable
statements is true? d. Fair value through other comprehensive income
a. Changes in fair value are reported in profit or loss in the current period
b. Changes in fair value are reported in other comprehensive income for the period 48. An equity investment may be accounted for using the equity method if the investor has significant
c. Changes in fair value are reported as an extraordinary gain in the income statement influence over the investee. Significant influence is indicated by ownership of
d. Changes in fair value are reported as deferred revenue for the period a. At least 10%
b. From 20 to 50%
40. When accounting for property, plant and equipment, an entity c. More than 50%
a. Must use the cost model for presenting the assets d. More than 70%
b. May elect to use the cost model or the revaluation model on any individual asset.
c. May elect to use the cost model or the revaluation model on any asset class. 49. Derivatives are financial instruments that derive their value from changes in a benchmark based on any
d. Must use the cost model for land of the following, except
a. Stock price
41. An entity that acquires an intangible asset may use the revaluation model for subsequent measurement b. Mortgage and currency rate
only if c. Commodity price
a. The useful life of the intangible asset can be reliably determined. d. Discount on accounts receivable
b. An active market exists for the intangible asset.
c. The cost of the intangible asset can be measured reliably. 50. Derivative instruments are financial instruments that must contain
d. The intangible asset is a monetary asset. a. One or more underlying, or one or more notional amount.
b. No initial net investment or small net investment.
42. Which is a criterion that must be met in order for an item to be recognized as an intangible asset other c. Terms that do not require or permit net settlement.
than goodwill? d. All of these.
a. The fair value can be measured reliably.
b. The item is part of the activities aimed at gaining new scientific or technical knowledge. 51. Which of the following statements is true regarding interim reporting?
c. The item is expected to be used in the production or supply of goods or services a. The discrete view is required for interim financial statements.
d. The item is identifiable and lacks physical substance. b. Interim reports are required on a quarterly basis.
c. Interim reports are not required.
43. Which of the following statements is true about accounting for development cost? d. Interim reports require the preparation of only a statement of comprehensive income and a statement of
a. Development cost must be expensed financial position.
 60. An entity acquired equipment by issuing shares. How should this transaction be reported in the
statement of cash flows?
52. In financial reporting for segment of a business, an entity shall disclose all of the following, except a. As an outflow of cash from investing activities and inflow of cash from financing activities
a. Types of products and services from which each reportable segment derives revenue. b. As an inflow of cash from financing activities and an outlflow of cash from operating activities
b. The title of the chief operating decision maker of each reportable segment. c. At the bottom of the statement of cash flows as a significant noncash transaction
c. Factors used to identify the reportable segments. d. In the notes to financial statements as a significant noncash transaction.
d. The basis of measurement of segment profit or loss and segment assets.
61. Cash advances and loans from bank overdrafts should reported in the statement of cash flows as
53. For segment reporting purposes, which tests must be applied to determine if a component is a reportable a. Operating activities
operating segment? b. Investing activities
a. Revenue test and asset test c. Financing activities
b. Revenue test, asset test and profit or loss test d. Other significant noncash activities
c. Revenue test, asset test and expense test
d. Revenue test, asset test and cash flow test 62. Interest paid on a note payable should be reported in the statement of cash flows
a. In operating activities
54. The most relevant measurement of liabilities at initial recognition and fresh start measurement should b. In financing activities
always reflect c. Either in operating activities or financing activities
a. The expectation of the management d. Either in investing activities or financing activities
b. Historical cost
c. The credit standing of the entity 63. All of the following should be classified as investing activities, except
d. The single most likely minimum or maximum possible amount a. Cash outflows to purchase manufacturing equipment
b. Cash inflows from the sale of bonds of other entities
55. In calculating present value in a situation with a range of possible outcomes all discounted using the c. Cash outflows to lenders for interest
same interest rate, the expected present value would be d. Cash inflows from the sale of manufacturing plant
a. The most-likely outcome
b. The maximum outcome 64. An entity received notification of legal action against the entity. The attorneys determine that it is
c. The minimum outcome probable the entity will lose the suit and the loss can be estimated reliably. How should the estimated
d. The sum of probability-weighted present values loss be reported?
a. As a loss recorded in other comprehensive income.
56. If an entity uses the modified cash basis of accounting, the modifications from the pure cash basis b. As a contingent liability reported in the statement of financial position and a loss in the income
should have substantial support which requires that statement
a. The financial statements have only minor modifications from GAAP. c. As a provision for loss reported in the statement of financial position and a loss in the income
b. The modifications must be the same as those required by tax law. statement
c. The modifications must be the same as GAAP and not illogical. d. In the notes to financial statements as a contingency
d. No modifications are allowed.
65. If a long-term debt becomes callable due to the violation of a loan covenant
57. Prospective financial information is defined as a. The debt may continue to be classified as long term if the entity believes the covenant can be
a. Any financial information about the past, present or future. renegotiated.
b. Any financial information about the present or future. b. The debt must be reclassified as current.
c. Any financial information about the future related to day-to-day operations. c. Cash must be reserved to pay the debt.
d. Any financial information about the future. d. Retained earnings must be restricted in the amount of the debt.

58. To achieve a reasonably objective basis, financial forecasts and projections should be prepared 66. Which of the following would not be considered a “provision”?
a. In accordance with GAAP. a. Warranty liability
b. Using information that is in accordance with the plans of the entity. b. Bad debt
c. With due professional care. c. Tax payable
d. In Accordance with GAAP, using information in accordance with plans of the entity and with due d. Note payable
professional care.
67. A contingency is described as
59. An entity must report finance costs in the statement of cash flows a. An estimated liability
a. In operating activities b. An event which is not recognized because it is not probable that an outflow will be required or the
b. Either in operating activities or financing activities amount cannot be reasonably estimated.
c. In financing activities c. A potentially small liability
d. In investing activities or financing activities d. A potentially large liability
 b. Capital lease
68. Which of the following is reported as interest expense? c. Finance lease
a. Pension cost interest d. Sales type lease
b. Postretirement health-care benefits interest
c. Imputed interest on noninterest-bearing note 77. An entity signed an agreement to lease land and a building for 20 years. At the end of the lease, the
d. Interest incurred to finance construction of machinery for own use. property will not transfer to the lessee. The life of the building is estimated to be 20 years. How should
the entity account for the lease?
69. The discount resulting from the determination of present value of a note payable should be reported a. The lease is recorded as a finance lease.
a. Addition to the face amount of the note. b. The lease is recorded as an operating lease.
b. Deferred charge separate from the note. c. The land is recorded as an operating lease and the building is recorded as a finance lease.
c. Deferred credit separate from the note. d. The land is recorded as a finance lease and the building is recorded as an operating lease.
d. Direct deduction from the face amount of the note.
78. What is the interest rate used by a lessee to capitalize a finance lease when the implicit rate cannot be
70. How should an entity calculate the net proceeds to be received from the bond issuance? determined?
a. Discount the bonds at the stated rate of interest. a. The prime rate
b. Discount the bonds at the market rate of interest. b. The lessor’s published rate
c. Discount the bonds at the stated rate of interest and deduct bond issuance cost. c. The lessee’s average borrowing rate
d. Discount the bonds at the market rate of interest and deduct bond issuance cost. d. The lessee’s incremental borrowing rate

71. Which is a true statement for electing the fair value option for valuing bonds payable? 79. Initial direct costs incurred by the lessor under a sales type lease should be
a. The effective interest method of amortization must be used to calculate interest expense. a. Deferred and allocated over the economic life of the leased property.
b. Discount or premium is disclosed in the notes to the financial statements. b. Expensed in the period incurred.
c. The fair value of the bond and the principal obligation value must be disclosed. c. Deferred and allocated over the term of the lease in proportion to the recognition of rental income.
d. If the fair value option is elected, it must be applied to all bonds. d. Added to the gross investment in the lease and amortized over the term of the lease as a yield
adjustment.
72. What method may be used to report the bonds payable at year-end?
a. Amortized cost 80. Which of the following statements is true about accounting for leases?
b. Fair value through other comprehensive income a. All leases are treated as finance lease
c. Amortized cost and fair value through other comprehensive income b. All leases are treated as operating lease
d. Amortized cost and fair value through profit or loss c. When land and building are leased, elements of the lease are considered separately in accounting for
the lease
73. Issued convertible bonds are d. Operating leases are never recorded in the statement of financial position
a. Separated into debt and equity components with the liability component recorded at fair value and the
residual assigned to the equity component 81. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the provisions for income taxes in the financial
b. Always recorded using the fair value option statements of a sole proprietorship?
c. Recorded at face value for the liability along with the associated premium or discount a. The provision for income taxes should be based on business income using individual tax rates.
d. Recorded at face value without consideration of a premium or discount. b. The provisions for income taxes should be based on business income using corporate tax rates.
c. The provision for income taxes should be based on the proprietor’s total taxable income.
74. Which of the following methods is used in IFRS to account for defined benefit plans? d. No provision for income taxes is required.
a. Projected unit credit method
b. Benefit-years-of-service method 82. Which is not subject to the application of intraperiod income tax allocation?
c. Accumulated benefits method a. Discontinued operations
d. Vested years of service method b. Income from continuing operations
c. Prior period errors
75. An entity has several pension plans covering various classes of employees. When may the entity net d. Operating income
assets and liabilities of the various plans?
a. Assets and liabilities may always be netted. 83. Which is correct about the presentation of deferred tax assets and liabilities?
b. Assets and liabilities may be netted when there is a legally enforceable right to use the assets of one a. Current deferred tax assets are netted against current deferred tax liabilities
plan to settle the obligations of another plan. b. All noncurrent deferred tax assets are netted against noncurrent deferred tax liabilities
c. When the estimated cash inflows and outflows are similar in pattern. c. Deferred tax assets are never netted against deferred tax liabilities
d. When the assets and liabilities are both financial. d. Deferred tax assets are netted against deferred tax liabilities if they relate to the same taxing authority.

76. An entity signed a lease to rent equipment for ten years.. At the end of the lease term, the entity may 84. Which of the following is true regarding reporting deferred taxes in financial statements prepared in
purchase the equipment for a nominal amount. The equipment is estimated to have a useful life of 12 accordance with IFRS?
years. How should the entity classify this lease? a. Deferred tax assets and liabilities are classified as current and noncurrent based on expiration date.
a. Operating lease b. Deferred tax assets and liabilities may only be classified as noncurrent.
 c. Deferred tax assets are always netted against deferred tax liabilities. d. Deducted from weighted-average shares outstanding for diluted earnings per share.
d. Deferred taxes of one jurisdiction are offset against another jurisdiction in the netting process.
93. In computing basic earnings per share, an entity would include which of the following?
85. When collectibility is reasonably assured, the excess of the subscription price over the stated value of a. Dividends on nonconvertible cumulative preference shares.
the no par ordinary shares subscribed should be recorded as b. Dividends on ordinary shares.
a. No par ordinary shares c. Interest on convertible bonds.
b. Share premium when the subscription is recorded. d. Number of nonconvertible cumulative preference shares.
c. Share premium capital when the subscription is collected.
d. Share premium capital when the ordinary shares are is issued. 94. The primary purpose of a quasi reorganization is to give an entity the opportunity to
a. Obtain relief from creditors.
86. A retained earnings appropriation can be used to b. Revalue understated assets to fair value.
a. Absorb a fire loss when an entity is self-insured. c. Eliminate a deficit in retained earnings.
b. Provide for a contingent loss that is probable and reasonably estimable. d. Distribute the shares of a newly created subsidiary to shareholders.
c. Smooth periodic income.
d. Restrict earnings available for dividends. 95. When an entity goes through a quasi reorganization, the carrying amounts are stated at
a. Original cost
87. In accounting for share-based compensation, what interest rate is used to discount both the exercise b. Original carrying amount
price of the option and the future dividend stream? c. Replacement value
a. The entity’s known incremental borrowing rate. d. Fair value
b. The current market rate that entities in that particular industry use to discount cash flows.
c. The risk-free interest rate. 96. Which of the following is not a method that may be used to account for treasury shares?
d. Any rate that entities can justify as being reasonable. a. Cost method
b. Par value method
88. In what circumstances is compensation expense immediately recognized? c. Retained earnings method
a. In all circumstances d. Constructive retirement method
b. In circumstances when the options are exercisable within two years for services rendered over the next
two years. 97. An entity has cosigned the mortgage note on the home of its president guaranteeing the indebtedness in
c. In circumstances when options are granted for prior service and the options are immediately the event that the president should default. The entity considers the likelihood of default to be remote.
exercisable. How should the guarantee be treated in the financial statements?
d. In no circumstances is compensation expense immediately recognized. a. Disclosed only
b. Accrued only
89. Compensation cost for a share-based payment to employees that is classified as liability is measured as c. Accrued and disclosed
a. The change in fair value of the instrument for each reporting period. d. Neither accrued nor disclosed
b. The total fair value at grant date.
c. The present value of cash payments due over the life of the grant. 98. If the payment of employees’ compensation for future absences is probable, the amount can be
d. The actual cash outlay for the period reasonably estimated and the obligation relates to rights that accumulate, the compensation should be
a. Accrued if attributable to employees’ services not yet rendered.
90. What is the measurement date for a share-based payment to employees that is classified as a liability? b. Accrued if attributable to employees’ services already rendered.
a. The service inception date c. Accrued if attributable to employees’ services whether already rendered or not.
b. The grant date d. Recognized when paid.
c. The settlement date
d. The end of the reporting period 99. For a troubled debt restructuring involving only a modification of terms, which of the following
specified by the new terms would be compared to the carrying amount of the debt to determine if the
91. In determining diluted earnings per share, dividends on nonconvertible cumulative preference shares debtor should report a gain on extinguishment of debt?
should be a. The total future cash payments
a. Disregarded b. The present value of the new debt at the original interest rate
b. Added back to net income whether declared or not. c. The present value of the new debt at the modified interest rate
c. Deducted from net income only if declared. d. The amount of future cash payments designated as principal repayments.
d. Deducted from net income whether declared or not.
100. The vested benefits of an employee in a pension plan represent
92. In determining earnings per share, interest expense, net of income tax, on convertible debt that is a. Benefits to be paid to the retired employee in the subsequent year.
dilutive should be b. Benefits accumulated in the hands of an dependent trustee
a. Added back to weighted-average shares outstanding for diluted earnings per share. c. Benefits to be paid to the retired employee in the current year.
b. Added back to net income for diluted earnings per share. d. Benefits that are not contingent on the employee’s continuing in service.
c. Deducted from net income for diluted earnings per share.
1. D 26. B 51. C 76. C

2. B 27. C 52. B 77. C

3. A 28. B 53. B 78. D

4. B 29. C 54. C 79. B

5. B 30. C 55. D 80. C

6. D 31. D 56. C 81. D

7. D 32. D 57. D 82. D

8. A 33. B 58. D 83. D

9. A 34. C 59. B 84. B

10. B 35. C 60. D 85. B

11. D 36. B 61. A 86. D

12. A 37. D 62. C 87. C

13. D 38. C 63. C 88. C

14. C 39. A 64. C 89. A

15. D 40. C 65. B 90. C

16. B 41. B 66. D 91. D

17. B 42. D 67. B 92. B

18. C 43. C 68. C 93. A

19. B 44. C 69. D 94. C

20. B 45. B 70. D 95. D

21. C 46. A 71. C 96. C

22. C 47. C 72. D 97. A

23. D 48. B 73. A 98. B

24. B 49. D 74. A 99. B

25. A 50. B 75. B 100. D